BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Exam Question Paper 2001 With Answer Key

BSNL J.T.O. Recruitment Exam 2001

Paper-I

1. A second-order system has a transfer function given by  If the system, initially at rest is subjected to a unit step input at t = 0, the second peak in the response will occur at

(A)  π sec

(B)  π/3 sec

(C)  π/2 sec

(D)  2π/3 sec

Answer: (A)

2. The open-loop transfer function of a feedback control system is  The gain margin of the system is

(A)  2

(B)  8

(C)  4

(D)  16

Answer: (B)

3. A silicon sample is uniformly doped with 1016 phosphrous atoms/cm3 and 2 × 1016 boron atoms/cm3. If all the dopants are full ionized, the material is

(A)  p-type with carrier concentration of 2 × 1016/cm3

(B)  p-type with carrier concentration of 1016/cm3

(C)  n-type with carrier concentration of 1016/cm3

(D)  T2-will get damaged and T1 will be safe.

Answer: (B)

4. The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel-out, right-shift, Shift Register shown in fig. is 0110. After 3 clock pulses are applied, the contents of the Shift Register will be

(A)  1 1 1 1

(B)  0 1 0 1

(C)  1 0 1 0

(D)  0 0 0 0

Answer: (C)

5. shows the circuit of a gate in the Resistor Transistor Logic (RTL) family. The circuit represents a

(A)  NAND

(B)  OR

(C)  NOR

(D)  AND

Answer: (B)

6. The logic realized by the circuit shown in Fig. is 

(A)  F = B . C

(B)  F = A ⊕ C

(C)  F = A . C

(D)  F = B + C

Answer: (B)

7. In a multicavity magnetron, strapping is employed primarily

(A)  to prevent mode jumping

(B)  to increase the output of the magnetron

(C)  to reduce the back heating of the cathode

(D)  to increase the separation between the resonant frequencies in the π-mode and in the adjacent modes

Answer: (A, D)

8. A Lissajous pattern, as shown in Fig. is observed on the screen of a CRO when voltages of frequencies fx and fy are applied to the x and y plates respectively. fx : fy is then equal to

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  2 : 1

(D)  2 : 3

Answer: (B)

9. In the transistor circuit shown in Fig. collector-to-ground voltage is +20 V. Which of the following is the probable cause of error?

(A)  Emitter to ground connection open

(B)  Collector-emitter terminals shorted

(C)  10kΩ resistor open

(D)  Collector-base terminals shorted

Answer: (A)

10. Part of the digital phase meter is shown in the fig. If the input signals are VB(t) = VR sin ωt and VP(t) = VP sin(ωt + 30°) the reading of the meter will be

(A)  210°

(B)  330°

(C)  150°

(D)  30°

Answer: (A)

11. The response of an initially relaxed linear constant parameter network to a unit impulse applied at t = 0 is 4 e2tu(t). The response at this network to a unit step Function will be:

(A)  (1 – 4e4t)u(t)

(B)  4[et – e2t] u(t)

(C)  sin 2t

(D)  2[1 – e2tu(t)]

Answer: (B)

12. The open circuit  impedance matrix of the 2-port network shown in Fig. is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)  

Answer: (A)

13. The impulse response and the excitation function of a linear time invariant causal system are shown in Fig. (i) and (ii) respectively. The output of the system at t = 2 sec is equal to

.

(A)  0

(B)  3/2

(C)  1/2

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

14. An electromechanical closed-loop control system has the following characteristic equation

s3 + 6Ks2 + (K + 2) s + 8 = 0

where K is the forward gain of the system.

The condition for closed loop stability is

(A)  K = −0.528

(B)  K = 2

(C)  K = 0

(D)  K = 0.528

Answer: (D)

15. In a uniformaly doped abrupt p-n junction, the doping level of the n-side is four time the doping level of the p-side. The ratio of the depletion layer width is

(A)  2.0

(B)  0.5

(C)  1.0

(D)  0.25

Answer: (D)

16. LEDs have response time of the order of

(A)  100 ns

(B)  1 ns

(C)  0.1 ns

(D)  1 μs

Answer: (A)

17. Zero mean white noise is passed through an ideal low pass filter with cut off at W Hz. The filter output will be uncorrelated at time instants spaced

(A)  

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

18. A 4HGz carrier is DSBSC modulated by low pass message signal with maximum frequency of 2 MHz. The resultant signal is to be ideally sampled. The minimum frequency of the sampling in train should be

(A)  4 MHz

(B)  8 MHz

(C)  8.004 GHz

(D)  8 GHz

Answer: (C)

19. Which of the following field equations indicate that the free magnetic changes do not exist

(A)   

(B)  ∇ ∙ H = 0

(C)   

(D)  ∇ × H = J

Answer: (B)

20. Two isotropic antennas are separated by a distance of two wavelengths. If both the antennas are fed with currents of equal phase and magnitude, the number of lobes in the radiation pattern in the horizontal plane are

(A)  6

(B)  4

(C)  2

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

21. Value of R in the oscillator circuit shown in Fig. is so chosen that is just oscillates at an angular frequency of ω. The value of ω and the required value of R will respectively be

(A)  2 × 104 rad/sec, 2 × 104Ω

(B)  105 rad/sec’ 2 × 104Ω

(C)  2 × 104 rad/sec, 105Ω

(D)  105 rad/sec, 105Ω

Answer: (B)

22. The following sequence of instruction are executed by an 8085 microprocessor

1000    LXI             SP,    27 FF

1003    CALL                   1006

1006    POP H

The contents of the stack pointer (SP) and the HL, register pair on completion of execution of these instructions are

(A)  SP = 27 FF, HL = 1006

(B)  SP = 27 FD, HL = 1003

(C)  SP = 27 FF, HL = 1003

(D)  SP = 27 FD, HL = 1006

Answer: (D)

23. A 1 km long microwave link uses two antennas each having 30 dB gain. If the power transmitted by one antenna is a 1 W at 3 GHz, the power received by the other antenna is approximately

(A)  98.6 μW

(B)  76.8 μW

(C)  55.2 μW

(D)  63.4 μW

Answer: (D)

24. A rectangular air-filled waveguide has cross section of 4 cm × 10 cm. The minimum frequency which can propagate in the waveguide is

(A)  1.5 GHz

(B)  3.0 GHz

(C)  2.5 GHz

(D)  2.0 GHz

Answer: (A)

25. A deterministic signal has the power spectrum given in Fig. The minimum sampling needed to completely represent this signal is

(A)  3 kHz

(B)  2 kHz

(C)  1 kHz

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

26. The decoding circuit show in fig. has been used to generate the active low chip select signal for microprocessor peripheral. (The address lines are designated as A2 to A7 for I-O address)

The peripheral will correspond to IO address in the range

(A)  60 H to 63 H

(B)  30 H to 33 H

(C)  A 4 H to A 7 H

(D)  70 H to 73 H

Answer: (A)

27. In a J – K flip-flop we have J = 1, K = 1. Assuming the flip flop was initially cleared and then clocked for 6 pulses, the sequence at the Q output will we

(A)  010101

(B)  011001

(C)  010010

(D)  010000

Answer: (A)

28. In the MOSFET amplifier of fig, the signal outputs V1 and V2 obey the relationship

(A)  V1 = V2/2

(B)  V1 = −2V2

(C)  V1 = 2V2

(D)  V1 = −V2/2

Answer: (A)

29. shows a mod-K counter. Here K is equal to

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

30. The time averaged Poynting vector in W/m2, for a wave with  in free space is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (C)

31. In the circuit, C0 is the distributed capacitance of the coil and C is the tuning capacitor. If C = C1 for the fundamental harmonic frequency and C = C2 for the second harmonic frequency, then the value of C0 can be expressed as

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

32. The 3dB bandwidth of a typical second-rode system with the transfer function  is given by

(A)   

(B)  

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

33. A small concentration of minority carries is injected into a homogeneous semiconductor crystal at one point. An electric field of 10 V/cm is applied across the crystal and this moves the minority carriers a distance of 1 cm is 20 μ The mobility (in cm2/volt.sec)

(A)  5,000

(B)  2,000

(C)  1,000

(D)  500,000

Answer: (A)

34. v(t) = 5[cos(106πt) – sin(103πt) x sin (106πt)] represents

(A)  AM signal

(B)  DSB suppressed carrier signal

(C)  SSB upper sideband signal

(D)  Narrow band FM signal

Answer: (D)

35. The drift velocity of electros, in silicon

(A)  is proportional to the electric field for all values of electric field

(B)  is independent of the electric field

(C)  increase linearly with electric field at low values of electric field and gradually saturates at higher values of electric field 

(D)  increases at low values of electric field and decreases at high values of electric field exhibiting negative differential resistance

Answer: (C)

36. The diffusion potential across a P-N junction

(A)  does not depend on doping concentrations

(B)  increases with decreasing band gap

(C)  decreases with increasing doping concentration

(D)  increases with increase in doping concentrations

Answer: (D)

37. The output of the circuit show in Fig. is equal to

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

38. A 12-bit ADC is operating with a 1μ sec clock period and the total conversion time is seen to be 14μ The ADC must be of the

(A)  flash type

(B)  integrating type

(C)  counter type

(D)  successive approximation type

Answer: (D)

39. A uniform plane wave in air is normally incident on an infinitely thick slab. If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5 then the percentage of the incident power that is reflected from the air-glass interface is

(A)  100%

(B)  4%

(C)  20%

(D)  0%

Answer: (B)

40. A silicon a MOSFET has a threshold voltage of 1 V and oxide thickness of 400 A°. [εr (SiO2) = 3.9, ε0 = 8.854 × 1014 F/cm, q = 1.6 × 1010 C]. The region under the gate is ion implanted for threshold voltage tailoring. The dose and type of the implant (assumed to be a sheet charge at the interface) required to shift the threshold voltage to −1Vare

(A)  1.08 × 1012/cm2, p – type

(B)  1.08 × 1012/cm2, n – type

(C)  5.4 × 1011/cm2, n – type

(D)  5.4 × 1011/cm2, p – type

Answer: (A)

41. For a flip-flop formed from two NAND gates as shown in fig. The unusable state corresponds to

(A)  X = 0, Y = 0

(B)  X = 0 , Y = 1

(C)  X = 1, Y = 0

(D)  X = 1, Y = 1

Answer: (A)

42. Fig. shows the electrostatic vertical deflection system of CRT. Given that VA is the accelerating voltage, the deflection sensitivity (deflection/volt) is proportional to

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (C)

43. Fig. shows the input attenuator of a multimeter. The meter reads full scale with 12V at M, with the range switch at position ‘q’. What is the required voltage at M to obtain full scale deflection with the range switch at position ‘s’?

(A)  1 V

(B)  120 V

(C)  150 V

(D)  147 V

Answer: (B)

44. Viewed from the terminals A, B the following circuit shown in fig. can be reduced to an equivalent circuit of a single voltage source in series with a single resistor with the following parameters

(A)  5 volt source in series with 10Ω resistor

(B)  1 volt source in series with 2.4Ω resistor

(C)  1 volt source in series with 10Ω resistor

(D)  15 volt source in series with 2.4 Ω resistor

Answer: (B)

45. The phase lead compensation is used to

(A)  increase rise time and decrease overshoot

(B)  decrease rise time and increase overshoot

(C)  increase both rise tie and overshoot

(D)  decrease both rise time and overshoot

Answer: (B)

46. Gauss-Seidal iterative method can be used for solving a set of

(A)  linear algebraic equations only

(B)  linear differential equations only

(C)  both linear and non-linear algebraic equations

(D)  both linear and nonlinear differential equations

Answer: (A)

47. For the system shown in fig. with a damping ratio ζ of 0.7 and an undamped natural frequency ωn of 4 rad/sec, the values of K an a are

(A)  K = 4, a = 0.35

(B)  K = 64, a = 0.9

(C)  K = 16, a = 0.225

(D)  K = 8, a = 0.455

Answer: (C)

48. A water boiler at home is switched on to the a.c. mains supplying power at 230 V/50 Hz. The frequency of instantaneous power consume by the boiler is

(A)  0 Hz

(B)  150 Hz

(C)  100 Hz

(D)  50 Hz

Answer: (C)

49. In the circuit shown in fig. X is an element which always absorbs power. During a particular operations, it sets up a current of 1 amp in the direction shown and absorbs a power Px. It is possible that X can absorb the same power Px for another current i, the value of this current is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  5 amps

(D)  none of these

Answer: (D)

50. Two concentric square loops A and B carry equal currents in the same direction. The magnetic field at O due to the two loops A and B will be in the ratio

(A)  1 : 1.414

(B)  2 : 1

(C)  1.414 : 1

(D)  1 : 1

Answer: (B)

PAPER-II

51. The amplitude modulated waveform s(t) = Ac[1 + Kam(t)] cos ωct is fed to an ideal envelope detector. The maximum magnitude of Kam(t) is greater than 1. Which of the following could be the detector output?

(A)  Acm(t)

(B)  Ac[1 + Kam(t)]2

(C)  |Ac[1 + Kam(t)]

(D) 

 

Answer: (C)

52. An 8 bit successive approximation analog to digital converter has a full scale reading of 2.55 V and its onversion time for an analog input of 1V is 20

(A)  40 μs

(B)  20 μs

(C)  10 μs

(D)  50 μs

Answer: (B)

53. Maximum phase-lead of the compensator  is

(A)  55 degrees at 12 rad/sec

(B)  52 degrees at 10 rad/sec

(C)  52 degrees at 4 rad/sec

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

54. The characteristic equation of a feedback control system is 2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 10 = 0. The number of roots in th right half of s-plane are

(A)  0

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  1

Answer: (C)

55. A step down chopper operate from a dc voltage source Vs and feeds a dc motor armature with a back emf Eb. From oscilloscope traces, it is found that the current increases for time t, falls to zero over time tf and remins zero for time to in every chopping cycle. Then the average dc voltage across the freewheeling diode is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

56. A dual-slope analog-to-digital converter uses an N-bit counter. When the input signal Va is being integratd, the counter is allowed to count up to a value

(A)  equal to 2N – 1

(B)  equal to 2N – 2

(C)  proportional to Va

(D)  inversely proportional to Va

Answer: (D)

57. A current of [2 + √2 sin(314t + 30°) + 2√2 cos (952t + 45°)] is measured with a thermocouple type, 5 A full-scale, class 1 meter. The meter reading would lie in the range.

(A)  5A ± 1%

(B)  2A ± 2.5%

(C)  3A ± 1.7%

(D)  (2 + 3√2) A ± 1%

Answer: (C)

58. The voltage phasor of a circuit is V and the current phasor is  The active and the reactive powers in the circuit are

(A)  10 W and 1732 VAR

(B)  5 W and 8.66 VAR

(C)  20√2 W and 10√2 VAR

(D)  20 W and 60 VAR

Answer: (A)

59. A fixed capacitor of reactance –j0-02Ω is connected in parallel across a series combination of a fixed inductor of reactance j0.01Ω and a variable resistance R. As R is varied from zero infinity, the diagonal of the admittance of this L-C-R circuit will be

(A)  a semi-circle of diameter j 50 and center at zero

(B)  a semi-circle of diameter j 100 and center at zero

(C)  a straight line inclined at an angle

(D)  a straight line parallel to the x-axis

Answer: (B)

60. The function corresponding to the Bode plot of fig. is

(A)  A = j f/f1

(B)  A =1/(1 – j f1/f)

(C)  A = 1/(1 + J f1/f)

(D)  A = 1 + j f/f1

Answer: (D)

61. A parabolic dish has a diameter of 10 m. The maximum possible (ideal) gain of the antenna at λ = 314 cm will be

(A)  50 dB

(B)  40 dB

(C)  30 dB

(D)  60 dB

Answer: (D)

62. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on

(A)  feed pattern

(B)  surface losses

(C)  antenna aperture

(D)  low side lobe level

Answer: (C)

63. Which one of the following is the Fourier transform of the signal given in Figure (i) if the Fourier transform of the signal in Figure (ii) is given by  ?

(A)   

(B) 

(C)   

(D) 

Answer: (A)

64. A conductor having surface density σ is embedded in a dielectric medium of permittivity ε. The electric field in the medium is E. If it is known that the pressure p on the conductor surface is equal to the electric energy density in the medium, then p (in SI units) is given by

(A) 

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

65. The semiconductor diode which can be used in switching circuits at microwave range is

(A)  Gunn diode

(B)  varactor diode

(C)  tunnel diode

(D)  PIN diode

Answer: (D)

66. Noise temperature (T) and gain (G) are two important parameters of satellite antennas. Which one of the following antennas has the largest G/T ratio?

(A)  Parabolic reflector

(B)  Pyramidal horn antenna

(C)  Cassegranian antenna

(D)  Dipole antenna

Answer: (C)

67. A square waveguide carries TE11 mode whose axial magnetic field is given by  where the waveguide dimensions are in centimeters. What is the cut-off frequency of the mode?

(A)  6.5 GHz

(B)  7.5 GHz

(C)  5 GHz

(D)  8 GHz

Answer: (B)

68. Under what condition will the instrumentation amplifier circuit given in the figure possess highest CMRR? (Rs1 and Rs2 source resistances)

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

69. In the root-locus for open-loop transfer function  the break away and break in points are located respectively at

(A)  −7.73 and +4.27

(B)  −2.47 and −3.77

(C)  −4.27 and −7.73

(D)  −2 and −1

Answer: (C)

70. An amplifier operating over the frequency range o f 18 to 20 MHz has a 10k Ω input resistance. The RMS noise voltage at the input to the amplifier at ambient temperature of 27℃ is (Assume the Boltzman constant value as 1.38 × 10−23 J/K)

(A)  16.2 microvolts

(B)  17.2 microvolts

(C)  18.2 microvolts

(D)  14.2 microvolts

Answer: (C)

71. An infinite number of concentric rings carry a charge Q each alternately positive and negative. Their radii are 1, 2, 4, 8 .. meters in geometric progression as shown. The potential at the centre of the will be

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (C)

72. If the vector  represents a magnetic field, then the value of k must be

(A)  −1

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  −2

Answer: (D)

73. Two isotropic antennas are separated by a distance of two wavelengths. If both the antennas are with currents of equal phase and magnitude, the number of lobes in the radiation pattern in the horizontal plane is

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

74. In a rectangular cavity resonator having a = width, b = height and d = length for a > b < d. the dominant mode is

(A)  TE101

(B)  TM110

(C)  TE110

(D)  TM101

Answer: (A)

75. The arrangement shown in figure represents an RC potentiomer for measuring ac voltage. What should be the value of C so that V0/Vin is independent of the frequency of the input signal?

(A)  0.10 μF

(B)  11 μF

(C)  10 μF

(D)  0.09 μF

Answer: (C)

76. The Q factor of a radio coil is

(A)  independent of frequency

(B)  increases monotonically as frequency increases

(C)  increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

(D)  decreases monotonically as frequency increases

Answer: (C)

77.Which of the following oriented graphs have the same fundamental loop matrix?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)  1 and 2

(B)  1, 3 and 4

(C)  2 and 3

(D)  2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

78. The logic circuit given below converts a binary code y1y2y3 into

(A)  Excess-3 code

(B)  BCD code

(C)  Gray code

(D)  Hamming code

Answer: (C)

79. A control system is as shown in figure. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is

(A)  √3

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

80. The demarcation between Fresnel region and Fraunhofer region fairly approximated by minimum distance between antennas for pattern measurement is (given that R = distance between antennas, D = largest aperture dimension and λ = wavelength)

(A)  R = 2 D22

(B)  R = λ2/2 D2

(C)  R = 2 D2/ λ

(D)  R = λ/2 D2

Answer: (C)

81. Measurement of Hall Effect coefficient in a semiconductor provides information on the

(A)  sign of charge carriers alone

(B)  mass and concentration of charge carriers

(C)  sign and mass of charge carriers

(D)  sign and concentration of charge carriers

Answer: (B)

82. The circuit shown in figure is a

(A)  monostable multivibrator

(B)  bootstrap sweep circuit

(C)  Miller sweep circuit

(D)  frequency division circuit

Answer: (A)

83. The input pulses to the different stages of the counter shown in figure must be of

(A)  constant frequency and constant width

(B)  variable frequency but constant width

(C)  constant frequency but variable width

(D)  variable frequency as well as variable width

Answer: (D)

84. The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4 kHz bandwidth and 15 dB SNR is approximately

(A)  20,000 bps

(B)  8,000 bps

(C)  10,000 bps

(D)  16,000 bps

Answer: (D)

85. Which one of t he following is a transferred electron device?

(A)  BARITT diode

(B)  Gunn diode

(C)  IMPATT diode

(D)  Step recovery diode

Answer: (B)

86. The slow-wave structures of a TWT is provided with an attenuator. Which one of the following is the function of such an attenuator?

(A)  It prevents the RF power from reaching the output of the device when the beam is switched on

(B)  It reduces the noise level of the device

(C)  It prevents oscillations in the device

(D)  It is used to broadband of the device

Answer: (B)

87. On a resistively terminated high frequency loss-less transmission line fed by a 500 MHz source, the VSWR is found to be equal to 2 and the first voltage minimum is measured at 30 cm from the load end. What is the value of the “normalized” load resistance?

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  1/4

(D)  1/2

Answer: (D)

88. In the voltage regulator shown in Fig. the load current can vary from 100 mA to 500 mA. Assuming that the Zener diode is ideal (i.e., the Zener knee current is negligibly small and Zener resistance is zero in the breakdown region), the value of R is

(A)  7Ω

(B)  70Ω

(C)   

(D)  14Ω

Answer: (D)

89. Assume that the op-amp of fig. is ideal. If vi is a triangular wave, then v­0 will be

(A)  triangular wave

(B)  square wave

(C)  parabolic wave

(D)  sine wave

Answer: (B)

90. Two carriers 40 MHz and 80 MHz respectively are frequency modulated by a signal of frequency 4 kHz, such that the band-widths of the FM signal in the two cases are the same. The peak value deviation in the two cases are in the ratio of

(A)  1 : 4

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  1 : 1

(D)  2 : 1

Answer: (B)

91. What is the slope change at ω = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function?

(A)  −40 dB/dec to −20 dB/dec

(B)  −20 dB/dec to −40 dB/dec

(C)  40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec

(D)  40 dB/dec to −20 dB/dec

Answer: (D)

92. For the circuit shown in the figure, the instantaneous current ii(t) is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  5∠60° amps

(D)  5∠−60° amps

Answer: (A)

94. A JFET is set up as source follower. Given, μ = 200, rd = 100 K and source load resistance RL = 1 K. The output resistance R0 is given approximated by

(A)  1000Ω

(B)  500 Ω

(C)  333 Ω

(D)  666 Ω

Answer: (C)

95. The given figure shows a reflectometer arrangement to measure the parameters of an over coupled one-port cavity resonator at f0. With 100 mW of input power, the output power at B is 6.4 mW. What is the value of the coupling coefficient represent?

(A)  9

(B)  2.5

(C)  5

(D)  6.4

Answer: (D)

96. Two coils having equal resistances but different inductances are connected in series. The time constant of the series combination is the

(A)  sum of the time constants of the individual coils

(B)  average of the time constants of individual coils

(C)  geometric mean of the time constants of the individual coils

(D)  product of the time constants of the individual coils

Answer: (B)

97. An antenna of input resistance 73Ω is connected to a 50Ω If losses are ignored, then its efficiency will be nearly

(A)  0.19

(B)  0.81

(C)  1.19

(D)  0.97

Answer: (B)

98. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free-space enters into a lossless medium at normal incidence. In the medium its velocity reduces by 50% and in free-space sets up a standing wave having a reflection coefficient of −125. The permeability of the medium is,

(A)  2.57 μ0

(B)  1.60 μ0

(C)  1.26 μ0

(D)  3.5 μ0

Answer: (A)

99. In the graph shown in fig. for the tree with branches b, d and f, the fundamental loops would include

1, 2, 3, 4 are nodes

a, b, c, d, e f are branches

(A)  abc, def, bdea

(B)  adb, def, bfa

(C)  cea, bdea, abc

(D)  abde, def, cdb

Answer: (B)

100. An amplifier without feedback has a gain of 1000. The gain with a negative feedback of 0.009 is

(A)  1000

(B)  10

(C)  100

(D)  125

Answer: (C)

PAPER-III

101. “Dakshina Gangotri” is

(A)  The place from where Ganga originates

(B)  first nuclear submarine acquired by India

(C)  India’s permanent station at Antartica

(D)  A tributary or river Ganges

Answer: (C)

102. Which one of the following rulers built the Bibi Ka Maqbara?

(A)  Akbar

(B)  Shahjahan

(C)  Jahangir

(D)  Aurangzeb

Answer: (D)

103. Hunter Commission was appointed by the British Government to probe into

(A)  Chauri Chaura incident

(B)  demolition of Kanpur Mosque

(C)  Kakori train dacoity incident

(D)  Jalianwalla Bagh tragedy

Answer: (D)

104. Chilka lake is situated in

(A)  Andhra Pradesh

(B)  West Bengal

(C)  Assam

(D)  Orissa

Answer: (D)

105. India’s fifth Atomic power plant is being constructed is

(A)  Narora (U.P.)

(B)  Kaiga (Karnataka)

(C)  Kakrapar (Gujarat)

(D)  Rawa bhata (Rajasthan)

Answer: (A)

106. What does Angstrom measure?

(A)  Intensity of light

(B)  speed at flowing water

(C)  volume of liquids

(D)  Length of light waves

Answer: (D)

107. The phenomenon of “midnight Sun” is caused by the

(A)  inclination of earth’s axis

(B)  rotation of the earth on its axis

(C)  sun spots

(D)  nuclear explosions

Answer: (A)

108. Which one of the following is associated with the Gupta Age of Indian history?

(A)  Visit of Chinese pilgrim Husan Tsang

(B)  Significant contribution to poetry and literature by Banabhatta

(C)  Significant contribution to Indian astronomy by Aryabhatta

(D)  Macedonian invasion

Answer: (C)

109. Under-12 World Chess Championship in 1998 was won by

(A)  Tejas Bakre

(B)  Koneru Humpy

(C)  Vijayalakshmi

(D)  Dibyendu Barua

Answer: (B)

110. One of the most important foreign exchange earning herbs used in the treatment of several kinds of chronic dysentery is

(A)  Isabgol

(B)  Tulsi

(C)  Madhuca

(D)  Rauwolfia

Answer: (A)

111 to 114 : Direction-Read the passages that follows. The questions at the end of teach passage are based on the content to the passage. Choose your answers from the choice mentioned.

The need for sola electricity is clear. It is safe, ecologically sound, efficient, continuously available, and it has no moving parts. The basic problem with the use of solar photovoltaic devices is economics, but until recently every  little progress had been made towards the development of low-cost photovoltaic devices. The larger part of research funas has been devoted to study of single-crystal silicon solar cells, despite the evidence, including that of the leading manufacturing of crystalline silicon, that this technique holds little promise. The reason for this pattern is understandable and historical. Crystalline silicon is the active element in the very successful semi conductor industry and virtually all of the solid state devices contain silicon transistors and diodes. Crystalline silicon, however is particularly unsuitable to terrestrial solar cells.

Crystalline silicon solar cells work well and are successfully used in the space programme, where cost is not an issue. While single crystal silicon has been p proven in extraterrestrial use with efficiencies as high as 18% and other more expensive and scarce materials such as gallium arsenide can have even higher efficiencies, costs must be reduced by a factor of more than 100 to make them practical for commercial uses. Besides the fact that the starting crystalline silicon is expensive, 95% of it is wasted and does not appear in the final device. Recently there have been some imaginative attempts to make polycrystalline and ribbon silicon that are lower in cost than high quality single crystals; but to data the efficiencies of these apparently lower-cost arrays have been unacceptably small. Moreover, these materials are cheaper only because of the introduction of disordering in crystalline semiconductors, and disorder degrades the efficiency of crystalline solar cells.

The dilemma can be avoided by preparing completely disordered or amorphous materials Amorphous materials have disordered atomic structure as compared to crystalline materials, that is, they have only short-range order rather than the long-range periodicity of crystals. The advantage of amorphous solar cells are impressive. Whereas crystals can be grown as wafers about 4 inches in diameter, amorphous materials can be grown over large areas in a single process. Whereas crystalline silicon must be made 200 microns thick to absorb a sufficient amount of sun light for efficient energy conversion, only 1 micron of the proper amorphous materials is necessary. Crystalline silicon solar cells cost in excess of Rs. 100 per square foot, but amorphous films can be created at a cost of about 50 paise per square foot.

Although many scientists were aware of the very low cost of amorphous solar cells, they felt that they could never be manufactured with the efficiencies necessary to contribute significantly to the demand for electric power. This was based on a misconception about the feature which determines efficiency. For example, it is not the conductivity of the material in the dark that is relevant that only the photoconductivity, that is, the conductivity in the presence of sunlight. Already, solar cells with efficiencies will above 6% have been developed using amorphous materials and further research will doubtless find even less costly amorphous materials with higher efficiencies.

111. The material in the passage could best the used in an argument for

(A)  discontinuing the space programme

(B)  further study of the history of silicon crystals

(C)  increased funding for research on amorphous materials

(D)  increased reliance on solar energy

Answer: (C)

112. The author mentions which of the following as advantages of amorphous materials for solar cells over silicon crystals?

I. the relative thinness of amorphous materials

II. the cost of amorphous materials

III. the size of solar cells which can be made of amorphous material

(A)  I and II only

(B)  II only

(C)  I only

(D)  II and III only

Answer: (D)

113. The tone of the passage can best be described as

(A)  analytical and optimistic

(B)  tentative and inconclusive

(C)  critical and discouraged 

(D)  biased and unprofessional

Answer: (A)

114. The author is primarily concerned with

(A)  explaining the functioning of solar cells

(B)  discussing the importance of solar energy

(C)  presenting a history of research on energy sources

(D)  describing a possible solution to the problem of the cost of photovoltaic cells

Answer: (D)

Questions (115 to 116): Direction- In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicates your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

115. Perhaps the governments too in its efforts

 (a)

to make the  truth being know

 (b)

should take some sincere steps in that direction

 (c)

No error

 (d)

Answer: (B)

116. An open administration will not help

 (a)

if government rules are complicated and incomprehensible

 (b)

for the affected public

 (c)

No error

(d)

Answer: (C)

117. Find the most similar word in meaning

BRAGGADOCIO

(A)  encounter

(B)  boasting

(C)  weaponry

(D)  position

Answer: (B)

118. Find the most similar word in meaning

INCORRIGIBLE

(A)  narrow

(B)  unreformable

(C)  inconceivable

(D)  straight

Answer: (B)

119. Find the opposite word in meaning

CARNAL

(A)  actual

(B)  minute

(C)  spiritual

(D)  impressive

Answer: (C)

120. Find the opposite word in meaning

JETTISON

(A)  salvage

(B)  descend

(C)  submerge

(D)  decelerate

Answer: (A)


BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2002 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2001 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Exam Question Paper 2002 With Answer Key

BSNL JTO 2002 question paper

BSNL J.T.O Recruitment Exam 2002

Paper-I

1. Two capacitors are connected in series. The first capacitor is of capacitance 40 μF and break down voltage 60 V and capacitance of second capacitor is 60 μF and break down voltage is 40 V. What condition is satisfied?

(A)  First capacitor  break down is first

(B)  The charge equal to the both capacitor

(C)  Second capacitor break down is first

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

2. What is the state equation for the nth order of differential equation,

(A)  (n – 1)2

(B)  (n + 1)

(C)   

(D)  n

Answer: (B)

3. If there are be branches and n nodes, the number of KCL equations required will be

(A)  n

(B)  b

(C)  (n – 1)

(D)  b – n + 1

Answer: (D)

4. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by

(A)  ∇ × E = 0

(B)  ∇ × B = 0

(C)  ∇ ∙ B = 0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

5. For an SCR, with L I n series with SCR. What type of protection is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  Voltage protection

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

6. For series connected SCRs, dynamic equalizing circuit consists of

(A)  Resistor R and capacitor C in series but with a diode D across C

(B)  Series R and D circuit but with across R

(C)  Series C and D circuit but with R across C

(D)  Series R and C but with D across R

Answer: (D)

7. In the three-phase converter α is in the range 0 < α < 90. When it operates in inverter the range of α is

(A)  90 < α ≤ 180

(B)  0 < α < 90

(C)  180 < α ≤ 270

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

8. In a circuit the current transform  The value of i(t) at t → ∞ is

(A)  5

(B)  1/2

(C)  6

(D)  ∞

Answer: (A)

9. In inverted operation of a transistor

(A)  both junctions are reverse biased

(B)  both junctions are forward biased

(C)  emitter junction is forward biased while collector junction is reversed  biased

(D)  emitter junction is reversed biased while collector junction is forward biased

Answer: (D)

10. How many loop current is the cut-set analysis?

(A)  3

(B)  5

(C)  4

(D)  None of these 

Answer: (C)

11. The steady state voltage of the capacitor is

(A)  2V

(B)  1V

(C)  0V

(D)  0.5V

Answer: (B)

12. A capacitor of capacitance c1 and distance between the plate is d1. A second capacitor of capacitance c2 and distance between the plate is d2. When they are connected to series, what is the equivalent capacitance?

(A)  

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  

Answer: (D)

13. In a circuit voltage in the inductor is 2V and inductance of the inductor is 1 mH. What is the rate of current decay?

(A)  2 × 103 A/S

(B)  1 × 103 A/S

(C)  2 A/S

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

14. In a circuit current passing the capacitor is 1A. The capacitance of thee capacitor is 1 μ Find the voltage decay of the capacitor?

(A)  1 × 103 A/s

(B)  1 V/S

(C)  2 × 103 V/S

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

15. Two capacitors of capacitance 1 μF each. When they are connected in parallel, what is the resultant capacitance?

(A)  0.5 μF

(B)  2 μF

(C)  1 μF

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

16. Who was the first to give the theory of electro magnetic induction?

(A)  Faraday

(B)  Maxwell

(C)  Ampere

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

17. A 3-phase 50 Hz, 6 pole squirrel case induction motor will run at a speed approximately

(A)  1600 rpm

(B)  1000 rpm

(C)  1500 rpm

(D)  960 rpm

Answer: (D)

18. The electron and hole concentrations in an intrinsic semiconductor are ni and pi When doped p type material, these change to n and p respectively, then

(A)  n + p = ni + pi

(B)  n + ni = p + pi

(C)  np = nipi

(D)  npi = nip

Answer: (C)

19. In a full-wave rectifier the supply frequency is 50 Hz. What is the ripple frequency?

(A)  25 Hz

(B)  100 Hz

(C)  50 Hz

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

20. In a vector field, given condition is,  and  The vector  is not null vector, which of the following condition satisfies the equation

(A) 

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

21. The diffusion potential across p-n junction

(A)  decreases with increasing doping concentration

(B)  does not depend on doping concentration

(C)  increases with decreasing band gap

(D)  increases with increase in doping concentration

Answer: (D)

22. In a bipolar transistor at room temperature, if the emitter current is doubled, the voltage across its base-emitter junction

(A)  doubles

(B)  increases by about 20 mV

(C)  halves

(D)  decreases by about 20 mV

Answer: (B)

23. In a series RLC circuit, at the resonant frequency

(A)  current is maximum

(B)  voltage across C is maximum

(C)  impedance is maximum

(D)  current is minimum

Answer: (D)

24. When a voltage v0 sin w0t is applied to the pure inductor, the ammeter shown in the figure reads I0. If the voltage applied is –V0 sin w0t + 2V0 sin 2 w0t + 3V0 sin 3w0t + 4 V0 sin 4w0t the ammeter reading would be

(A)  10 I0

(B)  0

(C)   

(D)  2I0

Answer: (D)

25. The average power flow per unit area in a uniform plane wave in an electric field of maximum voltage E0 and impedance z0 is

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  

(D)   

Answer: (B)

26. Precision measurement of resistance is generally carried out by

(A)  Potentiometer method

(B)  Voltmeter-ammeter method

(C)  CRO method

(D)  Bridge method

Answer: (D)

27. A galvanometer is tested as shown in the figure, in the circuit where E = 1.5 V, R1 = 1.0 ohm, R2 = 2500 ohm and R3 is variable. With R3 set at 450 ohm, the galvanometer deflection is 140 mm and with R3 set at 950 ohm, the galvanometer deflection is 70 mm. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(A)  29 ohms

(B)  49 ohms

(C)  99 ohms

(D)  10 ohms

Answer: (B)

28. A double tuned circuit amplifier provides

(A)  high gain for pass band frequencies

(B)  more flat response for all frequencies

(C)  less harmonic distortion

(D)  more flat response for all pass band frequencies

Answer: (D)

29. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide

(A)  higher speeds compared to all other types of A/D converters

(B)  poor rejection of power supply current

(C)  very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on component stability

(D)  better resolution compared to all other types of A/D converters for the same number of bits

Answer: (C)

30. Rhombic antenna is a

(A)  resonant antenna

(B)  non-resonant antenna

(C)  directional high frequency antenna

(D)  none of these

Answer: (B)

31. In a single phase ne-pulse circuit with RL load and a freewheeling diode, extinction angle β is less than π. For a firing angle α, the SCR and freewheeling diode would respectively, conductor for

(A)  (β – α), 0°

(B)  α, (β – α)

(C)  (π – α), (π – β)

(D)  (β – α), α

Answer: (A)

32. A CRO can display

(A)  d.c. signals

(B)  a.c. signals

(C)  both a.c. and d.c. signals

(D)  none of these

Answer: (C)

33. In two wattmeter method of measuring 3-phase power, power factor is 0.5, then one of the wattmeter will read,

(A)  W/2

(B)  W/√3

(C)  √2 W

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

34. A 100 mA meter has accuracy of ±2 percent. Its accuracy while reading 100 mA will be

(A)  ± 4%

(B)  ± 9%

(C)  ± 0.2%

(D)  ± 20%

Answer: (D)

35. In moving-coil instrument, the scale used is

(A)  Linear scale

(B)  Non-linear scale

(C)  Square law scale

(D)  Log scale

Answer: (A)

36. Two meters X and Y required 40 mA and 50 mA respectively, to give full-scale reflection, then

(A)  X is more sensitive

(B)  both are equally sensitive

(C)  Y is more sensitive

(D)  sensitivity can not be judged with the given information 

 

Answer: (A)

37. If Dn represents the ratio of amplitudes of nth harmonics to the fundamental components of a signal, then distortion factor of the signal will be

(A)   

(B)   

(C) 

(D)   

Answer: (A)

38. An RC-couple amplifier has an open loop gain of 100 and a upper cut off frequency of 100 kHz. If negative feedback with a feedback with a feedback factor 0.02 is used, the upper cut off frequency will be

(A)  300 kHz

(B)  33.3 kHz

(C)  100 kHz

(D)  1000 kHz

Answer: (A)

39. In a LVDT, the two secondary voltages

(A)  vary equally depending on the core position

(B)  vary unequally depending on the core position

(C)  are independent of the core position

(D)  are always in phase quadrature

Answer: (B)

40. A metal strain guage has factor of 2. Its nominal resistance is 120 ohms. It undergoes strain at 105, the value of change of resistance in response to the strain is

(A)  2 × 105 ohms

(B)  2 × 105 ohms

(C)  240 ohms

(D)  2.4 × 103 ohms

Answer: (D)

41. What is machine cycle in SIM instruction?

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

42. How many J-K flip-flop is required in 5-modulo synchronous converter?

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

43. Given that the electric field in electromagnetic wave is E = 10e(6x + 8y)ax. What is the wave speed?

(A)  109 m/s

(B)  108 m/s

(C)  107 m/s

(D)  1010 m/s

Answer: (A)

44. Given that Ex = Ex sin (ωt + ϕ) and Ey = Ey sin(ωt + ϕ). These are which types of polarization?

(A)  Straight line

(B)  Left circulation

(C)  Parabolic

(D)  Right circulation

Answer: (C)

45. The data bus width of a 4 × 1024 bits is

(A)  13

(B)  11

(C)  12

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

46. In the current-shunt feedback

(A)  High input and output impedance

(B)  High input and low output

(C)  Low input and low output

(D)  Low input and high output

Answer: (D)

47. The following program is run on an 8085 microprocessor

At the completion of execution of the program, the program counter of the 8085 contains… and the stack point contains…..

(A)  2000, CCFO

(B)  2020, OCCF

(C)  2050, OFFC

(D)  2020, OFFC

Answer: (D)

48. A parabolic reflector is designed to have directivity of 30 dB at 300 MHz. If the apeature efficiency is 55%, then the diameter of reflector is

(A)  3 m

(B)  4 m

(C)  2 m

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

49. A rectangular waveguide a = 5 cm, b = 3.75 cm and the frequency is 10 GHz, the wave length is 7 cm. Which of the following is mode of operation of wave guide?

(A)  TE11

(B)  TE10

(C)  TM01

(D)  TE2.0

Answer: (D)

50. The logic realized by the circuit shown in the figure is

(A)  F = B . C

(B)  F = A ⊕ C

(C)  F = A . C

(D)  F = B ⊕ C

Answer: (B)

PAPER-II

51. Maximum voltage is induced in a loop antenna if

(A)  it is parallel to the incoming wave

(B)  it is placed at right angles to the incoming wave

(C)  its width is more than λ/2

(D)  it is placed at 45° to the incoming wave

Answer: (A)

52. When a route carriers no subscriber dialed traffic, the internationally accepted worst grade of service is

(A)  10%

(B)  3%

(C)  1%

(D)  20%

Answer: (B)

53. A microstrip line on alumina substrate (∈t = 9)has a zero thickness strip of width, W = 3 mm. Substrate thickness h = 0.5 mm. Assuming TEM wave propagation and negligible fringing field, the characteristic impedance of the line will be approximately

(A)  10 ohm

(B)  50 ohm

(C)  26 ohm

(D)  21 ohm

Answer: (D)

54. The effective inductance of the circuit across the terminal AB in the figure shown below, is

(A)  9 H

(B)  21 H

(C)  6 H

(D)  11 H

Answer: (D)

55. The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

(A)  Capacitor

(B)  Inductor

(C)  Resistor

(D)  Battery

Answer: (A)

56. Two parallel wires separated by a distance d are carrying a DC current I in the same direction. The magnetic field along a line running parallel to these wire and midway between them

(A)  zero

(B)  depends upon I

(C)  depends upon d

(D)  depends upon the permeability of the medium between the wires

Answer: (A)

57. A 35 V d.c. supply is connected across a combined resistance of 600 ohms and an unknown resistance of R ohms in series. A voltmeter having a resistance of 1.2 kΩ is connected across 600 ohm resistor and reads 5V. The resistance K will be

(A)  120 ohms

(B)  500 ohms

(C)  2.4 K ohms

(D)  1.7 K ohms

Answer: (C)

58. CMOS has the following advantage over PMOS/NMOS?

(A)  Lower Dissipation power (PD)

(B)  Simpler fabrication process

(C)  Lower input capacitance

(D)  Greater suitability for LSI

Answer: (A)

59. In the circuit shown in figure, it is desired to have a constant direct current i(t) through the ideal inductor L. The nature of the voltage source v(t) must be

(A)  constant voltage

(B)  linearly increasing voltage

(C)  exponentially increasing voltage

(D)  an ideal impulse 

Answer: (D)

60. The threshold voltage of an n-channel MOFSET can be increased by

(A)  reducing the channel length

(B)  increasing the channel doping concentration

(C)  reducing gate oxide thickness

(D)  decreasing the channel doping concentration

Answer: (A)

61. For signal amplitude modulated to a depth of 100% by a sinusoidal signal, power is

(A)  same as the power of unmodulated carrier

(B)  3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier

(C)  twice as the power of unmodulated carrier

(D)  2/3 times the power of unmodulated carrier

Answer: (B)

62. A series RLC circuit is over-damped when

(A)  

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

63. In a A/D converter input voltage is ±5V, In a 10 bit converter, what is the error voltage?

(A)  15 mV

(B)  20 mV

(C)  10 mV

(D)  None

Answer: (C)

64. In a differential amplifier, V1 and V2 is input voltage. Common mode rejection ratio is 1000. Which equation represents the output of the amplifier

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (B)

65. Consider a system shown in the given figure with

What value of ‘k’ and ‘a’ should be chosen so that the system oscillates?

(A)  k = 2, a = 1

(B)  k = 4, a = 0.75

(C)  k = 4, a = 1

(D)  k = 2, a = 0.75

Answer: (D)

66. The Quadrature Amplitude Modulation is a combination of

(A)  PSK and FSK

(B)  ASK and FSK

(C)  ASK and PSK

(D)  None

Answer: (C)

67. A circuit in which the output voltage remains constant irrespective of the value of load resistance, uses

(A)  Zener diode

(B)  Silicon diode

(C)  SCR

(D)  None of above

Answer: (A)

68. The input resistance of a MOSFET

(A)  Is of the same order as in a bipolar transistor

(B)  Is low as compared to that of a bipolar transistor

(C)  Is very high as compared to that of a bipolar transister

(D)  None of above

Answer: (C)

69. A system has characteristic equation as s2 + 2s + 8 = 0. The damping ratio and the natural frequency of oscillation of the system respectively are

(A)  2, 0.353

(B)  0.5, 2√2

(C)  0.353, 2√2

(D)  2√2, 0.5

Answer: (C)

70. For the characteristic equation

s4 + 5s3 + 5s2 + 4s + k = 0

the system is stable if k lies in the range

(A)   

(B)   

(C)  4 > k > 3

(D)  3 > k > 1

Answer: (A)

71. The following sequence of instructions are executed by an 8085 microprocessor

1000    LXI             SP     27FF

1000    CALL                   1006

1006    POP H

The contents of the stack pointer (SP) and the HL register pair on completion of execution of these instructions are

(A)  SP = 27 FF, HL = 1003

(B)  SP = 274 FD, HL = 1003

(C)  SP = 27 FF, HL = 1006

(D)  SP = 27 FD, HL = 1006

Answer: (C)

72. A system with an input x(t) and an output y(t) is described by the relation y(t) = tx(t). This system is

(A)  Linear and time-invariant

(B)  Linear and time varying

(C)  Non-Linear and time-invariant

(D)  Non-linear and time-varying

Answer: (D)

73. In a 3 big-MUX, the output is the figure is

(A)  I1 + I2 + I3

(B)  I2 + I4 + I5

(C)  I + I5 + I6

(D)  I1 + I3 + I5 + I7

Answer: (D)

74. 1 km long microwave link uses to antennas each having 30 dB gain. If the power transmitted by one antenna is 11 μW at 3 GHz, the power received by the other antenna is

(A)  93.6 μW

(B)  55.2 μW

(C)  63.4 μW

(D)  76.8 μW

Answer: (C)

75. The Fourier transform of a real valued time signal has

(A)  Even symmetry

(B)  Odd symmetry

(C)  Conjugate symmetry

(D)  No symmetry

Answer: (C)

76. Two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented as a single two port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by multiplying the individual

(A)  ABCD parameters matrix

(B)  h-parameters matrix

(C)  Y-parameters matrix

(D)  Z-parameters matrix

Answer: (A)

77. In a single stage transistor amplifier circuit shown in the figure, the capacitance CE is removed. Then the ac small signal midband voltage gain of amplifier

(A)  increases

(B)  remain’s unaffected

(C)  decreases

(D)  drops to zero

Answer: (C)

78. The polar plot of a type-1, 3-pole open-loop system is shown in the figure. The closed loop system is

(A)  Marginally stable

(B)  Always stable

(C)  Unstable with one pole on the right half-splane

(D)  Unstable with two poles on the right half splane

Answer: (B)

79. An n-channel JFET, having a pinch-off voltage (VP) of −5 V shows a transconductance (gm) of 1 mA/V when the applied gate-to-source voltage (VGS) is − Its maximum transconductance (in mA/V) is

(A)  1.5

(B)  2.5

(C)  2.0

(D)  3.0

Answer: (B)

80. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in

(A)  Telephony

(B)  Telegraphy

(C)  Radio transmission

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

81. For a shot wave radio link between two stations vis therionsphere, the ratio of the maximum usable frequency to the critical frequency

(A)  Is always greater than 1

(B)  Is always less than 1

(C)  May be ≤ 1 depending on the distance between two stations

(D)  Does not depend on the distance between the two stations

Answer: (B)

82. Companding is used

(A)  To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion

(B)  To overcome impulse noise

(C)  To overcome quantized noise in PGM

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

83. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O

(A)  I/O devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions

(B)  I/O devices 16-bit addresses

(C)  There can be a maximum of 256input devices and 256 output devices

(D)  Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with I/O data

Answer: (D)

84. A microprocessor with 12 address lines is capable of addressing

(A)  64 K locations

(B)  2028 locations

(C)  4096 locations

(D)  1024 locations

Answer: (C)

85. The usable bandwidth of a microwave beacon transponder for 6/4 GHz satellite communication is generally

(A)  40 MHz

(B)  360 MHz

(C)  36 MHz

(D)  1 MHz

Answer: (C)

86. A broadcast radio receiver with IF = 455 kHz is tuned to 1500 kHz. The image frequency will be

(A)  1955 kHz

(B)  1500 kHz

(C)  1045 kHz

(D)  2410 kHz

Answer: (C)

87. Signal flow graph is used to obtain the

(A)  Observability of the system

(B)  Transfer function of the system

(C)  Controllability of the system

(D)  Stability of the system

Answer: (B)

88. Each cell of a static Random Access memory contains

(A)  6 MDS transistors

(B)  XOR gates and shift registers.

(C)  Two 2-inpout NORs and One X-NOR gate

(D)  4 MOS transistors and 2 capacitors

Answer: (A)

89. The bit rate of a digital communication system is 34 Mbit/s. The modulation scheme is QPSK. The baud rate of the system is

(A)  17 Mbit/s

(B)  34 Mbit/s

(C)  68 Mbit/s

(D)  8.5 Mbit/s

Answer: (C)

90. A circular waveguide has internal diameter of 5 cm. The cutoff frequency for TE11 mode will be

(A)  5 MHz

(B)  35 GHz

(C)  3.5 GHz

(D)  35 MHz

Answer: (C)

91. Two usual stables states of a binary are

(A)  cut off and saturation

(B)  cut off and active

(C)  active and saturation

(D)  both in saturation

Answer: (A)

92. Harmonic distortion in amplifier is caused by

(A)  defective active device

(B)  presence of noise

(C)  non-linearity in active device

(D)  positive feed back

Answer: (C)

93. The AM broadcast band (medium wave band extends from)

(A)  200 kHz to 1000 kHz

(B)  500 kHz to 1600 kHz

(C)  30 MHz to 300 MHz

(D)  3 MHz to 30 MHz

Answer: (B)

94. All the output pulses are at full transmitter power for a strong signal in all of the following except

(A)  PWM

(B)  PFM

(C)  PAM

(D)  PCM

Answer: (C)

95. The Op-Amp circuit given  below is

(A)  An integrator

(B)  Sample and hold circuit

(C)  A voltage follower

(D)  An inverter

Answer: (B)

96. The initial contents of the 4 bit serial-in-parallel out, right-shift. Shift Register shown in the figure is 0110. After three clock pulses are applied, the contents of the shift Register will be

(A)  1111

(B)  0101

(C)  1010

(D)  0000

Answer: (C)

97. The block diagram shown below represents

(A)  Modulo-7 synchronous counter

(B)  Modulo-5 ripple counter

(C)  Modulo-7 ripple counter

(D)  Modulo-3 ripple counter

Answer: (C)

98. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving will be

(A)  50

(B)  150

(C)  100

(D)  66.66

Answer: (C)

99. Bode plots of an open-loop transfer function of a control system are shown in the given figure.

The gain margin of the system is

(A)  −K

(B)  K

(C)  1/K

(D)  −1/K

Answer: (B)

100. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the

(A)  local oscillator operates below the signal frequency

(B)  mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency

(C)  local oscillator frequency is double the If

(D)  RF amplifier normally works at 456 KHZ above the carrier frequency

Answer: (B)

PAPER-III

101. Jonas Salk discovered

(A)  Viagra

(B)  Wet photography

(C)  Silicon devices

(D)  Polio vaccine

Answer: (D)

102. Which of the following can be transferred to any human body?

(A)  A −ve

(B)  O −ve

(C)  AB +ve

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

103. Who directed the movie ‘Mansoon Wedding’?

(A)  Shekhar Suman

(B)  Shekhar Kapoor

(C)  Mira Nair

(D)  Deepa Mehta

Answer: (C)

104. Which of the following will not match for the environmental friendly Automobile?

(A)  MPFI

(B)  Catalytic Converters

(C)  Turbo charging

(D)  Electric Ignition

Answer: (A)

105. Which of the following is in order of the time of introduction for large scale communication.

1. Fibre optics

2. Under ground cables

3. Satellite communication

4. Total wireless loop

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4

(B)  2, 1, 3, 4

(C)  1, 3, 2, 4

(D)  2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (B)

106. Who said ‘India live in her villages’?

(A)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(B)  Indira Gandhi

(C)  Mahatma Gandhi

(D)  S. Radhakrishnan

Answer: (C)

107. The rivers of the Peninsular India originate on the

(A)  Eastern Ghats

(B)  Western Ghats

(C)  Aravallis

(D)  Himalayas

Answer: (B)

108. Name the person who held the Finance portfolio twice in India.

(A)  R. K. Shanmugam Chettiar

(B)  C. D. Deshmukh

(C)  T. T. Krishnamachari

(D)  Manmohan Singh

Answer: (C)

109. Which State ranks first in the production of food crops in India?

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Andhra Pradesh

(D)  Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (A)

110. Who introduced ‘Own Your Telephone’ scheme in India?

(A)  R. V. Subramanian

(B)  R. A. Kidwai

(C)  C. Subramaniam

(D)  M. M. Singh

Answer: (B)

111. What is the percentage of thermal electricity produced in India?

(A)  40

(B)  50

(C)  80

(D)  72

Answer: (C)

112. Who is the chairperson of United Nations Human Rights commission?

(A)  P. N. Bhagavati

(B)  Megavati Sukharnoputri

(C)  Sukoto ogada

(D)  Mary Robhson

Answer: (A)

113. Convergence bill refers to

(A)  Electronic media

(B)  I.T., Tele communication

(C)  Print media, press, Electronic items

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

114. Find the most similar word in the meaning strike a chord

(A)  elicit sympathy

(B)  show anger

(C)  expect sympathy

(D)  cause anger

Answer: (A)

115. Find the opposite word in the meaning hostility

(A)  enmity

(B)  friendship

(C)  praise

(D)  love

Answer: (B)

116. Which is not clean gas?

(A)  L.P.G.

(B)  C.N.G.

(C)  L.S.D.

(D)  H.S.D.

Answer: (D)

117. “Technology Next” is the slogan of which of the following company?

(A)  Philips

(B)  Hewlett factory

(C)  Compaq

(D)  Videocon

Answer: (C)

118. Which gas is greenhouse gas?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Nitrogen oxide

(C)  Nitric acid

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (D)

119. Author of future shock, Third wave is

(A)  Aldug Hacksley

(B)  Bob Morris

(C)  Norman Mailer

(D)  Arvin Toffler

Answer: (D)

120. Author of ‘Wings of fire’ is

(A)  R. K. Narayan

(B)  A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(C)  P. V. Narasimharao

(D)  C. N. Rao

Answer: (B)


BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2002 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2001 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Exam Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

BSNL JTO 2005 question paper

BSNL J.T.O. Recruitment Exam – 2005

Section-I

 

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is

(A)  Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.

(B)  Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the pointing vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.

(C)  The pointing vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.

(D)  The pointing vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.

Answer: (C)

2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumno silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to

(A)  Polarization

(B)  Conductivity

(C)  Structural homogeneities

(D)  Ionization

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon?

(A)  Boron

(B)  Indium

(C)  Germanium

(D)  Antimony

Answer: (D)

4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess

(A)  High thermal conductivity and high melting point

(B)  Low thermal conductivity and low melting point

(C)  High thermal conductivity and low melting point

(D)  Low thermal conductivity and high melting point

Answer: (A)

5. The maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the

(A)  Infra-red region

(B)  Ultraviolet region

(C)  Visible region

(D)  X-ray region

Answer: (B)

6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively

(A)  High and High

(B)  Low and High

(C)  High and Low

(D)  Low and Low

Answer: (C)

7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress

(A)  Odd harmonics

(B)  Even harmonics

(C)  Fundamental component

(D)  DC component

Answer: (C)

8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on

(A)  Mutual inductance between two coils only

(B)  Self inductances of the two coils only

(C)  Mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of

(A)  Paper

(B)  Rubber

(C)  Ceramic

(D)  Mylar

Answer: (C)

10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is

(A)  Always positive

(B)  Always negative

(C)  Sometime positive, sometime negative

(D)  Numerically less than its kinetic energy

Answer: (B)

11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no

(A)  Channel

(B)  Gate

(C)  P-N Junctions

(D)  Substrate

Answer: (C)

12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that

(A)  It is more sensitive

(B)  It is more linear

(C)  It is less temperature dependent

(D)  It’s cost is low

Answer: (A)

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by

(A)  Thermally generated electrons and holes

(B)  Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

(C)  Migration of minority carriers across the junction

(D)  Flow of drift current

Answer: (B)

14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter

(A)  recombine with holes in the base

(B)  recombine in the emitter itself

(C)  pass through the base to the collector

(D)  are stopped by the junction barrier

Answer: (C)

15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is

(A)  0.5

(B)  Zero

(C)  1.0

(D)  0.8

Answer: (C)

16. A UJT can

(A)  be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals

(B)  not be triggered

(C)  be triggered by two of its three terminal only

(D)  be triggered by all of its terminals only

Answer: (C)

17. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s

(A)  Cathode

(B)  Anode

(C)  Gates

(D)  None of t he above

Answer: (B)

18. God is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to

(A)  Increase the recombination rate

(B)  Reduce the recombination rate

(C)  Make silicon a direct gap semiconductor

(D)  Make silicon semi-metal

Answer: (B)

19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have

(A)  (b + n) links

(B)  b – n + 1 links

(C)  b – n – 1 links

(D)  b + n + 1 links

Answer: (B)

20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be

(A)  7

(B)  9

(C)  10

(D)  45

Answer: (D)

21. A two port network having a 6 dβ loss will give

(A)  An output power which is one – quarter of the input power

(B)  An output power which is one – half of the input power

(C)  An output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage

(D)  An output power which is 0.707 of the input power

Answer: (A)

22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer

(A)  The terminals are kept shorted

(B)  Critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals

(C)  The terminals are kept open circuited

(D)  It does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

Answer: (B)

23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dβ and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2?

1. R1 = 147 Ω    2. R1 = 153 Ω

3. R2 = 1.5 Ω    4. R2 = 3750 Ω

(A)  1 and 3

(B)  1 and 4

(C)  2 and 3

(D)  2 and 4

Answer: (A)

24. For a transmission line, the characteristics impedance with inductance 0.294 mH/m and capacitance 60 pF/m is

(A)  49w

(B)  60w

(C)  70w

(D)  14w

Answer: (C)

25. When the graph of a network has a six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required fro the solution of the network is

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  5

Answer: (B)

26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network

1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21

3. Y12 = −Y21 4. BC – AD = −1

then the network is reciprocal if and only if

(A)  1and 2 are correct

(B)  2 and 3 are correct

(C)  3 and 4 are correct

(D)  4 alone is correct

Answer: (D)

27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are

(A)  will become half

(B)  will remain high

(C)  will become double

(D)  cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

Answer: (C)

28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density d in vacuum is (Q = 4/3 (π) r3d)

(A)  5.4 × 109 × Q2/r

(B)  5.4 × 109 × Q3/r

(C)  5.4 × 1019 × Q2/r2

(D)  5.4 × 108 × Q3/r3

Answer: (A)

29. Antenna reciprocity is put to use in

(A)  Radar system

(B)  TV broadcast system

(C)  Commercial system

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (A)

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 L at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at frequency 2f will be

(A)  R/2 ohms

(B)  R ohms

(C)  2R ohms

(D)  4R ohms

Answer: (D)

31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include

(A)  TE111 and TM111

(B)  TE011 and TM011

(C)  TE022 and TM111

(D)  TE111 and TM011

Answer: (D)

32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50 ohm line an if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly

(A)  0.19

(B)  0.81

(C)  0.97

(D)  1.19

Answer: (B)

33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = ¼ pqe0it capacitance will be

(A)  Zero

(B)  1F

(C)  4pF

(D)  0F

Answer: (B)

34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal them if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then

(A)  d = 1.5 cm

(B)  d is less then 1.5 cm

(C)  d is greater than 1.5 cm

(D)  d = 3 cm

Answer: (A)

35. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is

(A)  059159%

(B)  8.9159%

(C)  89.159%

(D)  891.59%

Answer: (C)

36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally

(A)  5 KHz

(B)  1KHz

(C)  75 KHz

(D)  200 KHz

Answer: (C)

37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is

(A)  Sinusoidal

(B)  Square

(C)  Rectangular

(D)  Triangular

Answer: (A)

38. Strain gauge is

(A)  not a transducer

(B)  an active transducer

(C)  not an electronic instrument

(D)  none of the above

Answer: (B)

39. A high Q coil has

(A)  large band width

(B)  high losses

(C)  low losses

(D)  flat response

Answer: (C)

40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is

(A)  1.810%

(B)  0.181%

(C)  18.10%

(D)  0.0018%

Answer: (C)

41. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for

(A)  High frequency, large signal operation

(B)  High frequency, small signal operation

(C)  Low frequency, small signal operation

(D)  Low frequency, large signal operation

Answer: (C)

42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on

(A)  Values of input in the pat and in the future

(B)  Values of input at that time and in the past

(C)  Values of input at that time and in the future

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

43. A iron cored choke is a

(A)  Linear and active device

(B)  Non-linear and passive device

(C)  Active device only

(D)  Linear device only

Answer: (B)

44. Poynting vector wattmeter uses

(A)  Seebeck effect

(B)  Ferranti effect

(C)  Induction effect

(D)  Hall effect

Answer: (C)

45. Which one of the following is NOT a transducer in the true sense?

(A)  Thermocouple

(B)  Piezoelectric pickup

(C)  Photo voltaic cell

(D)  LCD

Answer: (D)

46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is

(A)  Converter system

(B)  Inverter

(C)  Chopper

(D)  Thyristor

Answer: (A)

47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode

(A)  SCR

(B)  PCR

(C)  VCR

(D)  DCR

Answer: (A)

48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a

(A)  Constant voltage source

(B)  Constant current source

(C)  Constant voltage and a constant current source of a constant power source

(D)  Resistance

Answer: (B)

49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of

(A)  Electrons only

(B)  Electrons or holes

(C)  Electrons and holes

(D)  Holes only

Answer: (C)

50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively

(A)  Ferrite : 20 : 1

(B)  Laminated iron : 1 : 1

(C)  Ferrite : 1 : 1

(D)  Powdered iron : 1 : 1

Answer: (C)

Section-II

 

51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a

(A)  1 phase full wave converter

(B)  3 phase half wave converter

(C)  3 phase semi convertor

(D)  3 phase full wave converter

Answer: (C)

52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is

(A)  Square wave

(B)  Triangular wave

(C)  Step function

(D)  Pulsed wave

Answer: (B)

53. A single phase full wave midpoints thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is

(A)  100 V

(B)  141.4V

(C)  200V

(D)  282.8V

Answer: (D)

54. In de choppers fro chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying

(A)  T keeping TON constant

(B)  TON keeping T constant

(C)  TOFF keeping  T constant

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because

(A)  of change of state from metal to gas due to heat

(B)  of change of states from gas to metal

(C)  the energy supplied is greater than the work function

(D)  the energy is greater than Fermi level

Answer: (C)

56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is

(A)  Amplifier

(B)  Triode

(C)  Diode

(D)  Transistor

Answer: (C)

57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is

(A)  Either cathode

(B)  Either anode

(C)  The central tap on the high voltage secondary

(D)  Either plate

Answer: (C)

58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will

(A)  Amplify the noise as much as the signal

(B)  Reduce the noise

(C)  Increase the noise

(D)  Not effect the noise

Answer: (B)

59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures

(A)  Current series feedback

(B)  Current shunt feedback

(C)  Voltage series feedback

(D)  Voltage shunt feedback

Answer: (A)

60. Class A amplifier is used when

(A)  No phase inversion is required

(B)  Highest voltage gain is required

(C)  DC voltages are to be amplified

(D)  Minimum distortion is desired

Answer: (D)

61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor

(A)  Enhancement type P channel MOSFET

(B)  Depletion type N channel MOSFET

(C)  Enhancement type N channel MOSFET

(D)  Depletion type P channel MOSFET

Answer: (B)

62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be

(A)  Distortionless

(B)  Small in amplitude

(C)  Having higher frequencies suppressed

(D)  Distorted

Answer: (D)

63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is

(A)  7411

(B)  7404

(C)  7400

(D)  7408

Answer: (D)

64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as

(A)  Left shift register

(B)  Right shift register

(C)  Shift registers

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

65. The expression  can be simplified to

(A)  A + B + C

(B)  A ∙ B + C

(C)  (A + B) ∙ C

(D)  A + (B ∙ C)

Answer: (A)

66. An ideal power supply consist of

(A)  Very small output resistance

(B)  Zero internal resistance

(C)  Very large input resistance

(D)  Very large output resistance

Answer: (B)

67. Instrument measuring values indicate

(A)  Peak value

(B)  RMS value

(C)  Average value

(D)  Mean value

Answer: (B)

68. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both

(A)  count pulses

(B)  store binary operation

(C)  shift registers

(D)  made from an array of lip flops and gates integrated on a single chip

Answer: (D)

69. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as

(A)  1111101

(B)  0001 0010 0101

(C)  7D

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

70. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50 mV and the total maximum input is 10V. The number of bits required is

(A)  7

(B)  8

(C)  9

(D)  20

Answer: (B)

71. On differentiation unit impulse function results in

(A)  Unit parabolic function

(B)  Unit triplet

(C)  Unit doublet

(D)  Unit ramp function

Answer: (C)

72. Read the following:

1. Routh Hermitz’s criterion is in time domain.

2. Root locus plot is in time domain.

3. Bode plot is in frequency domain.

4. Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.

(A)  2, 3, and 4 are correct

(B)  1, 2 and 3 are correct

(C)  3 and 4 are correct

(D)  All are correct

Answer: (D)

73. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.

(A)  15°

(B)  45°

(C)  30°

(D)  60°

Answer: (C)

74. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is

(A)  Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain.

(B)  Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action.

(C)  Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback.

(D)  Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action.

Answer: (D)

75. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function

(A)  −40 dB/dec to −20 dB/dec

(B)  40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec

(C)  −20 dB/dec to −40 dB/dec

(D)  40 dB/dec to −20 dB/dec

Answer: (A)

76. The slope of Bode plot expressed as per unit charge in log ω is

(A)  0 db/decade

(B)  0 db/octave

(C)  −6 db/octave

(D)  10 db.decade

Answer: (C)

77. The closed loop transfer function of the system show in fig.

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

78. Considering the following statement:

In a magic tee

1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other

2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm

3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm

4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other.

Of these statements

(A)  1 and 2 are correct

(B)  1 and 3 are correct

(C)  1 and 4 are correct

(D)  2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (C)

79. In 1965 first Geo-stationary satellite was launched called

(A)  ANIK

(B)  EARLY BIRD (Intel sat-1)

(C)  WESTAR

(D)  MOLNIYA

Answer: (C)

80. ——- watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geo-synchronous satellite

(A)  100

(B)  500

(C)  2000

(D)  1000

Answer: (D)

81. The ripple factor in an LC filter

(A)  Increases with the load current

(B)  Increases with the load resistance

(C)  Remains constant with the load current

(D)  Has the lowest value

Answer: (D)

82. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their

(A)  Language digits

(B)  Access digits

(C)  Area codes

(D)  Central office codes

Answer: (C)

83. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because

(A)  it is move noise immune than other modulation systems

(B)  compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power

(C)  its user avoids receiver complexity

(D)  no other modulation system can provide  the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

Answer: (C)

84. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be

(A)  Linear amplifier

(B)  Harmonic generators

(C)  Class C power amplifiers

(D)  Class B unturned amplifiers

Answer: (C)

85. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on

(A)  maximum power of the transmitter

(B)  pulse repetition frequency

(C)  width of the transmitted pulse

(D)  sensitivity of the radar receiver

Answer: (B)

86. In composite video wave from the function of the serrations, is to

(A)  equalize the change in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace

(B)  help vertical synchronization

(C)  help horizontal synchronization

(D)  simplify the generation of the vertical sync. pulse

Answer: (C)

87. The frequency range 30 MHz – 300 MHz is

(A)  Medium frequency

(B)  Very high frequency

(C)  Super high frequency

(D)  Infra-red frequency

Answer: (B)

88. Which wave cannot exist inside waves guide?

(A)  TE

(B)  TM

(C)  TEM

(D)  HE

Answer: (C)

89. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at

(A)  upto 18 kms from earth

(B)  from 18 to 70 km

(C)  70 to 500 km

(D)  above 500 km

Answer: (C)

90. A two cavity klystron tube is a

(A)  Velocity modulated tube

(B)  Frequency modulated tube

(C)  Amplitude modulated tube

(D)  Simple triode

Answer: (A)

91. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get

(A)  doubled

(B)  quadrupted

(C)  unchanged

(D)  halved

Answer: (C)

92. Which one is a cross field tube?

(A)  Klystron

(B)  Reflex Klystron

(C)  Magnetron

(D)  TWT

Answer: (C)

93. The degree of coupling depends on

(A)  size of hole

(B)  location of holes

(C)  size and location of holes

(D)  not depend on size or location of hole

Answer: (C)

94. The thermal noise depends on

(A)  direct current through device

(B)  resistive component of resistance

(C)  reactive component of impedance

(D)  load to connected

Answer: (B)

95. The charge on a hole is

(A)  1.6 × 1019

(B)  1.6 × 1023

(C)  6.1 × 1019

(D)  6.023 × 1023

Answer: (A)

96. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier

(A)  is tune above the stations incoming frequency

(B)  amplifies the output of local oscillator

(C)  is fixed tuned to one particular frequency

(D)  can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

Answer: (C)

97. A duplexer is used to

(A)  couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference

(B)  isolate the antenna from the local oscillator

(C)  prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver

(D)  use an antenna for reception of transmission without interference

Answer: (C)

98. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains

(A)  seven 8 bit registers

(B)  8 seven bits registers

(C)  seven 7

(D)  eight 8

Answer: (A)

99. Boolean algebra is based on

(A)  numbers

(B)  logic

(C)  truth

(D)  symbols

Answer: (B)

100. When A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 then in 2 input logic gate we get _____ gate

(A)  XOR

(B)  AND

(C)  NAND

(D)  NOR

Answer: (C)

Section-III

 

101. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new _______

(A)  Era of great history

(B)  List

(C)  Book

(D)  Year

Answer: (A)

102. An ______ though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.

(A)  Funny poem

(B)  Newspaper article

(C)  Orthodox talk

(D)  Elegy

Answer: (D)

103. If stare is glance so gulp is

(A)  Sip

(B)  Tell

(C)  Salk

(D)  Admire

Answer: (A)

104. He hardly works means

(A)  The work is hard

(B)  He is hard

(C)  The work is easy

(D)  He works very little

Answer: (D)

105. Give the opposite word for pulchritude

(A)  antipathy

(B)  unsightliness

(C)  inexperience

(D)  languor

Answer: (B)

106. Nanometre is ______ part of a metre.

(A)  Millionth

(B)  Ten millionth

(C)  Billionth

(D)  Ten billionth

Answer: (D)

107. Malaria affects

(A)  Liver

(B)  Spleen

(C)  Intestine

(D)  Lungs

Answer: (B)

108. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an

(A)  Aircraft carrier

(B)  Submarine

(C)  Multiple-purpose fighter

(D)  Anti-aircraft gun

Answer: (D)

109. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated?

(A)  Best film director

(B)  Best musician

(C)  Best documentary

(D)  Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

Answer: (A)

110. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?

(A)  Aryabhatta

(B)  Newton

(C)  Einstein

(D)  Archimedes

Answer: (B)

111. In which state is Kanha Park situated?

(A)  M.P.

(B)  U.P.

(C)  Assam

(D)  W. Bengal

Answer: (A)

112. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?

(A)  24th October

(B)  4th July

(C)  8th August

(D)  10th December

Answer: (D)

113. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of

(A)  Gupta architecture

(B)  Rashtrakuta architecture

(C)  Chalukya architecture

(D)  Chola architecture

Answer: (B)

114. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by

(A)  Joint sitting of the two Houses

(B)  President of India

(C)  Prime Minister of India

(D)  By a special committee for th purpose

Answer: (A)

115. Which of the following is NOT the work of Kalidasa?

(A)  Meghdoot

(B)  Raghuvansha

(C)  Sariputra Prakarma

(D)  Ritushamhara

Answer: (C)

116. Amir Khurso was the famous poet and aesthete of

(A)  Akbar the Great

(B)  Mahmud Ghazni

(C)  Shah Jahan

(D)  Alauddin Khilji

Answer: (D)

117. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been taken from

(A)  Vedas

(B)  Bhagwad Gita

(C)  Mundaka Upanishad

(D)  Mahabharata

Answer: (C)

118. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?

(A)  USA

(B)  USSR

(C)  China

(D)  Pakistan

Answer: (A)

119. “Kathakali” dance is connected with

(A)  Kerala

(B)  Rajasthan

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Tamil Naidu

Answer: (A)

120. The term “Ashes” is associated with

(A)  Hockey

(B)  Cricket

(C)  Soccer

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)


BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2002 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2001 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Exam Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

BSNL JTO 2008 Question Paper

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam

Question Paper- JUNE 2008

Section-I

1. The depth of penetration of skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is

(A)  inversely proportional to r and f and directly  proportional to m

(B)  directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

(C)  directly proportional to f and inversely proportional tor and m

(D)  inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to r

Answer: (B)

2. When an antenna has a gain of 44dβ then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be

(A)  0.4456°

(B)  1.4456°

(C)  2.4456°

(D)  3.4456°

Answer: (C)

3. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of

(A)  Polystyrene

(B)  Glass of low refractive index

(C)  Paraboloid surfaces

(D)  Dielectric media having large refractive index

Answer: (A)

4. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is

(A)  Electrodynamometer

(B)  PMMC

(C)  Electrostatic

(D)  Moving iron

Answer: (C)

5. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true?

(A)  An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

(B)  An ac ammeter will read only 5A

(C)  A dc ammeter will read 10A

(D)  A dc ammeter will read zero

Answer: (A)

6. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then

(A)  power factor of the circuit is high

(B)  impedance of the circuit is high

(C)  bandwidth is large

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

7. The resolution of a logic analyser is

(A)  the maximum number of input channels

(B)  the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

(C)  it’s internal clock period

(D)  the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

Answer: (D)

8. A memoryless system is

(A)  causal

(B)  not causal

(C)  nothing can be said

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

9. An air capacitor is a

(A)  time variant

(B)  active device

(C)  time invariant

(D)  time invariant and passive device

Answer: (D)

10. Thermistors are made of

(A)  pure metals

(B)  pure insulators

(C)  sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

(D)  pure semiconductor

Answer: (C)

11. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a

(A)  balun

(B)  broad band directional coupler

(C)  double stub

(D)  single stub of adjustable position

Answer: (A)

12. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a people closest to the origin. It can be realized

(A)  by an LC network

(B)  as an RC driving point impedance

(C)  as an RC driving point admittance

(D)  only by an RLC network

Answer: (D)

13. Poles and zeros of a driving point function o f a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements

(A)  R and C

(B)  L and C

(C)  R and L

(D)  R, L and C

Answer: (B)

14. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to

(A)  I12

(B)  Z12

(C)  V12

(D)  h12

Answer: (B)

15. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that

(A)  The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

(B)  In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

(C)  The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

(D)  Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

Answer: (D)

16. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly

(A)  250 – 300 MHz

(B)  150 – 200 MHz

(C)  90 – 105 MHz

(D)  30 – 70 MHz

Answer: (C)

17. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using

(A)  Inductive loading

(B)  Resistive loading

(C)  Capacitive loading

(D)  Shielding

Answer: (A)

18. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH/m and capacitance 60 pF/m is

(A)  49 W

(B)  60 W

(C)  70 W

(D)  140 W

Answer: (C)

19. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be

(A)  25 W

(B)  50 W

(C)  100 W

(D)  150 W

Answer: (A)

20. The 2’s complement of 10002 is

(A)  0111

(B)  0101

(C)  1000

(D)  0001

Answer: (C)

21. Master slave flip-flop is made up of

(A)  two flip flops connected in series

(B)  two flip flops connected in parallel

(C)  a debouncer circuit

(D)  a-D-latch

Answer: (A)

22. Number of nibbles making one byte is

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

23. The intrinsic impedance of free space

(A)  is independent of frequency

(B)  decrease with increase of frequency

(C)  increases with increase of frequency

(D)  varies as square root of frequency

Answer: (A)

24. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of

(A)  −200 dB/decade

(B)  −240 dB/decade

(C)  −230 dB/decade

(D)  −320 dB/decade

Answer: (A)

25. Considering the conditions

1. High loop gain

2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping

4. Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include?

(A)  1 and 3

(B)  1, 2 and 3

(C)  1 and 4

(D)  2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

26. In the equatorial only Geo-synchronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides

(A)  24 hour orbit

(B)  stationary satellite

(C)  global communication

(D)  zero-gravity environs

Answer: (B)

27. Radio Broadcasting is an example of

(A)  space multiplexing

(B)  time multiplexing

(C)  frequency multiplexing

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

28. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a

(A)  Low pass filters (LPE) alone

(B)  A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

(C)  A differentiator followed by a LPF

(D)  A clipper circuit by a LPF

Answer: (D)

29. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using

(A)  AND gates

(B)  Band pass

(C)  differentiation

(D)  Integration

Answer: (A)

30. Pirani gauge is used to measure

(A)  very low pressures

(B)  high pressures

(C)  pressures in the region of 1 atm

(D)  fluid flow

Answer: (A)

31. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion

(A)  AC voltage controllers

(B)  Cyclo converters

(C)  Phase controlled rectifiers

(D)  Inverters

Answer: (B)

32. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from

(A)  off state to on state

(B)  on state to off state

(C)  on state to on state

(D)  off state to off state

Answer: (A)

33. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to

(A)  peak repetitive off state forward voltage

(B)  peak working off state forward voltage

(C)  peak working off state reverse voltage

(D)  peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

Answer: (B)

34. Gate characteristic of thyristor

(A)  is a straight line passing through origin

(B)  is of the type Vu = a + bIg

(C)  is a curve between V­g and Ig

(D)  has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

Answer: (D)

35. A four quadrant operation requires

(A)  two full converters in series

(B)  two full converters connected back to back

(C)  two full converters connected in parallel

(D)  two semi converters connected back to back

Answer: (B)

36. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are

(A)  Vs, P

(B)  Vs/2, P

(C)  2Vs, 2P

(D)  2Vs, P

Answer: (C)

37. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has

(A)  only on ohmic region

(B)  only a saturation region

(C)  only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

(D)  an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

Answer: (C)

38. The energy gap in a semiconductor

(A)  increase with temperature

(B)  remains constant

(C)  slightly increases with temperature

(D)  decrease with temperature

Answer: (D)

39. In an electronic circuit matching means

(A)  connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

(B)  selection of components which are compatible

(C)  transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.

(D)  RC coupled stages

Answer: (C)

40. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is

(A)  It is dimensionless

(B)  It is not equal to unity for vacuum

(C)  It’s value for all substances is less than one

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

41. Pure metals generally have

(A)  high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

(B)  high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

(C)  low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

(D)  low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

Answer: (B)

42. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

(A)  Air

(B)  Ferrite

(C)  Powdered ion

(D)  Steel

Answer: (A)

43. For a abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by

(A)  C α VI/3

(B)  C α V-I/3

(C)  C α VI/2

(D)  C α V-I/2

Answer: (B)

44. A superconductor is a

(A)  A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

(B)  A conductor having zero resistance

(C)  A perfect conductor with highest diamagnetic susceptibility

(D)  A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

Answer: (A)

45. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of – 2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a

(A)  Thermistor

(B)  Forward biased pn junction diode

(C)  Reverse biased pn junction diode

(D)  FET

Answer: (B)

46. The location of lightning arrestor is

(A)  Near the transformer

(B)  Near the circuit breaker

(C)  Away from the transformer

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

47. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is

(A)  Increased

(B)  Decreased

(C)  Neither (A) nor (B)

(D)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (A)

48. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which

(A)  Are available locally

(B)  Area made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

(C)  Have more electrons than holes

(D)  Have zero energy gaps

Answer: (B)

49. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by

(A)  Channel resistance

(B)  Size of depletion regions

(C)  Voltage drop across channel

(D)  Gate reverse bias

Answer: (D)

50. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

(A)  They have higher input impedance

(B)  They have high switching time

(C)  They consume less power

(D)  Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

Answer: (D)

Section-II

51. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the-

(A)  Increase in ICEO

(B)  Increase in ac current gain

(C)  Decrease in ac current gain

(D)  Increase in output resistance

Answer: (A)

52. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is

(A)  13.3 KHz

(B)  30 KHz

(C)  10 KHz

(D)  40 KHz

Answer: (B)

53. The output of a class B amplifier

(A)  is distortion free

(B)  consists of positive half cycles only

(C)  is like the output of a full wave rectifier

(D)  comprises short duration current pulses

Answer: (B)

54. An amplifier with negative feedback

(A)  lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

(B)  raises its upper 3 dB frequency

(C)  increases its bandwidth

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

55. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received?

(A)  Block becomes redundant

(B)  A FM detector would be required

(C)  A high frequency signal generator

(D)  An additional local oscillator will be needed

Answer: (B)

56. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its

(A)  greater speed

(B)  slower speed

(C)  average speed

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

57. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by

(A)  Dt = N ´ Fc

(B)  Dt = N ´ 1/Fc

(C)  Dt = 1/N ´ Fc

(D)  Dt = N, 1/Fc

Answer: (B)

58. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and its does not change when clock pulses is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be (Y denotes don’t care)

(A)  y and o

(B)  y and 1

(C)  0 and y

(D)  1 and y

Answer: (A)

59. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of

(A)  a flip flop

(B)  a transistor acting as a capacitor

(C)  a transistor

(D)  a capacitance

Answer: (B)

60. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm1 m1 is of the order of

(A)  1010

(B)  105

(C)  104

(D)  106

Answer: (B)

61. When biased correctly, a zener diode

(A)  acts as a fixed resistance

(B)  has a constant voltage across it

(C)  has a constant current passing through it

(D)  never overheats

Answer: (B)

62. The current amplification factor adc is given by

(A)  IC/IE

(B)  IC/IB

(C)  IB/IC

(D)  IB/IC

Answer: (A)

63. Compared to bipolar, FETs have

(A)  high input impedance

(B)  low input impedance

(C)  same input impedance

(D)  none

Answer: (A)

64. The source-drain channel of JFET is

(A)  ohmic

(B)  bilateral

(C)  unilateral

(D)  both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D)

65. Diac is equivalent to a

(A)  Pair of SCRs

(B)  Pair of four layer SCRs

(C)  Diode and two resistors

(D)  Triac width

Answer: (B)

66. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 × 1011/cm3 at 300 K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 × 1012/cm3 then the hole density will be

(A) 106/cm3

(B)  103/cm3

(C)  1010/cm3

(D)  1012/cm3

Answer: (B)

67. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents

(A)  Kirchhoff’s law

(B)  Norton’s theorem

(C)  Thevenin’s theorem

(D)  Superposition theorem

Answer: (D)

68. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is

(A)  TE1 mode

(B)  TM01 mode

(C)  TE01 mode

(D)  Higher order mode

Answer: (C)

69. A two-port network is symmetrical if

(A)  z11z22 – z12z21 = 1

(B)  h11h22 – h12h21 = 1

(C)  AD – BC = 1

(D)  y1y22 – y12y21 = 1

Answer: (C)

70. The International Date Line is represented by

(A)  100° meridian

(B)  120° meridian

(C)  180° meridian

(D)  90° meridian

Answer: (C)

71. India’s first satellite was launched from

(A)  Sriharikota

(B)  Cape Kennedy

(C)  Bangalore

(D)  A Soviet cosmodrome

Answer: (A)

72. Name the author of the famous book “Politics”.

(A)  Aristotle

(B)  Socrates

(C)  Plato

(D)  None of them

Answer: (A)

73. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on

(A)  The Spanish Civil War

(B)  The American Civil War

(C)  The French Revolution

(D)  The Russian Revolution

Answer: (A)

74. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is

(A)  To put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers

(B)  To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution

(C)  To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

75. Which country in July ‘ 99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?

(A)  N. Korea

(B)  France

(C)  India

(D)  China

Answer: (D)

76. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Maharashtra

(C)  Jammu and Kashmir

(D)  Nagaland

Answer: (D)

77. The polar plot of G(S) = 10/s(s + 1)2 intercepts real axis at ω = ωo. Then, the real part and wo are given by?

(A)  −5, 1

(B)  +5, −1

(C)  −5, −1

(D)  5, 1

Answer: (A)

78. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is

(A)  Triangular

(B)  Trapezoidal

(C)  Sinusoidal

(D)  Rectangular

Answer: (C)

79. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is

(A)  frequency shift keying

(B)  two – tone modulation

(C)  pulse code modulation

(D)  single tone modulation

Answer: (A)

80. Use of VAROCTOR DIODE in generation of modulated signal be

(A)  FM generation only

(B)  100 AM generation only

(C)  PM generation only

(D)  both PM and AM generation

Answer: (A)

81. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to

(A)  reduce x-ray emission

(B)  ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

(C)  increase screen brightness

(D)  provide degaussing for the screen

Answer: (C)

82. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is

(A)  the keyed AGC amplifar

(B)  a clipper

(C)  an integrator

(D)  a saw tooth current

Answer: (D)

83. Band width of microwaves is

(A)  1 GHz – 103 GHz

(B)  1 GHz – 100 GHz

(C)  1 GHz – 10 GHz

(D)  1 GHz – 106 GHz

Answer: (A)

84. In transverse Magnetic mode

(A)  no electric line is in direction of propagation

(B)  no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

(C)  bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

(D)  neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

Answer: (B)

85. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to

(A)  Reforction of wave

(B)  Reflection of wave

(C)  Pierus through Inosphere

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

86. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be

(A)  60°

(B)  90°

(C)  180°

(D)  360°

Answer: (D)

87. The transmission does not have

(A)  Partition noise

(B)  Flicker noise

(C)  resistance

(D)  Short noise

Answer: (A)

88. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

You can buy a book. You can read it.

(A)  and

(B)  nor

(C)  either

(D)  neither

Answer: (A)

89. What is the opposite of ASPERITY?

(A)  gentility

(B)  superiority

(C)  kindness

(D)  clarity

Answer: (B)

90. The Election Commission functions under

(A)  Ministry of Home Affairs

(B)  Ministry of Law

(C)  Prime Minister’s Secretariat

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

91. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case

(A)  President’s Rule is to be imposed

(B)  Emergency is declared

(C)  Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

(D)  A political party of national level is to be banned

Answer: (B)

92. Radio-activity was first discovered by

(A)  Becquerel

(B)  Madam Curie

(C)  Rutherford

(D)  Jenner

Answer: (A)

93. Ninth Plan in India ranges from

(A)  1995-2000

(B)  1996-2001

(C)  1997-2002

(D)  1998-2003

Answer: (C)

94. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?

(A)  5,000 MW

(B)  10,000 MW

(C)  15,000 MW

(D)  20,000 MW

Answer: (B)

95. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

(A)  1769

(B)  1789

(C)  1889

(D)  1869

Answer: (B)

96. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present ?

(A)  1/10th of total membership

(B)  1/6th of total membership

(C)  1/4th of total membership

(D)  1/5th of total membership

Answer: (A)

97. How many countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  9

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

98. VAROCTOR DIODE has non-linearity of

(A)  Capacitances

(B)  Inductance

(C)  Resistance

(D)  Is a linear device

Answer: (C)

99. Noise figure is calculated as

(A)  1/P signal to noise ratio X O/P signal to noise ratio

(B)  1/P S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

(C)  1/P S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio × 100

(D)  1/P S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

Answer: (D)

100. You can determines quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by

(A)  Nicholas chart

(B)  Nyquist plot

(C)  Bode plot

(D)  Root locus

Answer: (C)

Section-III

101. If there exists at least one path between any pair of vertices in a graph , the graph is known as

(A)  complete graph

(B)  disconnected graph

(C)  connected graph

(D)  Euler graph

Answer: (C)

102. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f(E) is given by F(s) = 10 (s + 7)/(s + 1) (s + 8) (s + 10)

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively

(A)  zero and 1

(B)  zero and 10

(C)  10 and zero

(D)  70 and 80

Answer: (C)

103. A satellite l ink uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to

(A)  avoid interference from terrestrial microwaves links

(B)  avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak incoming signal

(C)  minimize free-space losses

(D)  maximize antenna gain

Answer: (B)

104. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its

(A)  EIRP

(B)  Antenna size

(C)  Coverage area

(D)  Antenna gain

Answer: (C)

105. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

(A)  horizontal blanking

(B)  vertical blanking

(C)  the serrations

(D)  the horizontal retrace

Answer: (B)

106. The son seems to have …. from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner.

(A)  washed

(B)  inherited

(C)  admired

(D)  attempt

Answer: (B)

107. Essayist works with words as sculptor with

(A)  water

(B)  stone

(C)  air

(D)  hills

Answer: (B)

108. What is a collection of sheep called ?

(A)  bunch

(B)  flock

(C)  herd

(D)  comet

Answer: (B)

109. Who is the author of famous book “My Country My Life” ?

(A)  Sonia Gandhi

(B)  APJ. Abdul Kalam

(C)  Nelson Mandela

(D)  L. K. Advani

Answer: (D)

110. Choose the best expresses the meaning of the given word – ‘LAVISH’

(A)  Profuse

(B)  Showy

(C)  Gay

(D)  Carefree

Answer: (A)

111. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word – ‘HARMONY’.

(A)  Hatred

(B)  Friction

(C)  Discord

(D)  Enmity

Answer: (C)

112. Find the word or phrase opposite in meaning of the italics word or phrase.

Ambiguity of thoughts can prove disastrous

(A)  Rigidity

(B)  Clarity

(C)  Certainty

(D)  Rationality

Answer: (B)

113. Complete the sentence :

The State Transport Corporation has ……… a loss of Rs. 5 crore this year.

(A)  obtained

(B)  derived

(C)  incurred

(D)  formulated

Answer: (C)

114. About 50% of the total silk textile produced in India is at

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Karnataka

(C)  West Bengal

(D)  Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: (B)

115. How many items are there in the Concurrent List?

(A)  52 items

(B)  80 items

(C)  90 items

(D)  66 items

Answer: (A)

116. The Governor holds office

(A)  for a term of five years

(B)  during a pleasure of the President

(C)  during the pleasure of the chief minister

(D)  as long as he enjoys the confidence of the State Legislature

Answer: (B)

117. All acids essentially contain

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Chlorine

(C)  Sulphur

(D)  Hydrogen

Answer: (D)

118. Excessive intake of polished rice causes deficiency of

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin B

(C)  Vitamin D

(D)  Vitamin K

Answer: (B)

119. Who was the first Muslim ruler of Delhi ?

(A)  Iltutmish

(B)  Allauddin Khalji

(C)  Qutbuddin Albak

(D)  Mahmud of Ghazni

Answer: (C)

120. Author of ‘Wings of Fire’ is

(A)  Sonia Gandhi

(B)  APJ. Abdul Kalam

(C)  K. R. Narayanan

(D)  P. V. Narasimha Rao

Answer: (B)


BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2005 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2002 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper 2001 With Answer Key

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Exam Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

BSNL JTO 2014 Question Paper

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers’ (JTO) Recruitment Exam Question Paper-2014

Section-I Engineering Stream

1. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is

(A)  Triangular

(B)  Trapezoidal

(C)  Sinusoidal

(D)  Rectangular.

Answer: (D)

2. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is

(A)  it is dimensionless

(B)  it is not equal to unity for vacuum

(C)  it’s value for all substances is less than one

(D)  none of these

Answer: (A)

3. Pure metals generally have

(A)  high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

(B)  high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

(C)  low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

(D)  low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

Answer: (B)

4. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

(A)  Air

(B)  Ferrite

(C)  Powdered ion

(D)  Steel

Answer: (A)

5. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by

(A)  C ∝ V1/3

(B)  C ∝ V−1/3

(C)  C ∝ V1/2

(D)  C ∝ V1/2

Answer: (B)

6. A superconductor is a

(A)  material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

(B)  conductor having zero resistance

(C)  perfect conductor with highest diamagnetic susceptibility

(D)  perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

Answer: (A)

7. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of −2500 mV/℃ then this tranducer is indeed a

(A)  Thermistor

(B)  Forward biased pn junction diode

(C)  Reverse biased pn junction

(D)  FET

Answer: (B)

8. The location of lightning arrestor is

(A)  near the transformer

(B)  near the circuit breaker

(C)  away from the transformer

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

9. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is

(A)  increased

(B)  decreased

(C)  neither (A) nor (B)

(D)  both (A) and (B)

Answer: (A)

10. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which

(A)  are available locally

(B)  are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

(C)  have more electrons than holes

(D)  have zero energy gaps

Answer: (B)

11. The primary control on drain current in a JPFET is exerted by

(A)  Channel resistance

(B)  Size of depletion regions

(C)  Voltage drop across channel

(D)  Gate reverse bias

Answer: (D)

12. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm1 m1 is of the order of

(A)  1010

(B)  105

(C)  104

(D)  106

Answer: (B)

13. When biased correctly, a zener diode –

(A)  acts as a fixed resistance

(B)  has a constant voltage across it

(C)  has a constant current passing through it

(D)  never overheats

Answer: (B)

14. The current amplification factor αde is given by –

(A)  IC/IE

(B)  IC/IB

(C)  IB/IC

(D)  IB/IC

Answer: (A)

15. Compared to bipolar, FETs have-

(A)  high input impedance

(B)  low input impedance

(C)  same input impedance

(D)  none

Answer: (A)

16. The source-drain channel of JFET is

(A)  ohmic

(B)  bilateral

(C)  unilateral

(D)  both (A) and (B) 

Answer: (D)

17. Diac is equivalent to a

(A)  pair of SCRs

(B)  pair of four layer SCRs

(C)  Diode and two resistors

(D)  Triac width

Answer: (B)

18. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 × 1018/cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 × 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be-

(A)  106/cm3

(B)  107/cm3

(C)  1010 cm3

(D)  1012/cm3

Answer: (B)

19. The statement “In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero” represents

(A)  Kirchhoff’s law

(B)  Norton’s theorem

(C)  Thevenin’s theorem

(D)  Superposition theorem

Answer: (D)

20. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as he frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is-

(A)  TEmode

(B)  TM01 mode

(C)  TE­01 mode

(D)  Higher order mode

Answer: (C)

21. A two-port network is symmetrical if –

(A)  z11z22 – z12z21 = 1

(B)  h11h22 – h12h21 = 1

(C)  AD – BC = 1

(D)  y11y22 – y12y21 = 1

Answer: (C)

22. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a

(A)  balun

(B)  broad band directional coupler

(C)  double stub

(D)  single stub of adjustable position

Answer: (C)

23. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realized.

(A)  by an LC network

(B)  as an RC driving point impedance

(C)  as an RC driving point admittance

(D)  only by an RLC network

Answer: (D)

24. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements-

(A)  R and C

(B)  L and C

(C)  R and L

(D)  R, L and C

Answer: (B)

25. For a two point reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to-

(A)  B

(B)  Z12

(C)  1/y12

(D)  h12

Answer: (B)

26. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-

(A)  the induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

(B)  in the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

(C)  the radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

(D)  mean rate of power through a u nit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

Answer: (D)

27. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly

(A)  250 – 300 MHz

(B)  150 – 20 MHz

(C)  90 – 105 MHz

(D)  30 -70 MHz

Answer: (C)

28. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using

(A)  Inductive loading

(B)  Resistive loading

(C)  Capacitive loading

(D)  Shielding

Answer: (A)

29. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH/m and capacitance 60 pM/m is

(A)  49 W

(B)  60 W

(C)  70 W

(D)  140 W

Answer: (C)

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be a-

(A)  25W

(B)  50W

(C)  100W

(D)  150W

Answer: (A)

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-

(A)  inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m

(B)  directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

(C)  directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m

(D)  inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

Answer: (B)

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be-

(A)  0.44560

(B)  1.44560

(C)  2.44560

(D)  3.44560

Answer: (C)

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of

(A)  Polystyrene

(B)  Glass of low refractive index

(C)  Paraboloid Surfaces

(D)  Dielectric media having large refractive index

Answer: (A)

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is-

(A)  Electrodynamometer

(B)  PMMC

(C)  Electrostatic

(D)  Moving iron

Answer: (C)

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true?

(A)  An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

(B)  An ac ammeter will read only 5A

(C)  A dc ammeter will read 10A

(D)  A dc ammeter will read zero

Answer: (A)

36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then

(A)  power factor of the circuit is high

(B)  impedance of the circuit is high

(C)  bandwidth is large

(D)  more narrow bandwidth

Answer: (D)

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is

(A)  the maximum number of input channels

(B)  the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

(C)  it’s internal clock period

(D)  the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

Answer: (D)

38. A memoryless system is a-

(A)  causal

(B)  not causal

(C)  nothing can be said

(D)  none

Answer: (A)

39. An air capacitor is a-

(A)  time variant

(B)  active device

(C)  time invariant 

(D)  time invariant and passive device

Answer: (D)

40. Thermistors are made of

(A)  pure metals

(B)  pure insulators

(C)  sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

(D)  pure semiconductor

Answer: (C)

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure-

(A)  very low pressures

(B)  high pressures

(C)  pressures in the region of 1 atm

(D)  fluid flow

Answer: (A)

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion –

(A)  AC Voltage controllers

(B)  Cyclo converters

(C)  Phase controlled rectifiers

(D)  Inverters

Answer: (B)

43. In a forward voltage triggering thyri9stor changes from-

(A)  OFF state to ON state

(B)  ON state to OFF state

(C)  ON state to ON state

(D)  OFF state to OFF state

Answer: (A)

44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to

(A)  peak repetitive off state of forward voltage

(B)  peak working off state forward voltage

(C)  peak working off state reverse voltage

(D)  peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

Answer: (B)

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor –

(A)  is a straight line passing through origin

(B)  is of the type Vg = a + bIg

(C)  is a curve between Vg and Ig.

(D)  has a spread between two curves of Vg – Ig

Answer: (D)

46. A four quadrant operation requires –

(A)  two full converters in series

(B)  two full converters connected back to back

(C)  two full converters connected in parallel

(D)  two semi converters connected back to back

Answer: (B)

47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are –

(A)  Vs, P

(B)  Vs/2, P

(C)  2Vs, 2P

(D)  2Vs, P

Answer: (C)

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has-

(A)  only an ohmic region

(B)  only a saturation region

(C)  only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

(D)  an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

Answer: (C)

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor

(A)  increases with temperature

(B)  remains constant

(C)  slightly increases with temperature

(D)  decreases with temperature

Answer: (D)

50. In an electronic circuit matching means

(A)  connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

(B)  selection of components which are compatible

(C)  transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits

(D)  C coupled stages

Answer: (C)

Section – II Engineering Stream

51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

(A)  they have higher input impedance

(B)  they have high switching time

(C)  they consume less power

(D)  mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

Answer: (D)

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the

(A)  increase in ICEO

(B)  increase in ac current gain

(C)  decrease in ac current gain

(D)  increase in output resistance

Answer: (A)

53. An amplifier has band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is

(A)  13.3 KHz

(B)  30 KHz 

(C)  10 KHz

(D)  40 KHz

Answer: (B)

54. The output of a class B amplifier

(A)  is distortion free

(B)  consist of positive half cycles only

(C)  is like the output of a full wave rectifier

(D)  comprises short duration current pulses

Answer: (B)

55. An amplifier with negative feedback

(A)  lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

(B)  raises its upper 3 dB frequency

(C)  increases its bandwidth

(D)  all of the above

Answer: (D)

56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received?

(A)  block becomes redundant

(B)  a FM detector would be required

(C)  a high frequency signal generator

(D)  an additional local oscillator will be needed

Answer: (B)

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its –

(A)  greater speed

(B)  slower speed

(C)  average speed

(D)  none of the above

Answer: (B)

58. Time delay ∆t in digital signals in an SISO shift register is given by

(A)  ∆t = N × Fe

(B)  ∆t = N × 1/Fe

(C)  ∆t = 1/N × Fe

(D)  ∆t = N – 1/Fe

Answer: (B)

59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be – (y denotes don’t care)

(A)  y and 0

(B)  y and 1

(C)  0 and y

(D)  1 and y

Answer: (A)

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of –

(A)  a flip flop

(B)  a transistor acting as a capacitor

(C)  a transistor

(D)  a capacitance

Answer: (B)

61. The 2’s complement of 10002 is-

(A)  0111

(B)  0101

(C)  1000

(D)  0001

Answer: (C)

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of-

(A)  two flip flops connected in series

(B)  two flip flops connected in parallel

(C)  debouncer circuit

(D)  a D-latch

Answer: (A)

63. Number of nibbles making one byte is

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space –

(A)  is independent of frequency

(B)  decreases with increase of frequency

(C)  increases with increase of frequency

(D)  varies as square root of frequency

Answer: (A)

65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. It high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of

(A)  −200 dB/decade

(B)  −240 dB/decade

(C)  −230 dB/decade

(D)  −320 dB/decade

Answer: (A)

66. Considering the conditions

1. High loop gain

2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping

4. Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include?

(A)  1 and 3

(B)  1, 2 and 3

(C)  1 and 4

(D)  2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosynchronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides –

(A)  24 hour orbit

(B)  stationary satellite

(C)  global communication

(D)  zero-gravity environs

Answer: (B)

68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of-

(A)  space multiplexing

(B)  time multiplexing

(C)  frequency multiplexing

(D)  none of the above

Answer: (C)

69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a

(A)  Low Pass Filters (LPE) alone

(B)  Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

(C)  differentiator followed by a LPF

(D)  clipper circuit by a LPF

Answer: (D)

70. In a FDM receiver channels can be separated by using –

(A)  AND gates

(B)  Band pass

(C)  Differentiation

(D)  Integration

Answer: (A)

71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is –

(A)  Frequency Shift Keying

(B)  Two – Tone Modulation

(C)  Pulse Code Modulation

(D)  Single Tone Modulation

Answer: (A)

72. Use of varactor diode in generation of modulated signal be

(A)  FM generation only

(B)  100 AM generation only

(C)  PM generation only

(D)  both PM and AM generation

Answer: (A)

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to –

(A)  reduce X-ray emission

(B)  ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

(C)  increase screen brightness

(D)  provide degaussing for the screen

Answer: (C)

74. The circuit that separates composite video waveform from the sync pulses is –

(A)  the keyed AGC amplifier

(B)  a clipper

(C)  an integrator

(D)  a sawtooth current

Answer: (D)

75. Band width of microwaves is –

(A)  1 GHz – 103 GHz

(B)  1 GHz – 100 GHz

(C)  1 GHz – 10 GHz

(D)  1 GHz – 106 GHz

Answer: (A)

76. In transverse Magnetic mode –

(A)  no electric line is in direction of propagation

(B)  no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

(C)  both magnetic & electric lines are in direction of propagation

(D)  neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

Answer: (B)

77. Signal transmission on sky wave propagation is due to-

(A)  Refraction of wave

(B)  Reflection of wave

(C)  Pieris through inosphere

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be-

(A)  60°

(B)  90°

(C)  180°

(D)  360°

Answer: (D)

79. The transmission does not have

(A)  Partition noise

(B)  Flicker noise

(C)  Resistance

(D)  Short noise

Answer: (A)

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of

(A)  capacitance

(B)  inductance

(C)  resistance

(D)  is a linear device

Answer: (A)

81. Noise figure is calculated as –

(A)  i/p S/N Ratio × o/p S/N Ratio

(B)  i/p S/N Ratio / o/p S/N Ratio

(C)  (i/p S/N Ratio / o/p S/N Ratio) × 100

(D)  i/p S/N Ratio + o/p S/N Ratio

Answer: (B)

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by-

(A)  Nicholas chart

(B)  Nyquist plot

(C)  Bode plot

(D)  Root locus

Answer: (C)

83. The polar plot of  intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by

(A)  −5, 1

(B)  −2.5, 1

(C)  −5, 0.5

(D)  −5, 2

Answer: (A)

84. Laplace transform F(s) of a function of f(E) is given by  The initial and final values of F(t) will be respectively –

(A)  zero and 1

(B)  zero and 10

(C)  10 and zero

(D)  70 and 80

Answer: (C)

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to –

(A)  avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

(B)  avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak incoming signal

(C)  minimize free-space losses

(D)  maximize antenna gain.

Answer: (B)

86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

(A)  EIRP

(B)  Antenna size

(C)  Coverage area

(D)  Antenna gain

Answer: (C)

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during –

(A)  horizontal blanking

(B)  vertical blanking

(C)  the serrations

(D)  the horizontal retrace

Answer: (B)

88. Silicon has a preference in IC technology because

(A)  it is an indirect semiconductor

(B)  it is a covalent semiconductor

(C)  it is an elemental semiconductor

(D)  of the availability of nature oxide SiO

Answer: (D)

89. The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is

(A)  Im/1

(B)  Im/√2

(C)  Im/2

(D)  Im­/√3

Answer: (C)

90. The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when exited from AC source is, _____ sine wave

(A)  Critically damped

(B)  Underdamped

(C)  Overdamped

(D)  Undamped

Answer: (D)

91. A transmission line is terminated at its characteristic impedance. The reflection coefficient is

(A)  1

(B)  −1

(C)  0

(D)  ∞

Answer: (C)

92. In a series RLC circuit operation below the resonant frequency the current

(A)  I leads Vs

(B)  I lags Vs

(C)  I is in phase with Vs

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

93. To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need an instrument with

(A)  high accuracy

(B)  high resolution

(C)  high sensitivity

(D)  high linearity

Answer: (B)

94. The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is

(A)  GaAs

(B)  GaAℓAs

(C)  GalnAs

(D)  GaAsP

Answer: (D)

95. Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the same atomic packing density?

(A)  Simple Cubic & Body Centred Cubic

(B)  Body Centred Cubic & Face Centred Cubic

(C)  Face Centered Cubic & Hexagonal Close Packed

(D)  Body Centred Cubic & Hexagonal Close Packed

Answer: (C)

96. The colouor bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the sequence:

yellow, violet, yellow and silver.

Its resistance is

(A)  470 KΩ ± 47%

(B)  470 KΩ ± 23.5%

(C)  47 KΩ ± 10%

(D)  47 KΩ ± 5%

Answer: (C)

97. A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output is changed because

(A)  image interference is reduced

(B)  adjacent channel interference is increased

(C)  of fading

(D)  line of sigh propagation is not utilized

Answer: (C)

98. In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage producers

(A)  Amplitude Modulation

(B)  Frequency Modulation

(C)  Phase Modulation

(D)  Velocity Modulation

Answer: (D)

99. For an antenna to be frequency-independent it should expand or contract in proportion to the

(A)  gain

(B)  directivity

(C)  wavelength

(D)  impedance

Answer: (D)

100. In class-A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum when

(A)  MOV A, A

(B)  ANI 00H

(C)  XRA A

(D)  CMP A

Answer: (A)

Section – III General Ability Test

101. The son seems to have ____ from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner.

(A)  washed

(B)  inherited

(C)  admired

(D)  attempt

Answer: (B)

102. Essayist works with words as sculptor with

(A)  water

(B)  stone

(C)  air

(D)  hills

Answer: (B)

103. What is a collection of sheep called?

(A)  bunch

(B)  flock

(C)  herd

(D)  comet

Answer: (B)

104. Join these sentence meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following You can buy a book. You can read it.

(A)  and

(B)  nor

(C)  either

(D)  neither

Answer: (A)

105. What is the opposite of Asperity –

(A)  gentility

(B)  superiority

(C)  kindness

(D)  clarity

Answer: (B)

106. The Election Commission functions under –

(A)  Ministry of Home Affairs

(B)  Ministry of Law

(C)  Prime Minster’s Secretariat

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

107. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case –

(A)  President’s Rule is to be imposed

(B)  Emergency is declared

(C)  Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

(D)  A political party of national level is to be banned

Answer: (B)

108. Radio-activity was first discovered by-

(A)  Becquerel

(B)  Madam Curie

(C)  Rutherford

(D)  Jenner

Answer: (A)

109. Ninth Five Year Plan in India ranges from –

(A)  1995 – 2000

(B)  1996 – 2001

(C)  1997 – 2002

(D)  1998 – 2003

Answer: (C)

110. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2014 AD?

(A)  15,000 MW

(B)  35,000 GW

(C)  25,000 MW

(D)  40,000 GW

Answer: (B)

111. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

(A)  1769

(B)  1789

(C)  1889

(D)  1869

Answer: (B)

112. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?

(A)  1/10th of total membership

(B)  1/6th of total membership

(C)  1/4th of total membership

(D)  1/5th of total membership

Answer: (A)

113. How many countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  9

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

114. The International Date Line is represented by

(A)  100° meridian

(B)  0° meridian

(C)  180° meridian

(D)  90° meridian

Answer: (C)

115. India’s first satellite was launched from –

(A)  Sriharikota

(B)  Cape Kennedy

(C)  Bangalore

(D)  Soviet cosmodrome

Answer: (D)

116. Name of the author of the famous book “Politics” –

(A)  Aristotle

(B)  Socrates

(C)  Plato

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

117. “Guernica” is Picasso’s painting on –

(A)  The Spanish Civil War

(B)  The American Civil War

(C)  The French Revolution

(D)  The Russian Revolution

Answer: (A)

118. The object of the Supreme Court’s Keshvanand Bharati ruling is

(A)  to put a limit on Parliament’s amendatory powers

(B)  to give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution 

(C)  to give precedence to Directive principles over Fundamental Rights

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

119. Which country in July’99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?

(A)  Korea

(B)  France

(C)  India

(D)  China

Answer: (D)

120. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Maharashtra

(C)  Jammu and Kashmir

(D)  Nagaland

Answer: (D)


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B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Question Papers of Kerala University of Health Sciences KUHS

B.Sc. Perfusion Technology

B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper August 2014 Human Anatomy PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper August 2014 Physiology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper August 2014 Biochemistry PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper August 2014 Pathology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper August 2014 Microbiology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper May 2014 (Supplementary) Human Anatomy PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper May 2014 (Supplementary) Physiology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper May 2014 (Supplementary) Biochemistry PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper November 2013 Biochemistry PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper November 2013 Human Anatomy PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper November 2013 Microbiology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper November 2013 Pathology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology First Year Previous Year Question Paper November 2013 Physiology PDF DownloadLink
B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Second Year
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Second Year Previous Year Question Paper September 2014 Applied Pathology & Applied Microbiology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Second Year Previous Year Question Paper September 2014 Introduction to Perfusion Technology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Second Year Previous Year Question Paper September 2014 Pharmacology PDF DownloadLink
KUHS B.Sc. Perfusion Technology Second Year Previous Year Question Paper September 2014 Medicine Relevant to Perfusion Technology PDF DownloadLink