UPSC CDS (I) Examination Held on February 4, 2018
General Knowledge
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) The following consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below.
Give answer
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1. Statement I By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.
Statement II Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.
2. Statement I Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.
Statement II Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.
3. Statement I Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.
Statement II The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.
4. Statement I In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.
Statement II Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
5. Statement I Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and Sun and the rotation of the Earth.
Statement II The Earth rotates from West to East.
6. Statement I A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.
Statement II Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.
7. Statement I Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metalsand pesticides in an organism.
Statement II Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.
8. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?
(a) Silverfish
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Cuttlefish
(d) Flyingfish
9. In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored?
(a) Adipocyte
(b) Chondrocyte
(c) Osteocyte
(d) Reticulocyte
10. Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?
(a) Euglena : Flagellum
(b) Paramecium : Cilia
(c) Neries : Pseudopodia
(d) Starfish : Tuberfect
11. Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Ribosomes
12. A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
13. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?
(a) Deflection and advection
(b) Latent heat of condensation
(c) Expansion and compression of the air
(d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere
14. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation?
(a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
(b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
(c) All types of clouds
(d) Cirrocumulus cloud
15. Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?
(a) Jaisalmer
(b) Leh
(c) Chennai
(d) Guwahati
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
(a) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(c) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
17. Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. thus brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?
(a) Argon
(b) Xenon
(c) Neon
(d) Helium
18. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?
(a) Composition is variable.
(b) All particles of compound are of only one type.
(c) Particles of compound have two or more elements.
(d) Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.
19. Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?
(1) Mg(HCO3)2 (2) Ca(HCO3)2
(3) CaCl2 (4) MgSO4
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
20. Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?
(a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
(b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
(c) Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
(d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons
21. Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained?
(a) Principle of thermal equilibrium
(b) Principle of colours
(c) Principle of calorimetry
(d) Principle of vaporization
22. Two metallic wires made from copper have same length, but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes
(a) 2R
(b) R/2
(c) 
(d) 
23. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) scattering of light
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.
(a) A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3
(c) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
25. Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
(a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits
(b) Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing
(c) Conservation and management of marine resources
(d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables
26. In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project being implemented as a pilot investment?
(a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
(b) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
27. Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?
(1) The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
(2) The NWA is located in New Delhi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be
(a) P
(b) < P
(c) > P
(d) 2P
29. The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P0 + ρgh, where ρ is the fluid density. This expression is associated with
(a) Pascal’s law
(b) Newton’s law
(c) Bernoulli’s principle
(d) Archimedes’ principle
30. Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere
(1) Argon (2) Neon
(3) Helium (4) Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?
(a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
(b) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
(c) 4- 2 – 3 – 1
(d) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
31. Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its population?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
32. Extrusive volcanoes are not found in, which one of following mountains?
(a) Alaska
(b) Rocky
(c) Andes
(d) Himalayas
33. Which one of the following crops in not cultivates in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?
(a) Saffron
(b) Almond
(c) Walnut
(d) Ling nut
34. Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga
(1) Gandak (2) Kosi
(3) Ghaghara (4) Gomti
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from East to West?
(a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
(b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
(c) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
(d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
35. Which of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?
(a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
(b) It is a scheme for crop protection.
(c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.
(d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.
36. Which of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?
(a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls.
(b) It aims to convert India’s demographic suplus into a demographic dividend.
(c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.
(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.
37. Where is Hambantota Port located?
(a) Iran
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Japan
(d) Pakistan
38. The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?
(a) Eight
(b) Ten
(c) Twelve
(d) Fourteen
39. Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?
(a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.
(b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.
(c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national
(d) The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.
40. ‘SAMPRITI-2047’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and
(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
41. The judgement of the Supreme Court of Indian in the Vishakha Case pertains to
(a) sexual harassment in the work-place
(b) sati
(c) dowary death
(d) rape
42. The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was the held at
(a) Brasilia
(b) Sanya
(c) Yekaterinburg
(d) Durban
43. Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharashthi scripts?
(a) Piyadassi
(b) Colin Mackenzie
(c) Alexander Conningham
(d) James Prinsep
44. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya/Grants during 600 – 1200 AD?
(1) Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.
(2) These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.
(3) Most grants were made in unsettled areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
45. Who is the author of Manimekalai?
(a) Kovalan
(b) Sathanar
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Tirutakkatevar
46. Which of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?
(a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.
(b) It contains one large cave.
(c) It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.
(d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.
47. Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?
(1) He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.
(2) His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.
(3) He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.
(4) The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 1 and 4
48. Consider the following statements about impact of tax
(1) A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.
(2) A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to
(a) improve
(b) diminish
(c) remain constant
(d) first diminish and then improve
50.eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by
(a) Tata Consultancy Services
(b) Infosys Technologies Limited
(c) Wipro
(d) HCL Technologies
51. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
(1) They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
(2) The live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.
(3) The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
52. Consider the following statement :
“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”
The above statement is attributed to
(a) Sardar Patel
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Baden-Powell
53. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Swami Vivekananda
54. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayangara Empire.
(a) Mahanavami Dibba
(b) Lotus Maha
(c) Hazara Rama
(d) Virupaksha
55. The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?
(a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi
(b) Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Ibn aI-Arabi
(d) Bayazid Bistami
56. Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?
(a) Vinaya Pitaka
(b) Sutta Pitaka
(c) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(d) Mahavamsa
57. Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?
(a) Ahoka playued an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.
(b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
(c) They were located in rural areas.
(d) They were located close to trade routes.
58. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of eats in its Legislative Assembly?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
59. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?
(1) It is a discretionary power.
(2) The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?
(a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide-1985
(b) Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT-1994
(c) Inauguration of the World Trade Organization-1995
(d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)-1971
61. Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :
(1) ITBP is raised in 1962.
(2) ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.
(3) ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.
(4) ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) All of these
(d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?
(a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(b) Convention of the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against women
(c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(d) Declaration on the Right to Development
63. In the context of electrons in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?
(a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
(b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
(c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
(d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail
64. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
(a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
(b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation
(c) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
(d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities
65. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?
(1) Keoladeo National Park
(2) Sundarbans National Park
(3) Kaziranga National Park
(4) Ranthambore National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of these
66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
(a) A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1
(b) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1
(c) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4
67. Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?
(a) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.
(b) Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.
(c) Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart.
(d) Lymph only transports hormones.
68. Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?
(a) Pisces and Amphibia
(b) Amphibia and Reptilia
(c) Reptilia only
(d) Amphibia only
69. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?
(a) Lactic acid
(b) Ethanol
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Glucose
70. Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?
(a) It is a marketable security.
(b) It experiences price changes throughout the day.
(c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.
(d) An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.
71. Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?
(a) 55 yr
(b) 60 yr
(c) 65 yr
(d) 70 yr
72. The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by
(a) Sekar Karnam
(b) Vishakha Mulye
(c) Sriram Kalyanaraman
(d) YM Deosthalee
73. In October, 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the government of India to supply 1. 1 million tonnes of wheat that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through
(a) Iran
(b) Pakistan
(c) Tajikistan
(d) China
74. Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?
(1) It has been incorporated as Public Limited Company.
(2) It started its operation by establishment two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
(1) Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights
(2) Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim.
(3) Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
(4) Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
76. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person
(1) holds any office of profit under the government of India or the government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
(2) is an undischarged insolvent
(3) is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
(4) is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) All of these
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
77. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as recognized political party in how many States?
(a) At least two States
(b) At least three States
(c) At least four States
(d) At least five States
78. Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct?
(a) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.
(b) It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
(c) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
(d) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.
79. Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?
(1) Bijak in Varanasi
(2) Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan
(3) Adi Granth Sahib
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) All of these
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
80. Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?
(a) Potassium
(b) Caesium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
81. Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?
(a) Potassium
(b) Lithium
(c) Rubidium
(d) Caesium
82. Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
83. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of Chlorophyll in green plants?
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Magnesium
(d) Potassium
84. Consider the following chemical reaction :
aFe2O3(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + dCO2
In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c, and d respectively?
(a) 3, 2, 3, 1
(b) 1, 3, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3, 3, 1
(d) 3, 3, 2, 1
85. Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?
(a) to increase the life of the bulb
(b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
(c) To make the emitted light coloured
(d) To reduce the cost of the bulb
86. Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (tc)?
(a) These are two independent temperature scales
(b) T = tc
(c) T = tc – 273.15
(d) t = tc + 273.15
87. Sound waves cannot travel through a
(a) copper wire placed in air
(b) silver slab placed in air
(c) glass prism placed in water
(d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum
88. Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?
(a) 10−7 cm
(b) 10−6 cm
(c) 10−4 cm
(d) 10−3 cm
89. Consider the following statements
(1) There is not net moment on a body which is an equilibrium.
(2) The momentum of a body is always conserved.
(3) The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) All of these
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 1
90. Working of safety fuses depends upon
(1) magnetic effect of the current
(2) chemical effect of the current
(3) magnitude of the current
(4) heating effect of the current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) All of these
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 4
91. In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship 2017 held at Ho Chi Minch City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?
(a) 48 kg
(b) 51 kg
(c) 4 kg
(d) 57 kg
92. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day 2017?
(a) Soils and pulses, symbol for life
(b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground
(c) Soils, a solid ground for life
(d) Soils, foundation for family farming
93. Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men) 2017?
(a) Kidambi Srikanth
(b) HS Prannoy
(c) Ajay Jayaram
(d) Sai Praneeth
94. Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?
(1) It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.
(2) Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagawad Gita.
(b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.
(c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.
(d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.
96. Consider the following statements “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”
Who among the following European travelers had made the above statements about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?
(a) Francisco Pelsaert
(b) Francois Bernier
(c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(d) Niccolao Manucci
97. What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who area branch of the Ismaili sect?
(a) Ginan
(b) Ziyarat
(c) Raag
(d) Shahada
98. Who was/were the 10th century composer (s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham?
(a) Alvars
(b) Nayanars
(c) Appar
(d) Sambandar
99. Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?
(a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General
(b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
(c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
(d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral
100. Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?
(1) He is the first Law Officer of the government of India.
(2) He is entitled to the privileges of Member of the Parliament.
(3) He is a whole-time counsel for the government.
(4) He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
101. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts has Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?
(a) 35th
(b) 36th
(c) 37th
(d) 38th
102. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?
(a) Tibet
(b) Hong Kong
(c) Xinjiang
(d) Inner Mongolia
103. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?
(a) States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.
(b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
(c) States in India to not have the right to secede from the Union of India.
(d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
104. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031
(1) This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
(2) The NWAP us unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
(3) The NWAP has ten components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
105. Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Refinery products
(c) Fertilizer
(d) Coal
106. Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify
(1) continuous link between the master and disciple
(2) unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
(3) the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
107. In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?
(a) Surya Sukta
(b) Purusha Sukta
(c) Dana Stuits
(d) Urna Sutra
108. Which of the following statements about the Non-cooperation Movement is/are correct?
(1) It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.
(2) It was marked by non-Brahmin lower casted participation in Madras and Maharashtra.
(3) It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like
(4) It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 2
109. Which one of the following was a focus country of the ‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November, 2017 in New Delhi?
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Denmark
(d) Italy
110. Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series-India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Goa
(d) Madhya Pradesh
111. The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
(a) sports
(b) philately
(c) music
(d) web designing
112. Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?
(a) Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati
(b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
(c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
(d) Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath
113. Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) South Korea
(d) Pakistan
114. Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?
(a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.
(b) 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68% by value are moved through maritime transport.
(c) India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
(d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020.
115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) India joined MTCR in 2016.
(b) India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.
(c) India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.
(d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
116. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?
(a) 91st Amendment
(b) 87th Amendment
(c) 97th Amendment
(d) 90th Amendment
117. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?
(1) Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
(2) Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
(3) Coastal security in territorial waters
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) All of these
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only3
118. Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?
(a) Astra
(b) Akash
(c) Nirbhay
(d) Shankhnaad
119. The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred in Ist November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Limitd, Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?
(a) Dr. LD Papney
(b) Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
(c) Subir Chakraborty
(d) PD Siwal
120. In November, 2017, and India short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?
(a) Anurag Kashyap
(b) Dheeraj Jindal
(c) Sujoy Ghosh
(d) Samvida Nanda
ENGLISH
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) Given below are some idioms/phrases followed b y four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.
1. A hot potato
(a) A dish to relish when it is hot
(b) A very important person in a gathering
(c) An issue which is disputed and catching the attention of people
(d) A way of thinking what someone is thinking
2. You snooze, you lose
(a) Don’t take it lightly
(b) Don’t be over-enthusiastic
(c) Don’t hesitate to do it
(d) Don’t be pessimistic
3. I don’t buy it
(a) I don’t believe it
(b) I have no money
(c) I summarize it
(d) I don’t need it
4. My two cents
(a) My money
(b) My opinion
(c) My decision
(d) My explanation
5. Out of the blue
(a) Undoubtedly
(b) Unexpectedly
(c) Unbelievably
(d) Unconcerned
6. What a small world
(a) What a coincidence
(b) What a challenging task
(c) What a narrow space
(d) What a beautiful place
7. Down the road
(a) In future
(b) In the past
(c) At present
(d) No particular time
8. Raising eyebrows
(a) To show surprise
(b) Criticize
(c) Support
(d) Instruct
9. Step up the plate
(a) Take control
(b) Take a job
(c) Take a responsibility
(d) Take an opportunity
10. The Holy Grail
(a) The pious place of worship
(b) An important object or goal
(c) A very important place
(d) Someone’s destination of life
11. You scratch my back, I’ll scratch yours
(a) Mutual favour
(b) Mutual understanding
(c) Mutual respect
(d) Mutual disliking
12. At the drop of a hat
(a) Without any hesitation
(b) When attempt fails and it’s time to start all over
(c) To further a loss with mockery
(d) Judging other’s intentions too much
13. Ball is the your court
(a) Be happy at the dance/ball room
(b) It’s up to you to make the decision
(c) A very powerful person
(d) No speaking directly about an issue
14. Best of both worlds
(a) A happy person who is the best with all
(b) All the advantages
(c) To take on a task that is way too big
(d) Someone whom everybody likes
15. Costs an arm and a leg
(a) Severe punishment to someone
(b) Too much consciousness about one’s body
(c) Two difficult alternatives
(d) Something very expensive
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-30) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
………16…… to millions of people not only ………17……. all parts of India, but in …….. 18. countries around the world as well. …….19. October, 1966 Subbulakshmi was invited to …….20. in New York, where people of ………21…… foreign countries listened to her music …….22…… . This was one of the greatest ……….23……… ever given to any musician. For…..24…. together MS kept that international ……25….. spell-bound with the Te second Anglo-Maratha War had shattered the …..26….. of the beauty of her voice and her style of singing. Maratha chiefs, but not their spirit. The …….27….. of their freedom rankled in their hearts. They made a last ……28…… attempt to regain their independence and old ……29….. in 1817. The lead in organizing a united front of the Maratha chiefs was taken by the Peshwa who was smarting under the ……..30…… control exercised by the British Resident.
16.
(a) sorrow
(b) joy
(c) boredom
(d) pain
17.
(a) over
(b) on
(c) in
(d) with
18.
(a) strange
(b) unknown
(c) other
(d) familiar
19.
(a) Within
(b) On
(c) In
(d) By
20.
(a) dance
(b) sing
(c) speak
(d) enjoy
21.
(a) many
(b) few
(c) backward
(d) all
22.
(a) attentively.
(b) quietly.
(c) indifferently.
(d) boldly.
23.
(a) awards
(b) honours
(c) prizes
(d) recognitions
24.
(a) seconds
(b) minutes
(c) hours
(d) days
25.
(a) spectator
(b) audience
(c) viewer
(d) businessmen
26.
(a) power
(b) dignity
(c) time
(d) patience
27.
(a) disappearance
(b) empowerment
(c) loss
(d) disappointment
28.
(a) horrible
(b) desperate
(c) poor
(d) strong
29.
(a) prestige
(b) army
(c) rebellion
(d) infantry
30.
(a) pleasant
(b) satisfying
(c) rigid
(d) orthodox
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-50) Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the answer sheet against the corresponding letter. i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
31. The best way in which you can open the bottle is
(a) (b)
by putting it into hot water first. No error
(c) (d)
32.Somebody Who I enjoy reading is Tagore. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
33. Electricity companies are working throughout
(a) (b)
days and nights to repair the damage No error
(c) (d)
34. The students test results were pleasant. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
35. Two thirds of the book were rubbish. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36. You will be answerable for the court with
(a) (b)
any lies you have told. No error
(c) (d)
37. She felt terribly anxious for have to sing
(a) (b)
in front of such a large audience. No error
(c) (d)
38. I don’t agree with smacking children
(a) (b)
if they do something wrong. No error
(c) (d)
39. The fruit can be made to jam. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40. I asked him what he has done. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
41. There have been a tornado watch issued for Texas country
(a) (b)
until even O’clock tonight. No error
(c) (d)
42. Although the Red Cross accepts blood from the donors
(a)
the nurses will not leave you give blood,
(b)
if you have just had cold. No error
(c) (d)
43. A prism is used to refract white light so it spreads out
(a) (b)
in a continuous spectrum. No error
(c) (d)
44. Because of the movement of a glacier, the form
(a) (b)
of the Great Lakes was very slow. No error
(c) (d)
45. The new model costs twice more than last year’s model.
(a) (b) (c)
No error
(d)
46. Gandhi ji always regretted for the fact
(a)
that people gave him adulation while what he wanted
(b)
was acceptance of his way of life. No error
(c) (d)
47. The party was ousted in power after twelve years. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48. He was held in the prevention of Terrorism act. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. He has great fascination for each and every thin
(a) (b)
that are connected with drama. No error
(c) (d)
50. It’s no secret that the President wants to have a second term of office.
(a) (b) (c)
No error
(d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-70) In this section you have four short passages.
After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage-I
Over-population is the most pressing of India’s numerous and multi-faceted problems. In fact it has caused equally complex problems such as poverty, under-nourishment, unemployment and excessive fragmentation of land. Indisputably, this country has been facing a population explosion of crisis dimensions. In has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress that the nation has made during the last four decades or so. The entire battle against poverty is thwarted by the rapid increase in the population. The tragedy is that while over-population accentuates poverty, the country’s stark poverty itself is in many areas a major cause of over-population.
51. What is the irony behind the over-population of India?
(a) Over-population gives birth to poverty, which (poverty) itself is the cause of over-population.
(b) Under nourishment and unemployment are outcomes of flawed economic progress.
(c) Fragmentation of land is leading to over-population.
(d) Fruits of the remarkable economic progress are trickling down to the poor.
52. What is the general tone of the passage?
(a) funny/humorous
(b) sombre
(c) didactic
(d) tragic
53. What, in the author’s view, severely affects the economic growth of our country?
(a) poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) over-population
(d) None of these
54. What, according to the author, is the biggest reason behind over-population?
(a) under-nourishment
(b) unemployment
(c) excessive fragmentation of land
(d) poverty
55. ‘It has largely diluted the fruits of the remarkable economic progress’. Find antonym of the underline word
(a) coalesced
(b) compounded
(c) cheapened
(d) consolidated
Passage-2
To eat and not be eaten – that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in which to feed and rest. Adopting different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that may four the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young levels, the minute citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus kepping its appetizing body safely under wraps.
56. Which varieties of caterpillars ‘build’ shelters to protect themselves?
(a) Leaf roller and aquatic larva
(b) Leaf roller and jelly slug
(c) Jelly slug and aquatic larva
(d) Jelly slug and citrus leaf miner
57. Which one of the following cater pillars produces a sticky covering?
(a) Leaf roller
(b) Jelly slug
(c) Aquatic larva
(d) Citrus leaf miner
58. Which one of the following pairs of words in the passage describes enemies of the caterpillar?
(a) Serpentine and host
(b) Predator and marauding
(c) Serpentine and marauding
(d) Predator and host
59. Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable?
(a) Leaf roller
(b) Jelly slug
(c) Aquatic larva
(d) Leaf miner
60. The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars
(a) like to eat a lot
(b) have to protect themselves while feeding
(c) are good to eat
(d) are not good to eat
Passage-3
I have always opposed the idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the Occident. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the West what it is. I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the 12th of 13th century would not have been very great. Difference have been intensified by this process f industrialization which has promoted material well-being tremendously and which is destroying the life of the mind, which is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by it does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think. If the life of the mind is not encouraged, then inevitably civilization collapses.
61. The words ‘the Orient and the Occident’ mean
(a) the West and the East respectively
(b) the East and the West respectively
(c) the North and the South respectively
(d) the South and the North respectively
62. The author believes that the difference between India and Europe in the 12th or 13th century was not very great because
(a) Indian and Europeans mixed freely
(b) Indians imitated the European way of living
(c) Europeans imitated the Indian way of living
(d) Industrialization had not yet taken place
63. In the opinion of the author, Industrialization is
(a) an absolute blessing
(b) an absolute curse
(c) neither a blessing nor a curse
(d) more of a curse than a blessing
64. The author says that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration because the modern generation is
(a) endowed with low mental powers
(b) too lazy to exert its mental powers
(c) taught that physical activities are more important than mental
(d) brought up in an environment unfavourable to the growth of the mental life
65. The title that best expresses the central idea of the passage is
(a) difference between the Occident and the Orient
(b) impact of Industrialization on our civilization
(c) advantages of Industrialization
(d) disadvantages of Industrialization
Passage-4
In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into a public vehicle. One day a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pick-rocket; and during the journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead a pair of sharp teeth inserted into this fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise drew the attention of other passengers to him.
66. Once the law in Delhi did not permit the people to
(a) carry dogs into private vehicles
(b) board a bus without ticket
(c) carry dogs into a public vehicle
(d) carry animals with them
67. In order to evade the law, the lady
(a) hid the dog under seat
(b) got off the bus
(c) gave the dog to a fellow passenger
(d) put the dog in the her pocket
68. The pick-pocket travelling with lady
(a) reported the matter to the conductor
(b) put his hand in her pocket
(c) took out the dog
(d) asked the lady to get off
69. Which one of the following correctly expresses the meaning of ‘whishing to evade the law’?
(a) Wish to avoid following the law
(b) Desire to follow the law blindly
(c) Reluctance to break the law
(d) Wish to change the law
70. Why did the pick-pocket exclaim with pain?
(a) He was hit by the lady
(b) He was caught by the fellow-passengers
(c) He was bitten by the dog
(d) He fell of the bus
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-80) In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.
71. S1 : First and foremost, there are order and safety in our civilization.
S6 : Nobody may come and break into my house and steal my goods.
P : Thus in disputes between man and man, right has taken the place of might.
Q : If today I have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker.
R : I go to law and the law will decide fairly between the two of us.
S : Moreover, the law protects me from robbery and violence.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R Q P S
(b) S R Q P
(c) Q R P S
(d) P R S Q
72. S1 : In democratic countries, men are equal before the law.
S6: And they live like this not for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room.
P : While some few people live in luxury, many have not enough to eat, drink and water
Q : There are many families of live or six persons who live in a single room.
R : But the sharing-out of money which means the sharing-out of food and clothing and houses is still very unfair.
S : In this room they sleep and dress and wash and eat and in this same room they die.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R P Q S
(b) P R S Q
(c) Q S P R
(d) S P R Q
73. S1: Tomorrow it will be a year since we lost great leader.
S6: Though he is no more with us, the qualities he possessed and the ideals he cherished remain with us.
P : To these he added a feminine sensitiveness to atmosphere.
Q : He was involved in the major events of his time.
R : He participated in them all while maintaining the highest standards of public conduct.
S : He was incomparably the greatest figure in our history – a man of dynamic force, intellectual power and profound vision.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P S R Q
(b) R Q P S
(c) R P Q S
(d) S P Q R
74. S1: It would be possible to adduce may examples showing what could be done with the limited means at our ancestor’s disposal in the way of making life comfortable.
S6 : I hope, in t his essay, to make that connection manifest.
P : What have comfort and cleanliness to do witih politics, morals and religion?
Q : But look more closely and you will discover that there exists the closest connection between the recent growth of comfort and the recent history of ideas.
R : They show that if they lived in fifth and discomfort, it was because fifth and discomfort fitted in which their principles, political, moral and religious.
S : At a first glance one would say that there could be no casual connection between arm chairs and democracies, sofas and the family system, hot baths and religious orthodoxy.
The correct sequence should b e
(a) P R Q S
(b) R P S Q
(c) Q S R P
(d) Q S P R
75. S1 : To most people, the term technology conjures up images of mills or machines.
S6: It includes to make chemical reactions occurs, ways to breed fish, plant forests or teach history.
P : The classic symbol of technology is still the assembly line created by Henry Ford half a century ago.
R : Moreover, technology includes techniques, as well as the machines that may or may not be necessary to apply them.
S : This symbol, however, has always been inadequate, for technology has always been more than factories and machines.
The correct sequence should be
(a) S P R Q
(b) P S Q R
(c) R S P Q
(d) Q S R P
76. S1 : I was the secretary of the Philosophical Society of the Patna College.
S6: I have been to Kolkata many times since, but never has it been more pleasant than that first visit.
P : It was my first visit to the city and its impression on my mind was indelible.
Q : In that capacity, I once led a trip to Kolkata.
R : I felt I had landed in the midst of beautiful dream world of a fairy land.
S : I saw the roads, the trams, the skyscrapers and the magnificent shops at the Chowranghee lane.
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P S R
(b) P S Q R
(c) S R P Q
(d) S Q R P
77. S1: Union Finance Ministry announced a series of concessions to trade and industry last month.
S6: Manufacturers feel that prices of certain components may not be brought down because of the imposition of a 30% duty where there was none earlier.
P : Together, these will result in a loss of revenue of Rs 100 crore to the exchequer.
Q : Earlier, these were attracting customs duty varying from zero to 100%.
R : The chunk of the relief of Rs 60 crore has gone to the electronics industry.
S: Raw materials and piece parts now carry customs duty of 30% and 40% and valorem respectively.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R S Q P
(b) P R S Q
(c) S Q P R
(d) Q P R S
78. S1 : At four O’clock this morning, Hitler attacked and invaded Russia.
S6: Under its cloak of false confidence, the German armies drew up in immense strength along a line which stretches from the White Sea to the Black Sea.
P : No complaint had been made by Germany of its non0fullfilment.
Q : All his usual formalities of perfidy were observed with scrupulous technique.
R : No one could have expected that Hitler would do it.
S : A non-aggression treaty had been solemnly signed and was in force between the two countries.
The correct sequence should be
(a) R Q S P
(b) R S Q P
(c) P S Q R
(d) Q P S R
79. S1: Roderick Usher has always been a quiet person who talked little of himself.
S6: In the part of the country where he lived, the ‘House of Usher’ had come to mean both the family and its ancestral mansion.
P : Many of his ancestors had been famous for their artistic and musical abilities.
Q : Others were known for their exceptional generosity and charity.
R : Yet I did know that his family was an old one.
S : So I did not know too much about him.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S R Q P
(c) S P R Q
(d) S R P Q
80. S1 : Mass production has increased the tendency to view things as useful rather than delightful.
S6 : Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is substituted for more primitive methods.
P : These various things share northing with the buttons except money value.
Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter and many other things.
R : Suppose you are a manufacturer of buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use.
S : And it is not even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by lowering their quality.
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) R Q P S
(c) S P Q R
(d) Q R P S
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Each item in this section consist of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response.
81. It was a mystery as to where the young girl had acquired such naïve
(a) credulous
(b) childlike
(c) wise
(d) innocent
82. It’s the only treatment suitable for cancer.
(a) insufficient
(b) impertinent
(c) befitting
(d) congenial
83. Some of the criticisms which they had to put up were very unfair.
(a) scold
(b) scorn
(c) appreciation
(d) censure
84. I would beg of all friends not to rush to Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be anxious about me.
(a) certain
(b) composed
(c) careless
(d) heedless
85. It could not have been expected that, with such a bent of mind of the people, there should have been much activity for the cultivation of the physical sciences in this part of the world.
(a) dull
(b) dormant
(c) indolence
(d) idle
86. Indian culture has been from time immemorial, of a peculiar cast and mould.
(a) common
(b) customary
(c) natural
(d) familiar
87. The princess charming was the centre of attraction today.
(a) enchanting
(b) hypnotic
(c) repulsive
(d) fascinating
88. Macbeth is a/an abominable
(a) abhorrent
(b) repugnant
(c) reputable
(d) attractive
89. Terrorists profess fanatical
(a) bigoted
(b) militant
(c) moderate
(d) fervid
90. Rakesh is vulnerable to political pressure.
(a) weak
(b) unguarded
(c) exposed
(d) resilient
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words for group of word given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
91. In the face of the overwhelming mass of evidence against him, we cannot ……… him of the crime.
(a) punish
(b) absolve
(c) release
(d) ignore
92. I hope that the rain will ……… for our picnic tomorrow.
(a) keep off
(b) put off
(c) set back
(d) stay out
93. After the marathon, some of the competitors felt completely … .
(a) cut up
(b) done in
(c) done out
(d) run out
94. Scarcely …………. the teacher entered the class when he heard the noise.
(a) did
(b) has
(c) had
(d) will have
95. I do not think he will ever …….. the shock of his wife’s death.
(a) get by
(b) get off
(c) get through
(d) get over
96. It is not use in crying over ……… .
(a) spoiled milk
(b) spirited milk
(c) split milk
(d) spilt milk
97. You must go to the station now, your brother …………… go just yet as his train leaves after three hours.
(a) shouldn’t
(b) mustn’t
(c) wouldn’t
(d) needn’t
98. Every rash driver becomes a ………. killer.
(a) sure
(b) reckless
(c) potential
(d) powerful
99. The country owes a deep debt of ………. for the freedom fighters.
(a) patriotism
(b) sincerity
(c) remembrance
(d) gratitude
100. The whole lot young men was very enthusiastic but your friend alone was ……….. .
(a) quarrelsome
(b) complaining
(c) a wet blanket
(d) sleepy
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response.
101. A truly respectable old man is a ripe
(a) senior
(b) mature
(c) perfect
(d) seasoned
102. The soldiers repulsed the enemy.
(a) defeated
(b) destroyed
(c) rejected
(d) repelled
103. She deftly masked her feelings.
(a) hid
(b) flaunted
(c) oblique
(d) obscured
104. Vendors must have license.
(a) One who drives a car
(b) One who works in a hospital
(c) One who is employed in food serving
(d) One engaged in selling
105. They will not admit children under fourteen.
(a) avow
(b) receive
(c) accept
(d) concede
106. The jewels have been stolen from her bedroom.
(a) embezzled
(b) asserted
(c) yielded
(d) abdicated
107. The soldier showed an exemplary
(a) flawed
(b) faulty
(c) ideal
(d) boisterous
108. They served fruits after the dinner.
(a) assisted
(b) obliged
(c) waited
(d) offered
109. the committee should recommend his name to the government.
(a) praise
(b) advise
(c) counsel
(d) suggest
110. Can medicines save us from death?
(a) hide
(b) rescue
(c) protect
(d) liberate
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-120) Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the pars of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled, P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
111. P : the British manufactures
Q : popularity of Indian textiles
R : were jealous of the
S : from the very beginning
The correct answer should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S P Q R
(c) S P R Q
(d) Q R S P
112. P : dress fashions changed and light cotton
Q : of the English
R : textiles began to replace
S : the coarse woolens
The correct answer should be
(a) P R S Q
(b) R S P Q
(c) Q P R S
(d) S P R Q
113. P : put pressure on their government
Q : Indian goods in England
R : the British manufacturers
S : to restrict and prohibit
The correct answer should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S P R Q
(c) R P S Q
(d) Q R S P
114. P : however
Q : still held their own in foreign markets
R : in spite of these laws
S : India silk and cotton textiles
The correct answer should be
(a) Q P R S
(b) S P R Q
(c) S R P Q
(d) R P S Q
115. P : and it led to rapid economic development
Q : the Industrial Revolution
R : transformed the British
S : society in a fundamental manner
The correct answer should be
(a) S P R Q
(b) Q P R S
(c) Q R S P
(d) S R P Q
116. P : Muhammad Iqbal
Q : the philosophical and religious outlook of people through his poetry
R : profoundly influenced
S : one of the greatest poets of modern India
The correct answer should be
(a) Q R S P
(b) S R Q P
(c) S R P Q
(d) S P R Q
117. P : to accept any of the important
Q : disillusionment
R : demands of the nationalists produced
S : the failure of the British government
The correct answer should be
(a) S P R Q
(b) P Q R S
(c) S R Q P
(d) Q R P S
118. P : showed that a backward
Q : the rise of
R : modern Japan after 1868
S : Asian country could develop itself without Western control
The correct answer should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S R Q P
(c) P R Q S
(d) Q R P S
119. P : and the current Hindu emphasis
Q : and urged the people to imbibe the spirit of free-thinking
R : or rituals, ceremonies and superstitions.
S : Vivekananda condemned the caste system
The correct answer should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S P R Q
(c) S P Q R
(d) R P S Q
120. John
P : who was hardly six months old
Q : Charles
R : as his son
S : adopted
The correct answer should be
(a) S Q R P
(b) P S Q R
(c) R S P Q
(d) P R S Q
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