JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
PHYSICS
1. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies
(a) the total kinetic energy is conserved
(b) the total mechanical energy is not conserved
(c) the linear momentum is not conserved
(d) the linear momentum is conserved
2. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true ?
(a) ∆U = −W in an adiabatic process
(b) ∆U = W in an isothermal process
(c) ∆U = −W in an isothermal process
(d) ∆U = W in an adiabatic process
3. Aerofils are so designed that the speed of air
(a) on top side is more than on lower side
(b) on top side is less than on lower side
(c) is same on both sides
(d) is turbulent
4. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
5. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because, in the second medium
(a) the frequency is different
(b) the coefficient of elasticity is different
(c) the speed is different
(d) the amplitude is smaller
6. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat?
(a) r = 2r0; l = 2l0
(b) r = 2r0; l = l0
(c) r = r0; l = l0
(d) r = r0; l = 2l0
7. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/√2
(d) √2
8. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is
(a) 200 J
(b) 100 J
(c) zero
(d) 1000 J
9. Interference was observed in an interference chamber when air was present. Now, the chamber is evacuated and if the same light is used, a careful observation will show
(a) no interference
(b) interference with bright band
(c) interference with dark bands
(d) interference in which breadth of the fringe will be slightly increased
10. When a charged particle moving with velocity 
is subjected to a magnetic field of induction 
the force on it is non-zero. This implies that
(a) angle between 
is necessarily 90°
(b) angle between can have any value other than 90°
(c) angle between can have any value other than zero and 180°
(d) angle between is either zero or 180°
11. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3
How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?
(a) 24 m
(b) 40 m
(c) 56 m
(d) 16 m
12. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
(b) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
(c) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
(d) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
13. When power is drawn from the secondary coil of the transformer, the dynamic resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) changes erratically
14. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is the effect on kinetic energy of molecules?
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) No change
(d) Can’t be determined
15. What maximum frequency can be reflected from ionosphere?
(a) 5 MHz
(b) 6 GHz
(c) 5 kHz
(d) 500 MHz
16. A telescope has focal length of objective and eye-piece as 200 cm and 5 cm respectively. What is magnification of telescope?
(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 50
(d) 0.01
17. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm. If the distance between their centres is 3.2 cm, what is the shift in the centre of mass of the disc?
(a) 0.4 cm
(b) 2.4 cm
(c) 1.8 cm
(d) 1.2 cm
18. Hydrogen bomb is based upon
(a) fission
(b) fusion
(c) chemical reaction
(d) transmutation
19. What is not true for equipotential surface for uniform electric field?
(a) Equipotential surface is flat
(b) Equipotential surface is spherical
(c) Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface
(d) Work done is zero
20. A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is the frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)
(a) 300 Hz
(b) 350 Hz
(c) 375 Hz
(d) 415 Hz
21. The displacement of particle is given by
What is its acceleration?
(a) 2a2/3
(b) −2a2/3
(c) a2
(d) Zero
22. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body gives
(a) impulse
(b) change in momentum per unit mass
(c) change in KE per unit mass
(d) total change in energy
23. The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is ω. Its speed is increased to x times to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is
(a) 1
(b) 8.5
(c) 17
(d) 34
24. Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10−11 The accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray machine should be
(a) < 124 kV
(b) > 124 kV
(c) between 60 kV and 70 kV
(d) = 100 kV
25. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has a certain minimum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence
26. A capacitor having capacitance 1 μF with air, is filled with two dielectrics as shown. How m any times capacitance will increase?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 8/3
(d) 3
27. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be
(a) brown
(b) black
(c) red
(d) green
28. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (k) has a value
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.1
(d) 2.5
29. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 Ω is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 Ω. If the total currents is 1 A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be
(a) 0.25 A
(b) 0.8 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.5 A
30. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out
(a) the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour
(b) light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity
(c) it stops working suddenly while giving white light
(d) colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced
31. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?
(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) None, all have same wavelength
32. When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water
(a) does not change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) may either increase or decrease depending on the process used
33. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B nuclei is
(a) 1 : 16
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 1
34. Given that 
where y and x are measured in metre. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The unit of λ is same as that of x and A
(b) The unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A
(c) The unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ
(d) The unit(ct – x) is same as that of 2π/λ
35. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms−1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is
(a) 15 s
(b) 10.98 s
(c) 5.49 s
(d) 2.745 s
36. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the motor cycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) fluctuates erratically
37. If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4 m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce to half of the initial value?
(Take g = 10 ms−2)
(a) 4 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 0.4 m
38. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to separated the two plates is
(a) 102 dyne
(b) 104 dyne
(c) 105 dyne
(d) 106 dyne
39. Which of the following is true for rays coming from infinity?
(a) Two images are formed
(b) Continuous image is formed between focal points of upper and lower lens
(c) One image is formed
(d) None of the above
40. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along the perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current in the conducting plane will be
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) clockwise
(d) anticlockwise
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Chemistry
1. Plaster of paris is
(a) 
(b) CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O
(c) CaSO4 ∙ H2O
(d) CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O
2. The most stable compound is
(a) LiF
(b) LiCl
(c) LiBr
(d) LiI
3. Heavy water is
(a) CaSO4
(b) water contain CaSO4, MgSO4
(c) D2O
(d) water contain CaCO3
4. When copper reacts with hot and conc.H2SO4, gives
(a) H2
(b) N2
(c) O2
(d) SO2
5. BaO2 and ozone react to produce
(a) Ba
(b) Ba2O3
(c) BaO
(d) Ba(OH)3
6. Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be explained as
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
7. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of 1 : 4by weight. The ratio of their number of molecules is
(a) 1 : 8
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 : 16
(d) 7 : 32
8. Bleaching powder is obtained by treating Cl2 with
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) CaO
(c) CaCO3
(d) CaCl2
9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is
(a) 6.6 × 10−33 m
(b) 6.6 × 10−36 m
(c) 3.3 × 10+33 m
(d) 3.3 × 10−36 m
10. The volume of a gas measured at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 10 L. To reduce the volume to 2 L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required is
(a) 60 K
(b) 75 K
(c) 150 K
(d) 225 K
11. The number of moles of oxygen obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of 108 g water is
(a) 2.5
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7.5
12. The change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mole of ice [mp of ice = 273 K, molar enthalpy of fusion for ice = 6.0 kJ mol−1]
(a) 11.73 JK−1 mol−1
(b) 18.84 JK−1 mol−1
(c) 21.97 JK−1 mol−1
(d) 24.47 JK−1 mol−1
13. Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution ?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
14. Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
15. Pure silicon doped with phosphorus is a metallic conductor
(a) metallic conductor
(b) insulator
(c) n-type semiconductor
(d) p-type semiconductor
16. Neutron is discovered by
(a) Chadwick
(b) Rutherford
(c) Yukawa
(d) Dalton
17. What is X in the following nuclear reaction?
7N14 + 1H1 → 8O15 + X
(a) 0n1
(b) −1e0
(c) +1e0
(d) γ
18. Solubility product PbCl2 at 298 K is 1 × 10−6. At this temperature solubility of PbCl2 in mol/L is
(a) (1 × 10−6)1/2
(b) (1 × 10−6)1/3
(c) (0.25 × 10−6)1/3
(d) (2.5 × 10−6)1/2
19. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10
20. Gold number is associated with
(a) amount of gold
(b) protective colloids
(c) purple cassius
(d) electrophoresis
21. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes to give different colours. Reddish-orange glow is due to
(a) Ar
(b) Ne
(c) Xe
(d) Kr
22. The set representing the correct order for first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > Li
(b) Be > Mg > Ca
(c) B > C > N
(d) Ge > Si > C
23. Dry ice is
(a) solid CO2
(b) solid camphor
(c) solid SO2
(d) solid NO2
24. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(a) covalent character
(b) hydrogen bonding character
(c) oxygen bonding character
(d) None of the above
25. Stereoisomers differ in
(a) configuration
(b) conformation
(c) they do not differ
(d) None of the above
26. IUPAC name of the following compound
(a) N, N-dimethylcyclopropane caboxamide
(b) N-methylcyclopropanamide
(c) cyclopropionamide
(d) None of the above
27. The product of the following reaction is
2CH3MgBr + CH2O →
(a) CH3OH
(b) C2H5OH
(c) CH4
(d) C2H6
28. Freon used as refrigerant is
(a) CF2 = CF2
(b) CH2F2
(c) CH4
(d) C2H6
29. Lucas reagent is
(a) anhy. ZnCl2 and NH3
(b) anhy. ZnCl2 and CaCl2
(c) anhy. ZnCl2 and conc. HCl
(d) anhy. ZnCl2 and HCl gas
30. The enzyme which can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
(a) zymase
(b) invertase
(c) maltase
(d) diastase
31. When dihydroxy acetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/are
(a) HCHO
(b) HCOOH
(c) HCHO and HCOOH
(d) HCHO and CO2
32. Which of the following does not reduce Fehling’s solution?
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Formic acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Fructose
33. Sodium formate on heating gives
(a) oxalic acid and H2
(b) sodium oxalate and H2
(c) sodium oxalate
(d) CO2 and caustic soda
34. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives
(a) n-propyl alcohol
(b) isopropyl alcohol
(c) acetaldehyde
(d) acetone
35. Hydrolysis of phenyl isocyanide forms
(a) benzoic acid
(b) formic acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) None of these
36. Styrene can be purified by
(a) simple distillation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) steam distillation
(d) vacuum distillation
37. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Lactose
(d) Sucrose
38. The monomer of Teflon is
(a) CHF = CH2
(b) CF2 = CF2
(c) CHCl = CHCl
(d) CHF = CHCl
39. The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d
40. A fruity smell is produced by the reaction of C2H5OH with
(a) CH3COCH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) PCl5
(d) CH3CHO
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Zoology
1. Moulting hormone is secreted by
(a) corpora cardiacum
(b) corpora allata
(c) neurosecretory hormone
(d) prothoracic gland
2. Movements by pseudopodia of Amoeba are due to change in
(a) Pressure
(b) atmosphere
(c) temperature
(d) viscosity
3. From outer to inside the sequence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is
(a) malleus, stapes and incus
(b) stapes, malleus and incus
(c) malleus, incus and stapes
(d) incus, malleus and stapes
4. The reabsorption of water in the kidney is under the control of
(a) LH
(b) ADH
(c) STH
(d) ACTH
5. Yersinia pestis is responsible for
(a) syphilis
(b) whooping cough
(c) plague
(d) leprosy
6. Protein present in silk fibre is
(a) casein
(b) keratin
(c) elastin
(d) fibroin
7. Ovulation takes place in a month between
(a) 11-14 day
(b) 14-16 day
(c) 15-28 day
(d) 21-26 day
8. In sea anemone, the symmetry is
(a) radial
(b) bilateral
(c) spherical
(d) absent
9. Compound squamous epithelium is found in
(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) trachea
(d) pharynx
10. Solenocytes are associated with
(a) respiration
(b) digestion
(c) excretion
(d) nutrition
11. The cavity of diencephalon is known as
(a) I ventricle
(b) II ventricle
(c) III ventricle
(d) iter
12. Which vitamin should not be stored?
(a) Calciferol
(b) Retinol
(c) Niacin
(d) Ascorbic acid
13. Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is
(a) Neophilina
(b) Peripatus
(c) Periplaneta
(d) Limulus
14. Shell of mollusks is derived from
(a) foot
(b) mantle
(c) ctenidia
(d) placoid
15. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
(a) house lizard
(b) flying fish
(c) pigeon
(d) tadpole of frog
16. A man of ‘A’ blood group marries a woman of ‘AB’ blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?
(a) O
(b) B
(c) A
(d) AB
17. Balbiani rings are the structural features of
(a) allosomes
(b) polytene chromosomes
(c) autosomes
(d) Lampbrush chromosomes
18. Presence of tail in a child is an example of
(a) atavism
(b) divergent evolution
(c) convergent evolution
(d) mutation
19. Action potential is generated by
(a) Na+
(b) K+
(c) Ca+
(d) Cl−
20. Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by
(a) lens
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) optic nerve
21. Indian rhinoceros are protected in
(a) Gir Forest
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Ranthambore National Park
22. Mitotic spindle have main protein
(a) tubulin
(b) myosin
(c) tropomyocin
(d) dynein
23. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by
(a) androgen
(b) progesterone
(c) estrogen
(d) testosterone
24. X-linked recessive gene is
(a) always expressed in male
(b) always expressed in female
(c) lethal
(d) sub lethal
25. Ligament is mainly made up of
(a) reticulin
(b) elastin
(c) myosin
(d) collagen
26. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
(a) gastrin
(b) secretin
(c) enterogasteron
(d) enterokinase
27. Crossing over occurs in
(a) zygotene
(b) leptotene
(c) pachytene
(d) diplotene
28. Mesozoic era is Golden period of
(a) reptiles
(b) Mollusca
(c) fishes
(d) amphibians
29. Hamburger shift is also known as
(a) bicarbonate shift
(b) chloride shift
(c) potassium shift
(d) All of the above
30. “Bundle of His” are
(a) nervous tissue supplied to ventricles
(b) nervous tissue supplied to heart
(c) muscular tissue supplied to ventricle
(d) muscular tissue supplied to heart
31. Cell theory was proposed by
(a) Virchow
(b) Schleiden and Schwann
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) B McClintock
32. Who for the first time developed electron microscope?
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Rudolf and Kolliker
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Swanson
33. Repressor protein is produced by
(a) regulator gene
(b) operator gene
(c) structural gene
(d) promoter gene
34. Autonomic nervous system affects
(a) reflex actions
(b) sensory organs
(c) internal organ
(d) None of these
35. Schizogony occurs in
(a) RBC of human
(b) intestine of parasite
(c) liver of human
(d) liver of parasite
36. Gases found in primitive atmosphere are
(a) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O (vapour form)
(b) CH4, NH3, CO2, H2O
(c) CH4, H2O, CO2
(d) CH4, O2, CO2
37. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are
(a) nurse cell
(b) reproductive cell
(c) receptor cell
(d) None of the above
38. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration, the capacity of lungs is known as
(a) vital capacity
(b) tidal volume
(c) IRV
(d) ERV
39. Which one is the sweetest sugar ?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
40. Species can be identified on the basis of
(a) interbreed
(b) species diversity
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) None of the above
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
Botany
1. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) Fungi
2. Water bloom is generally caused by
(a) green algae
(b) blue-green algae
(c) bacteria
(d) Hydrilla
3. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?
(a) Riccia fluitans
(b) Buxbaumia aphylla
(c) Funaria hygrometrica
(d) Sphagnum
4. A genophore is made up of
(a) a single double stranded DNA
(b) a single stranded DNA
(c) RNA and histones
(d) histones and non-histones
5. Iodine is obtained from
(a) Laminaria
(b) Chlorella
(c) Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra
6. Covered smut of barley is caused by
(a) Ustilago hordei
(b) Tilletia caries
(c) Ustilago nuda
(d) Colletotrichum falcatum
7. Root hair absorbs water from soil through
(a) turgor pressure
(b) ion exchange
(c) osmosis
(d) DPD
8. In CAM plants, CO2 acceptor is
(a) RuBP
(b) PEP
(c) OAA
(d) PGA
9. Which one of the following is a natural growth inhibitor?
(a) NAA
(b) ABA
(c) IAA
(d) GA
10. Apical dominance is caused by
(a) auxin
(b) gibberellin
(c) kinetin
(d) ABA
11. Growth of pollen tube towards emryo sac is
(a) geotropism
(b) thigmotaxis
(c) chemotaxis
(d) All of these
12. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in
(a) forest fires
(b) global warming
(c) skin cancer incidence
(d) None of the above
13. Which of the following is a test cross ?
(a) Tt × tt
(b) TT × tt
(c) Tt × Tt
(d) tt × tt
14. 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in
(a) complementary genes
(b) blending inheritance
(c) multiple alleles
(d) pseudo alleles
15. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?
(a) Deoxyribose
(b) Ribose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Maltose
16. Stop codons are
(a) AUG, GUG
(b) UAA, UGA, UAG
(c) UAC, UGG
(d) AGU, AGA, UAC
17. A lake with nutrients is called
(a) trophic
(b) euphotic
(c) oligotrophic
(d) eutrophic
18. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral?
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Shortening of internodes
(d) Necrosis
19. Retrovirus have genetic material
(a) DNA only
(b) RNA only
(c) DNA or RNA only
(d) either DNA or RNA only
20. DCMU
(a) inhibits PS-I
(b) inhibits PS-II
(c) destroy chloroplast
(d) inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
21. According to Kyoto protocol the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases by
(a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2018
22. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from root because
(a) it lacks chlorophyll
(b) it stores food
(c) it has nodes and internodes
(d) it has xylem and vessels
23. During DNA replication in prokaryotes DNA is anchored to
(a) chromosome
(b) mesosome
(c) nucleolus
(d) ribosome
24. The mineral present in cell wall is
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) K
(d) Mg
25. Male gamete in angiosperm is produced by
(a) generative cell
(b) microspore cell
(c) vegetative cell
(d) tube cell
26. Meristematic tissue in vascular bundle is
(a) phellem
(b) procambium
(c) interfascicular cambium
(d) fascicular cambium
27. Study of Ecology of population is called
(a) Autecology
(b) Synecology
(c) Ecotype
(d) Demecology
28. Which of the following plant is LDP?
(a) Xanthium
(b) Soybean
(c) Wheat
(d) Tobacco
29. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?
(a) Bacillus thurengiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) All of the above
30. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis of Beadle and Tatum was experimentally proved on
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Neurospora crassa
(c) Lathyrus odoratus
(d) Claviceps
31. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
(a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
(c) Guanine
(d) Cytosine
32. Which organelle is present in higher number in secretory cells?
(a) Dictyosome
(b) ER
(c) Lysosome
(d) Vacuole
33. Bio-indicators are used for
(a) oxygen demand
(b) air pollution
(c) mineral present
(d) All of the above
34. What happened when we inoculated Rhizobium in wheat field?
(a) No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)
(b) A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increases)
(c) Fertility of soil decreases
(d) Fertility of soil increases
35. Nitrifying bacteria are able to
(a) convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble forms
(b) convert ammonia to nitrate
(c) ammonia to nitrogen
(d) nitrate to nitrogen
36. RNA is not found in
(a) chromosome
(b) plasmalemma
(c) nucleolus
(d) ribosome
37. Systema Naturae was written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Aristotle
(c) Hippocrates
(d) Darwin
38. Number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 14, then the number of chromosomes in synergid cells will be
(a) 14
(b) 7
(c) 28
(d) 21
39. Phytochrome is present in
(a) vascular cryptogam
(b) prokaryotes
(c) flowering plants
(d) algae
40. Vessels and companion cells are found in
(a) angiosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) thallophytes
JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008
General English
Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
1. To throw dust in one’s eyes
(a) To show false things
(b) To make blind
(c) To harm someone
(d) To deceive
2. To be rolling in money
(a) Wasting a lot of money
(b) Very rich
(c) Borrowing money liberally
(d) Spending more than his income
3. To get into hot waters
(a) To be impatient
(b) To suffer a huge financial loss
(c) To get into trouble
(d) To be in a confused state of mind
4. To save one’s face
(a) To hide oneself
(b) To oppose
(c) To evade disgrace
(d) To say plainly
5. To wash one’s dirty linen in public
(a) To criticize one’s nature in public
(b) To quarrel in the open
(c) To do some ugly work in public
(d) To discuss dirty and scandalous matters of personal nature in the presence of strangers
Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.
6. There was so much ………. material in the speech that it was difficult to know what the speaker wanted to say.
(a) banal
(b) extraneous
(c) superficial
(d) variegated
7. Our flight was ……….. from Jaipur to Agra airport.
(a) deflected
(b) shifted
(c) diverted
(d) reverted
8. His ……….. handling resulted in all that destruction and damage.
(a) inept
(b) skilful
(c) sophisticated
(d) uncouth
9. Rabindranath Tagore was a ……… writer of his times.
(a) true
(b) fantastic
(c) profound
(d) prolific
10. The manager tried hard to ………….. his men to return to work before declaring a lockout.
(a) motivate
(b) persuade
(c) encourage
(d) permit
Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.
11. Little
(P) that he had been let down
(Q) stood by all these years
(R) did he realize
(S) by a colleague whom he had
(a) QSPR
(b) QPSR
(c) RPSQ
(d) RSQP
12. It has been established that
(P) Einstein was
(Q) although a great scientist
(R) Weak in arithmetic
(S) right from his school days
(a) QPRS
(b) QPSR
(c) RQPS
(d) SRPQ
13. The statement
(P) therefore you must listen carefully
(Q) what the speaker has said
(R) in order to understand
(S) will be made just once
(a) RSPQ
(b) SPQR
(c) SPRQ
(d) SRQP
14. Towards midnight
(P) so that the sky was lighted with
(Q) and the clouds drifted away
(R) the rain ceased
(S) the incredible lamp of stars
(a) RPQS
(b) RQPS
(c) SPQR
(d) SQPR
15. Without books
(P) no cultured society is possible
(Q) no fresh ideas are possible
(R) and
(S) without fresh ideas
(a) PRSQ
(b) QRSP
(c) RSPQ
(d) RSQP
Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d)
16. Tell your leader that I grant him permission of stay in my kingdom.
(a) for stay
(b) about staying
(c) to stay
(d) No improvement
17. I was delighted to see him fully recover.
(a) he full recovered
(b) him fully recovered
(c) his fully recovery
(d) No improvement
18. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.
(a) all Indian children
(b) that all the Indian children
(c) if all the children of India
(d) No improvement
19. Scarcely had he left when his friend came.
(a) He had scarcely left
(b) He had left scarcely
(c) He scarcely had left
(d) No improvement
20. Dewan has driven almost thrice so far as Mr. Gupta has.
(a) as far
(b) as far as
(c) as much as
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
21. The prisoner has been languishing in the jail for the last many years.
(a) enjoying
(b) avoiding
(c) suffering
(d) convicted
22. Some people adopt excellent manners only to camouflage their real character.
(a) project
(b) hide
(c) misrepresent
(d) reveal
23. The venerated the old teacher.
(a) humiliated
(b) teased
(c) respected
(d) let go
24. Nobody has yet seen the peregrination of heavenly beings on earth.
(a) visit
(b) arrival
(c) travelling
(d) casting glance on
25. He did not make any attempt to placate
(a) please
(b) pacify
(c) serve
(d) satisfy
Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.
26. My uncle is very wealthy, but rather parsimonious in his habits.
(a) extravagant
(b) generous
(c) careless
(d) strict
27. I am somewhat skeptical about his claim.
(a) optimistic
(b) convinced
(c) credulous
(d) hopeful
28. His writings have been much eulogised by Indian scholars.
(a) condemned
(b) flouted
(c) disapproved
(d) disparaged
29. The boy was accused of theft.
(a) liberated
(b) impeached
(c) exonerated
(d) sentenced
30. This is not ideology but pragmatic language teaching.
(a) impractical
(b) improper
(c) imperfect
(d) impossible
Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
31. A man who is having the qualities of woman
(a) Loquacious
(b) Celibate
(c) Effeminate
(d) Epicurean
32. A word no longer in use
(a) Exotic
(b) Primitive
(c) Obsolete
(d) Ancient
33. A person who enters without any invitation
(a) Burglar
(b) Intruder
(c) Thief
(d) Vandal
34. The period between two reigns
(a) Lapse
(b) Interregnum
(c) Anachronism
(d) Intermission
35. Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular story
(a) Ballet
(b) Epic
(c) Ballad
(d) Sonnet
Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Journalism combines writing with news gathering and interpretation. While the journalist’s work obviously varies from newspaper to newspaper and from magazine to magazine, all journalists are as much research workers, as they are writers. They cannot write their news or feature stories, unless they locate it and research them first. They must be able to read the in-between lines of the main source-news and interpret that. A great many stories hunt the journalist, who rejects most of them. he carefully sorts and sifts those, taking only a relatively very small proportion of news, may be, coming from an unexpected source. A successful journalist may gather news to the tune of 100 percent but he can use them for his profession only 3-5 percent. He must be able to see or forecast to himself, the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of today; because newspapers want advance news or advance warning to give a good, exclusive and exhaustive coverage to anything of interest. But a real ‘scoop’ is a very rare event. And bogus scoops also bring disrepute to the newspaper.
36. According to the passage, a journalist’s work includes
(a) writing
(b) news gathering
(c) sorting out the news
(d) All of the above
37. What, according to the passage, is the common characteristic of all journalists?
(a) They all write for the newspapers
(b) They all have to first probe into the news they gather
(c) They all make an adventure to find a worthy news
(d) They all can forecast future news
38. What is most important for a journalist?
(a) He must be able to interpret the news correctly
(b) He must know how to sort out the news
(c) He must be able to write effectively
(d) He must know how to gather the right news
39. What does the passage say about successful journalists?
(a) They reject a major portion of the gathered news
(b) They can use a relatively small portion of the news
(c) Their news come from unexpected sources
(d) They present advance news
40. What is the basic requisite for exclusive and exhaustive coverage of newspaper?
(a) Forecast of tomorrow’s news from today’s news
(b) Collecting the news of a ‘real scoop’
(c) Selection of a small portion of the gathered news
(d) Effective style of writing
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: