JIPMER

Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year – 2014

Physics

1. A ball is released from certain height which losses 50% of its kinetic energy on striking the ground, it will attain in height again

(a) 1/4^th of initial height

(b) 1/2th of initial height

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

2. If applied torque on a system is zero, i.e., τ = 0, then for that system

(a) ω = 0

(b) α = 0

(d) F = 0

Ans: (b)

3. A steel wire of 1 m long and 1 mm² cross section area is hanged from rigid end when weight of 1 kg is hang from it, then change in length will be

(Young’s coefficient for wire Y = 2 × 10¹¹ N/m²)

(a) 0.5 mm

(b) 0.25 mm

(d) 5 mm

Ans: (c)

4. When plate voltage in diode valve is increased from 100V to 150V. Then, plate increases from 7.5 mA to 12 mA, then dynamic plate resistance will be

(a) 10 kΩ

(b) 11 kΩ

(d) 11.1 kΩ

Ans: (d)

5. If the sun rays are incidenting at 60° angle and intensity is I. If the sun rays are made incident at 30° angle, then what will be the intensity?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

6. The reason of current flow in p-n junction in forward bias is

(a) drifting of charge carriers

(b) drifting of minority charge carriers

(d) All of the above

Ans: (c)

7. A charged particle is accelerated by a potential of 200 V. If its velocity is 8.4 × 10⁸ m/s, then value of e/m for that particle is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

8. When an open organ is dipped in water upto half of its height, then its frequency will becomes

(a) half

(b) double

(d) four time

Ans: (c)

9. A sound source producing waves of frequency 300 Hz and wavelength 1 m observer is stationary, while source is going away with the velocity 30 m/s, then apparent frequency heared by the observer is

(a) 270 Hz

(b) 273 Hz

(d) 300 Hz

Ans: (b)

10. A particle moves towards east for 2s with velocity 15 m/s and move towards north for 8 s with velocity 5 m/s. Then, average velocity of the particle is

(a) 1 m/s

(b) 5 m/s

(d) 10 m/s

Ans: (b)

11. Relation between wavelength of photon and electron of same energy is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (a)

12. Match the following.

(a) C – 2, D – 1

(b) A – 4, B – 3

(d) B – 2, A – 1

Ans: (b)

13. If we increase kinetic energy of a body 300%, then per cent increase in its momentum is

(a) 50%

(b) 300%

(d) 150%

Ans: (c)

14. Change in acceleration due to gravity is same upto a height h from each other the earth surface and below depth x, then relation between x and h is (h and x < < < R_e)

(a) x = h

(b) x = 2h

(d) x = h²

Ans: (b)

15. A mass of 1 kg is suspended from spring of force constant 400 N, executing SHM total energy of the body is 2J, then maximum acceleration of the spring will be

(a) 4 m/s²

(b) 40 m/s²

(d) 400 m/s²

Ans: (b)

16. Two capacitors of capacities C₁ and C₂ are charged upto the potential V₁ and V₂, then condition for not flowing the charge between on connected them in parallel is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

17. Find equivalent resistance between X and Y

(a) R

(b) R/L

(d) 5R

Ans: (a)

18. Vibrations of rope tied by two rigid ends shown by equation y = cos 2πt sin 2πx, then minimum length of the rope will be

(a) 1 m

(b) 1/2m

(d) 2 π m

Ans: (b)

19. If we change the value of R, then

(a) voltage does not change on L

(b) voltage does not change on LC combination

(d) voltage changes on LC combination

Ans: (d)

20. If V = ary, then electric field at appoint will be proportional to

(a) r

(b) r⁻¹

(d) r²

Ans: (d)

21. Electric field at point 20 cm away from the centre of dielectric sphere is 100 V/m, radius of sphere is 10 cm, then the value of electric filed at a distance 3 cm from the center is

(a) 100 V/m

(b) 125 V/m

(d) 0

Ans: (d)

22. 50 g ice at 0℃ in insulator vessel, 50 g water of 100℃ is mixed in it, then final temperature of the mixture is (neglect the heat loss)

(a) 10℃

(b)

(d) above 20℃

Ans: (a)

23. Real power consumption in a circuit is least when it contains.

(a) high R, low L

(b) high R, high L

(d) high R, low C

Ans: (c)

24. Linear density of a string of is 1.3 × 10⁻⁴ kg/m and wave equation is y = 0.021 sin)x + 30t). Find, the tension in the string where, x in metre and t in second

(a) 0.12 N

(b) 0.21 N

(d) 0.012 N

Ans: (a)

25. Magnetic field at point O will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (a)

26. If prism angle α = 1°, μ = 1.54, distance between screen and prism (D) = 0.7 m, distance between prism and source a = 0.3 m, λ = 180π nm, then in Fresnal biprism find the value of β(fringe width).

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

27. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, relation between principal quantum number n and radius of stable orbit is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

28. An observer is approaching with velocity υ towards a light source. If the velocity of light is c, then velocity of light with respect to observer will be

(a) c – v

(b) c

(d)

Ans: (c)

29. Magnetic field of the earth is H = 0.3 g. A magnet is vibrating 5 oscillations per min then the dippreciation required in the magnetic field of the earth of increase time period upto 10 oscillations per minute is

(a) 2.25 g

(b) 0.6 g

(d) 0.12 g

Ans: (a)

30. Work function of a metal is 5.2 × 10⁻¹⁸, then its threshold wavelength will be

(a) 736.7 Å

(b) 760.7 Å

(d) 344.4 Å

Ans: (d)

31. Remaining quantity (in%) of radioactive element after 5 half lives is

(a) 4.125%

(b) 3.125%

(d) 42.125%

Ans: (a)

32. A engine pumps up 100 kg of water through a height of 10 m in 5s. Given that, the efficiency of engine is 60%. If g = 10 ms⁻², the power of this engine is

(a) 3.3 kW

(b) 0.33 kW

(d) 33 kW

Ans: (a)

33. The angular amplitude of a simple pendulum is θ₀. The maximum tension in its string will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

34. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively are ϕ, and ϕ₂, the electric charge inside the surface will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

35. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of absolute temperature. The ratio for the gas is

(a) 4/3

(b) 2

(d) 3/2

Ans: (d)

36. Three points charges +q, −2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

(a) √2q along + y direction

(b) √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(d) √2aq along + x direction

Ans: (b)

37. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity υ. If μ is the coefficient of vlicling friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

(a) v/gμ

(b) gμ/v

(d) v/g

Ans: (a)

38. To get three images of a single object, we should have two plane mirrors at an angle of

(a) 60°

(b) 90°

(d) 30°

Ans: (b)

39. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field, when the particle completes one full circle, is

(a)

(b) zero

(d) BQv2πR

Ans: (b)

40. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

(a) −0.5 J

(b) −1.25 J

(d) 0.5 J

Ans: (b)

Chemistry

1. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

(a) acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

(b) ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride

(d) acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide

Ans: (a)

2. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

(a) Zn-Hg with HCl

(b) LiAlH₄

(d) Glycol with KOH

Ans: (a)

3. In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be

(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

(a) 16.45

(b) 17.45

(d) 15.45

Ans: (a)

4. Which of the following is not correct?

(a) Ammonia is used as refrigerant

(b) A mixture of Ca(CN)₂ and C is known as nitrolim

(d) Hydrolysis of NCl₃ gives NH₃ and HOCl

Ans: (b)

5. Which one of the following is aromatic?

(a) Cyclopentadienyl cation

(b) Cyclooctatetraene

(d) Cycloheptatrienylcation

Ans: (d)

6. The complexes [Co(NH₃)₆]C [Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆] [Co(CN)₆] are the examples of which type of isomerism?

(a) Ionisation isomerism

(b) Coordination isomerism

(d) Linkage isomerism

Ans: (b)

7. A solution with negative deviation among the following is

(a) ethanol-acetone

(b) chlorobenzene-bromobenzene

(d) benzene-toluene

Ans: (c)

8. Which of the following compounds is soluble in benzene but almost insoluble in water?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

9. The correct order of magnitude of bond angles among the compounds CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

10. Which one of the following reactions does not form gaseous product?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

11. Observe the following reaction

2A + B → C

The rate of formation of C is

2.2 × 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹min⁻¹. What is the value of (in mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

12. Which one of the following is employed as antithistamine?

(a) Diphenyl hydramine

(b) Norethndrone

(d) Chloramphenicol

Ans: (a)

13. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

14. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are −2 V, +0.5 V and −3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

(a) Y > X > Z

(b) Z > X > Y

(d) Y > Z > X

Ans: (b)

15. Which of the following compounds has the lower melting point?

(a) CaBr₂

(b) CaI₂

(d) CaCl₂

Ans: (b)

16. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB₂ can be represented as

2AB₂(g) ⇌ 2AB (g) + B₂(g)

The degree of dissociation is ‘x’ and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant K_p and total pressure p is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

17. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH₃ is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH₄⁺ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, K_b for NH₃ equals 1.8 × 10⁻⁵, what is the pH of this solution?

(log 2.7 = 0.43)

(a) 9.43

(b) 11.72

(d) 9.08

Ans: (a)

18. If a gas expands at constant temperature indicates that

(a) kinetic energy of molecules decreases

(b) pressure of the gas increases

(d) number of the molecules of gas increase

Ans: (c)

19. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be

(a) ns→(n – 1)d →(n – 2)f → np

(b) ns → (n – 2) f → np → (n – 1)d

(d) ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np

Ans: (d)

20. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?

(a) NH₃

(b) BF₃

(d) H₂O

Ans: (b)

21. In DNA, the complementary bases are

(a) adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

(b) adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil

(d) uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine

Ans: (a)

22. Which of the following is not a resonating form of benzaldehyde?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

23. Which one of the following does not undergo iodoform reaction?

(a) Secondary butyl alcohol

(b) Iso-propyl alcohol

(d) Ethyl alcohol

Ans: (c)

24. Percentage of free space in a body centre cubic unit cell is

(a) 30%

(b) 32%

(d) 28%

Ans: (b)

25. For the reaction, N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K₁. The equilibrium constant is K₂ for the reaction, 2NO(l) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g). What is K for the reaction,

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (b)

26. Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution turns green when Na₂SO₃ is added to it. This is due to the formation of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

27. Among the following the least thermally stable is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (d)

28. Which one of the following is ‘d’-block element?

(a) Gd

(b) Hs

(d) Cs

Ans: (b)

29. The angular shape ozone molecule (O₃) consists of

(a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds

(b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds

(d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds

Ans: (d)

30. If the E°_cell for a given reaction has a negative value then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ∆G° and K_eq?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

31. Among the following the molecule possessing highest dipole moment is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (c)

32. An electron is moving in Bohr’s fourth orbit. Its de-Broglie wave length is λ. What is the circumference of the fourth orbit?

(a) 2/ λ

(b) 2λ

(d) 4/ λ

Ans: (c)

33. The standard enthalpies of formation of A(NH₃), B(CO₂), C(HI) and D(SO₂) are −19, −393.4, +24.94 and −296.9 kJ mol⁻¹ respectively. The increasing order of their stability is

(a) B < D < A < C

(b) C < A < D < B

(d) A < C < D < B

Ans: (b)

34. Green chemistry means such reactions which

(a) produce colour during reactions

(b) reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

(d) study the reactions in plants

Ans: (b)

35. Which of the following compounds gives carbylamines test?

(a) N-methyl-o-methyl aniline

(b) N, n-dimethyl aniline

(d) p-methyl-N-methyl benzylamine

Ans: (c)

36. Which of the following is an example for heterogeneous catalysis reaction?

(a)

(b) Hydrolysis of aqueous sucrose solution in the presence of a aqueous mineral acid

(c)

(d) Hydrolysis of liquid in the presence of aqueous mineral acid

Ans: (c)

37. Which of the following pair of metals is purified by van-Arkel method?

(a) Zr and Ti

(b) Ag and Au

(d) Ga and ln

Ans: (a)

38. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO₄]⁴⁻ is shared?

(a) Sheet silicate

(b) Pyrosilicate

(d) Linear chain silicate

Ans: (b)

39. In Fischer-Ringe’s method of separation of nobles gas mixture from air, …… is used

(a)

(b) coconut charcol

(d)

Ans: (a)

40. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans: (a)

Zoology

1. The most recent and direct pre-historic ancestor is

(a) cro-magnon

(b) neanderthal

(d) None of these

Ans: (a)

2. Rh-factor can produce disease

(a) AIDS

(b) Tumer’s syndrome

(d) Sickle cell anaemia

Ans: (c)

3. Penumotoxic centre which an moderate the function of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at

(a) pons region in brain

(b) thalamus

(d) right cerebral hemisphere

Ans: (a)

4. Which type of cells are absent in sponges?

(a) Trophocytes

(b) Myocytes

(d) Cnidocytes

Ans: (d)

5. Zero growth means

(a) natality balance mortality

(b) natallity is more than mortality

(d) natality is zero

Ans: (a)

6. Which of the following hormone secretes a gastric secretion?

(a) Entero gastrone

(b) Gastrin

(d) Villikinin

Ans: (b)

7. The protein α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which of the following disease?

(a) Cancer

(b) Rhematoid arthritis

(d) ADA deficiency disease in children

Ans: (c)

8. Darwins finches represent

(a) morphological variations

(b) geographical isolations

(d) reproductive isolation

Ans: (b)

9. Food storage in Leucosolenia occur by

(a) ostia

(b) osculam

(d) spongocoel

Ans: (c)

10. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and

(a) evolution

(b) limiting factors

(d) natural selection

Ans: (d)

11. Which one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?

(a) Scales on their hindlimbs

(b) Four-chambered heart

(d) Egg with a calcareous shell

Ans: (d)

12. Darwinsim explains all the following except

(a) within each species, there are variations

(b) organisms tend to produce more number of offspring that can survive

(d) variations are inherited from parents to offspring through genes

Ans: (d)

13. Which of the following disorder is an outcome of irregularities in metabolism of the nitrogenous waste?

(a) Osteoporosis

(b) Gouty arthritis

(d) Rehumatoid arthritis

Ans: (b)

14. During urine formation, which of the following process create thigh osmotic pressure in the uriniferous tubule?

(a) Active Na⁺ absorption, followed by absorption of Cl⁻

(b) Active Cl⁻ absorption, followed by absorption of Na⁺

(d) Active secretion of Cl⁻ and absorption of Na⁺into efferent renal arteriole

Ans: (a)

15. Steroid hormones work as

(a) they enter into target cells and binds with specific receptor and ativate4s specific genes to form protein

(b) they binds to cell membrane

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

16. In the following diagram showing axon terminal and synapse A, B, C, D and E respectively represents

(a) A-axon terminal, B-synaptic cleft, C-synaptic vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors

(b) A- axon terminal, B-synaptic vesicles, C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors, E-neurotransmitters

(d) A-synaptic vesicles, B-axon terminal, C-synaptic vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors

(e) A-synaptic vesicles, B-axon terminal, C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors, E-neurotransmitters

Ans: (b)

17. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are hormones that act as

(a) energy producing agents

(b) food storage materials

(d) energy storing substances

Ans: (c)

18. If due to some injury the chordate tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down

(b) The ‘pace maker’ will stop working

(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

Ans: (a)

19. The vector for T-DNA is

(a) Thermus aquaticus

(b) Salmonella typhimurium

(d) Escherichia coli

Ans: (c)

20. Match the enzyme in column I with its function in column II and choose the correct option.

(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Ans: (b)

21. In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the ….., while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the ……

(a) grey matter, white matter

(b) white matter, grey matter

(d) neurosecretory cell, ependymal cells

Ans: (b)

22. Haemoglobin is

(a) an oxygen carrier in human blood

(b) a protein used as food supplement

(d) a p lant protein with high lysine content

Ans: (a)

23. Which of the following tissue is a vascular?

(a) Cowpait bone

(b) Skeletal muscle

(d) Adipose tissue

Ans: (c)

24. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in form of compounds. One of the following is negligible is living organisms

(a) silicon

(b) magnesium

(d) sodium

Ans: (a)

25. Which of the following represent uridylic acid?

(a) Uracil + Ribose

(b) Uridine + Phosphoric acid

(d) Uridine + Ribose + Phosphoric acid

Ans: (d)

26. Consider the following statements with two blanks X and Y and select the option which correctly fills up these blanks

In the centre of the inter vertebrel disc, a soft area is present called ….X….. .

Which is supposed to be remnant of …. Y.. .

(a) X-Nucleus pulposus , Y-Nerve cord

(b) X-Centrum , Y-Noto cord

(d) X-Centrum , Y-Nerve cord

Ans: (c)

27. Six highly chitinous plate-like teeth are found in ……. of cockroach

(a) mandible

(b) gizzard

(d) rectum

Ans: (b)

28. The statement All biological catalysts are protein is no longer valid after the discovery of

(a) ribonuclease

(b) ribozyme

(d) DNAs

Ans: (b)

29. The structure present in all adult vertebrates is

(a) notochord

(b) dorsal tubular nerve cord

(d) All of these

Ans: (b)

30. Which one of the following is not a vertebrate?

(a) Sea cow

(b) Sea lion

(d) Sea hare

Ans: (d)

31. In human during fertilization a sperm firstly comes in contact with which layer of ovum

(a) zona pellucida

(b) vitelline membrane

(d) zona radiata

Ans: (d)

32. Newly formed Biosphere Reserve of India (2013) is

(a) Pachmarhi

(b) Himalaya

(d) Panna

Ans: (d)

33. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?

(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus

(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation.

(d) Bacteria obtain DNA from other external source

Ans: (a)

34. Theory of pangenesis was given by

(a) Darwin

(b) Lamarck

(d) Oparin

Ans: (a)

35. Which part of animal virus is not produced in multiple copies?

(a) Capsid

(b) Proteins

(d) Ribosome

Ans: (c)

36. Viroids have

(a) ssRNA not enclosed by protein coat

(b) ssDNA not enclosed by protein coat

(d) dsRNA enclosed by protein coat

Ans: (a)

37. Biotic potential or potential natality means

(a) natural increase of population under ideal/optimum conditions

(b) potential of organism in a biome

(d) species of maximum number in a population

Ans: (a)

38. The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is

(a) sheep

(b) goat

(d) Kashmiri sheep-Afghan sheep cross

Ans: (b)

39. Probes, used in DNA fingerprinting, are initially

(a) single stranded RNA

(b) mini-satellite

(d) All of the above

Ans: (b)

40. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

(a) organ transplantation

(b) sex determination

(d) genetic engineering

Ans: (c)

Botany

1. Which of the following is non-symbiotic nitrogen fixer organism?

(a) VAM

(b) Azotobacter

(d) Rhizobium

Ans: (b)

2. Aleurone grains are rich in

(a) fat

(b) protein

(d) auxins

Ans: (b)

3. Match the following columns and choose the correct option.

(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2

(b) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5

Ans: (b)

4. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in water column in vessel/trachieds during the ascent of sap because of

(a) lignified thick walls

(b) cohesion and adhesion

(d) transpiration pull

Ans: (b)

5. Stability of ecosystem depends upon

(a) primary productivity

(b) interchange between producers and consumers

(d) number of consumers

Ans: (b)

6. The material, which arrests cell division, is obtained from

(a) Crocus

(b) Colchicum

(d) Chysanthomum

Ans: (b)

7. Viscum album grown on trees. This is an example of

(a) symbiosis

(b) parasitism

(d) predation

Ans: (b)

8. Which of the following is responsible for biological nitrogen-fixation?

(a) Nife gene

(b) Nitrogenase

(d) RNA synthetase

Ans: (a)

9. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the

(a) nature of enzymes involved

(b) nature of the substrate

(d) amount of oxygen utilized

Ans: (b)

10. Which of the following supports a dense population of plankton and littoral vegetation?

(a) Oligotrophic

(b) Eutrophic

(d) Agroecotrophic

Ans: (b)

11. Which of the following is not true for a species?

(a) Members of a species can interbreed

(b) Variations occur among members of species

(d) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species

Ans: (d)

12. Given below is the chemical formula of

(a) palmitic acid

(b) glycerol

(d) stearic acid

Ans: (a)

13. Choose the wrong pair

(a) Cenchrus-Savanna

(b) Abies – Coniferous forest

(d) Tectona – Temperate forest

Ans: (d)

14. Rarely among angiosperms, the pollen grains influenced the endosperm. This is called as

(a) meta xenia

(b) nemec phenomenon

(d) mesogamy

Ans: (c)

15. Three floral diagrams are given here. Their respective families are assigned in the answer key. Find out the families to which these diagrams belong to

(a) A-Liliaceae, B-Asteraceae, C-Solanaceae

(b) A-Asteraceae, B-Solanaceae, C-BRassicaceae

(d) A-Poaceae, B-Solanaceae, C-Asteraceae

Ans: (b)

16. Tyloses an out growth from ray or axial parenchyma cell into the lumen of a vessels, which partially or completely blocks the cavity are present in

(a) periderm

(b) heart wood

(d) secondary cortex

Ans: (b)

17. Overlapping region between two ecosystem is called

(a) biome

(b) ecotone

(d) photic zone

Ans: (b)

18. Phage genome site on bacterial chromosome resulted in the structure

(a) nucleic acid

(b) heterocyst

(d) None of these

Ans: (c)

19. ‘Sun basket’ is

(a) the device to utilize sun rays directly to meet the requirement of heat energy

(b) the sufficient amount of sunlight stored in a cell

(d) All of the above

Ans: (b)

20. The dominant epistasis ratio is

(a) 9:3: 3:1

(b) 12:3:1

(d) 9:6:1

Ans: (b)

21. Benthic organisms are found in

(a) surface of marine water

(b) middle of water in sea

(d) on ground

Ans: (c)

22. Ethylene is related with

(a) aerobic respiration

(b) climacteric phenomenon

(d) fermentation

Ans: (b)

23. Select the correct statement from the one’s given below with respect to dihybrid cross.

(a) tightly linked gene on the same chromosome show higher recombinations

(b) genes for apart on same chromosomes show very few recombination

(d) tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few recombination

Ans: (d)

24. Maximum green house gases are released by

(a) India

(b) Britain

(d) France

Ans: (c)

25. In a cola fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

(a) SO₂

(b) NO_x

(d) CO

Ans: (c)

26. Tow genes R and y are located very close on the chromosome linkage map on maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, then F₂ segregation will show

(a) higher number of the recombinant types

(b) Segregation with expected 9:3:3:1 ratio

(d) higher number of the parental types

Ans: (d)

27. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in

(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom

(b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients

(d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Ans: (c)

28. Allelic sequence variation where more than one variant allele at a locus in a human population with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to as

(a) DNA polymorphism

(b) multiple allelism

(d) EST

Ans: (a)

29. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is

(a) Hydrilla

(b) Solanum- nigrum

(d) Parthenium hysterophorus

Ans: (c)

30. The following is the diagram of TS of anther. Identify the parts labeled as A, B and C.

(a) A-Connective, B-Endothecium, C-Pollen grain

(b) A-Endothecium, B-Connective, C-Pollen grain

(d) A-Endothecium, B-Pollen grain, C-Connective

Ans: (a)

31. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel

(a) bio metallurgical technique

(b) bio mineralization process

(d) bio fertilizers

Ans: (c)

32.

In the given diagram, parts labeled as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively indentified as

(a) synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodals, filiform apparatus and egg

(b) polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids

(d) central cell, polar nuclei filiform apparatus, antipodals, synergids and egg

Ans: (a)

33. In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which, multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium. The perfect example for this is

(a) appearance of a furrow in cell membrane

(b) liquid endosperm in coconut

(d) fertilization

Ans: (b)

34. Jacob and Monod name some enzymes as allosteric whose activity is regulated by

(a) end product

(b) substrate

(d) coenzyme

Ans: (a)

35. The mobile genetic element is

(a) transposon

(b) mutation

(d) variation

Ans: (a)

36. In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to

(a) donor DNA, is identified and picked up through electrophoresis

(b) plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell

(d) enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites

Ans: (b)

37. The net requirement of assimilatory power for the formation of 6 hexose molecules in maize plant is

(a) 72 ATP, 48 NADPH

(b) 90 ATP, 60 NADPH

(d) 180 ATP, 72 NADPH

Ans: (d)

38. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F₁ hybrid in often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called

(a) transformation

(b) heterosis

(d) meta morphosis

Ans: (b)

39. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand given the base sequence on the opposite strand. What is so special show in it?

5’−GAATTC….3’

3’−CTTAAG … 5’

(a) Detection mutation

(b) Start codon at 5′ end

(d) Replication completed

Ans: (c)

40. Rauwolffia serpentina is used in

(a) curing high blood pressure

(b) kidney failure

(d) diabetes

Ans: (a)

English

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Choose the word/group of words which is the most nearly SAME in meaning as the word/group of words given in bold as used in the passage.

1. SINCERE

(a) Open

(b) Earnest

(d) Upright

Ans: (d)

2. ENCOURAGE

(a) Animate

(b) Urge

(d) Dissuade

Ans: ()

3. SELF-SUFFICIENT

(a) Adequate

(b) Dependent

(d) Self-reliant

Ans: (d)

4. FOCUS

(a) Adjust

(b) Concentrate

(d) Circulate

Ans: (b)

5. SUPERFICIAL

(a) Artificial

(b) Shallow

(d) Profound

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Pick out the most effective word/phrase from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

6. He knelt at his side and comforted him with ……. words.

(a) harsh

(b) silent

(d) cruel

Ans: (c)

7. A man who is perpetually …… which of the two things he will do first, will do neither,

(a) confused

(b) forced

(d) hesitating

Ans: (d)

8. We cannot ……. of life without suitable environment.

(a) live

(b) buy

(d) think

Ans: (d)

9. He thought the boy ……. to benefit the blacksmith.

(a) wants

(b) wanting

(d) harm

Ans: (a)

10. The fisherman gladly ……. up the baby and took it home.

(a) loaded

(b) picked

(d) pushed

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d) i.e., ‘No error (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

11. He is neither in (a) favour of arms race or in favour of (b)/simple nuclear disarmament. (c)/ No error (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (a)

12. Naturalization is the process by which (a)/ a immigrant becomes a citizen (b)/ of his new country. (c)/ No error (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (b)

13. A high fat diet not only increases the risks (a)/ of heart ailments (b) / however also that of other disorders. (c)/ No error (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (a)

14. When two vowel (a) / sounds occurs in direct succession, (b)/ the transition between them is often difficult to make. (c)/ No error (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (b)

15. The solutions is to avoid the impasse altogether, (a)/ by taking a (b) / slightly different route. (c) / No error (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.

A. A classroom discussion can be initiated in order to answer this very question.

B. An electric current could not be made to traverse distilled water

C. Yet when salt and distilled water were mixed, then the solution became a liquid through which electricity could pass with ease.

D. Neither would solid salt offer free passage to electricity.

E. How could one explain this strange behavior of solution.

F. And, as the current passed through this solution, a deep seated decomposition took place.

16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentences?

(a) A

(b) C

(d) E

Ans: (d)

17. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) E

Ans: (c)

18. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence?

(a) C

(b) A

(d) E

Ans: (b)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?

(a) C

(b) D

(d) A

Ans: (a)

20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(a) A

(b) D

(d) C

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Which of the phrases (a), (b) and (c) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as is given and no correction is required, mark (d) as the answer

21. Your doctor may explain the importance of a proper and balanced diet in the human body.

(a) an proper and balanced

(b) a proper or balance

(d) No correction required

Ans: (d)

22. English today is closer to been a world language than any other language has been in history.

(a) is closer for been

(b) is closer upon being

(d) No correction required

Ans: (c)

23. In almost every occupation on needs simple a understanding of electricity.

(a) needed simple an

(b) need a simple

(d) No correction required

Ans: (c)

24. When ice and water existed together on the same volume, the temperature remains constant.

(a) exist together in

(b) will exist together on

(d) No correction required

Ans: (a)

25. Scientific method as a rote item in the syllabus had little valued.

(a) had belittled value

(b) has little value

(d) No correction required

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In each sentence below three words have been printed in bold which are number (a), (b) and (c). One of these words may be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (d) i.e., all correct

26. The importanse (a) given to content-oriented approach has affected the methodology (b) of this project. (c) All correct (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (a)

27. Almost all risk-taking (a) work involve (b) decision making under uncertainty. (c) All correct (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (d)

28. In developing (a) countries there is increasing (b) concern for fostering human potential. (c) All correct (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (b)

29. I want to express (a) my appreciation (b) of the help offered by my former colleages. (c) All correct (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (c)

30. The research (a) reported in this valume (b) assumes importance. (c) All correct (d).

(a) a

(b) b

(d) d

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Working under the psychometric approach, both scientists and practitioners have placed undue emphasis upon a unitary concept of intelligence as reflected in the single I.Q. They seem to have ……(31)…… too much attention of the products of intelligent behavior rather than the processes used to acquire …..(32)……products. Such attention to product rather than to process tends to mark qualitative differences in the processes by …..(33)…. individuals interact with their environment and to …..(34)…. attention away from the possibility of qualitative changes in the nature of these processes ….(35)… the curse of cognitive development.

Haywood points out that there is no such thing as intelligence. There are in fact many intelligences. There are in fact many intelligences. Factor analysts, ….(36)…. have studied the nature of intellect by examining its apparent structure across different age groups and different segments of the population have to a great …..(37)…. discredited the unitary concept of intelligence. Even so, the structure theories of intelligence are …..(38)…. concerned with products and not with processes.

Development (Cognitive Development) approach. It ….(39)…. upon the cognitive processes used to receive, code and …..(40)…. Information.

31. (a) gives (b) gave

Ans: (d)

32. (a) those (b) these

Ans: (b)

33. (a) how (b) way

Ans: (d)

34. (a) draw (b) seek

Ans: (d)

35. (a) at (b) plan

Ans: (c)

36. (a) who (b) should

Ans: (a)

37. (a) meaning (b) person

Ans: (d)

38. (a) uptill (b) till

Ans: (d)

39. (a) focus (b) focuses

Ans: (b)

40. (a) pack (b) transmits

Ans: (c)

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