UGC NET Exam January 2017 Home Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

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Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. RDA of thiamin (ICMR, 2010) for a moderately active man is

(1) 1.2 mg/day

(2) 1.4 mg/day

(3) 1.5 mg/day

(4) 1.7 mg/day

Answer: (2)

2. ‘Allin’ is a compound found in

(1) Garlic

(2) Turmeric

(3) Cinnamon

(4) Cloves

Answer: (1)

3. Which is the correct danger zone in food production ?

(1) 45° F – 115° F

(2) 41° F – 135° F

(3) 35° F – 120° F

(4) 38°F – 145° F

Answer: (2)

4. Which of the following is the theory of clothing ?

(1) Individuality

(2) Conformity

(3) Tattooing

(4) Modesty

Answer: (4)

5. Denier is the weight in gms of :

(1) 9000 metres of yarn

(2) 1000 metres of yarn

(3) 560 metres of yarn

(4) 840 metres of yarn

Answer: (1)

6. Which of the following is concerned with the functions of management ?

(1) Henri Fayol

(2) Taylor

(3) Gilbreth

(4) Elton Mayo

Answer: (1)

7. Participant observation of a culture or a distinct social group where a researcher tries to understand the cultures’ values and social processes is called

(1) Experimental observation

(2) Ethnography

(3) Clinical method

(4) Structured observation

Answer: (2)

8. Who was the initiator of the ‘Gurgaon Experiment’ under Rural Reconstruction ?

(1) Rabindranath Tagore

(2) F.L. Brayne

(3) Daniel Hamilton

(4) Malcom Marshall

Answer: (2)

9. As per the Aristotle’s model of communication, the three dimensions of persuasive speech are

(1) Ethos, Empathy, Mathos

(2) Ethos, Logos, Pathos

(3) Empathy, Chaos, Pathos

(4) Logos, Ethos, Laos

Answer: (2)

10. In Symmetrical or Normal Distribution

(1) Median is greater than Mean and Mode.

(2) Mean, Median and Mode have the same value.

(3) Mean is greater than Median and Mode.

(4) Mode is greater than Mean and Median.

Answer: (2)

11. Following are the symptoms of ascorbic acid deficiency :

I. Symmetrical Dermatitis

II. Gingivitis

III. Oedema

IV. Delayed wound healing

V. Petechiae haemorrhage

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) II, IV and V

(3) II, III and IV

(4) II, III and V

Answer: (2)

12. Following are the factors that inhibit iron absorption in the body :

I. Low gastric acidity

II. Ascorbic acids

III. Animal proteins

IV. Phytic acid

V. Tannins

Codes :

(1) I, IV and V

(2) I, II and IV

(3) I, III and V

(4) I, II and III

Answer: (1)

13. Methods used for assessing performance are

I. Chronocycle-graph

II. Work sampling

III. Pathway Chart

IV. PERT

V. HACCP

VI. Micro motion

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, VI

(2) II, III, IV, V

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) IV, V, VI, I

Answer: (1)

14. Which of the following can be used to remove the grease stain ?

I. Fuller’s Earth

II. Benzene

III. Glycerine

IV. Vinegar

Codes :

(1) II and III

(2) I and II

(3) III and IV

(4) I and IV

Answer: (2)

15. Which of the following fibers have good resiliency ?

I. Wool

II. Polyester

III. Rayon

IV. Cotton

Codes :

(1) I, III

(2) III, IV

(3) I, II

(4) I, IV

Answer: (3)

16. Which of the following are the types of human resources ?

I. Knowledge

II. Bank

III. Attitude

IV. Intelligence

V. Soil

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) I, III, IV

(3) II, IV, V

(4) III, IV, V

Answer: (2)

17. The following are milestones of emotional development during infancy :

I. Separation anxiety

II. Social smile

III. Strange anxiety

IV. Altruistic behaviour

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III, IV

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, IV

Answer: (1)

18. The qualities of a receiver, which influence face to face communication are :

I. Positive attitude

II. Active Listening skills

III. Channel vehicle

IV. Decoding skills

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following approaches indicate the methodology of Extension Education ?

I. Simple to Complex

II. Concrete to Abstract

III. Learning by doing

IV. Learning by listening

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, III and IV

(4) II, IV and I

Answer: (1)

20. In a Random Sampling distribution of means :

I. The standard error will decrease as the sample size increases.

II. The standard error will increase as the sample size increases.

III. The mean equals the population mean.

IV. The mean is not equal to the population mean.

Codes :

(1) I and III

(2) II and IV

(3) I and IV

(4) II and III

Answer: (1)

21. Assertion (A) : Complex carbohydrates are recommended in diabetic diets.

Reason (R) : The complex carbohydrates have a low Glycemic Index.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (1)

22. Assertion (A) : Addition of soda-bi-carbonate during cooking of green vegetables makes them bright green.

Reason (R) : The pigment chlorophyll changes to pheophytins in alkaline medium.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

23. Assertion (A) : A cycle menu is a selective menu.

Reason (R) : It is rotated at definite intervals.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

24. Assertion (A) : Collars, seams and texture when put together create structural design.

Reason (R) : Structural design is inherent parts of the garment.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (3)

25. Assertion (A) : Microscopic test is a confirmatory test for man-made fibres.

Reason (R) : Man-made fibres have their distinct characteristic microscopic appearance.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

26. Assertion (A) : Indirect light is ideal for general illumination.

Reason (R) : This light is directed to a ceiling from where it is reflected back into the room.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (1)

27. Assertion (A) : For Piaget the most serious deficiency of pre-operational thinking is egocentrism and underlies all others.

Reason (R) : Young children ego-centrically assign human purposes to physical events and magical thinking is common.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

28. Assertion (A) : Mass communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : In most of the mass communication situations, the communicator and the audience are in asynchronous relationship.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

29. Assertion (A) : Result demonstration refers to the showing net worth of a practice or a product.

Reason (R) : Result demonstrations do not only establish the value of a practice but also prove the feasibility of the practice under local conditions.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

30. Assertion (A) : The power of a statistical test is the probability, given that null hypothesis is false, of obtaining sample results that will lead to its rejection.

Reason (R) : The larger the sample size, the greater is the power of the statistical test.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

31. Arrange the steps involved in conducting 24 hour dietary recall in correct sequence :

I. Convert the amount of food & beverages consumed into amounts of raw foods.

II. Standardize the recipes.

III. Preparation and pretesting of questionnaire.

IV. Compare energy and nutrient intake with RDA.

V. Collect information on all foods and beverages eaten by respondent in previous 24 hours using standardized equipment.

VI. Calculate energy and nutrients using food composition tables.

Codes :

(1) II, V, III, I, VI, IV

(2) V, II, III, I, VI, IV

(3) III, V, II, I, VI, IV

(4) III, V, I, II, IV, VI

Answer: (3)

32. Arrange the steps of processing of wheat in the correct sequence :

I. Purifying        II. Washing

III. Aspirating   IV. Bleaching

V. Grinding       VI. Tempering

Codes :

(1) I, II, V, III, IV, VI

(2) II, I, IV, III, V, VI

(3) III, II, VI, V, I, IV

(4) I, III, VI, II, IV, V

Answer: (3)

33. Write in the right sequence the steps taken in an orientation program :

I. Introduction to facilities

II. Introduction to job

III. Review of company policies & practice

IV. Breaking Ice

V. Introduction to fellow workers

VI. Setting Employees expectation

Codes :

(1) III, VI, I, II, V, IV

(2) IV, III, VI, V, I, II

(3) I, II, III, VI, V, IV

(4) II, IV, VI, I, V, III

Answer: (2)

34. Give the correct path of the upper thread in the sewing machine :

I. Tension discs   II. Needle

III. Spool              IV. Thread guide

V. Thread take up lever

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) I, III, II, V, IV

(3) III, IV, I, V, II

(4) IV, II, III, I, V

Answer: (3)

35. Give the correct sequence of making woollen felts :

I. Layering of wool fibers

II. Cleaning, blending and carding of wool fibres

III. Beating, compressing and squeezing the web

IV. Application of heat and moisture

V. Imparting required finish to the felt

VI. Scouring, rinsing and drying

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

(2) II, I, IV, III, V, VI

(3) III, IV, II, I, V, VI

(4) II, I, IV, III, VI, V

Answer: (4)

36. Arrange in correct sequence the steps involved in decision-making :

I. Selecting the best alternative

II. Identifying the problem

III. Searching alternative solutions

IV. Thinking through alternatives

V. Feedback

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, V, IV

(2) V, III, I, II, IV

(3) II, III, IV, I, V

(4) III, V, I, IV, II

Answer: (3)

37. Arrange according to the stages of child birth :

I. Placenta delivery

II. Transition

III. Dilation and effacement of cervix

IV. Pushing

V. Birth of baby

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) III, II, IV, V, I

(3) III, IV, II, V, I

(4) IV, III, II, V, I

Answer: (2)

38. Arrange the steps of Extension Campaign Planning in their sequential order :

I. Draw a concrete plan

II. Identify the local needs

III. Arrange for supplies and support

IV. Choose the Appropriate Methods and Media

V. Decide the dates and time

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) II, III, IV, I, V

(3) II, III, I, V, IV

(4) II, III, I, IV, V

Answer: (4)

39. Arrange the following stages of ‘Coming Together’ in developing relationships through communication as presented by Mark Knapp :

I. Experimenting   II. Bonding

III. Integrating      IV. Initiating

V. Intensifying

Codes :

(1) I, IV, II, III, V

(2) II, III, IV, V, I

(3) III, II, IV, I, V

(4) IV, I, V, III, II

Answer: (4)

40. Arrange the steps in the construction of grouped data frequency distribution in correct sequence :

I. Find the range

II. Determine the point at which lowest interval should begin.

III. Divide the range by 10 and by 20 to determine acceptable and convenient interval width.

IV. Enter the frequency of raw scores in appropriate class interval.

V. Record limits of all class intervals, placing the highest score class interval at top.

VI. Find the value of the lowest and the highest score.

Codes :

(1) VI, II, I, III, IV, V

(2) VI, I, II, III, IV, V

(3) VI, I, III, II, V, IV

(4) VI, II, I, III, V, IV

Answer: (3)

41. Match the nutrients in List – I with their deficiency symptoms with List – II :

Answer: (2)

42. Match the laboratory tests given in List – I with their chemical compound given in List – II :

Answer: (3)

43. Match the given names in List – I with Theories of Management in List – II :

Answer: (3)

44. Match the terms given in List – I with their description given in List – II :

Answer: (2)

45. Match the items given in List – I with the items given in List – II :

Answer: (2)

46. Match the items given under List – I with the appropriate items under List – II :

Answer: (1)

47. Match the concepts in List – I with their characteristics in List – II :

Answer: (4)

48. Match the programmes given in List – I with the year of their inception given in List – II :

Answer: (2)

49. Match the functions of communication given in List – I with their related activities given in List – II : 

Answer: (2)

50. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II :

Answer: (4)

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