Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Examination Held on February 21, 2016 Paper-1
Part I Child Development and Pedagogy
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-30) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
1. To enable students to make conceptual changes in their thinking, a teacher should
(a) offer rewards for children who change their thinking
(b) discourage children from thinking on their own and ask them to just listen to her and follow that
(c) offer an explanation in a lecture mode
(d) make clear and convincing explanations and have discussions with the students
2. In the context of a primary school classroom, what does active engagement mean?
(a) Memorizing, Recall and Reciting
(b) Imitating and Copying the teacher
(c) Enquiry, Questioning and Debate
(d) Copying answers given by the teacher
3. Children are most creative when they participate in an activity
(a) to escape their teacher’s scolding
(b) under stress to do well in front of others
(c) out of interest
(d) for rewards
4. Most classrooms in India are multilingual and this needs to e seen as …….. by the teacher.
(a) a bother
(b) a problem
(c) a resource
(d) an obstacle
5. Mistakes and errors made by students
(a) are a wonderful opportunity to label children as ‘weak’ or ‘outstanding’
(b) are indicative of the failure of the teacher and the students
(c) should be seen as opportunities to understand their thinking
(d) should be severely dealt with
6. ……… views children as active builders o knowledge and little scientists who construct their own theories of the world.
(a) Skinner
(b) Pavlow
(c) Jung
(d) Piaget
7. Child-centred pedagogy means
(a) giving moral education to the children
(b) asking the children to follow and imitate the teacher
(c) giving primacy to children’s voices and their active participation
(d) letting the children be totally free
8. A teacher can help the children to process a complex situation by
(a) encouraging competition and offering a high reward to the child who completes the task first
(b) not offering any help at all so that children learn to help on their own
(c) giving a lecture on it
(d) breaking the task into smaller parts and writing down instructions
9. Expecting students to reproduce knowledge in the same way as it is received
(a) is good, since it is easy for the teacher to assess
(b) is an effective assessment strategy
(c) is problematic, because individuals interpret experiences and do not reproduce knowledge as it is received
(d) is good, since we record everything as is in our brains
10. When students are given an opportunity to discuss a problem in groups, their learning curve
(a) becomes better
(b) remains stable
(c) declines
(d) remains the same
11. The pace of development varies from one individual to another, but it follows …………. pattern.
(a) a toe-to-head
(b) haphazard
(c) an unpredictable
(d) a sequential and orderly
12. Which one of the following is correct about development?
(a) Development begins and ends at birth.
(b) ‘Socio-cultural context’ plays an important role in development.
(c) Development is unidimensional.
(d) Development is discrete.
13. Why do individuals differ from one another?
(a) Because of the impact of the environment
(b) Due to the inborn characteristics
(c) Due to the interplay between heredity and environment
(d) Because each individual has received a different gene set from his/her parents
14. Family plays ………….. roles in socialization of the child.
(a) a not-so-important
(b) an exciting
(c) a primary
(d) a secondary
15. Which one of the following is a correctly matched pair?
(a) Concrete operational child- Is able to conserve and classify
(b) Formal operational child- Imitation begins, imaginary play
(c) Infancy- Applies logic and is able to infer
(d) Pre-operational child-Deductive thought
16. A child says, “Clothes dry faster in the Sun”. She is showing an understanding of
(a) symbolic thought
(b) egocentric thinking
(c) cause and effect
(d) reversible thinking
17. According to Piaget, children’s thinking differs in ……….. from adults than in ……..
(a) amount; kind
(b) size; correctness
(c) kind; amount
(d) size; type
18. Which one of the following is an example of scaffolding?
(a) Giving prompts and cues, and asking questions at critical junctures
(b) Giving motivational lectures to students
(c) Offering explanations without encouraging questioning
(d) Offering both material and non-material rewards
19. According to Vygotsky, children learn
(a) when reinforcement is offered
(b) by maturation
(c) by imitation
(d) by interacting with adults and peers
20. Kohlberg has given
(a) the stages of cognitive development
(b) the stages of physical development
(c) the stages of emotional development
(d) the stages of moral development
21. Which one of the following situations is illustrative of child-centred classroom?
(a) A class in which the teacher dictates and the students are asked to memorize the notes.
(b) A class in which the textbook is the only resource the teacher refers to.
(c) A class in which the students are sitting in groups and the teacher takes turns to go to each group.
(d) A class in which the behaviour of students is governed by the reward and punishments the teacher would given them.
22. Intelligence is
(a) a set of capabilities
(b) a singular and generic concept
(c) the ability to imitate others
(d) a specific ability
23. Early childhood is ………… period for language development.
(a) a not-so-significant
(b) an unimportant
(c) a sensitive
(d) a neutral
24. A teacher remarks in a co-education class to boys, ‘Be boys and don’t behave like girls’. This remark
(a) reflects caste discrimination
(b) is a good example of dealing with boys and girls
(c) reflects stereotypical behaviour of discrimination between boys and girls
(d) highlights the biological superiority of boys over girls
25. Assessment
(a) is a good strategy to label and categorize children
(b) should actively promote competitive spirit among children
(c) should generate tension and stress to ensure learning
(d) is a way to improve learning
26. which one of the following statements best describes ‘Inclusion’?
(a) It is t he belief that children need to be segregated according to their abilities.
(b) It is the belief that some children cannot learn at all.
(c) It is the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school system.
(d) It is the philosophy that special children are ‘a special gift of God’.
27. To cater to the children from ‘disadvantaged’ background, a teacher should
(a) give them a lot of written work
(b) try to find out more about them and involve them in class discussions
(c) make them sit separately in the class
(d) ignore them as they cannot interact with other students
28. Which one of the following behaviours is an identifier of a child with learning disability?
(a) Frequent mood swings
(b) Abusive behaviour
(c) Writing ‘b’ as ‘d’, ‘was’ as ‘saw’, ‘21’ as ‘12’
(d) Low attention span and high physical activity
29. A child who can see partially
(a) should be put in a ‘regular’ school with no special provisions
(b) should not be given education, since it is not of any use to him
(c) needs to be put in a separate institution
(d) should be put in a ‘regular’ school while making special provisions
30. Learning
(a) is not affected by learner’s emotion
(b) has very little connection with emotions
(c) is independent of a learner’s emotions
(d) is influenced by a learner’s emotions
Part II Mathematics
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-60) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. A teacher is teaching ‘addition’ to Class I students. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to follow?
(a) Word problems should not be done in Class II.
(b) Word problems should be used only for the purpose of assessment.
(c) Addition should be introduced through word problems.
(d) Word problems should be done at the end of the chapter.
32. A teacher of Class II gives the following word problem on ‘addition’ to students to solve :
‘A basket contains 5 apples and 7 more apples are added to it. How many apples are now there in the basket’?
This type of word problem belongs to which of the following models categories?
(a) Augmentation
(b) Segregation
(c) Repeated addition
(d) Aggregation
33. ‘Errors play an important role in Mathematics’. This statement is
(a) false, as there is no scope of errors in Mathematics
(b) false, as errors indicated carelessness
(c) true, as they give ideas about how children construct Mathematics concepts.
(d) true, as they give feedback to students about their marks
34. Which one of the following Teaching Learning Materials (TLM) is best suited to explain ‘1/10 is greater than 1/100’ to Class IV students?
(a) Dienes block
(b) Number chart
(c) Abacus
(d) 10 × 10 square grid
35. Which one of the following is best suited for comparison of sizes (areas) of two or more two-dimensional objects?
(a) Using non-standard units
(b) Estimation
(c) Observation
(d) Superposition
36. ‘Mathematics puzzles’ at primary level help in
(a) identifying brilliant students of the class
(b) providing fun to students
(c) testing problem-solving skills
(d) promoting problem-solving skills
37. Mathematical communication refers to
(a) ability to consolidate and organize mathematical thinking
(b) ability to solve problems
(c) skills to participate in Mathematics quiz
(d) ability to speak in Mathematics classroom
38. According to the NCF, 2005, which one of the following is not a major aim of Mathematics education in primary schools?
(a) The mathematise the child’s thought process
(b) To relate Mathematics to the child’s context
(c) To enhance problem-solving skills
(d) To prepare for higher education in Mathematics
39. Which one of the following should be the most important feature of Mathematics textbooks at primary level?
(a) Concepts should be linked to higher classes.
(b) Concepts should be presented from complex to simple.
(c) Concepts should be presented is a strict hierarchical manner.
(d) Concepts should be presented from concrete to abstract.
40. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of development of geometrical understanding?
(a) Visualization, formal deduction, analysis, informal deduction
(b) Visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction
(c) Formal deduction, informal deduction, visualization, analysis
(d) Visualization, analysis formal deduction, informal deduction
41. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Zero should be introduced after number 9.
(b) Zero should be introduced at the time of teaching place value.
(c) Zero should be the first numeral to be taught.
(d) Zero should be introduced after children develop number sense.
42. A teacher plans the following activities to introduce the concept of ‘half’ class III students
(1) shows pictures representing ‘half’
(2) writes symbols for ‘half’
(3) divides many types of concrete materials into ‘halves’
(4) uses story or words to represent ‘half’
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the activities that the teacher needs to follow?
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4
43. Which one of the following is true about teaching and learning of Mathematics in Class I and II?
(a) Lots of opportunities for practice should be provided.
(b) Only oral Mathematics problems should be done in Class I and II.
(c) Mathematics should be integrated with other subjects like language, art, etc.
(d) Mathematics should not be taught in Class I and II.
44. If 1001 × 111 = 110000 + 11 × …, then the number in the bank space is
(a) 121
(b) 211
(c) 101
(d) 111
45. If (the place value of 5 in 15201) + (the place value of 6 in 2659) = 7 × …. then the number of the blank space is
(a) 90
(b) 900
(c) 80
(d) 800
46. If (the product of the common positive factors of 36 and 48 = 999 + 9 × …, then the number which will come in the blank space is
(a) 81
(b) 90
(c) 9
(d) 27
47. If the difference of remainders, obtained on dividing, 26679 by 39 and 29405 by 34, is divided by 18, then the remainder will be
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 5
48. (The smallest common multiple of 36, 54 and 60) ÷ 90 is equal to
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 6
49. Sonu has five dozen toffees. He gave I/3 of these to Amita, 2/5 of these to Anil and 1/12 of these of Hamida. The number of toffees left with Sonu, is
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 5
(d) 7
50. If 112 ones ÷ 12 thousands = 11012 ÷ …….. tens then the number in the blank space is
(a) 111
(b) 112
(c) 101
(d) 110
51. 51 L and 750 mL of milk is filled in 23 bottles, each of the same size. The quantity of milk in 16 such bottles is
(a) 36 L
(b) 37 L and 600 mL
(c) 34 L and 400 mL
(d) 35 L
52. A distance of 1/2 cm on a map represents 200 km on the ground. If two cities are 1800 km apart on the ground, then their distance on the map will be
(a) 6 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) 4.5 cm
53. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) One centimetre is one-hundredth of one metre.
(b) One millilitre is one-hundredth of one litre.
(c) One lakh is equal to one hundred thousand.
(d) One crore i equal to one hundred lakh.
54. A cuboidal box is 13 cm l ong, 11 cm broad and 9 cm high. A cubical box has side 12 cm . Tanu wants to pack 3060 cubes of side 1 cm in these boxes. The number of the cubes left unpacked in these boxes is
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 15
(d) 28
55. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 48 cm and 21 cm respectively. The side of a square is two-thirds the length of the rectangle. The sum of their areas is
(a) 2032 sq cm
(b) 2123 sq cm
(c) 2028 sq cm
(d) 2030 sq cm
56. The product 672 × 36 × 25 equals
(a) the number of seconds in 5 days
(b) the number of seconds in 1 week
(c) the number of minutes in 7 weeks
(d) the number of hours in 60 days
57. When fresh fish is dried, it becomes one-third its weight. Savi bought 2709 kg of fresh fist at the rate of Rs 27 per kg and when dried,, she sold them at Rs 97.5 kg. She earned in all
(a) Rs 14899.5
(b) Rs 15874.5
(c) Rs 14709.5
(d) Rs 14789.5
58. Juhi travelled a distance of 16 km by bicycle at the speed of 15 km/h, 20 km by scooter at the speed of 50 km/h and 50 km by car at the speed of 60 km/h. The total time to travel these distances was
(a) 144 min
(b) 138 min
(c) 88 min
(d) 114 min
59. Which one of the following is prerequisite to understand decimal representation of a number?
(a) Addition
(b) Subtraction
(c) Place value
(d) Multiplication
60. The four fundamental operations in arithmetic are
(a) addition, division, finding perimeter and area
(b) calculation, computation, construction and forming equation
(c) addition, multiplication, converting fractions into decimals and construction of regular shapes
(d) addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
Part III Environmental Studies
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-90) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
61. Which one of the following statements about assessment procedures is least appropriate?
(a) Giving personal details and individual feedback to a child is a desirable practice.
(b) Preparing a list of learning indicators and sub-indicators makes the reporting more detailed.
(c) Remarks like ‘fair’, ‘good’ and ‘very good’ give an understanding about a child’s learning.
(d) Portfolios of children should not contain only their best work but all kinds of work.
62. Read the following questions carefully :
“Have you ever seen animals around your house or school that have small babies?
Write their names in the notebook.”
Which process skill is assessed through this question?
(a) Classification and discussion
(b) Hypothesis and experimentation
(c) Concern for justice
(d) Observation and recording
63. Interdisciplinary nature of EVS addresses environmental issues by using the contents and methods of
(a) science and social science
(b) social science and environmental education
(c) science
(d) science, social science and environmental education
64. The teacher of Class V-A gave the question :
(A) Write five advantages of trees. While the teacher of class V-B gave the question :
(B) What would happen if there were no trees on the Earth?
What is the nature of these questions?
(a) A is close-ended, convergent and B is open-ended, divergent.
(b) A is open-ended, convergent and B is close-ended, divergent.
(c) A is open-ended, divergent and B is close-ended, convergent.
(d) A is close-ended, divergent and B is open-ended, convergent.
65. Which of the following is/are true about assessing learners in EVS in Class I?
(1) Oral tests, as children may not be able to write
(2) Drawing, as children enjoy it
(3) Teachers is n o need of assessment in view
(4) There is no need of assessment in view of ‘no detention policy’
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
66. A Class V teacher takes an aluminium foil and puts it in water and shows that it floats. She then crumples and squeezes the foil tightly and puts it in water again and shows to the students that it sinks. She then asks the students to think and give reasons why they think this has happened. Which one of the following process skills will be used in answering this question?
(a) Hypothesising
(b) Classifying
(c) Observing
(d) Measuring
67. In the context of EVS pedagogy, all of the following are desirable practices, except
(a) building capacity for critical thinking and problem-solving
(b) nurturing the identity of the child
(c) acknowledging the superiority of textbook knowledge over actual observation
(d) promoting plurality of texts and contexts
68. Mahesh, a Class IV teacher, plans to sensitize the students to the concept of ‘conservation of trees’. Which one of the following activities is most suited for this purpose?
(a) Conducting a debate competition
(b) Motivating each student to adopt and nurture one tree
(c) Encouraging students to participate in poster competition
(d) Making teams of students for group discussion
69. In EVS, children particularly enjoy learning crafts and arts in groups, because
(1) it promotes peer learning
(2) it improves social learning
(3) children become happy and respond with enthusiasm when their creative works are appreciated
(4) it promotes discipline in the class.
Select the correct option.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
70. ‘Experimentation’ is one of the indicators of assessment. Which one of the following is the most appropriate way of assessing experimentation indicator?
(a) Picture reading
(b) Creative writing
(c) Demonstration
(d) Hands-on activity
71. Students in primary classes have a lot of alternate conception in many topics like living-nonliving, water cycle, plants, etc. The sources of these alternate conceptions can be
(1) family and community
(2) textbooks and other books
(3) teachers
(4) stories and poems
Select the correct option.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1
(d) 1 and 2
72. Glass jars and bottles are dried well in the Sun before filling them with pickles. Why is it so?
(a) To increase their temperature
(b) To remove the dust from them
(c) To remove the moisture completely
(d) To make pickles tasty
73. Renu’s grandmother shows her a dried-up well and tells her that 15-20 years ago there was water in the well, but not it has completely dried up. What could be the reason (s) for drying up of water in the well?
(1) The soil around the trees, well and nearby area is now covered with cement.
(2) A lot of boring pumps have come up in the nearby area.
(3) Nobody uses the well as there are taps in everybody’s house now.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
74. An egret sits on a buffalo, because
(a) the egret and the buffalo have symbiotic relationship
(b) the egret sits on the buffalo for fun
(c) the buffalo helps in the transportation of t he egret from one place to another
(d) the egret wants to scare the buffalo
75. Which one of the following is not a function of roots for the plant?
(a) To store food
(b) To provide humus
(c) To give support to the plant
(d) To absorb water and minerals
76. Consider the following statements about Karnam Malleswari :
(1) She is a weightlifter of international fame.
(2) She is from Karnataka
(3) She has many records to her credit. She could lift weights up to 130 kg.
(4) She started lifting weights when she was 12 years old.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 1 and 4
77. The following are some statements regarding step wells or Baolis :
(1) They are a traditional system of water storage and conservation.
(2) They were used as a community resource.
(3) They are found/constructed mainly in rain-parched States.
(4) They contain only contaminated water.
Which of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 4
78. ‘Worli’ is a traditional art form. The place ‘Worli’ is the State of
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Odisha
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
79. The neighbouring States of Tamil Nadu are
(a) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala, Gujarat and Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka
(d) Goa, Karnataka and Kerala
80. Which one of the following has the sense of hearing so sharp that it can make out the difference between the rustling of leaves and the sound of an animal moving on the grass?
(a) Tiger
(b) Vulture
(c) Silkworm
(d) Dog
81. When one is travelling from Ahemdabad to Kerala by a train, one comes across many tunnels. These tunnels are in the hills of
(a) Vindhyachal
(b) Aravallis
(c) Western ghats
(d) Eastern ghats
82. The Earth is round, There is actually no ‘up’ and ‘down’ on the Earth and it is just relative. We, the people of India, actually stand upside down in relation to the people of
(a) Alaska (USA)
(b) Libya
(c) Algeria
(d) Argentina
83. It is advised to put oil an stagnant water to prevent breeding of mosquitoes. This is because
(a) oil cuts off oxygen supply, thereby stops the breeding of mosquitoes
(b) mosquitoes are repelled by oil
(c) mosquitoes are killed by oil
(d) mosquitoes get stuck in the layer of oil
84. Which one of the following insects does not live together in a colony like honeybees?
(a) Wasp
(b) Ant
(c) Termite
(d) Spider
85. The structure of houses in rural area is linked to the climatic conditions in which they are built.
There is a village where houses have following features :
• Houses are made on strong bamboo pillars.
• Inside of houses is also made of wood.
• Houses are made almost 3 m to 3.5 m above the ground.
• Roofs are made with a slope.
If in this village it rains heavily, the village should be part of
(a) Assam
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
86. ‘Kuduk’ is a language of the people of
(a) Mizoram
(b) Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand
87. As per the NCF, 2005, which one among the following is the theme of EVS?
(a) Food
(b) Solar system
(c) Weather
(d) Energy
88. Which one of the following is the strongest argument in favour of adopting a theme-based approach in EVS?
(a) It helps in giving a structure to lesson plans and makes teaching more effective.
(b) It helps in making teaching more interesting and activity based.
(c) It helps in covering a wide range of concepts, issue and skills.
(d) It helps in softening subject boundaries and accessing knowledge holistically.
89. Stories are an important aspect of teaching learning EVS in primary classes. Which one of the following is, least appropriate reason for including storytelling as pedagogy in EVS classroom?
(a) Stories include experiences of the people.
(b) Stories cut across various subject areas.
(c) Stories, help in class management.
(d) Stories provide contexts to relate EVS concepts.
90. The content in an EVS textbook should
(1) avoid descriptions and definitions
(2) discourage rote learning
(3) provide opportunities to the child to question and explore
(4) give only written information to the child
Select the correct option.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Part IV English (Language-I)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-96) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
How soon hath Time, the subtle thief of youth, (1)
Stol’n on his wing my three-and-twentieth year! (2)
My hasting days fly on with full career,
But my late spring no bud or blossom shew’th.
Perhaps my semblance might deceive the truth
That I to manhood am arrive’d so near, And inward ripeness doth much less appear,
That some more timely-happy spirits endu’th.
Yet be it less or more, or soon or slow, it shall be still in strictest measure ev’n
To that same lot, ‘however mean or high, Toward which time leads me, ,and the will of Heav’n.
91. The poet presents ‘Time’ as a/an
(a) enemy
(b) spirit
(c) friend
(d) thief
92. The poet regrets that
(a) he has not attained inner maturity
(b) his teachers are not happy with his progress
(c) his academic progress has been very slow
(d) he is not popular with his peers
93. The poet envies his friends: because they
(a) have achieved name and fame
(b) are popular with their friends
(c) are blessed with robust health
(d) have attained inward ripeness
94. The inner maturity the poet longs for will come
(a) with the help of peers
(b) with the help of teachers
(c) by the will of God
(d) through hard work
95. The poet is ……….. about his future.
(a) pessimistic
(b) unconcerned
(c) cynical
(d) optimistic
96. The ‘figure, of speech’ used in lines 1 and 2 is
(a) personification
(b) a hyperbola
(c) an irony
(d) a simile
Directions (Q. Nos. 97-111) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
97. Which one of the following is the most important prerequisite for language learning?
(a) Children’s motivation to learn the language
(b) List of aims and objectives of the language to be learnt
(c) Providing a good textbook to children to learn the language
(d) Using structural-situational approach while teaching
98. A teacher asks students of Class III to describe their best friend. She writes the students responses on the blackboard. At last, she States that all these describing words on the blackboard are adjectives. This is
(a) Immersion method
(b) Incidental method
(c) Inductive method
(d) Deductive method
99. The rise and fall of tone is
(a) intonation
(b) pronunciation
(c) stress
(d) strain
100. Which one of the following is the most important about storytelling?
(a) It broadens their knowledge about various authors.
(b) It enhances graded pattern and structure.
(c) It promotes whole language approach.
(d) It is an effective way of learning vocabulary.
101. Dictation does not help learners to
(a) increase their concentration
(b) improve their reading skill
(c) improve their spelling
(d) enhance their listening comprehension
102. An English teacher after completing a chapter from the textbook asks questions based on the text to
(a) maintain class discipline
(b) keep students busy as the chapter is complete
(c) attract students attention
(d) know their comprehension
103. Shreya, a teacher of Class IV, asked the learners to complete the dialogue in the given boxes and then to role-play the same using their dialogues. She is developing
(a) speaking and writing skills
(b) all, listening writing, reading and speaking skills
(c) listening and speaking skills
(d) reading and writing skills
104. Which one of the following cannot be used in formative assessment?
(a) Debate
(b) Olympiad
(c) Retelling stories
(d) Role play
105. Teaching-Learning Material (TLM) should be used by teachers as it
(a) is not very expensive
(b) motivates learners to further prepare such material at home
(c) supplements teaching-learning process
(d) prepares students mentally to sit in the class
106. While learning English as a second language
(a) the mother tongue should not be used by the learners
(b) there is no role of mother tongue in learning L2
(c) the use of mother tongue will facilitate learning
(d) the use of mother tongue will create interference
107. The process of assessment in a language class should be conducted
(a) during the teaching-learning process
(b) for assessing the textual exercises at the end of the chapter
(c) to know the level of students in the class
(d) to know the efficiency of teachers in teaching
108. As per the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005, multilingualism in learning a language should be seen as a
(a) challenge for students to learn many languages
(b) challenges for teachers to manage such classes
(c) hindrance in teaching learning English
(d) resource in teaching-learning English
109. The most important factor which is responsible for the differentiation between language learning and language acquisition is
(a) language environment
(b) grammar of language
(c) assessment in language
(d) textbook of language
110. Which one of the following is an essential characteristic of a good textbook in English?
(a) The maximum number of textual exercises should be given to pracrise at the end of the lesson.
(b) Every lesson should have a proper introduction at the beginning and a conclusion at the end.
(c) It should be based on the guiding principles of curriculum and syllabus.
(d) No difficult words should he given in the textbook at primary level.
111. The maximum participation of students is possible while teaching English by the teacher using authentic tasks through
(a) structural approach
(b) communicative approach
(c) grammar translation method
(d) direct method
Directions (Q. Nos. 112-120) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
As I kept strict watch over my way of living, I could see that it was necessary to economize. I, therefore decided to reduce my expenses by half. My accounts showed numerous items spent on fares. Again, my living with a family meant the payment of a regular weekly bill. It also included the courtesy of occasionally taking members of the family out to dinner,, and likewise attending parties with them. All this involved heavy items for conveyances, especially as, if the friend was a lady, custom required that the man should pay bill the expenses.
Also, dining out meant extra cost, as no deduction could be made from the regular weekly bill for meals not taken. It seemed to me that all these items could be saved, as likewise the drain on my purse. So I decided to take rooms on my own account, instead of living any longer in a family, and also to remove from place to place according to the work I had to do, thus gaining experience at the same time.
The rooms were so selected as to enable me to reach the place of business on foot in half an hour, and so save fare. Before this I had always taken some kind of conveyance whenever I went anywhere, and had to find extra time for walks. The new arrangement combined walks and economy, as it meant a saving of fares and gave me walks of eight or ten miles a day.
It was mainly this habit of long walks that kept me practically free from illness throughout my stay in England and gave me a fairly strong body.
Thus I rented a suite of rooms, one for a sitting room and another for a bedroom. This was the second stage. The third was yet to come.
112. The author could reduce his expenses by half by
(a) having only one meal a day
(b) renting rooms close to his office
(c) travelling in a bus
(d) cooking his own meals
113. ……… constituted a major part of the author’s expenses.
(a) Meals
(b) Fares
(c) Dining out
(d) Entertainment
114. The author’s choice of his new residence enabled him to
(a) be close to his friends
(b) work longer and harder
(c) save money on fares
(d) keep things under control
115. What gave the author a fairly strong boyd?
(a) Yogic exercises
(b) Self-discipline
(c) Nourishing food
(d) Long walks
116. The steps taken by the author to reduce his expenses show that he was
(a) frugal
(b) always short of money
(c) saving money for emergencies
(d) miserly
117. The word ‘numerous’ most nearly means.
(a) enormous
(b) many
(c) goodness
(d) politeness
118. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘courtesy’ is
(a) aggression
(b) vulgarity
(c) immodesty
(d) rudeness
119. Which ‘part of speech is the underlined word in the sentence given below?
“I decided to reduce my expenses by half.”
(a) Preposition
(b) Adjective
(c) Adverb
(d) Noun
120. “The new arrangement combined walks and economy.” The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
(a) The new arrangement had combined walks and economy.
(b) Walks and economy are combined in the new arrangement.
(c) Walks and economy were combined in the new arrangement.
(d) Walks and economy have been combined by the new arrangement.
Part V English (Language-II)
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-127) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Your body is made up of 60% water and you lose the essential fluid every minute of every day as you breathe, digest, and hopefully work up a sweat. It is important that you put back every drop. Starting now, drink eight 230 ml glasses of water every single day-that’s the minimum your body needs daily. That is the non-negotiable sugar sawy hydration Mantra. Many times when you think you’re hungry, sleepy, depressed, and/or irritated, you’re actually just dehydrated. Drinking enough water actually helps you combat water retention. Sounds counterintuitive, but think about it. If you are running around in a semi-dehydrated State all the time,, your body is going to hang on to every single drop, giving you that puffy, unhealthy appearance. When you are properly hydrating, your body gets the message that all systems are operating smoothly and it continues its work of flushing out your system and ridding itself of the excess fluids.
If your goals is to lose weight water is a must. When you’re dehydrated, your body sends out signals that you need assistance. Many people mistake those thirsty SOS signals for hunger and take in hundreds of extra calories. They also don’t solve the real problems-thirst! Drinking water can be a powerful appetite suppressant and allows you to cue into your real hunger. Your body also needs plenty of water for proper digestion, so you can get the most from the foods you eat. You are less susceptible to food cravings when your stomach is full and you’re getting all the nutrients you need Drink two glasses of water before every meal-you’ll eat less! Your body uses water for fat.
121. ……….. helps fight water retention.
(a) Having a balanced diet
(b) Drinking enough water
(c) Exercising regularly
(d) A regular morning walk
122. Out systems operate satisfactorily
(a) if excess fat is reduced
(b) when we enjoy a sound sleep
(c) when we are properly hydrated
(d) if we consume lots of fruits and vegetables
123. The best way to lose weight is to
(a) eat less starchy food
(b) take weight-reducing pills
(c) exercise at least twice a day
(d) drink plenty of water
124. When we are dehydrated, we think we
(a) are about to collapse
(b) want to vomit
(c) are tired
(d) need food
125. The word ‘irritated’ most nearly means
(a) annoyed
(b) troubled
(c) uneasy
(d) frustrated
126. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘assistance’ is
(a) fragrance
(b) resistance
(c) persistence
(d) existence
127. “Your body uses water for fat”. The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
(a) Water was used for fat by our body.
(b) Water could be used for fat by our body.
(c) Water is being used by our body for fat.
(d) Water is used for fat by your body.
Directions (Q. Nos. 128-142) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
128. Stephen Krashen’s theory of second language acquisition does not consist of
(a) the National Order Hypothesis
(b) the Input Hypothesis
(c) the Acquisition Learning Hypothesis
(d) the Learnability Hypotheses
129. The use of dictionary does not help learners to
(a) find out how to say a word
(b) be proficient in oral communication
(c) find the meaning of words
(d) check the part of speech of a word
130. Constructivism in language learning focuses on
(a) the dominant role of the teacher in the classroom
(b) engaging learners in exploring new knowledge
(c) the role of imitation
(d) memorizing grammar rules
131. The major objective of teaching English at primary level is
(a) using English in different situations of life
(b) speaking English in British accent
(c) scoring good marks in the exams
(d) knowing the grammar of English
132. In learning a language, students talking time should be increased because
(a) they use the target language for various purposes
(b) teachers feel relaxed while students are talking
(c) they enjoy spending time talking with their friends
(d) they can learn the correct pronunciation from each other
133. A teacher of class V is planning to teach grammar Which one of the following might be a good strategy for teaching grammar?
(a) Giving the practice of grammar in context as a strategy
(b) Asking students to carefully note down the rules from the blackboard
(c) Giving clear explanations of the rules with examples
(d) Asking students to do drill work only to learn rules
134. Which one of the following is not true in relation to the use of children literature?
(a) It makes them understand and respect diverse cultures.
(b) Their reading proficiency deteriorates and gets worse.
(c) It helps in developing learners imagination.
(d) It broadens their mental horizon.
135. While assessing a group work, a teacher should not focus on
(a) showing concern for others
(b) cooperative learning process
(c) assessing each child’s work
(d) taking initiatives in work
136. A diagnostic test in English will help the language teacher to identify
(a) intelligent learners in her class
(b) slow learners in her class
(c) learning difficulties the learner faces in English
(d) the topic which the learner has not learnt by heart
137. While teaching English, a teacher is not able to draw attention of some students sitting at the back. She should
(a) engage them by asking questions and evaluating her teaching method
(b) stop explaining the concept and start dictating the notes to students
(c) scold them for not paying attention
(d) ignore them and carry on
138. When a child learns a language naturally, without much practice, it is called
(a) Language generalization.
(b) Language adaptation
(c) Language learning
(d) Language acquisition
139. The communicative approach teach English focuses on
(a) the structural accuracy of the sentences
(b) correct pronunciation of words
(c) linguistic competence plus an ability to use the language appropriately
(d) the practice of selected and graded structure patterns
140. Which one of the following is most important in developing reading skill at primary level?
(a) Ability to read phrases correctly
(b) Ability to comprehend the text already read
(c) Only knowing the correct order of alphabet
(d) Ability to read words correctly
141. While reading, a learner needs to
(a) guess the contextual meaning of new words to understand the text
(b) translate the written symbols into corresponding sounds to grasp their meaning
(c) perceive and decode letters in order to read words
(d) understand every word to grasp the meaning of the text
142. Diphthongs are
(a) consonant sounds
(b) double consonant sounds
(c) vowel sounds
(d) double vowel sounds
Directions (Q. Nos. 143-150) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered the pioneer of modern Indian Renaissance for the remarkable reforms he brought about in the 18th century India. Among his efforts, the abolition of the Sati-prathaa-A practice in which the widow was compelled to sacrifice herself on the funeral pyre of her husband-was prominent. His efforts were also instrumental in eradiating the Purdah system and child marriage. In 1828, Ram Moham Roy formed the Brhamo Samaj, a group of people, who had nofaith in idol-worship and were against the caste restrictions.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s father, was a wealthy Brahmin and strictly performed the duties set by the religion. Ram Mohan himself was also devoted to Lord Vishnu and in his 14th year, he wanted to become a monk but his mother, Tarini Devi objected to his desire. Ram Mohan viewed education as a medium to implement the social reforms. So, in 1815, Ram Mohan came to Calcutta and the very next year, started an English College by putting in his own savings. He was well aware that the students should learn the English language and scientific subjects and that’s why he criticized the government’s policy of opening only. Sanskrit schools.
According to him, Indian would lag behind if they do not get to study modern subjects like Mathematics, Geography and Latin. The government accepted this idea of Ram Mohan and also implemented it but not before his death. Ram Mohan was also the first to give important to the development of mother tongue. his Gaudiya Byakaran in Bengal is the best of his prose works. Rabindranath Tagore and Bankimchandra also followed in the footsteps of Ram Mohan Roy.
Ram Mohan Roy was a staunch Supporter of free speech and expression and fought for the rights of Vernacular Press. He also brought out a newspaper in Persian called Miratul-Akhbar (the Mirror of News) and a Bengali weekly called Sambad Kaumudi, (the Moon of Intelligence). In those days, items of news and articles had to be approved by the government before being published, Ram Mohan protested against this control by arguing that newspapers should be free and that the truth should not be suppressed simply because the government did not like it.
143. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known for his
(a) economic reforms
(b) literary reforms
(c) political reforms
(d) social reforms
144. When he was a teenager, Raja Ram Mohan Roy expressed his desire to become a
(a) journalist
(b) monk
(c) teacher
(d) businessman
145. Raja Ram Mohan Roy believed that Indian would lag behind if they
(a) forgot their cultural roots
(b) did not learn traditional skills
(c) gave up study of Sanskrit
(d) did not study modern subjects
146. Raja Ram Mohan Roy strongly supported
(a) rituals and observances
(b) physical education
(c) freedom of speech expression
(d) moral education
147. The word ‘eliminating’ most nearly means
(a) banishing
(b) eradicating
(c) banning
(d) dismissing
148. The word which is opposite in meaning to ‘encouraged’ is
(a) crushed
(b) misled
(c) disheartened
(d) suppressed
149. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the sentence given below?
“He was a staunch supporter of free speech and expression”.
(a) Adjective
(b) Conjunction
(c) Noun
(d) Adverb
150. “Raja Ram Mohan Roy viewed education…”
The ‘voice’ in the above sentence has been correctly changed in
(a) Education was viewed …
(b) Education is viewed ….
(c) Education has been viewed …
(d) Education had been viewed…