PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Who among the following said ‘that the movement of New Public Administration is a partof the rebellion of Youth and the counter culture of the non-Marxian left’ ?
(1) George Frednickson
(2) Dwight Waldo
(3) Frank Marini
(4) R.T. Golembiewski
2. Consider the following statements regarding Minnowbrook Conferences :
(i) All the conferences were held in Syracuse University.
(ii) Social Equity has remained the thrust area in all the conferences.
(iii) These conferences were held at an interval of 20 years.
(iv) These conferences have emphasized to make Public administration as independent discipline, hence rejected inter-disciplinary studies.
Select correct answer by using the codes given below :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
3. Select the correct steps as suggested by William A. Niskanen for mitigation of evils of bureaucratic monopoly, by using code given below :
(i) Stricter control on bureaucracy through executive or the legislature.
(ii) More competition in the delivery of public services.
(iii) Privatization or contracting-out to reduce wastage.
(iv) Dissemination of more information for public benefits about the availability of alternatives to public services.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
5. Which one of the following is not correct regarding principal-agent relationships ?
(1) Modern democratic state is based on principal-agent relationship.
(2) Principal-agent relationships can be reduced to contractual terms.
(3) The relationships are in between ‘population’ and its ‘rulers’.
(4) The ‘rulers’ cannot be the ‘principal’ for the staff engaged for delivering contract.
6. The word hierarchy comes from which of the following ?
(1) Greek word
(2) French word
(3) Latin word
(4) Indian word
7. Cognitive needs in Maslow’s motivational theory mean
(1) Trust and acceptance
(2) Knowledge and understanding
(3) Realizing personal potential
(4) Helping others to achieve self-actualization
8. Who among the following classical thinkers is a pioneer in suggesting the need for systematic training in administration ?
(1) F.W. Taylor
(2) Henri Fayol
(3) Max Weber
(4) Urwick
9. The decision’s which are unstructured and involve major commitments are called
(1) Rational Decisions
(2) Irrational Decisions
(3) Programmed Decisions
(4) Non-programmed Decisions
10. Which of the following is not the component of Transformational Leadership ?
(1) Idealized Influence
(2) Inspirational Motivation
(3) Individualized Consideration
(4) Informational Techniques
11. The caste bureaucracy has a class base and “arises from the class connection of those in the controlling positions”. This statement is made by
(1) F.M. Marx
(2) Max Weber
(3) P.H. Appleby
(4) Karl Marx
12. ‘The examination is nothing but bureaucratic baptism of knowledge, the official recognition of the trans substantiation of profane knowledge into sacred knowledge’ who said it ?
(1) Hegel
(2) Karl Marx
(3) Philip Selznick
(4) Robert Merton
13. Which of the following is not a feature of Prismatic society as given by F.W. Riggs ?
(1) Heterogeneity
(2) Formalism
(3) Over-lapping
(4) Continuity
14. In which of the following country the provision of ‘Prime Minister’s Question Time’ is available ?
(1) Canada
(2) Japan
(3) France
(4) United Kingdom
15. Consider the following about the administrative system of U.S.A. and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(i) President is the highest executive authority but budget is approved by the Congress.
(ii) The treaties signed by the President and appointments done by him on the higher posts are to be satisfied by two thirds majority of Senate.
(iii) Any action or order issued by the President, if found contrary to the constitution can be declared ultravirus under the judicial review.
(iv) The President cannot withhold any bill or use Suspensive or Pocket Veto.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)
16. Which of the following deals with the matters of Foreign Affairs in U.S.A. ?
(1) Secretary of State
(2) Secretary of Defense
(3) Secretary of Homeland Security
(4) Secretary of Interior
17. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
18. Which goal of 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development declared by United Nations covers climate change and its impact ?
(1) Goal 2
(2) Goal 8
(3) Goal 13
(4) Goal 17
19. Central Pollution Board was established under which one of the following Acts ?
(1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(2) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
(3) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
(4) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1987.
20. Which of the following are the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to the Para States at the district level ?
(i) Merger of DRDA (District Rural Development Agency) with the Zila Parishad.
(ii) Merger of District Water and Sanitation Committee with the respective district Panchayat.
(iii) Establishing an organic relationship between the PRIs and the District Health Society.
(iv) The Union and State governments should continue to set up special committees outside the PRIs.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
21. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched as given by Kautilya ?
(1) Dauvarika – Chief to Palace Attendants
(2) Prastar – Magistrate
(3) Samaharta – Collector-General
(4) Paur – Town Guard
22. Chronologically arrange the following in ascending order :
i. Regulating Act
ii. Cornwallis Code
iii. Aitchison Commission
iv. Macaulay Report
Codes :
(1) i, ii, iii, iv
(2) ii, iii, iv, i
(3) ii, i, iv, iii
(4) i, ii, iv, iii
23. Which one of the following committees first recommended for introduction of an essay paper carrying 200 marks in the Civil Service (main) Examination ?
(1) Kothari Committee, 1976
(2) Satish Chandra Committee, 1989
(3) Surendra Nath Committee, 2003
(4) P.C. Hota Committee, 2004
24. Which of the following match/s is/are wrong ? Answer by using codes :
i. Chairman of UPSC – Appointed by President of India
ii. Members of UPSC – Appointed by Chairman, UPSC
iii. Retirement of Chairman and Members of UPSC – 5 years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier
iv. Members of UPSC – Removed by Prime Minister of India
Codes :
(1) i, ii, iv
(2) iii, & iv
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) ii, & iii
25. Which of the Institution/Ministry of Govt. of India is responsible for presenting Prime Minister’s Award for excellence in Public Administration to Civil Servants ?
(1) Prime Minister’s Office
(2) Cabinet Secretariat, Govt. of India
(3) The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
(4) The Ministry of Home Affairs
26. Yojana Aayog was replaced by National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) on which of the following date ?
(1) 1st January, 2014
(2) 1st January, 2015
(3) 15th August, 2015
(4) 26th January, 2014
27. Which Article of the Constitution authorises the Union or State Government to make grants for any public purpose, even when the purpose is one for which Parliament cannot normally legislate ?
(1) Article 268
(2) Article 269
(3) Article 282
(4) Article 271
28. Assertion (A) : CAG examines propriety, legality and validity of all government expenses.
Reason (R) : CAG exercises effective control over the government accounts.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
29. Who among the following does not have a constitutional safeguard regarding tenure ?
(1) Comptroller and Auditor General
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Chairperson of Union Public Service Commission
30. Which one of the following Commissions recommended the setting up of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution for resolution of conflicts between the Centre and the States ?
(1) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(2) Sarkaria Commission
(3) Punchhi Commission
(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
31. What is true of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Bill 2016 ? Answer by using codes given below :
(i) It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha in the absence of a recognized leader of opposition to be a member of the Selection Committee for Lokpal.
(ii) It amends Section 44 of the Parent Act and removed the period of limitation of 30 days as to furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants.
(iii) It amends Section 45 of the Parent Act and removed the period of limitation of 30 days as to furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants.
(iv) It keeps the provision of recognized leader of opposition to be a member of Selection Committee for Lokpal.
Codes :
(1) (i) & (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (i), (iii)
32. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
33. In which report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission barriers of Good Governance in India have been identified ?
(1) Right to Information – Master key to Good Governance
(2) Unlocking Human Capital – Entitlements and Governance
(3) Promoting e-Governance – The Smart Way Forward
(4) Citizen Centric Administration – The Heart of Governance
34. Who states that “Gathering knowledge for knowledge’s sake is termed as ‘pure’ or ‘basic’ research” ?
(1) Goode and Halt
(2) Pauline V. Young
(3) D. Slesinger and M. Stephenson
(4) William Healey
35. Which of the following statements are correct regarding factors considered for preparing appropriate research design ?
i. The nature of the research problem to be studied.
ii. The means for obtaining information.
iii. The availability of skills of the researcher.
iv. The availability of time and money for research work.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
(1) i, ii and iii
(2) i, ii and iv
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
36. Who defined case study as “a comprehensive study of social unit be a person, a group, a social institution, a district or a community” ?
(1) H. Odum
(2) William Healey
(3) Burgess
(4) Pauline V. Young
37. Which one of the following methods is used by the commissions and committees appointed by government to carry on investigation ?
(1) Observation
(2) Personal interview
(3) Unstructural interview
(4) Focussed interview
38. Which one of the following is correct formula suggested by H.A. Sturges for determining the size of class interval for analyzing data ?
(1) i = R / (1 + 2.3 log N)
(2) i = R / (1 + 3.3 log N)
(3) i = R / (1 + 4.3 log N)
(4) i = R / (1 + 3.3 × N)
39. Which one of the following should not be included in the summary part of the research report ?
(1) Research problem in brief
(2) Research methodology
(3) Description of the study area
(4) Major conclusions
40. Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union List of Indian Constitution ?
(1) Relief for the disabled and unemployable.
(2) Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial water.
(3) Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein.
(4) Taxes on income other than agriculture.
41. Consider the following statements regarding Social Administration :
i. It is a sub-field of Public Administration.
ii. It comprises of social policies and programmes meant for preventing the incapabilities of individual and family.
iii. Rehabilitation of criminals and substance users is one of its objectives.
iv. It is a multi-disciplinary field of study.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(1) i, ii and iii
(2) ii, iii and iv
(3) i, iii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
42. Which of the following statements regarding Social Change is not correct ?
(1) It is a natural process taking place in every society.
(2) It is a continuous process having uniform speed.
(3) It comprises of changes in social structure and processes.
(4) This change can be complete or partial.
43. Which Constitutional Amendment bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies ?
(1) 52nd Amendment
(2) 89th Amendment
(3) 90th Amendment
(4) 93rd Amendment
44. Which one of the following is the lowest tier of Local Government in France ?
(1) Canton
(2) Chartered Cities
(3) Communes
(4) The Marie
45. Which one of the following is not a type or form of Local Government in U.S.A. ?
(1) The Mayor-Council form
(2) The Commission form
(3) The Council/City Manager Plan
(4) The District Council form
46. Which one of the following statement does not explain a distinct feature of a Departmental form of Organization ?
(1) It is fully owned by the Government.
(2) It is created for regulating activities of the Government.
(3) It is subject to strict accounting and audit controls.
(4) Public undertakings doing business always constitute themselves into and should be seen as, a separate commercial entity.
47. Which of the following subjects is not included in the 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution ?
(1) Drinking Water
(2) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
(3) Libraries
(4) Markets and Fairs
48. Which of the following committee first recommended people’s participation in government programmes through PRIs ?
(1) B.R. Mehta Committee
(2) Ashok Mehta Committee
(3) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(4) G.V.K. Rao Committee
49. Assertion (A) : Domestic economic developments are constrained by loss of policy autonomy in India.
Reason (R) : Globalization has intensified interdependence and competition between economics.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
50. Which of the following areas is not examined by the Expenditure Management Commission ?
(1) Delivery mechanism of programmes of the government
(2) Technology being used to implement the programmes
(3) Pros and Cons of various programmes
(4) The Accounting methods used by the government
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