JIPMER
Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year-2013
Physics
1. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved, is
(a) 22.4 m/s
(b) 112 m/s
(c) 
(d) 1000 m/s
Ans: (a)
2. The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is
(a) 280 km/s
(b) 56.0 km/s
(c) 112 km/s
(d) 56 km/s
Ans: (b)
3. Light ravels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with
(a) wave theory of light
(b) corpuscular theory of light
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a)
4. The speed of air flow on the upper and lower surface of a wing of an aeroplane are υ1 If A is the cross section area of the wing and ρ is the density of air, then the upward life is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (c)
5. A body is thrown with a velocity of 8.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time
(a) 1.5s
(b) 1s
(c) 3s
(d) 2s
Ans: (b)
6. A radioactive element 90X238 decays into 83Y222. The number of β-particles emitted are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: (a)
7. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is
(a) 3.6 V
(b) 10.2 V
(c) 13.6 V
(d) 3.4 V
Ans: (b)
8. A gas expands 0.25 m3 at constant pressure 103 N/m2, the work done is
(a) 250 N
(b) 250 W
(c) 250 J
(d) 2.5 erg
Ans: (c)
9. The work done in increasing the size of soap film for 10 cm × 6 m to 10 cm × 11cm is 3 × 10−4 The surface tension of the film is
(a) 1.0 × 10−2 N/m
(b) 6.0 × 10−2 N/m
(c) 3.0 × 10−2 N/m
(d) 1.5 × 10−2 N/m
Ans: (c)
10. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each pate is A m2 and the separation is d metre. The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (b)
11. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it
(a) 30 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 12 cm
Ans: (c)
12. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The maximum value of R is given by
(a) 0.5Ω
(b) 1.00Ω
(c) 2.0Ω
(d) 0.25Ω
Ans: (a)
13. For a gas 
This gas is made up of molecules which are
(a) mono atomic
(b) poly atomic
(c) mixture of diatomic and poly atomic molecules
(d) diatomic
Ans: (a)
14. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. The minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water is
(a) 6 m
(b) 3 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 2 m
Ans: (a)
15. A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/h collides with a rest body of mass 2 m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?
(a) 2 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 3 km/h
Ans: (b)
16. A transverse wave is represented by the equation
For what value of λ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (a)
17. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom on the ground state rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon 12.1 eV. The special line mitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans: (c)
18. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω. The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is
(a) 1 J/s
(b) 5 J/s
(c) 0.42 J/s
(d) 0.8 J/s
Ans: (a)
19. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (c)
20. Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.
If 
and EA = 100 = EB, the ratio of angular momentum (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is
(a) 25
(b) 5/4
(c) 5
(d) 1/4
Ans: (c)
21. The working principle of a ball point pen is
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem
(b) surface tension
(c) gravity
(d) viscosity
Ans: (b)
22. Progressive waves are represented by the equation
y1 = a sin(ωt – x)
and y2 = b cos (ωt – x)
The phase difference between waves is
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: (c)
23. Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will gain be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed x oscillations, where k is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans: (c)
24. A balloon contains 500 m3 of helium at 27℃ and 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at −3℃ temperature and 0.5 atmosphere pressure will be
(a) 1000 m3
(b) 900 m3
(c) 700 m3
(d) 500 m3
Ans: (b)
25. 220 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 Ω in series. What is the current in the circuit?
(a) 3.33 A
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 5 A
(d) 10 A
Ans: (a)
26. In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 2.0 A to 3.0 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance of 3 Ω will be
(a) 1 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.1 A
Ans: (d)
27. Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are
(a) 5I and I
(b) 5I and 3I
(c) 9I and I
(d) 9I and 3I
Ans: (c)
28. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have
(a) low resistance in series with its coil
(b) low resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) high resistance in series with its coil
(d) high resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans: (c)
29. The equivalent resistance across A and B is
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 5 Ω
Ans: (c)
30. A black body has a wavelength of λ at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (a)
31. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 × 1028 m−3. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10−6 m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A, will be
(a) 4 ms−1
(b) 0.4 ms−1
(c) 4 cm ms−1
(d) 0.4 mm s−1
Ans: (d)
32. A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4 which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be
(a) R
(b) 4 R
(c) R/4
(d) R/16
Ans: (d)
33. The half-life of radio isotope is 4 h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then mass remaining after 24 h will be
(a) 1.042 g
(b) 2.084 g
(c) 3.125 g
(d) 4.167 g
Ans: (c)
34. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
(a) OR
(b) NOR
(c) AND
(d) NAND
Ans: (c)
35. The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photo, electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
(a) none
(b) A only
(c) A and B only
(d) All the three metals
Ans: (c)
36. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity υ1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity υ and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (b)
37. A 5 amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is
(a) 0.2 Ω
(b) 5 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω
(d) 0.04 Ω
Ans: (d)
38. A force F is given F = at + bt2, where, t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (d)
39. Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at the point (0, α) and (0, −α) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will
(a) execute SHM about the origin
(b) move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) move to infinity
(d) execute oscillatory but not SHM
Ans: (d)
40. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m3. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is
(a) 20%
(b) 35%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%
Ans: (c)
Chemistry
1.
The above reaction is known as
(a) aromatisation
(b) pyrolysis
(c) isomerisation
(d) oxidation
Ans: (c)
2. Number of hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) All the live
Ans: (a)
3. Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (a)
4. Which one of the following acts as nucleophile?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (a)
5. During estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.
(a) 14%
(b) 28%
(c) 56%
(d) 68%
Ans: (c)
6. Which of the following compounds have highest melting point?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
Ans: (b)
7. Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (a)
8. Addition of water of alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence Hg2+ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions?
(a) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(b) CH3CH2COCH3
(c) CH3CH2COOH + CO2
(d) CH3COOH + HCHO
Ans: (b)
9. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is
(a) phenol < ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(b) ethanol < phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(c) ethanol < phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid
(d) chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol
Ans: (c)
10. KF has ccp structure. How many F− ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively
(a) 4 and 4
(b) 4 and 8
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 6 and 6
Ans: (a)
11. The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37℃. How much glucose would be used for injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?
(a) 22.17 gL−1
(b) 58.14 gL−1
(c) 61.26 gL−1
(d) 75.43 gL−1
Ans: (b)
12. At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallisation
(d) zero
Ans: (c)
13. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
(a) Thiosulphato
(b) Glycinato
(c) Oxalato
(d) Ethane-1, 2-diamine
Ans: (a)
14. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to conc. H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.
(a) Mn2O7
(b) MnO2
(c) MnSO4
(d) Mn2O3
Ans: (a)
15. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
(a) 3d7
(b) 3d5
(c) 3d8
(d) 3d2
Ans: (b)
16. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ – pπ bonding?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Boron
Ans: (c)
17. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case o iodide slat, violet fumes come out. This is because.
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
(b) HI is of violet colour
(c) HI gets oxidized to I2
(d) HI changes to HIO3
Ans: (c)
18. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI
Ans: (a)
19. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction
Ans: (d)
20. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
(b) Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(c) Ecell in the intensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an extensive properly.
(d) Ecell is an extensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an intensive property.
Ans: (c)
21. Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (c)
22. A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are
(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag
Ans: (a)
23. The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states +1 to +5 is
(a) nitrogen
(b) phosphorus
(c) arsenic
(d) antimony
Ans: (a)
24. Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?
(a) NH3, PH3, AsH3
(b) AsH3, PH3, NH3
(c) NH3, AsH3, PH3
(d) PH3, AsH3, NH3
Ans: (d)
25. When Br2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl, NaI separately
(a) F2, Cl2 and I2 are liberated
(b) only F2 and Cl2 are liberated
(c) only I2 is liberated
(d) only Cl2 is liberated
Ans: (c)
26. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: (c)
27. The rate of gaseous reaction is given by the expression k[A][B]. If the volume of reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to original rate will be
(a) 1/10
(b) 1/8
(c) 8
(d) 16
Ans: (d)
28. Which of the following is 3° amine?
(a) 1-methylcyclohexylamine
(b) Triethyl amine
(c) Tert-butylamine
(d) N-methyl aniline
Ans: (b)
29. Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium rosinate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Trisodium phosphate
Ans: (b)
30. The deficiency of vitamin C causes
(a) scurvy
(b) rickets
(c) pyrrohea
(d) pernicious anaemia
Ans: (a)
31. Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause
(a) harmful effect of bones and teeth
(b) methemoglobinemia
(c) kidney damage
(d) laxative effect
Ans: (a)
32. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is
(a) ∆T = 0
(b) ∆p = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) W= 0
Ans: (c)
33. 
Kp for this reaction is 2.47 × 10−29. At 298 K, ∆rG° for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be
(a) 100 kJ mol−1
(b) 150 kJ mol−1
(c) 163 kJ mol−1
(d) 2303 kJ mol−1
Ans: (c)
34. Which one of the following statements about C2 molecule is wrong?
(a) The bond order of C2 is 2.
(b) In vapour phase, C2 molecule is diamagnetic.
(c) Double bond in C2 molecule consists of both π-bonds because of the presence of 4es− in two π-molecular orbitals.
(d) double bond in C2 molecule consists of one σ-bond and on π-bond.
Ans: (d)
35. The type of hybridization in SF6 molecule is
(a) sp3d
(b) dsp3
(c) sp3d2
(d) d2sp3
Ans: (c)
36. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order
(a) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(b) BCl3 < CCl4 < BeCl2 < LiCl
(c) BeCl2 < LiCl < CCl4 < BCl3
(d) CCl4 < BCl3 < BeCl2 < LiCl
Ans: (a)
37. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom determined by the following?
(a) 4l + 2
(b) 2n2
(c) 4l – 2
(d) 2l + 1
Ans: (a)
38. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25℃ will be
(a) 6.17 × 10−21 JK−1
(b) 6.17 × 10−21 kJK−1
(c) 6.17 × 1020 JK−1
(d) 7.16 × 10−20 JK−1
Ans: (a)
39. pKa of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution.
(a) 6.02
(b) 7.005
(c) 8
(d) 5.602
Ans: (b)
40. The value of Kc for the reaction,
2A ⇋ B + C is 2 × 10−3. At a given time, if the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10−3 M. Which is true?
(a) The reaction will be proceed in forward direction
(b) The reaction will proceed in backward direction
(c) The reaction will proceed in any direction
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Zoology
1. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamins
(a) B5
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B1
Ans: (a)
2. Notochord originates from
(a) mesoderm
(b) ectoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
3. Parthenogenesis is a term of
(a) budding
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) regeneration
Ans: (c)
4. Bartholin’s gland is found in
(a) penis
(b) stomach
(c) liver
(d) vagina
Ans: (d)
5. Which one of the following statements best characterize the testis?
(a) The seminiferous epithelium contains only proliferative cells
(b) Functional compartmentalization of the seminiferous epithelium depends on tight junctions
(c) The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries
(d) The seminiferous epithelium contains numerous capillaries
Ans: (b)
6. Drugs that cause malformation in developing embryo during pregnancy are called
(a) teratogens
(b) nicotine
(c) tranquillisers
(d) alcoholic beverages
Ans: (a)
7. Which set is similar?
(a) Corpus luteum -Graafian follicles
(b) Sebum -Sweat
(c) Vitamin-B7 -Niacin
(d) Bundle of His -Pacemaker
Ans: (a)
8. Which one out of (a) to (d) given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Ans: (d)
9. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
(a) C-karyokinesis
(b) S-synthetic phase
(c) A-cytokinesis
(d) B-metaphase
Ans: (b)
10. Which one of the following structural formula of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?
(a) B-uracil –a component of DNA
(b) A-triglyceride – major source of energy
(c) A-lecithin – a component of cell membrane
(d) B-adenine – nucleotide that makes up nucleic
Ans: (c)
11. Which is substitution of mitochondria in coli?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Mesosome
(c) Ribosome
(d) Glyoxysomes
Ans: (b)
12. Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing
(a) vacuoles
(b) centrosomes
(c) pastids
(d) mitochondria
Ans: (b)
13. Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?
(a) Plasmalemma
(b) Ribosome
(c) Chromosome
(d) Nucleolus
Ans: (a)
14. Dutrochet has given the concept about cell in
(a) 1834
(b) 1814
(c) 1822
(d) 1824
Ans: (d)
15. The scientific name of gharial is
(a) Naja bungarus
(b) Gavialis gangeticus
(c) Hemidactylus flavivridis
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
16. Which of the given option is correct regarding the statements?
Statement I Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statement II Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.
(a) I wrong, II correct
(b) I correct, II wrong
(c) Both I and II are wrong
(d) Both are correct
Ans: (b)
17. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?
(a) Lower invertebrates
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Insecta
(d) Annelida
Ans: (a)
18. Which of the following cells in earthworm play a role similar to liver in vertebrates?
(a) Amoebocytes
(b) Mucocytes
(c) Chloragogen cells
(d) Epidermal cells
Ans: (c)
19. Match the following and select the correct option.
(a) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-5
Ans: (a)
20. Chondrichthyes is characterized by
(a) placoid scale
(b) placoid scale and ventral mouth
(c) ventral mouth
(d) ctenoid scale and ventral mouth
Ans: (b)
21. Ichthylogy is study of
(a) aves
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) fishes
Ans: (d)
22. What will happen if ligaments are torn?
(a) Bone will become unfixed
(b) Bone will become fixed
(c) Bone less movable at joint and pain
(d) Bone will move freely at joint and no pain
Ans: (c)
23. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of
(a) membrane
(b) mucosa
(c) bone
(d) cartilage
Ans: (d)
24. Yellow bone marrow is found specially in the medullary cavity
(a) long bones
(b) spongy bones
(c) short bones
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
25. Match the items of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the code given below.
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Ans: (b)
26. Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is called
(a) dentine
(b) diastema
(c) enamel
(d) crown
Ans: (b)
27. Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts.
(a) Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose
(b) Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid
(c) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Caesin
(d) Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland – Lactose
Ans: (c)
28. Endemic goiter is a state of
(a) normal thyroid function
(b) moderate thyroid function
(c) increased thyroid function
(d) decreased thyroid function
Ans: (d)
29. Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is
(a) ACTH
(b) LH
(c) ICSH
(d) Prolactin
Ans: (d)
30. What is another name for the wind pipe?
(a) Trachea
(b) Larynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Lungs
Ans: (a)
31. Soil salinity is measured by
(a) Porometer
(b) Calorimeter
(c) Conductivity meter
(d) Potometer
Ans: (c)
32. Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions.
(a) (+, +)
(b) (+, 0)
(c) (−, −)
(d) (+, −)
Ans: (d)
33. The ultimate source of energy for living being is
(a) sunlight
(b) ATP
(c) fats
(d) carbohydrates
Ans: (a)
34. Which of the following species are restricted to an area?
(a) Sympatric species
(b) Sibling species
(c) Allopatric species
(d) Endemic species
Ans: (d)
35. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over exploitation by men
(b) The mitotic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992
(c) Species diversity increase as we move away from the equator towards the poles
(d) Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India
Ans: (c)
36. The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is
(a) fatal
(b) synergistic
(c) mutualistic
(d) antagonistic
Ans: (b)
37. The thermostable enzymes, Taq and pfu, isolated from thermophilic bacteria are
(a) RNA polymerases
(b) DNA ligases
(c) DNA polymerases
(d) restriction endonucleases
Ans: (c)
38. Biolistic technique is used in
(a) gene transfer process
(b) tissue culture process
(c) hybridisation process
(d) germplasm conservation process
Ans: (a)
39. The largest gene in man is
(a) insulin gene
(b) tumour suppressor gene
(c) beta globin gene of haemoglobin
(d) dystrophin
Ans: (d)
40. Herbicide resistant gene in plant is
(a) Mt
(b) Gt
(c) Ct
(d) Bt
Ans: (d)
Botany
1. In photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted to carbohydrates. It is a …… process.
(a) reductive
(b) oxidative
(c) catabolic and exergonic
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
2. Which of the following is not an auxin?
(a) IAA
(b) IBA
(c) Zeatin
(d) NAA
Ans: (c)
3. Which of the following properties is shown by cytokinins?
(a) Delay leaf senescence
(b) Cause leaf abscission
(c) Promote seed dormancy
(d) Promote stomatal closing
Ans: (a)
4. Which of the following characteristics is are exhibited by C4-plants?
I. Kranz anatomy.
II. The first product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid.
III. Both PEP carboxylates and ribulose biphosphate carboxylate act as carboxylating enzymes.
The correct option is
(a) I and III, but not II
(b) I and II, but not III
(c) II and III, but not I
(d) II and III
Ans: (d)
5. Which of the following plant keeps it stomata open during night and closed during the day?
(a) Orchid
(b) Cactus
(c) Tea
(d) Wheat
Ans: (b)
6. Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by
(a) gibberellin
(b) ethyelen
(c) auxin
(d) ABA
Ans: (a)
7. Hormone inducing fruit ripening is
(a) cytokinin
(b) ethylene
(c) abscissic acid
(d) gibberellic acid
Ans: (b)
8. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to
(a) discovery of genes
(b) principle of linkage
(c) chromosome theory of heredity
(d) rediscovery of Mendelism
Ans: (d)
9. F1-generation means
(a) first filial generation
(b) first seed generation
(c) first flowering generation
(d) first fertile generation
Ans: (a)
10. Skin colour is controlled by
(a) single gene
(b) 3 pair of genes
(c) 2 pairs of genes
(d) 2 pairs of genes with an intragene
Ans: (b)
11. Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?
(a) AA × Aa
(b) AA × aa
(c) Aa × Aa
(d) Aa × AA
Ans: (c)
12. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
(a) Funaria and Ficus
(b) Fern and Funaria
(c) Funaria and Pinus
(d) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
Ans: (b)
13. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(a) Equisetum
(b) Dryopteris
(c) Salvinia
(d) Adiantum
Ans: (c)
14. Cycas revolute is popularly known as
(a) sago palm
(b) royal palm
(c) data palm
(d) sea palm
Ans: (a)
15. Match the following with correct combination.
(a) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-2
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-2
(d) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, C-3
Ans: (d)
16. Bacterial endotoxin is
(a) a toxic protein that stays inside the bacterial cell
(b) a toxic protein that is excreted into the medium
(c) lipopolysaccharide located on the surface of the bacteria
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
17. Endosperm of gymnosperms is
(a) haploid
(b) tetraploid
(c) diploid
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
18. First vascular plant is
(a) thallophyta
(b) pteridophyta
(c) bryophyta
(d) spermatophyta
Ans: (b)
19. Diatomaceous earth is obtained from
(a) Bacillarophyceae
(b) Xanthophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Chrysophyceae
Ans: (a)
20. Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing chloroplast?
(a) Stomata
(b) Hydathode
(c) Guard cell
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
21. The structures present in the roots to absorb water and minerals is
(a) epidermal extensions
(b) hypodermis
(c) endodermis
(d) epidermal appendages
Ans: (a)
22. Lady finger belongs to family
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Brassicaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Ans: (a)
23. The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of
(a) Cucurbita
(b) Salvia
(c) Calotropis
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
24. Wound healing is due to
(a) ventral meristem
(b) secondary meristem
(c) primary meristem
(d) All of these
Ans: (b)
25. Angular collenchymas occurs in
(a) Salvia
(b) Helianthus
(c) Althaea
(d) Cucurbita
Ans: (d)
26. In pteridophytes, phloem is without
(a) bast fibers
(b) sieve tubes
(c) companion cells
(d) sieve cells
Ans: (c)
27. Match the following entities of column I with their respective orders of column II and choose the correct combination form the option.
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Ans: (a)
28. Agar-agar is produce by
(a) fungi
(b) algae
(c) bacteria
(d) blue-green algae
Ans: (b)
29. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair
(a) A-G, C-T
(b) A-T, G-C
(c) A-C, G-T, A-C, E-T
(d) All of these
Ans: (b)
30. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is
(a) 60
(b) 240
(c) 120
(d) 480
Ans: (d)
31. Lactose is composed of
(a) glucose + glucose
(b) glucose + galactose
(c) glucose + fructose
(d) fructose + galactose
Ans: (b)
32. Meiosis is best observed in dividing
(a) Cell of lateral meristem
(b) Cells of apical meristem
(c) microsporocytes
(d) microspores and anther wall
Ans: (c)
33. Study the following statements and select the correct option.
I. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
II. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
III. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water.
IV. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.
(a) I, II, and IV are correct, but III is incorrect
(b) I and II are correct, but III and IV are incorrect
(c) I and IV are correct, but II and III are incorrect
(d) I, III and IV are correct, but I is incorrect
Ans: (a)
34. Masses of pollen grains, i.e., pollinia is found in
(a) Graminease
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Orchidaceae
(d) Malvaceae
Ans: (c)
35. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from
(a) Taxus brevifolia
(b) Berberis nilghiriensis
(c) Cinchona officinalis
(d) Papaver somniferum
Ans: (d)
36. Pebrine is a disease of
(a) fish
(b) honey bee
(c) silk worm
(d) lac insect
Ans: (c)
37. Factor govering the earth surface is
(a) topographic
(b) edaphic
(c) temperature
(d) bioitc
Ans: (a)
38. The direction of energy flow is
(a) Producers → Herbivores → Decomposers → Omnivores
(b) Producers → Carnivore → Herbivores → Decomposes
(c) Decomposers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Producers
(d) Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers
Ans: (d)
39. If the Bengal tiger become extinct
(a) hyenas and wolves will become scarce
(b) its gene pool will be lost forever
(c) the wild areas will be safe far man and domestic
(d) the population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilised
Ans: (b)
40. Biological treatment of water pollution is done with the help of
(a) fungi
(b) lichen
(c) phytoplanktons
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
English
Directions (Q. No. 1-5) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested from each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
1. The little girl ……. for the light switch in the dark.
(a) groped
(b) grappled
(c) gripped
(d) groveled
Ans: (a)
2. The summit meeting provided him the much……shot in the arm.
(a) required
(b) desired
(c) needed
(d) urgent
Ans: (c)
3. We must……..the tickets for the movie in advance.
(a) draw
(b) buy
(c) remove
(d) take
Ans: (b)
4. The State Transport Corporation has ……..a loss of Rs. 5crore this year.
(a) obtained
(b) derived
(c) incurred
(d) formulated
Ans: (c)
5. …. and you know who among them is the culprit.
(a) look
(b) deep
(c) sight
(d) gaze
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, Choose the one which best express the meaning of the given word.
6. GAINSAY
(a) Advantage
(b) Proposal
(c) Contradict
(d) Suggestion
Ans: (c)
7. PROFOUND
(a) Profuse
(b) Boundless
(c) Deep
(d) Fathomless
Ans: (c)
8. FLAK
(a) Adventure
(b) Advice
(c) Criticism
(d) Praise
Ans: (c)
9. HOODLUM
(a) Pioneer
(b) Criminal
(c) Devotee
(d) Scholar
Ans: (b)
10. SPASMODIC
(a) Continuous
(b) Gradual
(c) Intermittent
(d) Spontaneous
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
11. FILTHY
(a) Stainless
(b) Shining
(c) Sterilised
(d) Clean
Ans: (d)
12. CROWDED
(a) Deserted
(b) Lonely
(c) Empty
(d) Barren
Ans: (a)
13. VAGUE
(a) Known
(b) Published
(c) Popular
(d) Definite
Ans: (d)
14. SUPERVISE
(a) Overlook
(b) Misdirect
(c) Neglect
(d) Forget
Ans: (b)
15. MAGNANIMOUS
(a) Selfish
(b) Naive
(c) Generous
(d) Small
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
16. We have to keep our finger crossed till the final result is declared
(a) keep praying
(b) feel suspicious
(c) wait expectantly
(d) feel scared
Ans: (c)
17. The members of the group were at odds over the selection procedure.
(a) acting foolishly
(b) in dispute
(c) unanimous
(d) behaving childishly
Ans: (b)
18. The popularity of the yesteryears’ superstar is one the wane.
(a) growing more
(b) at its peak
(c) growing less
(d) at rock -bottom
Ans: (c)
19. His father advised him to the fair and square in this dealings lest he should fall into trouble.
(a) considerate
(b) upright
(c) careful
(d) polite
Ans: (b)
20. There is no love lost between the two neighbours.
(a) close friendship
(b) intense dislike
(c) a love-hate relationship
(d) cool indifference
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer (d).
21. Ravi has got many friends because he has got much money.
(a) Enough money
(b) A lot of money
(c) Bags of money
(d) No improvement
Ans: (b)
22. You must try making him to understand.
(a) Make him understand
(b) To making him understand
(c) To make him understand
(d) No improvement
Ans: (c)
23. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.
(a) Mind blank
(b) Eyes covered
(c) Hands full
(d) No improvement
Ans: (d)
24. Not a word they spoke to the unfortunate wife about it.
(a) They had spoken
(b) Did they speak
(c) They will speak
(d) No improvement
Ans: (b)
25. There is sufficient fund to meet the requirement of the entire schools in our zone.
(a) Schools
(b) All the schools
(c) All of the schools
(d) No improvement
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
26. Word for word reproduction.
(a) Copying
(b) Mugging
(c) Verbatim
(d) Photostat
Ans: (c)
27. A person who collects coins.
(a) Philatelist
(b) Numismatist
(c) Narcissist
(d) Fatalist
Ans: (b)
28. That which is perceptible by touch
(a) Tangible
(b) Tenacious
(c) Contagious
(d) Contingent
Ans: (a)
29. One who possesses many talents.
(a) Versatile
(b) Gifted
(c) Exceptional
(d) Nubile
Ans: (a)
30. A person who studies the formation of the Earth.
(a) Meteorologist
(b) Anthropologist
(c) Geologist
(d) Seismologist
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These parts are not given in their proper order. Rearrange these parts in their proper order and find out which of the given four combination is correct?
31. (1) In reply to a question
(P) that securing extradition
(Q) operating from the UK soil remained
(R) of anti-India elements
(S) The spokesman said
(6) New Delhi’s first priority.
(a) PRQS
(b) QSPR
(c) RQSP
(d) SPRQ
Ans: (d)
32. (1) The first component is
(P) and vocational training
(Q) so as to enable them
(R) the provision of further technical
(S) so both rural and urban youth
(6) to secure employment in industry and the services sector.
(a) PRSQ
(b) RPSQ
(c) RSQP
(d) SRPQ
Ans: (b)
33. (1) The move to revert to a six-day week
(P) among the employees
(Q) while the leaders represented to the Chief Minister
(R) that they be taken into confidence
(S) led to an animated decision
(6) before any decision was taken.
(a) QPSR
(b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR
(d) SQPR
Ans: (c)
34. (1) It was obvious
(P) made by him
(Q) submitted at the meeting
(R) from the comments
(S) on the draft proposals
(6) that he was not satisfied with them.
(a) PSRQ
(b) QRSP
(c) RPSQ
(d) SQRP
Ans: (c)
35. (1) The Minister of state for power
(P) in conservation of electricity in industries
(Q) has written to his counterparts in State Government
(S) on bringing about improvement
(6) by introduction of energy efficient equipment.
(a) QPSR
(b) RPSQ
(c) SPQR
(d) SQPR
Ans: (b)
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
In this work of incessant and feverish activity, men have little time to think, much less to consider ideals and objectives. Yet how are we to act, even in the present, unless we know which way we are going and what our objectives are? It is only in the peaceful atmosphere of a university that these basic problems can be adequately considered.
It is only when the young men and women, who are in the university today and on whom the burden of life’s problems will fall tomorrow, learn to have clear objectives and standards of values that there is hope for the next generation. The past generation produced some great men but as a generation led the world repeatedly to disaster. World Wars IInd are the price that has been paid for the lack of wisdom on man’s part in this generation.
I think that there is always a close and intimate relationship between the end we aim at and the mean adopted to attain it.
Even, if the end is right, but the means are wrong, it will vitiate the end or divert us in a wrong direction. Means and ends are thus intimately and inextricably connected and cannot be separated.
That indeed has been the lesson of old taught us by many great men in the past, but unfortunately it seldom remembered.
36. People have little time to consider ideals and objectives because
(a) they consider these ideals meaningless
(b) they do not want to burden themselves with such ideas
(c) they have no inclination for such things
(d) they are excessively engaged in their routine activities
Ans: (d)
37. ‘The burden of life’s problems’ in the fourth sentence refers to
(a) the incessant and feverish activities
(b) the burden of family responsibilities
(c) the onerous duties of life
(d) the sorrows and sufferings
Ans: (c)
38. The world Wars IInd are the price that man paid due to
(a) the absence of wisdom and sagacity
(b) his not caring to consider the life’s problems
(c) his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life
(d) his excessive involvement in feverish activities.
Ans: (a)
39. According to the writer the adoption of wrong means even for the right end would
(a) not let us attain our goal
(b) bring us dishonour
(c) impede our progress
(d) deflect us from the right path
Ans: (d)
40. The word ‘vitiate’ used in the second paragraph means
(a) negate
(b) debase
(c) tarnish
(d) destroy
Ans: (b)
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