# JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

PHYSICS

1. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies

(a)  the total kinetic energy is conserved

(b)  the total mechanical energy is not conserved

(c)  the linear momentum is not conserved

(d)  the linear momentum is conserved

2. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true ?

(a)  ∆U = −W in an adiabatic process

(b)  ∆U = W in an isothermal process

(c)  ∆U = −W in an isothermal  process

(d)  ∆U = W in an adiabatic process

3. Aerofils are so designed that the speed of air

(a)  on top side is more than on lower side

(b)  on top side is less than on lower side

(c)  is same on both sides

(d)  is turbulent

4. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  1/2

(d)  1

5. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because, in the second medium

(a)  the frequency is different

(b)  the coefficient of elasticity is different

(c)  the speed is different

(d)  the amplitude is smaller

6. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat?

(a)  r = 2r0; l = 2l0

(b)  r = 2r0; l = l0

(c)  r = r0; l = l0

(d)  r = r0; l = 2l0

7. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/√2

(d)  √2

8. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is

(a)  200 J

(b)  100 J

(c)  zero

(d)  1000 J

9. Interference was observed in an interference chamber when air was present. Now, the chamber is evacuated and if the same light is used, a careful observation will show

(a)  no interference

(b)  interference with  bright band

(c)  interference with dark bands

(d)  interference in which breadth of the fringe will be slightly increased

10. When a charged particle moving with velocity  is subjected to a magnetic field of induction  the force on it is non-zero. This implies that

(a)  angle between  is necessarily 90°

(b)  angle between  can have any value other than 90°

(c)  angle between  can have any value other than zero and 180°

(d)  angle between  is either zero or 180°

11. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3

How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?

(a)  24 m

(b)  40 m

(c)  56 m

(d)  16 m

12. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a)  Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

(b)  The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

(c)  Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

(d)  Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

13. When power is drawn from the secondary coil of the transformer, the dynamic resistance

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains unchanged

(d)  changes erratically

14. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is the effect on kinetic energy of molecules?

(a)  Increase

(b)  Decrease

(c)  No change

(d)  Can’t be determined

15. What maximum frequency can be reflected from ionosphere?

(a)  5 MHz

(b)  6 GHz

(c)  5 kHz

(d)  500 MHz

16. A telescope has focal length of objective and eye-piece as 200 cm and 5 cm respectively. What is magnification of telescope?

(a)  40

(b)  80

(c)  50

(d)  0.01

17. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm. If the distance between their centres is 3.2 cm, what is the shift in the centre of mass of the disc?

(a)  0.4 cm

(b)  2.4 cm

(c)  1.8 cm

(d)  1.2 cm

18. Hydrogen bomb is based upon

(a)  fission

(b)  fusion

(c)  chemical reaction

(d)  transmutation

19. What is not true for equipotential surface for uniform electric field?

(a)  Equipotential surface is flat

(b)  Equipotential surface is spherical

(c)  Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface

(d)  Work done is zero

20. A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is the frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)

(a)  300 Hz

(b)  350 Hz

(c)  375 Hz

(d)  415 Hz

21. The displacement of particle is given by

What is its acceleration?

(a)  2a2/3

(b)  −2a2/3

(c)  a2

(d)  Zero

22. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body gives

(a)  impulse

(b)  change in momentum per unit mass

(c)  change in KE per unit mass

(d)  total change in energy

23. The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is ω. Its speed is increased to x times to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is

(a)  1

(b)  8.5

(c)  17

(d)  34

24. Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10−11 The accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray machine should be

(a)  < 124 kV

(b)  > 124 kV

(c)  between 60 kV and 70 kV

(d)  = 100 kV

25. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has a certain minimum

(a)  wavelength

(b)  frequency

(c)  amplitude

(d)  angle of incidence

26. A capacitor having capacitance 1 μF with air, is filled with two dielectrics as shown. How m any times capacitance will increase?

(a)  12

(b)  6

(c)  8/3

(d)  3

27. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be

(a)  brown

(b)  black

(c)  red

(d)  green

28. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (k) has a value

(a)  1

(b)  1.5

(c)  2.1

(d)  2.5

29. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 Ω is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 Ω. If the total currents is 1 A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be

(a)  0.25 A

(b)  0.8 A

(c)  0.2 A

(d)  0.5 A

30. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out

(a)  the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour

(b)  light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity

(c)  it stops working suddenly while giving white light

(d)  colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced

31. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?

(a)  Alpha rays

(b)  Beta rays

(c)  Gamma rays

(d)  None, all have same wavelength

32. When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water

(a)  does not change

(b)  increases

(c)  decreases

(d)  may either increase or decrease depending on the process used

33. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B nuclei is

(a)  1 : 16

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  1 : 1

34. Given that  where y and x are measured in metre. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)  The unit of λ is same as that of x and A

(b)  The unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A

(c)  The unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ

(d)  The unit(ct – x) is same as that of 2π/λ

35. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms−1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is

(a)  15 s

(b)  10.98 s

(c)  5.49 s

(d)  2.745 s

36. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the motor cycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains the same

(d)  fluctuates erratically

37. If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4 m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce to half of the initial value?

(Take g = 10 ms−2)

(a)  4 m

(b)  2 m

(c)  1 m

(d)  0.4 m

38. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to separated the two plates is

(a)  102 dyne

(b)  104 dyne

(c)  105 dyne

(d)  106 dyne

39. Which of the following is true for rays coming from infinity?

(a)  Two images are formed

(b)  Continuous image is formed between focal points of upper and lower lens

(c)  One image is formed

(d)  None of the above

40. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along the perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current in the conducting plane will be

(a)  horizontal

(b)  vertical

(c)  clockwise

(d)  anticlockwise

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Chemistry

1. Plaster of paris is

(a)

(b)  CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O

(c)  CaSO4 ∙ H2O

(d)  CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O

2. The most stable compound is

(a)  LiF

(b)  LiCl

(c)  LiBr

(d)  LiI

3. Heavy water is

(a)  CaSO4

(b)  water contain CaSO4, MgSO4

(c)  D2O

(d)  water contain CaCO3

4. When copper reacts with hot and conc.H2SO4, gives

(a)  H2

(b)  N2

(c)  O2

(d)  SO2

5. BaO2 and ozone react to produce

(a)  Ba

(b)  BaO3

(c)  BaO

(d)  Ba(OH)3

6. Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be explained as

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

7. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of 1 : 4by weight. The ratio of their number of molecules is

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  3 : 16

(d)  7 : 32

8. Bleaching powder is obtained by treating Cl2 with

(a)  Ca(OH)2

(b)  CaO

(c)  CaCO3

(d)  CaCl2

9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is

(a)  6.6 × 10−33 m

(b)  6.6 × 10−36 m

(c)  3.3 × 10+33 m

(d)  3.3 × 10−36 m

10. The volume of a gas measured at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 10 L. To reduce the volume to 2 L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required is

(a)  60 K

(b)  75 K

(c)  150 K

(d)  225 K

11. The number of moles of oxygen obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of 108 g water is

(a)  2.5

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  7.5

12. The change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mole of ice [mp of ice = 273 K, molar enthalpy of fusion for ice = 6.0 kJ mol−1]

(a)  11.73 JK−1 mol−1

(b)  18.84 JK−1 mol−1

(c)  21.97 JK−1 mol−1

(d)  24.47 JK−1 mol−1

13. Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution ?

(a)  [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(b)  [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(c)  [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

(d)  [Co(NH3)­3Cl3]

14. Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

15. Pure silicon doped with phosphorus is a metallic conductor

(a)  metallic conductor

(b)  insulator

(c)  n-type semiconductor

(d)  p-type semiconductor

16. Neutron is discovered by

(b)  Rutherford

(c)  Yukawa

(d)  Dalton

17. What is X in the following nuclear reaction?

7N14 + 1H18O15 + X

(a)  0n1

(b)  −1e0

(c)  +1e0

(d)  γ

18. Solubility product PbCl2 at 298 K is 1 × 10−6. At this temperature solubility of PbCl2 in mol/L is

(a)  (1 × 10−6)1/2

(b)  (1 × 10−6)1/3

(c)  (0.25 × 10−6)1/3

(d)  (2.5 × 10−6)1/2

19. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is

(a)  0

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  10

20. Gold number is associated with

(a)  amount of gold

(b)  protective colloids

(c)  purple cassius

(d)  electrophoresis

21. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes to give different colours. Reddish-orange glow is due to

(a)  Ar

(b)  Ne

(c)  Xe

(d)  Kr

22. The set representing the correct order for first ionization potential is

(a)  K > Na > Li

(b)  Be > Mg > Ca

(c)  B > C > N

(d)  Ge > Si > C

23. Dry ice is

(a)  solid CO2

(b)  solid camphor

(c)  solid SO2

(d)  solid NO2

24. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to

(a)  covalent character

(b)  hydrogen bonding character

(c)  oxygen bonding character

(d)  None of the above

25. Stereoisomers differ in

(a)  configuration

(b)  conformation

(c)  they do not differ

(d)  None of the above

26. IUPAC name of the following compound

(a)  N, N-dimethylcyclopropane caboxamide

(b)  N-methylcyclopropanamide

(c)  cyclopropionamide

(d)  None of the above

27. The product of the following reaction is

2CH3­MgBr + CH2O →

(a)  CH3OH

(b)  C2H5OH

(c)  CH4

(d)  C2H6

28. Freon used as refrigerant is

(a)  CF2 = CF2

(b)  CH2F2

(c)  CH4

(d)  C2H6

29. Lucas reagent is

(a)  anhy. ZnCl2 and NH3

(b)  anhy. ZnCl2 and CaCl2

(c)  anhy. ZnCl2 and conc. HCl

(d)  anhy. ZnCl2 and HCl gas

30. The enzyme which can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol is

(a)  zymase

(b)  invertase

(c)  maltase

(d)  diastase

31. When dihydroxy acetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/are

(a)  HCHO

(b)  HCOOH

(c)  HCHO and HCOOH

(d)  HCHO and CO2

32. Which of the following does not reduce Fehling’s solution?

(a)  Benzaldehyde

(b)  Formic acid

(c)  Glucose

(d)  Fructose

33. Sodium formate on heating gives

(a)  oxalic acid and H2

(b)  sodium oxalate and H2

(c)  sodium oxalate

(d)  CO2 and caustic soda

34. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives

(a)  n-propyl alcohol

(b)  isopropyl alcohol

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  acetone

35. Hydrolysis of phenyl isocyanide forms

(a)  benzoic acid

(b)  formic acid

(c)  acetic acid

(d)  None of these

36. Styrene can be purified by

(a)  simple distillation

(b)  fractional distillation

(c)  steam distillation

(d)  vacuum distillation

37. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Sucrose

38. The monomer of Teflon is

(a)  CHF = CH2

(b)  CF2 = CF2

(c)  CHCl  = CHCl

(d)  CHF = CHCl

39. The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is

(a)  sp

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp3

(d)  sp3d

40. A fruity smell is produced by the reaction of C2H5OH with

(a)  CH3COCH3

(b)  CH3COOH

(c)  PCl5

(d)  CH3CHO

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Zoology

1. Moulting hormone is secreted by

(a)  corpora cardiacum

(b)  corpora allata

(c)  neurosecretory hormone

(d)  prothoracic gland

2. Movements by pseudopodia of Amoeba are due to change in

(a)  Pressure

(b)  atmosphere

(c)  temperature

(d)  viscosity

3. From outer to inside the sequence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is

(a)  malleus, stapes and incus

(b)  stapes, malleus and incus

(c)  malleus, incus and stapes

(d)  incus, malleus and stapes

4. The reabsorption of water in the kidney is under the control of

(a)  LH

(c)  STH

(d)  ACTH

5. Yersinia pestis is responsible for

(a)  syphilis

(b)  whooping cough

(c)  plague

(d)  leprosy

6. Protein present in silk fibre is

(a)  casein

(b)  keratin

(c)  elastin

(d)  fibroin

7. Ovulation takes place in a month between

(a)  11-14 day

(b)  14-16 day

(c)  15-28 day

(d)  21-26 day

8. In sea anemone, the symmetry is

(b)  bilateral

(c)  spherical

(d)  absent

9. Compound squamous epithelium is found in

(a)  stomach

(b)  intestine

(c)  trachea

(d)  pharynx

10. Solenocytes are associated with

(a)  respiration

(b)  digestion

(c)  excretion

(d)  nutrition

11. The cavity of diencephalon is known as

(a)  I ventricle

(b)  II ventricle

(c)  III ventricle

(d)  iter

12. Which vitamin should not be stored?

(a)  Calciferol

(b)  Retinol

(c)  Niacin

(d)  Ascorbic acid

13. Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is

(a)  Neophilina

(b)  Peripatus

(c)  Periplaneta

(d)  Limulus

14. Shell of mollusks is derived from

(a)  foot

(b)  mantle

(c)  ctenidia

(d)  placoid

15. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

(a)  house lizard

(b)  flying fish

(c)  pigeon

16. A man of ‘A’ blood group marries a woman of ‘AB’ blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?

(a)  O

(b)  B

(c)  A

(d)  AB

17. Balbiani rings are the structural features of

(a)  allosomes

(b)  polytene chromosomes

(c)  autosomes

(d)  Lampbrush chromosomes

18. Presence of tail in a child is an example of

(a)  atavism

(b)  divergent evolution

(c)  convergent evolution

(d)  mutation

19. Action potential is generated by

(a)  Na+

(b)  K+

(c)  Ca+

(d)  Cl

20. Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by

(a)  lens

(b)  iris

(c)  retina

(d)  optic nerve

21. Indian rhinoceros are protected in

(a)  Gir Forest

(b)  Kaziranga National Park

(c)  Bandipur National Park

(d)  Ranthambore National Park

22. Mitotic spindle have main protein

(a)  tubulin

(b)  myosin

(c)  tropomyocin

(d)  dynein

23. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by

(a)  androgen

(b)  progesterone

(c)  estrogen

(d)  testosterone

(a)  always expressed in male

(b)  always expressed in female

(c)  lethal

(d)  sub lethal

25. Ligament is mainly made up of

(a)  reticulin

(b)  elastin

(c)  myosin

(d)  collagen

26. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by

(a)  gastrin

(b)  secretin

(c)  enterogasteron

(d)  enterokinase

27. Crossing over occurs in

(a)  zygotene

(b)  leptotene

(c)  pachytene

(d)  diplotene

28. Mesozoic era is Golden period of

(a)  reptiles

(b)  Mollusca

(c)  fishes

(d)  amphibians

29. Hamburger shift is also known as

(a)  bicarbonate shift

(b)  chloride shift

(c)  potassium shift

(d)  All of the above

30. “Bundle of His” are

(a)  nervous tissue supplied to ventricles

(b)  nervous tissue supplied to heart

(c)  muscular tissue supplied to ventricle

(d)  muscular tissue supplied to heart

31. Cell theory was proposed by

(a)  Virchow

(b)  Schleiden and Schwann

(c)  Robert Hooke

(d)  B McClintock

32. Who for the first time developed electron microscope?

(a)  Knoll and Ruska

(b)  Rudolf and Kolliker

(c)  Robert Hooke

(d)  Swanson

33. Repressor protein is produced by

(a)  regulator gene

(b)  operator gene

(c)  structural gene

(d)  promoter gene

34. Autonomic nervous system affects

(a)  reflex actions

(b)  sensory organs

(c)  internal organ

(d)  None of these

35. Schizogony occurs in

(a)  RBC of human

(b)  intestine of parasite

(c)  liver of human

(d)  liver of parasite

36. Gases found in primitive atmosphere are

(a)  CH4, NH3, H2, H2O (vapour form)

(b)  CH4, NH3, CO2, H2O

(c)  CH4, H2O, CO2

(d)  CH4, O2, CO2

37. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are

(a)  nurse cell

(b)  reproductive cell

(c)  receptor cell

(d)  None of the above

38. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration, the capacity of lungs is known as

(a)  vital capacity

(b)  tidal volume

(c)  IRV

(d)  ERV

39. Which one is the sweetest sugar ?

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Sucrose

(d)  Maltose

40. Species can be identified on the basis of

(a)  interbreed

(b)  species diversity

(c)  reproductive isolation

(d)  None of the above

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Botany

1. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom

(a)  Monera

(b)  Protista

(c)  Animalia

(d)  Fungi

2. Water bloom is generally caused by

(a)  green algae

(b)  blue-green algae

(c)  bacteria

(d)  Hydrilla

3. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?

(a)  Riccia fluitans

(b)  Buxbaumia aphylla

(c)  Funaria hygrometrica

(d)  Sphagnum

4. A genophore is made up of

(a)  a single double stranded DNA

(b)  a single stranded DNA

(c)  RNA and histones

(d)  histones and non-histones

5. Iodine is obtained from

(a)  Laminaria

(b)  Chlorella

(c)  Polysiphonia

(d)  Porphyra

6. Covered smut of barley is caused by

(a)  Ustilago hordei

(b)  Tilletia caries

(c)  Ustilago nuda

(d)  Colletotrichum falcatum

7. Root hair absorbs water from soil through

(a)  turgor pressure

(b)  ion exchange

(c)  osmosis

(d)  DPD

8. In CAM plants, CO2 acceptor is

(a)  RuBP

(b)  PEP

(c)  OAA

(d)  PGA

9. Which one of the following is a natural growth inhibitor?

(a)  NAA

(b)  ABA

(c)  IAA

(d)  GA

10. Apical dominance is caused by

(a)  auxin

(b)  gibberellin

(c)  kinetin

(d)  ABA

11. Growth of pollen tube towards emryo sac is

(a)  geotropism

(b)  thigmotaxis

(c)  chemotaxis

(d)  All of these

12. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in

(a)  forest fires

(b)  global warming

(c)  skin cancer incidence

(d)  None of the above

13. Which of the following is a test cross ?

(a)  Tt × tt

(b)  TT × tt

(c)  Tt × Tt

(d)  tt × tt

14. 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in

(a)  complementary genes

(b)  blending inheritance

(c)  multiple alleles

(d)  pseudo alleles

15. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?

(a)  Deoxyribose

(b)  Ribose

(c)  Sucrose

(d)  Maltose

16. Stop codons are

(a)  AUG, GUG

(b)  UAA, UGA, UAG

(c)  UAC, UGG

(d)  AGU, AGA, UAC

17. A lake with nutrients is called

(a)  trophic

(b)  euphotic

(c)  oligotrophic

(d)  eutrophic

18. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral?

(a)  Chlorosis

(b)  Etiolation

(c)  Shortening of internodes

(d)  Necrosis

19. Retrovirus have genetic material

(a)  DNA only

(b)  RNA only

(c)  DNA or RNA only

(d)  either DNA or RNA only

20. DCMU

(a)  inhibits PS-I

(b)  inhibits PS-II

(c)  destroy chloroplast

(d)  inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

21. According to Kyoto protocol the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases by

(a)  2008

(b)  2010

(c)  2012

(d)  2018

22. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from root because

(a)  it lacks chlorophyll

(b)  it stores food

(c)  it has nodes and internodes

(d)  it has xylem and vessels

23. During DNA replication in prokaryotes DNA is anchored to

(a)  chromosome

(b)  mesosome

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  ribosome

24. The mineral present in cell wall is

(a)  Na

(b)  Ca

(c)  K

(d)  Mg

25. Male gamete in angiosperm is produced by

(a)  generative cell

(b)  microspore cell

(c)  vegetative cell

(d)  tube cell

26. Meristematic tissue in vascular bundle is

(a)  phellem

(b)  procambium

(c)  interfascicular cambium

(d)  fascicular cambium

27. Study of Ecology of population is called

(a)  Autecology

(b)  Synecology

(c)  Ecotype

(d)  Demecology

28. Which of the following plant is LDP?

(a)  Xanthium

(b)  Soybean

(c)  Wheat

(d)  Tobacco

29. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?

(a)  Bacillus thurengiensis

(b)  Agrobacterium tumifaciens

(c)  Pseudomonas putida

(d)  All of the above

30. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis of Beadle and Tatum was experimentally proved on

(a)  Saccharomyces

(b)  Neurospora crassa

(c)  Lathyrus odoratus

(d)  Claviceps

31. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

(a)  Thymine

(b)  Uracil

(c)  Guanine

(d)  Cytosine

32. Which organelle is present in higher number in secretory cells?

(a)  Dictyosome

(b)  ER

(c)  Lysosome

(d)  Vacuole

33. Bio-indicators are used for

(a)  oxygen demand

(b)  air pollution

(c)  mineral present

(d)  All of the above

34. What happened when we inoculated Rhizobium in wheat field?

(a)  No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)

(b)  A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increases)

(c)  Fertility of soil decreases

(d)  Fertility of soil increases

35. Nitrifying bacteria are able to

(a)  convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble forms

(b)  convert ammonia to nitrate

(c)  ammonia to nitrogen

(d)  nitrate to nitrogen

(a)  chromosome

(b)  plasmalemma

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  ribosome

37. Systema Naturae was written by

(a)  Linnaeus

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Hippocrates

(d)  Darwin

38. Number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 14, then the number of chromosomes in synergid cells will be

(a)  14

(b)  7

(c)  28

(d)  21

39. Phytochrome is present in

(a)  vascular cryptogam

(b)  prokaryotes

(c)  flowering plants

(d)  algae

40. Vessels and companion cells are found in

(a)  angiosperm

(b)  pteridophytes

(c)  bryophytes

(d)  thallophytes

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

General English

Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

1. To throw dust in one’s eyes

(a)  To show false things

(b)  To make blind

(c)  To harm someone

(d)  To deceive

2. To be rolling in money

(a)  Wasting a lot of money

(b)  Very rich

(c)  Borrowing money liberally

(d)  Spending more than his income

3. To get into hot waters

(a)  To be impatient

(b)  To suffer a huge financial loss

(c)  To get into trouble

(d)  To be in a confused state of mind

4. To save one’s face

(a)  To hide oneself

(b)  To oppose

(d)  To say plainly

5. To wash one’s dirty linen in public

(a)  To criticize one’s nature in public

(b)  To quarrel in the open

(c)  To do some ugly work in public

(d)  To discuss dirty and scandalous matters of personal nature in the presence of strangers

Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

6. There was so much ………. material in the speech that it was difficult to know what the speaker wanted to say.

(a)  banal

(b)  extraneous

(c)  superficial

(d)  variegated

7. Our flight was ……….. from Jaipur to Agra airport.

(a)  deflected

(b)  shifted

(c)  diverted

(d)  reverted

8. His ……….. handling resulted in all that destruction and damage.

(a)  inept

(b)  skilful

(c)  sophisticated

(d)  uncouth

9. Rabindranath Tagore was a ……… writer of his times.

(a)  true

(b)  fantastic

(c)  profound

(d)  prolific

10. The manager tried hard to ………….. his men to return to work before declaring a lockout.

(a)  motivate

(c)  encourage

(d)  permit

Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

11. Little

(P) that he had been let down

(Q) stood by all these years

(R) did he realize

(S) by a colleague whom he had

(a)  QSPR

(b)  QPSR

(c)  RPSQ

(d)  RSQP

12. It has been established that

(P) Einstein was

(Q) although a great scientist

(R) Weak in arithmetic

(S) right from his school days

(a)  QPRS

(b)  QPSR

(c)  RQPS

(d)  SRPQ

13. The statement

(P) therefore you must listen carefully

(Q) what the speaker has said

(R) in order to understand

(S) will be made just once

(a)  RSPQ

(b)  SPQR

(c)  SPRQ

(d)  SRQP

14. Towards midnight

(P) so that the sky was lighted with

(Q) and the clouds drifted away

(R) the rain ceased

(S) the incredible lamp of stars

(a)  RPQS

(b)  RQPS

(c)  SPQR

(d)  SQPR

15. Without books

(P) no cultured society is possible

(Q) no fresh ideas are possible

(R) and

(S) without fresh ideas

(a)  PRSQ

(b)  QRSP

(c)  RSPQ

(d)  RSQP

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d)

16. Tell your leader that I grant him permission of stay in my kingdom.

(a)  for stay

(c)  to stay

(d)  No improvement

17. I was delighted to see him fully recover.

(a)  he full recovered

(b)  him fully recovered

(c)  his fully recovery

(d)  No improvement

18. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.

(a)  all Indian children

(b)  that all the Indian children

(c)  if all the children of India

(d)  No improvement

19. Scarcely had he left when his friend came.

(d)  No improvement

20. Dewan has driven almost thrice so far as Mr. Gupta has.

(a)  as far

(b)  as far as

(c)  as much as

(d)  No improvement

Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most  nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

21. The prisoner has been languishing in the jail for the last many years.

(a)  enjoying

(b)  avoiding

(c)  suffering

(d)  convicted

22. Some people adopt excellent manners only to camouflage their real character.

(a)  project

(b)  hide

(c)  misrepresent

(d)  reveal

23. The venerated the old teacher.

(a)  humiliated

(b)  teased

(c)  respected

(d)  let go

24. Nobody has yet seen the peregrination of heavenly beings on earth.

(a)  visit

(b)  arrival

(c)  travelling

(d)  casting glance on

25. He did not make any attempt to placate

(b)  pacify

(c)  serve

(d)  satisfy

Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

26. My uncle is very wealthy, but rather parsimonious in his habits.

(a)  extravagant

(b)  generous

(c)  careless

(d)  strict

27. I am somewhat skeptical about his claim.

(a)  optimistic

(b)  convinced

(c)  credulous

(d)  hopeful

28. His writings have been much eulogised by Indian scholars.

(a)  condemned

(b)  flouted

(c)  disapproved

(d)  disparaged

29. The boy was accused of theft.

(a)  liberated

(b)  impeached

(c)  exonerated

(d)  sentenced

30. This is not ideology but pragmatic language teaching.

(a)  impractical

(b)  improper

(c)  imperfect

(d)  impossible

Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

31. A man who is having the qualities of woman

(a)  Loquacious

(b)  Celibate

(c)  Effeminate

(d)  Epicurean

32. A word no longer in use

(a)  Exotic

(b)  Primitive

(c)  Obsolete

(d)  Ancient

33. A person who enters without any invitation

(a)  Burglar

(b)  Intruder

(c)  Thief

(d)  Vandal

34. The period between two reigns

(a)  Lapse

(b)  Interregnum

(c)  Anachronism

(d)  Intermission

35. Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular story

(a)  Ballet

(b)  Epic

(d)  Sonnet

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Journalism combines writing with news gathering and interpretation. While the journalist’s work obviously varies from newspaper to newspaper and from magazine to magazine, all journalists are as much research workers, as they are writers. They cannot write their news or feature stories, unless they locate it and research them first. They must be able to read the in-between lines of the main source-news and interpret that. A great many stories hunt the journalist, who rejects most of them. he carefully sorts and sifts those, taking only a relatively very small proportion of news, may be, coming from an unexpected source. A successful journalist may gather news to the tune of 100 percent but he can use them for his profession only 3-5 percent. He must be able to see or forecast to himself, the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of today; because newspapers want advance news or advance warning to give a good, exclusive and exhaustive coverage to anything of interest. But a real ‘scoop’ is a very rare event. And bogus scoops also bring disrepute to the newspaper.

36. According to the passage, a journalist’s work includes

(a)  writing

(b)  news gathering

(c)  sorting out the news

(d)  All of the above

37. What, according to the passage, is the common characteristic of all journalists?

(a)  They all write for the newspapers

(b)  They all have to first probe into the news they gather

(c)  They all make an adventure to find a worthy news

(d)  They all can forecast future news

38. What is most important for a journalist?

(a)  He must be able to interpret the news correctly

(b)  He must know how to sort out the news

(c)  He must be able to write effectively

(d)  He must know how to gather the right news

39. What does the passage say about successful journalists?

(a)  They reject a major portion of the gathered news

(b)  They can use a relatively small portion of the news

(c)  Their news come from unexpected sources

40. What is the basic requisite for exclusive and exhaustive coverage of newspaper?

(a)  Forecast of tomorrow’s news from today’s news

(b)  Collecting the news of a ‘real scoop’

(c)  Selection of a small portion of the gathered news

(d)  Effective style of writing

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