GATE Entrance Paper 2018 | ENTRANCE INDIA

GATE Exam 2018 Civil Engineering (CE-1) Question Paper With Answer Key

June 7, 2023November 19, 2018 by suresh84

Civil Engineering CE-1

General Aptitude (GA) Set-7

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. “ The driver applied the _______ as soon as she approached the hotel where she wanted to take a ________.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) brake, break

(B) break, break

(D) break, brake

Answer: (A)

2. “ It is no surprise that every society has had codes of behaviour; however, the nature of these codes is often _________.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) unpredictable

(B) simple

(D) strict

Answer: (A)

3. Hema’s age is 5 years more than twice Hari’s age. Suresh’s age is 13 years less than 10 times Hari’s age. If Suresh is 3 times as old as Hema, how old is Hema?

(A) 14

(B) 17

(D) 19

Answer: (D)

4. Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m tall. They are 100 m apart. A horizontal skywalk connects the floors at 70 m in both the towers. If a taut rope connects the top of tower A to the bottom of tower B, at what distance (in meters) from tower A will the rope intersect the skywalk?

(A) 22.22

(B) 50

(D) 77.78

Answer: (Marks to All)

5. The temperature 𝑇 in a room varies as a function of the outside temperature 𝑇₀ and the number of persons in the room 𝑝, according to the relation 𝑇 = Κ (Θ𝑝 + 𝑇₀), where Θ and Κ are constants. What would be the value of Θ given the following data?

(A) 0.8

(B) 1.0

(D) 10.0

Answer: (B)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at 12.5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 108 more, he would have made a 10% gain. What is the loss in Rupees incurred by the fruit seller?

(A) 48

(B) 52

(D) 108

Answer: (C)

7. The price of a wire made of a superalloy material is proportional to the square of its length. The price of 10 m length of the wire is Rs. 1600. What would be the total price (in Rs.) of two wires of lengths 4 m and 6m?

(A) 768

(B) 832

(D) 1600

Answer: (B)

8. Which of the following function(s) is an accurate description of the graph for the range(s) indicated?

(i) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 4 for −3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ −1

(ii) 𝑦 = |𝑥 − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2

(iii) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2

(iv) 𝑦 = 1 for 2 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only.

(D) (ii) and (iv) only.

Answer: (B)

9. Consider a sequence of numbers 𝑎₁, 𝑎₂, 𝑎₃, ⋯ , 𝑎_𝑛 where for each integer 𝑛 > 0. What is the sum of the first 50 terms?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C)

10. Each of the letters arranged as below represents a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters are positioned in the figure such that (A × B × C), (B × G × E) and (D × E × F) are equal. Which integer among the following choices cannot be represented by the letters A, B, C, D, E, F or G?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

Civil Engineering (Set 1)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Which one of the following matrices is singular?

Answer: (C)

2. For the given orthogonal matrix Q,

The inverse is

Answer: (C)

3. At the point 𝑥 = 0, the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥³ has

(A) local maximum

(B) local minimum

(D) neither local maximum nor local minimum

Answer: (D)

4. A column of height h with a rectangular cross-section of size a×2a has a buckling load of P. If the cross-section is changed to 0.5a × 3a and its height changed to 1.5h, the buckling load of the redesigned column will be

(A) P/12

(B) P/4

(D) 3P/4

Answer: (A)

5. A steel column of ISHB 350 @72.4 kg/m is subjected to a factored axial compressive load of 2000 kN. The load is transferred to a concrete pedestal of grade M20 through a square base plate. Consider bearing strength of concrete as 0.45f_ck, where f_ck is the characteristic strength of concrete. Using limit state method and neglecting the self weight of base plate and steel column, the length of a side of the base plate to be provided is

(A) 39 cm

(B) 42 cm

(D) 48 cm

Answer: (D)

6. The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to determine

(A) compressive strength of cement

(B) fineness of cement

(D) soundness of cement

Answer: (D)

7. The deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is

(A) creep

(B) hydration

(D) shrinkage

Answer: (A)

8. A solid circular beam with radius of 0.25 m and length of 2 m is subjected to a twisting moment of 20 kNm about the z-axis at the free end, which is the only load acting as shown in the figure. The shear stress component 𝜏_𝑥𝑦 at Point ‘M’ in the cross-section of the beam at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end is

(A) 0.0 MPa

(B) 0.51 MPa

(D) 2.0 MPa

Answer: (A)

9. Two rectangular under-reinforced concrete beam sections X and Y are similar in all aspects except that the longitudinal compression reinforcement in section Y is 10% more. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

(A) Section X has less flexural strength and is less ductile than section Y

(B) Section X has less flexural strength but is more ductile than section Y

(D) Sections X and Y have equal flexural strength and ductility

Answer: (C)

10. The percent reduction in the bearing capacity of a strip footing resting on sand under flooding condition (water level at the base of the footing) when compared to the situation where the water level is at a depth much greater than the width of footing, is approximately

(A) 0

(B) 25

(D) 100

Answer: (C)

11. The width of a square footing and the diameter of a circular footing are equal. If both the footings are placed on the surface of sandy soil, the ratio of the ultimate bearing capacity of circular footing to that of square footing will be

(A) 4/3

(B) 1

(D) 2/3

Answer: (C)

12. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for

(A) viscous and compressible fluid flow

(B) inviscid and compressible fluid flow

(D) viscous and incompressible fluid flow

Answer: (C)

13. There are 20,000 vehicles operating in a city with an average annual travel of 12,000 km per vehicle. The NOx emission rate is 2.0 g/km per vehicle. The total annual release of NOx will be

(A) 4,80,000 kg

(B) 4,800 kg

(D) 48 kg

Answer: (A)

14. A bitumen sample has been graded as VG30 as per IS : 73-2013. The ‘30’ in the grade means that

(A) penetration of bitumen at 25°C is between 20 and 40

(B) viscosity of bitumen at 60°C is between 2400 and 3600 Poise

(D) elastic recovery of bitumen at 15°C is more than 30%

Answer: (B)

15. The speed-density relationship for a road section is shown in the figure.

The shape of the flow-density relationship is

(A) piecewise linear

(B) parabolic

(D) initially parabolic then linear

Answer: (C)

16. A well-designed signalized intersection is one in which the

(A) crossing conflicts are increased

(B) total delay is minimized

(D) cycle time is equal to the sum of red and yellow times in all phases

Answer: (B)

17. A flow field is given by 𝑢 = 𝑦², 𝑣 = −𝑥𝑦, 𝑤 = 0. Value of the z-component of the angular velocity (in radians per unit time, up to two decimal places) at the point (0, −1, 1) is ______

Answer: (1.50 to 1.50)

18. The frequency distribution of the compressive strength of 20 concrete cube specimens is given in the table.

If 𝜇 is the mean strength of the specimens and 𝜎 is the standard deviation, the number of specimens (out of 20) with compressive strength less than 𝜇 − 3𝜎 is ______

Answer: (0 to 0)

19. In a fillet weld, the direct shear stress and bending tensile stress are 50 MPa and 150 MPa, respectively. As per IS 800: 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two decimal places) will be ______

Answer: (173.10 to 173.30)

20. In a shrinkage limit test, the volume and mass of a dry soil pat are found to be 50 cm³ and 88 g, respectively. The specific gravity of the soil solids is 2.71 and the density of water is 1 g/cc. The shrinkage limit (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (19.50 to 20.50)

21. A core cutter of 130 mm height has inner and outer diameters of 100 mm and 106 mm, respectively. The area ratio of the core cutter (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (12.30 to 12.40)

22. A 1:50 model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype spillway is 1000 m³/s. The corresponding discharge (in m³/s, up to two decimal places) to be maintained in the model, neglecting variation in acceleration due to gravity, is ______

Answer: (0.05 to 0.06)

23. A 10 m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 20 m³/s under critical condition. Using g = 9.81 m/s², the specific energy (in m, up to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (1.10 to 1.20)

24. For routing of flood in a given channel using the Muskingum method, two of the routing coefficients are estimated as C₀ = –0.25 and C1 = 0.55. The value of the third coefficient C₂ would be ______

Answer: (0.70 to 0.70)

25. A city generates 40×106 kg of municipal solid waste (MSW) per year, out of which only 10% is recovered/recycled and the rest goes to landfill. The landfill has a single lift of 3 m height and is compacted to a density of 550 kg/m³. If 80% of the landfill is assumed to be MSW, the landfill area (in m², up to one decimal place) required would be ______

Answer: (27271 to 27274)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The value of the integral

(A) π²/8

(B) π²/4

(D) π²

Answer: (B)

27. A cantilever beam of length 2 m with a square section of side length 0.1 m is loaded vertically at the free end. The vertical displacement at the free end is 5 mm. The beam is made of steel with Young’s modulus of 2.0×1011 N/m². The maximum bending stress at the fixed end of the cantilever is

(A) 20.0 MPa

(B) 37.5 MPa

(D) 75.0 MPa

Answer: (B)

28. A cylinder of radius 250 mm and weight, W = 10 kN is rolled up an obstacle of height 50 mm by applying a horizontal force P at its centre as shown in the figure.

All interfaces are assumed frictionless. The minimum value of P is

(A) 4.5 kN

(B) 5.0 kN

(D) 7.5 kN

Answer: (D)

29. A plate in equilibrium is subjected to uniform stresses along its edges with magnitude 𝜎_𝑥𝑥 = 30 MPa and 𝜎_𝑦𝑦 = 50 MPa as shown in the figure.

The Young’s modulus of the material is 2×10¹¹ N/m² and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3. If 𝜎_𝑧𝑧 is negligibly small and assumed to be zero, then the strain 𝜀_𝑧𝑧 is

(A) -120×10^-6

(B) – 60×10^-6

(D) 120 ×10^-6

Answer: (A)

30. The figure shows a simply supported beam PQ of uniform flexural rigidity EI carrying two moments M and 2M.

The slope at P will be

(A) 0

(B) ML/(9EI)

(D) ML/(3EI)

Answer: (C)

31. A 0.5 m × 0.5 m square concrete pile is to be driven in a homogeneous clayey soil having undrained shear strength, cu = 50 kPa and unit weight, γ = 18.0 kN/m³. The design capacity of the pile is 500 kN. The adhesion factor α is given as 0.75. The length of the pile required for the above design load with a factor of safety of 2.0 is

(A) 5.2 m

(B) 5.8 m

(D) 12.5 m

Answer: (C)

32. A closed tank contains 0.5 m thick layer of mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) at the bottom. A 2.0 m thick layer of water lies above the mercury layer. A 3.0 m thick layer of oil (specific gravity = 0.6) lies above the water layer. The space above the oil layer contains air under pressure. The gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank is 196.2 kN/m². The density of water is 1000 kg/m³ and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s². The value of pressure in the air space is

(A) 92.214 kN/m²

(B) 95.644 kN/m²

(D) 99.321 kN/m²

Answer: (A)

33. A rapid sand filter comprising a number of filter beds is required to produce 99 MLD of potable water. Consider water loss during backwashing as 5%, rate of filtration as 6.0 m/h and length to width ratio of filter bed as 1.35. The width of each filter bed is to be kept equal to 5.2 m. One additional filter bed is to be provided to take care of break-down,repair and maintenance. The total number of filter beds required will be

(A) 19

(B) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (C or D)

34. A priority intersection has a single-lane one-way traffic road crossing an undivided twolane two-way traffic road. The traffic stream speed on the single-lane road is 20 kmph and the speed on the two-lane road is 50 kmph. The perception-reaction time is 2.5 s, coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.38 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s². A clear sight triangle has to be ensured at this intersection. The minimum lengths of the sides of the sight triangle along the two-lane road and the single-lane road, respectively will be

(A) 50 m and 20 m

(B) 61 m and 18 m

(D) 122 m and 36 m

Answer: (C)

35. The following details refer to a closed traverse:

The length and direction (whole circle bearing) of closure, respectively are

(A) 1 m and 90°

(B) 2 m and 90°

(D) 2 m and 270°

Answer: (A or C)

36. A square area (on the surface of the earth) with side 100 m and uniform height, appears as 1 cm² on a vertical aerial photograph. The topographic map shows that a contour of 650 m passes through the area. If focal length of the camera lens is 150 mm, the height from which the aerial photograph was taken, is

(A) 800 m

(B) 1500 m

(D) 3150 m

Answer: (C)

37. T he solution at 𝑥 = 1, 𝑡 = 1 of the partial differential equation subject to initial conditions of 𝑢(0) = 3𝑥 and is ______

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 6

Answer: (D)

38. The solution (up to three decimal places) at 𝑥 = 1 of the differential equation subject to boundary conditions is ______

Answer: (0.36 to 0.37)

39. Variation of water depth (𝑦) in a gradually varied open channel flow is given by the first order differential equation

Given initial condition: 𝑦(𝑥 = 0) = 0.8 𝑚. The depth (in m, up to three decimal places) of flow at a downstream section at x = 1 m from one calculation step of Single Step Euler Method is ______

Answer: (0.78 to 0.80)

40. An RCC short column (with lateral ties) of rectangular cross section of 250 mm × 300 mm is reinforced with four numbers of 16 mm diameter longitudinal bars. The grades of steel and concrete are Fe415 and M20, respectively. Neglect eccentricity effect. Considering limit state of collapse in compression (IS 456 : 2000), the axial load carrying capacity of the column (in kN, up to one decimal place), is ______

Answer: (815 to 830 (or) 905 to 920)

41. An RCC beam of rectangular cross section has factored shear of 200 kN at its critical section. Its width b is 250 mm and effective depth d is 350 mm. Assume design shear strength 𝜏𝑐 of concrete as 0.62 N/mm² and maximum allowable shear stress 𝜏_{𝑐,𝑚𝑎𝑥} in concrete as 2.8 N/mm². If two legged 10 mm diameter vertical stirrups of Fe250 grade steel are used, then the required spacing (in cm, up to one decimal place) as per limit state method will be ______

Answer: (7.0 to 9.0)

42. The dimensions of a symmetrical welded I-section are shown in the figure.

The plastic section modulus about the weaker axis (in cm³, up to one decimal place) is ______

Answer: (88.0 to 92.0)

43. Consider the deformable pin-jointed truss with loading, geometry and section properties as shown in the figure.

Given that E = 2×10¹¹ N/m², A = 10 mm², L = 1 m and P = 1 kN. The horizontal displacement of Joint C (in mm, up to one decimal place) is ______

Answer: (2.60 to 2.80)

44. At a construction site, a contractor plans to make an excavation as shown in the figure.

The water level in the adjacent river is at an elevation of +20.0 m. Unit weight of water is 10 kN/m³. The factor of safety (up to two decimal places) against sand boiling for the proposed excavation is ______

Answer: (1.00 to 1.03)

45. A conventional drained triaxial compression test was conducted on a normally consolidated clay sample under an effective confining pressure of 200 kPa. The deviator stress at failure was found to be 400 kPa. An identical specimen of the same clay sample is isotropically consolidated to a confining pressure of 200 kPa and subjected to standard undrained triaxial compression test. If the deviator stress at failure is 150 kPa, the pore pressure developed (in kPa, up to one decimal place) is ______

Answer: (124 to 126)

46. The void ratio of a soil is 0.55 at an effective normal stress of 140 kPa. The compression index of the soil is 0.25. In order to reduce the void ratio to 0.4, an increase in the magnitude of effective normal stress (in kPa, up to one decimal place) should be ______

Answer: (416.0 to 420.0)

47. A rigid smooth retaining wall of height 7 m with vertical backface retains saturated clay as backfill. The saturated unit weight and undrained cohesion of the backfill are 17.2 kN/m³and 20 kPa, respectively. The difference in the active lateral forces on the wall (in kN per meter length of wall, up to two decimal places), before and after the occurrence of tension
cracks is ______

Answer: (45 to 49 or -49 to -45)

48. Rainfall depth over a watershed is monitored through six number of well distributed rain gauges. Gauged data are given below

The Thiessen mean value (in mm, up to one decimal place) of the rainfall is ______

Answer: (478.5 to 479.5)

49. The infiltration rate 𝑓 in a basin under ponding condition is given by 𝑓 = 30 + 10𝑒^−2𝑡, where, 𝑓 is in mm/h and t is time in hour. Total depth of infiltration (in mm, up to one decimal place) during the last 20 minutes of a storm of 30 minutes duration is ______

Answer: (11.0 to 12.0)

50. I n a laboratory, a flow experiment is performed over a hydraulic structure. The measured values of discharge and velocity are 0.05 m³/s and 0.25 m/s, respectively. If the full scale structure (30 times bigger) is subjected to a discharge of 270 m³/s, then the time scale (model to full scale) value (up to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (0.15 to 0.25)

51. A water sample analysis data is given below

The carbonate hardness (expressed as mg/L of CaCO₃, up to one decimal place) for the water sample is ______

Answer: (272.0 to 274.0)

52. T he ultimate BOD (𝐿₀) of a wastewater sample is estimated as 87% of COD. The COD of this wastewater is 300 mg/L. Considering first order BOD reaction rate constant k (use natural log) = 0.23 per day and temperature coefficient θ = 1.047, the BOD value (in mg/L, up to one decimal place) after three days of incubation at 27°C for this wastewater will be
______

Answer: (154.0 to 161.0)

53. A waste activated sludge (WAS) is to be blended with green waste (GW). The carbon (C) and nitrogen (N) contents, per kg of WAS and GW, on dry basis are given in the table.

The ratio of WAS to GW required (up to two decimal places) to achieve a blended C:N ratio of 20:1 on dry basis is ______

Answer: (1.60 to 1.70)

54. Given the following data: design life n = 15 years, lane distribution factor D = 0.75, annual rate of growth of commercial vehicles r = 6%, vehicle damage factor F = 4 and initial traffic in the year of completion of construction = 3000 Commercial Vehicles Per Day (CVPD). As per IRC:37-2012, the design traffic in terms of cumulative number of standard axles (in million standard axles, up to two decimal places) is ______

Answer: (75.00 to 78.00)

55. A n aircraft approaches the threshold of a runway strip at a speed of 200 km/h. The pilot decelerates the aircraft at a rate of 1.697 m/s² and takes 18 s to exit the runway strip. If the deceleration after exiting the runway is 1 m/s², then the distance (in m, up to one decimal place) of the gate position from the location of exit on the runway is ______

Answer: (311.0 to 319.0)

GATE Exam 2018 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper With Answer Key

June 7, 2023November 19, 2018 by suresh84

Biotechnology

General Aptitude (GA) Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. “ When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares

(B) stairs, stairs

(D) stares, stares

Answer: (A)

2. “ In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) rational

(B) reasonable

(D) good

Answer: (C)

3. For 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

4. The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

5. Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm

(ii) A cube of side 8 cm

(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm

(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Answer: (D)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?

(A) 72

(B) 73

(D) 75

Answer: (A)

7. A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20

(B) 48

(D) 72

Answer: (C)

8. To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?

(A) 30,000

(B) 2,70,000

(D) 4,20,000

Answer: (D)

9. If 𝑥² + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 what is the value of

(A) 1

(B) 5

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

10. In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006. The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above data.

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.

(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

Answer: (A)

Biotechnology

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Consider an unfair coin. The probability of getting heads is 0.6. If you toss this coin twice, what is the probability that the first or the second toss is heads?

(A) 0.56

(B) 0.64

(D) 0.96

Answer: (C)

2. If serum is removed from the growth medium of human embryonic kidney cell line (HEK), then the cells will

(A) proliferate faster

(B) proliferate normally

(D) undergo immediate apoptosis

Answer: (C)

3. The repeat sequence of telomere in humans is

(A) 5′-TATAAT-3′

(B) 5′-TTAGGG-3′

(D) 5′-AAAAAA-3′

Answer: (B)

4. If a segment of a sense strand of DNA is 5-ATGGACCAGA-3, then the resulting RNA sequence after transcription is

(A) 5′-AGACCAGGTA-3′

(B) 5′-UCUGGUCCAU-3′

(D) 5′-AUGGACCAGA-3′

Answer: (D)

5. Which one of the following is an example of a neurotoxin?

(A) Cholera toxin

(B) Streptolysin-O

(D) Diphtheria toxin

Answer: (C)

6. Which of the following components constitute a molecular mechanics force field?

P. Bond stretching

Q. Bond angle bending

R. Torsional bond rotation

S. Non-bonded interactions

(A) P and Q only

(B) P, Q and R only

(D) P, Q, R and S

Answer: (D)

7. Which one of the following BLAST search programs is used to identify homologs of a genomic DNA query in a protein sequence database?

(A) blastp

(B) blastn

(D) tblastn

Answer: (C)

8. A mixture contains three similarly sized peptides P, Q and R. The peptide P is positively charged, Q is weakly negative and R is strongly negative. If this mixture is passed through an ion-exchange chromatography column containing an anionic resin, their order of elution will be

(A) P, Q, R

(B) R, Q, P

(D) P, Q and R elute together

Answer: (B)

9. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about protein structures?

(A) A protein fold is stabilized by favorable non-covalent interactions

(B) All parts of a fold can be classified as helices, strands or turns

(D) The peptide bond is nearly planar

Answer: (B)

10. Which one of the following metabolic processes in mammalian cells does NOT occur in the mitochondria?

(A) Citric acid cycle

(B) Oxidative phosphorylation

(D) Glycolysis

Answer: (D)

11. Which one of the following is NOT a principal component of innate immunity?

(A) Mucosal epithelia

(B) Dendritic cells

(D) Memory B-cells

Answer: (D)

12. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to study conformational changes in myoglobin?

P. Mass spectrometry

Q. Fluorescence spectroscopy

R. Circular dichroism spectroscopy

S. Light microscopy

(A) P only

(B) P and S only

(D) S only

Answer: (C)

13. Which one of the following bioreactor configurations is the basis for a trickling biological filter?

(A) Stirred tank

(B) Packed bed

(D) Fluidized bed

Answer: (B)

14. Cell type A secretes molecule X into the culture medium. Cell type B in the same culture responds to the molecule X by expressing protein Y. Which one of the following modes of signaling represents the interaction between A and B?

(A) Autocrine

(B) Juxtacrine

(D) Intracrine

Answer: (C)

15. Which one of the following statements is true for actin?

(A) Actin filament is structurally polarized and the two ends are not identical

(B) De novo actin polymerization is a single-step process

(D) Actin forms spindle fibers during mitosis

Answer: (A)

16. Standard error is

(A) the probability of a type I error in a statistical test

(B) the error in estimating a sample standard deviation

(D) the standard deviation of distribution of sample means

Answer: (D)

17. Which one of the following techniques is used to monitor RNA transcripts, both temporally and spatially?

(A) Northern blotting

(B) In situ hybridization

(D) Western blotting

Answer: (B)

18. Identify the character based method(s) used for the construction of a phylogenetic tree.

P. Maximum parsimony

Q. Neighbor joining

R. Maximum likelihood

S. Bootstrapping

(A) Q only

(B) P and R only

(D) S only

Answer: (B)

19. Which one of the following is the solution for 𝑐𝑜𝑠²𝑥 + 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 1 = 0, for values of 𝑥 in the range of 0°<𝑥<360°?

(A) 45°

(B) 90°

(D) 270°

Answer: (C)

20. Which one of the following plant secondary metabolites is a natural insecticide?

(A) Digitoxin

(B) Pyrethrin

(D) Avenacin A-1

Answer: (B)

21. The determinant of the matrix is _________

Answer: (-10 to -10)

22. T he variable 𝑧 has a standard normal distribution. If 𝑃(0 ≤ 𝑧 ≤ 1) = 0.34, then 𝑃(𝑧² > 1) is equal to (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (0.32 to 0.32)

23. T he absorbance of a solution of tryptophan measured at 280 nm in a cuvette of 2.0 cm path length is 0.56 at pH 7. The molar extinction coefficient (ε) for tryptophan at 280 nm is 5600 M-1cm-1 at pH 7. The concentration of tryptophan (in μM) in the solution is _________

Answer: (50 to 50)

24. A single stem cell undergoes 10 asymmetric cell divisions. The number of stem cells at the end is _________

Answer: (1 to 1)

25. G enomic DNA isolated from a bacterium was digested with a restriction enzyme that recognizes a 6-base pair (bp) sequence. Assuming random distribution of bases, the average length (in bp) of the fragments generated is _________

Answer: (4096 to 4096)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. In leguminous plants, both the rhizobium genes and the plant genes influence nodulation and nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following functions is NOT encoded by the host plant genes?

(A) Production of inducers that modify rhizobial cell wall

(B) Production of flavonoid inducers

(D) Root hair curling

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following cytokines are endogenous pyrogens?

P. Tumor necrosis factor-α

Q. Interleukin-1

R. Transforming growth factor-β

S. Interleukin-10

(A) P and Q only

(B) P and R only

(D) Q and S only

Answer: (A)

28. Match the classes of RNA molecules in Group I with their functions in Group II.

(A) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Answer: (D)

29. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion: Ab initio gene finding algorithms that predict protein coding genes in eukaryotic genomes are not completely accurate.

Reason: Eukaryotic splice sites are difficult to predict.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are false

(B) [a] is true but [r] is false

(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

Answer: (C)

30. Which one of the following amino acids is catalyzed by activated macrophages to produce reactive nitrogen species?

(A) Arginine

(B) Asparagine

(D) Histidine

Answer: (A)

31. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion: The association constant in water for the G-C base pair is three times lower than that for the A-T base pair.

Reason: There are three hydrogen bonds in the G-C base pair and two in the A-T base pair.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) [a] is false but [r] is true

(D) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

Answer: (B)

32. Which one of the combinations of the following statements is true about antibody structure?

P. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the enzyme pepsin generates two antigen-binding regions (Fab) and an Fc fragment

Q. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the enzyme papain generates a single bivalent antigen-binding region F(ab′)2 and peptide fragments

R. The Fc fragment of IgG can self-associate and crystallize into a lattice S. The F(ab′)2 fragment of IgG is composed of both light and heavy chains

(A) P and Q only

(B) P and R only

(D) Q and S only

Answer: (C)

33. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to processing and presentation of protein antigens?

(A) In the class II MHC pathway, protein antigens in the cytosol are processed by proteasomes

(B) In the class I MHC pathway, extracellular protein antigens are endocytosed into vesicles and processed

(C) In the class I MHC pathway, transporter associated antigen processing (TAP) protein is required for translocating rocessed peptides generated in the cytosol

(D) Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is involved in transport of peptides and loading of class I MHC

Answer: (C)

34. Which of the following are true about bacterial superoxide dismutase?

P. Present in obligate aerobes

Q. Present in facultative anaerobes

R. Present in aerotolerant anaerobes

S. Absent in obligate aerobes

(A) P and Q only

(B) P, Q and R only

(D) Q and S only

Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following are true with regard to anaerobic respiration in bacteria?

P. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic substance other than molecular oxygen

Q. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule is more than that produced in aerobic respiration

R. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule is less than that produced in aerobic respiration

S. Only substrate level phosphorylation is used to generate ATP

(A) P and S only

(B) Q and S only

(D) P, Q and S only

Answer: (C)

36. Shear stress versus shear rate behavior of four different types of fluids (I, II, III and IV) are shown in the figure below.

Which one of the following options is correct?

(A) I-Newtonian, II-Bingham plastic, III-Dilatant, IV-Pseudoplastic

(B) I-Pseudoplastic, II-Dilatant, III-Newtonian, IV-Bingham plastic

(D) I-Newtonian, II-Bingham plastic, III-Pseudoplastic, IV-Dilatant

Answer: (D)

37. An analysis of DNA-protein interactions was carried out using all DNA-protein complexes in the protein data bank (PDB). The frequency distribution of four amino acid residues, represented as P, Q, R and S, occurring in non-covalent interactions between the protein and DNA backbone is shown below.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) P-Lys, Q-Arg, R-Gln, S-Glu

(B) P-Gln, Q-Glu, R-Lys, S-Arg

(D) P-His, Q-Glu, R-Gln, S-Lys

Answer: (A)

38. A pedigree of an inheritable disease is shown below.

What type of inheritance does the disease follow?

(A) Autosomal dominant

(B) X-linked dominant

(D) Autosomal recessive

Answer: (C)

39. Match the industrial products mentioned in Group I with their producer organisms in Group II

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (D)

40. 5′ capping of mRNA transcripts in eukaryotes involves the following events:

P. Addition of GMP on the 5′ end

Q. Removal of γ-phosphate of the triphosphate on first base at the 5′ end

R. 5′-5′ linkage between GMP and the first base at 5′ end

S. Addition of methyl group to N7 position of guanine

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events?

(A) P, Q, R, S

(B) P, R, Q, S

(D) Q, P, S, R

Answer: (C)

41. Calculate the following integral (up to two decimal places)

Answer: (5.30 to 5.34)

42. The probability distribution for a discrete random variable 𝑋 is given below.

The expectation value of 𝑋 is (up to one decimal place) _________

Answer: (2.1 to 2.1)

43. If 1+𝑟 + 𝑟²+ 𝑟3+⋯∞ = 1.5,

then, 1 + 2𝑟 + 3𝑟² + 4𝑟³+⋯∞= (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (2.25 to 2.25)

44. Moist heat sterilization of spores at 121°C follows first order kinetics as per the expression:

where, N is the number of viable spores, t is the time, kd is the rate constant and is the rate of change of viable spores.

If k_d value is 1.0 min^-1, the time (in minutes) required to reduce the number of viable spores from an initial value of 10¹⁰ to a final value of 1 is (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (23.02 to 23.04)

45. An aqueous solution containing 6.8 mg/L of an antibiotic is extracted with amyl acetate. If the partition coefficient of the antibiotic is 170 and the ratio of water to solvent is 85, then the extraction factor is _________

Answer: (2 to 2)

46. A microbial strain is cultured in a 100 L stirred fermenter for secondary metabolite production. If the specific rate of oxygen uptake is 0.4 h^-1 and the oxygen solubility in the broth is 8 mg/L, then the volumetric mass transfer coefficient (KLa) (in s^-1) of oxygen required to achieve a maximum cell concentration of 12 g/L is (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (0.16 to 0.17)

47. In a chemostat, the feed flow rate and culture volume are 100 ml/h and 1.0 L, respectively. With glucose as substrate, the values of μ_max and K_s are 0.2 h^-1 and 1 g/L, respectively. For a glucose concentration of 10 g/L in the feed, the effluent substrate concentration (in g/L) is _________

Answer: (1 to 1)

48. Mammalian cells in active growth phase were seeded at a density of 1×10⁵ cells/ml. After 72 hours, 1×10⁶ cells/ml were obtained. The population doubling time of the cells in hours is (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (21.00 to 22.00)

49. Y east converts glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide by glycolysis as per the following reaction:

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂

Assuming complete conversion, the amount of ethanol produced (in g) from 200 g of glucose is (up to two decimal places) _________

Answer: (102.00 to 103.00)

50. At the end of a batch culture, glucose solution is added at a flow rate of 200 ml/h. If the culture volume after 2 h of glucose addition is 1000 ml, the initial culture volume (in ml) is _________

Answer: (600 to 600)

51. Consider the following alignment of two DNA sequences:

Assuming an affine gap scoring scheme of an identity matrix for substitution, a gap initiation penalty of 1 and a gap extension penalty of 0.1, the score of the alignment is (up to one decimal place) _________

Answer: (1.8 to 1.9)

52. First order deactivation rate constants for soluble and immobilized amyloglucosidase enzyme are 0.03 min^-1 and 0.005 min^-1, respectively. The ratio of half-life of the immobilized enzyme to that of the soluble enzyme is (rounded off to the nearest integer) _________

Answer: (6 to 6)

53. Consider a simple uni-substrate enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. When the enzyme catalyzed reaction was carried out in the presence of 10 nM concentration of an inhibitor, there was no change in the maximal velocity. However, the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot increased 3-fold. The dissociation constant for the enzyme-inhibitor complex (in nM) is _________

Answer: (5 to 5)

54. The product of complete digestion of the plasmid shown below with EcoRI and HaeIII was purified and used as a template in a reaction containing Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase, dNTPs and [α-³²P]-dATP in a suitable reaction buffer. The product thus obtained was purified and subjected to gel electrophoresis followed by autoradiography.

The number of bands that will appear on the X-ray film is _________

Answer: (2 to 2)

55. A rod shaped bacterium has a length of 2 μm, diameter of 1 μm and density the same as that of water. If proteins constitute 15% of the cell mass and the average protein has a mass of 50 kDa, the number of proteins in the cell is _________
(1 Da = 1.6 × 10^-24g)

Answer: (2900000 to 3200000)

GATE Exam 2018 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

June 7, 2023November 19, 2018 by suresh84

Architecture and Planning

General Aptitude (GA) Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. “ When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares

(B) stairs, stairs

(D) stares, stares

Answer: (A)

2. “ In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) rational

(B) reasonable

(D) good

Answer: (C)

3. For 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

4. The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

5. Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm

(ii) A cube of side 8 cm

(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm

(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Answer: (D)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 72

(B) 73

(D) 75

Answer: (A)

7. A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20

(B) 48

(D) 72

Answer: (C)

(A) 30,000

(B) 2,70,000

(D) 4,20,000

Answer: (D)

9. If 𝑥² + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 what is the value of

(A) 1

(B) 5

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.

(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

Answer: (A)

Architecture and Planning

1. In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are

(A) Tertiary

(B) Complementary

(D) Primary

Answer: (D)

2. In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of vanishing points is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 6

Answer: (C)

3. The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

(A) 25 kg/sqm

(B) 25 N/sqmm

(D) 2.5 N/sqmm

Answer: (B)

4.In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried out for determining

(A) Late start and early finish time

(B) Early start and early finish time

(D) Early start and late finish time

Answer: (B)

5. Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to

(A) Wind load failure

(B) Foundation failure

(D) Thermal performance failure of structural steel

Answer: (D)

6. During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building materials to the upper floors is a

(A) Goods lift

(B) Capsule lift

(D) Tower crane

Answer: (D)

7. A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

(A) Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur

(B) Kailasa Temple, Ellora

(D) Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi

Answer: (B)

8. ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of

(A) Smart City Mission

(B) Digital India Mission

(D) Atal Innovation Mission

Answer: (A)

9. In mass transportation, LRTS stands for

(A) Light Rail Transit System

(B) Linear Rail Transit System

(D) Linear Rail Transportation System

Answer: (A)

10. The structural grid type shown in the figure below is a

(A) Tartan Grid

(B) Square Grid

(D) Irregular Grid

Answer: (A)

11. Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index

(A) Increases with increase in air velocity

(B) Decreases with increase in wet-bulb temperature

(D) Increases with increase in vapour pressure

Answer: (D)

12. Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for

(A) Heritage Rejuvenation Implementation Development Aayog Yojana

(B) Heritage Review Implementation Development Augmentation Yojana

(D) Heritage City Improvement and Development Aawas Yojana

Answer: (C)

13. As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (URDPFI) guidelines, the plan period considered in a ‘Perspective plan’ is

(A) 1-10 years

(B) 11-15 years

(D) 35-45 years

Answer: (C)

14. The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by

(A) Charles Correa

(B) Raj Rewal

(D) A. P. Kanvinde

Answer: (B)

15. As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum turning radius (in metres) required for fire tender movement is

(A) 8.0

(B) 8.5

(D) 9.5

Answer: (C)

16. Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in

(A) Ajmer

(B) Allahabad

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (C)

17. ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of

(A) Road intersection

(B) Fenestration

(D) Auditorium

Answer: (A)

18. In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

(A) Land renewal

(B) Land rejuvenation

(D) Land readjustment

Answer: (D)

19. Bamboo is a type of

(A) Shrub

(B) Timber

(D) Perennial grass

Answer: (D)

20. According to the UN, one of the components for measuring ‘inclusive growth’ is

(A) Economic well-being

(B) Physical infrastructure

(D) Life expectancy

Answer: (A or B Or C)

21. The unit of measurement of Damp Proof Course (DPC) in building construction is

(A) kg

(B) cum

(D) rm

Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following is NOT a Building Information Modeling software tool

(A) Adobe Illustrator

(B) Bentley Microstation

(D) Graphisoft ARCHICAD

Answer: (A)

23. The concentric circles in a solar chart represent

(A) Azimuth angle

(B) Altitude angle

(D) Vertical shadow angle

Answer: (B)

24. A room of 3m × 3m × 3m has a reverberation time of 0.8 sec. Using Sabine’s method, the total absorption in the room is _____________ sabin (up to one decimal place).

Answer: (5.3 to 5.7)

25. A 25 storeyed building has 5 lifts. The resulting waiting time is 35 sec and ‘Return Travel Time’ is 175 sec. The number of lifts required for reducing waiting time to 25 sec, without increasing the lift speed, is _______________

Answer: (7.0 to 7.0)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Match the planning documents in Group-I with their respective government schemes in Group-II

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Answer: (D)

27. Associate the fire safety requirements for high rise buildings in Group-I with corresponding standards of the National Building Code of India 2016 in Group-II

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Answer: (C)

28. Match the photometric quantities in Group-I with their respective units in Group-II

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Answer: (D)

29. Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Answer: (D)

30. Match the elements in Group-I with the building components in Group-II

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Answer: (D)

31. Match the iconic architectural examples in Group-I with their predominant structural systems in Group-II

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Answer: (C)

32. Match the building materials in Group-I with their distinctive properties in Group-II

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Answer: (B)

33. Match the built forms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Answer: (C)

34. Match the building configuration characteristics in Group-I with their seismic consequences in Group-II

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Answer: (B)

35. Match the landscaping terms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Answer: (A)

36. Match the planning principles in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

Answer: (A)

37. Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Answer: (C)

38. Match the Temples in Group-I with their Dynastic period in Group-II

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Answer: (A)

39. Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

Answer: (A)

40. Match the following urban conservation themes in Group-I with their respective descriptions in Group-II

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-3, S-5

Answer: (B)

41. A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W. Considering a voltage of 110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current drawn is ___________ Amp (up to one decimal place).

Answer: (3.7 to 3.8)

42. A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If the rainfall is 60 mm per hour and the loss during water storage is 20%, then the time taken to fill the tank completely is_______ hours.

Answer: (15.0 to 15.0)

43. The planning norms for provision of schools in a given town is shown in the table below

Total land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 200,000 is ___________ hectares.

Answer: (104 to 104)

44. In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential to commercial floor area is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS) needed per 100 sqm of residential and commercial floor area is 1.0 and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR utilization, the total parking requirement is ____________ ECS.

Answer: (440 to 440)

45. A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average unit cost of land development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin is 20%, then the selling price of land per hectare is __________ million INR.

Answer: (600 to 600)

46. An isolated enclosure shown in the Figure has inlet P and outlet Q of 2 sqm each, on the opposite walls. The outdoor wind speed is 5 m/sec. If the coefficient of effectiveness is 0.6, the rate of natural ventilation in the enclosure due to wind action is _________ cum/hr.

Answer: (21600 to 21600)

47. A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration is 10 sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC. The air to air transmittance values for 230 mm thick brick wall and 200 mm thick aerated concrete block wall are 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqm degC respectively. If the brick walls are replaced with the aerated concrete block walls, then the change in conductive heat flow through the walls is _________W.

Answer: (69.5 to 70.5)

48. For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days and ‘most-likely time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration is______ days (up to one decimal place).

Answer: (7.8 to 7.9)

49. In the Figure, the negative bending moment at point A of the cantilever is ________ kNm.

Answer: (224 to 226)

50. The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an average household size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total use is met with recycled water supply, the daily domestic demand for the building is _________ litres.

Answer: (8100 to 8100)

51. In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is ________ (up to two decimal places).

Answer: (5 to 9)

52. The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering an atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m distance from the source is _______ dB.

Answer: (58 to 60)

53. The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a single column, is 12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is 10 ton/sqm and the factor of safety is 1.5, the area of column footing is _____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).

Answer: (4.0 to 5.0)

54. The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7 and the design sky illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary artificial lighting is ____________ Lux.

Answer: (107 to 107)

55. Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared for built up area. Floor to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B is 4.5 m. If the maximum allowable building height is 45 m with same ground coverage for both options, the additional built up area achievable in Option A over Option B is______percent.

Answer: (20 to 20)

GATE Exam 2018 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Question Paper With Answer Key

June 7, 2023November 19, 2018 by suresh84

Agricultural Engineering

General Aptitude (GA) Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. “ When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares

(B) stairs, stairs

(D) stares, stares

Answer: (A)

2. “ In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) rational

(B) reasonable

(D) good

Answer: (C)

3. For 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

4. The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

5. Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm

(ii) A cube of side 8 cm

(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm

(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Answer: (D)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 72

(B) 73

(D) 75

Answer: (A)

7. A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20

(B) 48

(D) 72

Answer: (C)

(A) 30,000

(B) 2,70,000

(D) 4,20,000

Answer: (D)

9. If 𝑥² + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 what is the value of

(A) 1

(B) 5

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.

(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

Answer: (A)

Agricultural Engineering

1. The general solution to the second order linear homogeneous differential equation y″ – 6y′ + 25y = 0 is

(A) e^3x(a cos 4x + b sin 4x)

(B) e^3ix(a cos 4x + b sin 4x)

(D) e^4ix(a cos 3x + b sin 3x)

Answer: (A)

2. Solution of f(x) = x⁴ +2 x³ – 4 x² + 3 x – 1 = 0 is

(A) 0.333

(B) 0.646

(D) 1.000

Answer: (C)

3. Integration of is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D)

4. The type of the sequence is

(A) oscillatory

(B) bounded

(D) diverging

Answer: (C)

5. For accepting or rejecting a null hypothesis, which one of the following is NOT used as a significance test method in statistics?

(A) Z-test

(B) Student’s t-test

(D) Relative standard deviation

Answer: (D)

6. For a two-wheel drive tractor, use of differential lock in adverse field condition ensures

(A) equal distribution of torque to both the drive wheels.

(B) equal distribution of power to both the drive wheels.

(D) distribution of higher amount of torque to the wheel under better traction.

Answer: (D)

7. During field evaluation of a combine harvester, total grain collected at the grain tank was 135 kg. Amount of threshed grain found over walker and shoe were 0.65 kg and 2.4 kg, respectively. Unthreshed grain lost with straw and chaff were 4.54 kg and 0.28 kg, respectively. Threshing efficiency of the combine harvester in percent is

(A) 94.37

(B) 94.49

(D) 96.63

Answer: (D)

8. Match the following items of Column I with the corresponding items of Column II:

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Answer: (B)

9. Constituents of the producer gas contributing to its heating value are

(A) CO and CO₂

(B) CH₄ and CO₂

(D) CO₂ and H₂

Answer: (C)

10. One of the key assumptions made by Dupuit-Forchheimer about the flow behavior in the porous medium towards subsurface drains is

(A) homogeneous medium

(B) isotropic medium

(D) uniform recharge

Answer: (C)

11. The depths from the soil surface to subsurface tile drains, impermeable soil layer and the highest water table are measured as 2.8 m, 5.0 m and 0.8 m, respectively. The effective hydraulic head for drainage in meter is

(A) 0.8

(B) 2.0

(D) 4.2

Answer: (B)

12. The discharge from a sprinkler nozzle depends on

(A) operating pressure and nozzle geometry.

(B) operating pressure and distribution pattern.

(D) operating pressure and application rate.

Answer: (A)

13. If the void ratio of a soil column is 0.43, the soil porosity is

(A) 0.30

(B) 0.40

(D) 0.75

Answer: (A)

14. Which one of the following is a WRONG statement?

(A) The head generated by a centrifugal pump at zero discharge is the ‘shutoff head’.

(B) To avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps, the net positive suction head should be more than the theoretical atmospheric pressure.

(D) Most of the turbine pumps have operational characteristics closer to those of the centrifugal pumps than the propeller pumps.

Answer: (B)

15. If the departure and latitude of a line during Theodolite survey are 70.03 m and -100 m, respectively, the whole circle bearing of this line in degree is

(A) 55

(B) 125

(D) 145

Answer: (D)

16. Convective film heat transfer coefficient (h) of air (thermal conductivity=0.025 W m-1 K^-1) in W m-2 K^-1, trapped between two parallel glass panes in a window 1.5 mm apart, is

(A) 3.75

(B) 16.67

(D) 60.21

Answer: (B)

17. Log mean temperature difference (LMTD) correction factor (F) is applicable to

(A) Spiral tube heat exchanger

(B) Steam jacketed kettle

(D) Evaporator tubes

Answer: (C)

18. Which one of the following statements related to parboiling of paddy is NOT correct?

(A) Irreversible granule swelling occurs during heating.

(B) Parboiling process is used to salvage wet or damaged paddy.

(D) Milling yield of paddy increases due to starch gelatinization.

Answer: (C)

19. In refining of the rice bran oil for edible purpose, neutralization process is carried out mainly to remove

(A) wax and organic impurities

(B) gums and mucilage

(D) free fatty acids

Answer: (D)

20. Which one of the following chemicals is NOT used for fumigation in either horizontal or vertical storage structures to kill insects?

(A) Methyl bromide

(B) Phosphine

(D) Silver sulphate

Answer: (D)

21. Match the following agricultural/food by-products in Column I with their respective value added products in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Answer: (B)

22. An epicyclic gear train consists of a sun gear, four planet gears pinned on a planet carrier (which is mounted on the sun gear) and a fixed ring gear (in which the entire sun-planet gear assembly is inserted). If the ring gear has 56 teeth and each planet gear has 18 teeth, the number of teeth on the sun gear is _______.

Answer: (20.00 to 20.00)

23. A self-propelled power reaper with a 1.2 m wide cutter bar was operated at a forward speed of 4 km h^-1. Turning loss during operation was observed to be 25 minutes per hectare. Neglecting any other losses, the field efficiency of the reaper will be ________%.

Answer: (83.00 to 84.00)

24. T he porosity and compressibility of a 7.8 m thick confined aquifer are 0.25 and 1×10^-8 m² N^-1, respectively. The storage coefficient of the aquifer is 6.5×10^-4. To release 650 m³ of water from 1 km² of this aquifer, the average decline in hydraulic head will be ________m.

Answer: (1.00 to 1.00)

25. Molecular diffusivity (DAB) of water vapour in air is 2.6×10^-5 m² s^-1 over an effective distance of 3 mm. Density and coefficient of viscosity of air are 1.2 kg m^-3 and 2×10^-5 kg m^-1 s^-1, respectively. Sherwood Number (NSh) for water vapour in air is _________.

Answer: (1.00 to 1.00)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Rank of a matrix is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

27. A particle is subjected to forces P = 2 i – 5 j + 6 k and Q = – i + 2 j – k. The positional vectors are Work done by the resultant force (F = P + Q) to move the particle from A to B is

(A) 2

(B) -5

(D) -15

Answer: (D)

28. A two-wheel drive tractor weighing 18 kN has a wheel base 1.8 m. Its centre of gravity is located 600 mm ahead of the rear axle centre, under static condition, on a level ground. When this tractor is used to pull a disc plough hitched at a height of 390 mm from the ground, the draft observed is 6 kN. The change in reaction on rear wheels of the tractor due to pull in kN is

(A) 1.30

(B) 1.95

(D) 5.85

Answer: (A)

29. Match the following items in Column I with the corresponding items in Column II:

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3, T-1

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5, T-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4, T-5

Answer: (C)

30. T he velocity (v) of a tractor, which starts from rest, is given at fixed intervals of time (t) as follows:

Using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule, the distance covered by the tractor in 20 minutes will be _________m.

Answer: (25.80 to 25.90)

31. In a box, there are 2 red, 3 black and 4 blue coloured balls. The probability of drawing 2 blue balls in sequence without replacing, and then drawing 1 black ball from this box is _________%.

Answer: (6.80 to 7.20)

32. An open belt drive system transmits 5 kW power using a flat belt of width and thickness as 80 mm and 5 mm, respectively. The driving shaft speed is 1500 rpm and the driven shaft speed is 500 rpm. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.20, and the wrap angle of the belt is 168°. If diameter of the smaller pulley is 200 mm, maximum stress induced in the belt will be _________ MPa.

Answer: (1.70 to 1.80)

33. A 2m³ biogas plant is to be operated using cow-dung as feedstock. The cow-dung is mixed with water in proportion of 1:1 (by weight) to form a slurry of density 1090 kg m^-3. The yield of biogas is 0.036 m³ kg^-1 of cow-dung. If the hydraulic retention time is 40 days, volume of the digester of the biogas plant will be ________ m³.

Answer: (3.90 to 4.20)

34. A power tiller with diesel engine produces 12 kW of brake power with a brake thermal efficiency of 30%. If the air-fuel ratio in the combustion process is 14:1 and heating value of the fuel is 45 MJ kg^-1, air consumption rate of the engine will be ________ kg h^-1.

Answer: (44.50 to 45.00)

35. Air enters into an engine cylinder at a pressure of 100 kPa and temperature of 300 K in the suction stroke of an ideal Otto cycle. The cylinder clearance volume is 600 cm³ and compression ratio is 8:1. The expansion stroke of the cycle is polytropic in nature. The pressure at the beginning of the expansion stroke is 10 MPa and the temperature at the end of the expansion stroke is 1800 K. The polytropic exponent of the expansion stroke is ________.

Answer: (1.30 to 1.39)

36. A tractor drawn five-tine sweep type cultivator is set at an angle (load angle) of 45° with the soil surface during its operation. The sweep of each tine experiences a normal force of 960 N on its surface. If the coefficient of soil-metal friction is 0.3, the total draft requirement of the cultivator is ________ kN.

Answer: (4.35 to 4.45)

37. A two-wheel drive tractor with rear wheel rolling radius of 600 mm develops a tractive force of 18.5 kN at a wheel slip of 12%. The engine speed is 2400 rpm and the transmission ratio from the engine to the rear wheels is 120:1. If the tractor experiences a motion resistance of 1.75 kN, the drawbar power developed by the tractor will be ________ kW.

Answer: (18.00 to 21.00)

38. A single plate dry clutch transmits 15 kW power at 1200 rpm. The clutch sustains a maximum axial load of 2.65 kN. The ratio of outer to inner diameter of the frictional surface is 1.25:1. Considering uniform wear with a coefficient of friction of 0.3 on both the frictional surfaces, the outer diameter of the clutch plate is ________ mm.

Answer: (166.00 to 168.00)

39. A precision seed planter can plant 10 seeds per revolution of the metering plate with a row to row distance of 450 mm at a speed of 6 km h^-1. A plant population of 36 plants per square meter is desired for the crop. The germination percentage of the seed is 90%. If the planter ground wheel has a rolling radius of 350 mm, the speed ratio of metering plate to the ground wheel required to obtain the desired plant population is ________.

Answer: (3.90 to 4.10)

40. The elevations of pressure gauge and porous cup of the tensiometer installed in unsaturated zone are 145.8 m and 144.2 m, respectively. Pressure measured at the gauge is -19.62×10³ N m^-2. The specific weight of water is 9810 N m^-3. The estimated pressure at the porous cup is ________ N m^-2.

Answer: (-3924 to -3924)

41. The drawdown at the well face of a 30 cm diameter fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer is 3 m. The radius of influence of this well is 3 km. For the same discharge and aquifer condition, the drawdown at 300 m away from the centre of the well is ______m.

Answer: (0.68 to 0.71)

42. A permanent matured orchard has a tree spacing of 4 m×5 m. Each tree has a shading area of 40% to be irrigated with the ‘pig tail’ pattern multi-exit drip emitters. The effective wetting geometry of each emitter is 2 m×2 m. The emitters have discharge constant and exponent of 0.3 and 0.6, respectively. The coefficient of variation of emitter discharge is 0.06. The average and minimum operating pressures are 120 kPa and 100 kPa, respectively. The emission uniformity of the emitters is ________%.

Answer: (83 to 86)

43. The 6-hour unit hydrograph of a watershed is represented by an isosceles triangle with the peak of 180 m³ s^-1 and time to peak of 18 hours. The phi-index (∅) of this watershed is 3.0 mm h^-1 and the constant baseflow is 20 m³ s^-1. The accumulated rainfall received in this watershed at 6 h and 12 h from the start of the storm are 38 mm and 106 mm, respectively. The resulting peak of the flood hydrograph due to this storm event is _______ m³ s^-1.

Answer: (1280 to 1280)

44. Three geometrically identical Lysimeters (A, B and C) installed in a paddy field have uniform initial ponding depths of 12 cm. After a week, the recorded water depths in A, Band C are 10.4 cm, 8.6 cm, and 7.0 cm, respectively. Rainfall received during this week is 15 mm, and the crop coefficient of paddy is 0.94. Lysimeter ‘A’ has a closed bottom with no plant. Lysimeter ‘B’ has an open bottom with no plant. Lysimeter ‘C’ has an open bottom with paddy plants. Neglecting the boundary effects and groundwater contribution in the Lysimeters, the weekly potential evapotranspiration will be _______ cm.

Answer: (5.00 to 5.00)

45. A rectangular chute spillway is designed for gully erosion control with a drop (H) of 5 m, peak flow of 1.81 m³ s^-1 and maximum inlet water level of 0.81 m. Frictional head loss over the apron is 20% of H. The design height of chute blocks is equal to the depth of flow in the water way. Acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.81 m s^-2. If coefficient of discharge of the weir section is 1.66, height of the chute blocks is _______m.

Answer: (0.13 to 0.14)

46. Furrows of 120 m length with 0.5% slope are made at 90 cm spacing. The maximum nonerosive stream flow rate is applied in a furrow that takes 1.0 hour to reach the lower end. Then this flow rate is reduced to half of its size and, subsequently, continued for another 1.0 hour. The average depth of applied water is ________ cm.

Answer: (6.00 to 6.00)

47. A cylindrical tank of 1.5 m diameter and 4 m height is filled with a liquid by a pipe of 2.5 cm internal diameter. The density and dynamic viscosity of the liquid are 1050 kg m^-3and 1.6×10^-3 N s m^-2, respectively. If flow in the pipe is turbulent, the maximum time required to fill the tank is _______ hours.

Answer: (16.30 to 16.50)

48. In a falling film evaporator, the inside and outside diameters of the tube wall are 25 mm and 27 mm, respectively. The tube is made of SS304 (thermal conductivity=15 W m^-1 K^-1) and the inside convective film coefficient is 750 W m^-2 K^-1. Outside the tube wall, film coefficient of condensing steam is 7175 W m^-2 K^-1. Based on the inside area of the tube, the overall heat transfer coefficient is __________ W m^-2 K^-1.

Answer: (650 to 670)

49. Mass flow rate of outside air through a duct is 735 kg h^-1. Absolute humidity of air is 0.025 kg water vapour per kg dry air at 40°C. This air is mixed with equal quantity of moist exhaust air coming out of a counter current dryer at 55°C. The mixed air is heated up to 75°C to dry barley, fed at 174 kg h^-1 , at an initial moisture content of 31% (wet basis) to a final value of 7% (dry basis). The absolute humidity of the exhaust air from the dryer in ‘kg water vapour per kg dry air’ will be ________.

Answer: (0.086 to 0.089)

50. One ton of marine fishery products are to be brought down from 32°C temperature to -18°C in half an hour time using a plate freezer. The freezing point of 85% water (based on total mass of the product) present in the fish is -0.3°C. Specific heat capacities of fresh and frozen fish solids (15% of total mass) are 3.2 and 1.8 kJ kg^-1 K^-1, respectively. Specific heat capacity of fresh water is 4.2 kJ kg^-1 K^-1 and that of ice is 2.2 kJ kg^-1 K^-1. Latent heat of crystallization of water is 335 kJ kg^-1. For freezing the products, the compressor power consumption with a vapour compression refrigeration cycle (coefficient of performance, 3.66) is_________ kW.

Answer: (68.00 to 69.00)

51. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is having decimal reduction time of 13.5 s at 72°C. The count of the organism is to be reduced by eight logarithmic cycles in milk pasteurization with adequate holding at a temperature of 85°C. If Q₁₀ value for the organism is 7.5, the minimum holding time for the desired sterility of this particular organism at 85°C is_________ seconds.

Answer: (7.80 to 8.00)

52. A horizontal screw conveyor of length 3.2 m conveys solid grain having bulk density of 725 kg m^-3. The screw diameter, shaft diameter and pitch of the screw are 0.6 m, 0.24 m and 0.48 m, respectively. If the screw is operating with 80% of its volumetric capacity at a speed of 50 rpm, the actual discharge of the screw is_________ ton h^-1.

Answer: (196.00 to 200.00)

53. In a feed milling plant, it has been observed that 80% of the feed passes through IS sieve 340 (3.25 mm opening) and 80% of the ground feed passes through IS sieve 40 (0.42 mm opening). The power requirement to crush the material with a feed rate of 3 ton h^-1 is 6 kW. Power requirement to crush 2 ton h^-1 of the same feed using the above system so that 80% of the ground feed pass through IS sieve 15 (opening 0.157 mm) is _________kW.

Answer: (7.90 to 8.10)

54. Solid food particles having nominal size of 0.2 mm with shape factor of 0.8 and density of 1040 kg m-3 are to be fluidized using air at 28°C. The density and pressure of air at the above-mentioned condition are 1.175 kg m^-3 and 1.013×10⁵ Pa, respectively. The voidage at minimum fluidizing condition is 0.48. Use the value of ‘g’ as 9.81 m s^-2. If cross section of the empty bed is 0.5 m² and contains 520 kg of solids, the pressure drop at minimum fluidization condition is _______ kPa.

Answer: (9.80 to 10.40)

55. A single strength fruit juice is concentrated from 6% total solids (TS) to 24% by ultrafiltration. The feed stream has a flow rate of 12 kg min^-1. The ultrafiltration membrane tube has an inside diameter of 80 mm and the pressure difference applied across the membrane is 2 MPa. If the permeability constant is 4×10^-5 kg water m-² kPa^-1 s^-1, the length of the membrane tube is _________m.

Answer: (7.0 to 7.6)

GATE Exam 2018 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Question Paper With Answer Key

June 7, 2023November 19, 2018 by suresh84

Aerospace Engineering

General Aptitude (GA) Set-2

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. “The dress _________ her so well that they all immediately _________ her on her appearance.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) complemented, complemented

(B) complimented, complemented

(D) complemented, complimented

Answer: (D)

2. “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though shaken by false allegations of wrongdoing, remained _________.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) undiminished

(B) damaged

(D) uncertain

Answer: (A)

3. Find the missing group of letters in the following series:

BC, FGH, LMNO, _____

(A) UVWXY

(B) TUVWX

(D) RSTUV

Answer: (B)

4. The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) The circle has the largest area.

(B) The square has the largest area.

(D) All the three shapes have the same area.

Answer: (A)

5. The value of the expression is _______.

(A) -1

(B) 0

(D) 3

Answer: (C)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each student watched either only one film or all three. Thirteen students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B and nineteen students watched film C. How many students watched all three films?

(A) 0

(B) 2

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

7. A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m², if it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into two pieces. The longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short pieces are bent into a square and a circle, respectively. Which of the following choices is closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?

(A) 1096

(B) 1111

(D) 2486

Answer: (C)

8. A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical robots were employed, each operational for 7 hours a day. After 39 days, five-seventh of the work was completed. How many additional robots would be required to complete the work on time, if each robot is now operational for 8 hours a day?

(A) 50

(B) 89

(D) 175

Answer: (Marks to All)

9. A house has a number which needs to be identified. The following three statements are given that can help in identifying the house number.

i. If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a number from 50 to 59.

ii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.

iii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.

What is the house number?

(A) 54

(B) 65

(D) 76

Answer: (D)

10. An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four different such trials are conducted. One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for tail, the following are the observations from the four trials:

(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT__ __.

Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the fourth trial has the highest probability of being correct?

(A) Two T will occur.

(B) One H and one T will occur.

(D) One H will be followed by one T.

Answer: (B)

Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Let be two distinct vectors that are not parallel. The vector is

(A) zero.

(B) orthogonal to alone.

(D) orthogonal to alone.

Answer: (D)

2. Consider the function All the roots of this function

(A) form a finite set of points.

(B) lie on an elliptical curve.

(D) lie on a hyperbolic curve.

Answer: (B)

3. Consider a vector field given by This vector field is

(A) divergence-free and curl-free.

(B) curl-free but not divergence-free.

(D) neither divergence-free nor curl-free.

Answer: (B)

4. A jet aircraft is initially flying steady and level at its maximum endurance condition. For the aircraft to fly steady and level, but faster at the same altitude, the pilot should

(A) increase thrust alone.

(B) increase thrust and increase angle of attack.

(D) reduce angle of attack alone.

Answer: (C)

5. The pilot of a conventional airplane that is flying steady and level at some altitude, deflects the port side aileron up and the starboard aileron down. The aircraft will then

(A) pitch, nose up.

(B) roll with the starboard wing up.

(D) roll with the port wing up.

Answer: (B)

6. A NACA 0012 airfoil has a trailing edge flap. The airfoil is operating at an angle of attack of 5 degrees with un-deflected flap. If the flap is now deflected by 5 degrees downwards, the C_L versus α curve

(A) shifts right and slope increases.

(B) shifts left and slope increases.

(D) shifts right and slope stays the same.

Answer: (C)

7. An airplane requires a longer ground roll to lift-off on hot summer days because

(A) the thrust is directly proportional to free-stream density.

(B) the thrust is directly proportional to weight of the aircraft.

(D) the runway friction is high on hot summer days.

Answer: (A)

8. The velocity profile in an incompressible, laminar boundary layer is shown in the figure below. U is the free-stream velocity, u(y) is the stream-wise velocity component. The area of the black shaded region in the figure below represents the

(A) boundary layer thickness.

(B) momentum thickness.

(D) shape factor.

Answer: (C)

9. The tangential velocity component ‘V’ of a spacecraft, which is in a circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around a spherical Earth (μ = GM → gravitational parameter of Earth) is given by the following expression.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

10. Equation of the trajectory of a typical space object around any planet, in polar coordinates (r, θ) (i.e. a general conic section geometry), is given as follows. (h is angular momentum, μ is gravitational parameter, e is eccentricity, r is radial distance from the planet center, θ, is angle between vectors

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C)

11. In an elliptic orbit around any planet, the location at which a spacecraft has the maximum angular velocity is

(A) apoapsis.

(B) periapsis.

(D) a point at –90° from apoapsis.

Answer: (B)

12. The pitching moment of a positively cambered NACA airfoil about its leading edge at zero-lift angle of attack is

(A) negative.

(B) positive.

(D) zero.

Answer: (A)

13. In a low-speed wind tunnel, the angular location(s) from the front stagnation point on a circular cylinder where the static pressure equals the free-stream static pressure, is

(A) ± 38°

(B) ± 30°

(D) 0°

Answer: (B)

14. A thermocouple, mounted flush in an insulated flat surface in a supersonic laminar flow of air measures the

(A) static temperature.

(B) temperature greater than static but less than total temperature.

(D) temperature greater than total temperature.

Answer: (B)

15. A shock wave is moving into still air in a shock tube. Which one of the following happens to the air?

(A) static temperature increases, total temperature remains constant.

(B) static temperature increases, total temperature increases.

(D) static pressure increases, total temperature remains constant.

Answer: (B)

16. The highest limit load factor experienced by a civil transport aircraft is in the range

(A) 0.0 – 2.0

(B) 2.0 – 5.0

(D) 8.0 – 10.0

Answer: (B)

17. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r]:

[a] A closed-section box beam configuration is used in aircraft wings.

[r] Closed-section box beam configuration is capable of resisting torsional loads.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.

Answer: (A)

18. The first law of thermodynamics is also known as conservation of

(A) mass.

(B) momentum.

(D) species.

Answer: (C)

19. In an ideal gas turbine cycle, the expansion in a turbine is represented by

(A) an isenthalpic process.

(B) an isentropic process.

(D) an isochoric process.

Answer: (B)

20. The determinant of the matrix is ______ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.0 to 0.0)

21. The theoretical maximum velocity (in m/s) of air expanding from a reservoir at 700 K is __________ (accurate to two decimal places). Specific heat of air at constant pressure is 1005 J/(kg-K).

Answer: (1185.00 to 1186.50)

22. For a damped single degree of freedom system with damping ratio of 0.1, ratio of two successive peak amplitudes of free vibration is ___________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.75 to 1.95)

23. The natural frequency (in rad/s) of the spring-mass system shown in the figure below is _____ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (2.0 to 2.0)

24. The stagnation pressures at the inlet and exit of a subsonic intake are 100 kPa and 98 kPa, respectively. The pressure recovery of this intake will be ______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.98 to 0.98)

25. A combustor is operating with a fuel-air ratio of 0.03. If the stoichiometric fuel-air ratio of the fuel used is 0.06, the equivalence ratio of the combustor will be _______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.50 to 0.50)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The solution of the differential equation given that 𝑦=0 and at 𝑥=0 is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B)

27. The relation between pressure (p) and velocity (V) for a steady, isentropic flow at two points along a streamline is, (c is a constant)

Answer: (C)

28. A thin airfoil is mounted in a low-speed, subsonic wind tunnel, in which the Mach number is 0.1. At a point on the airfoil, the pressure coefficient is measured to be –1.2. If the flow velocity is increased such that the free-stream Mach number is 0.6, the pressure coefficient at the same point on the airfoil will approximately be:

(A) –3.5

(B) –2.9

(D) –0.75

Answer: (C)

29. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is under pure torsion of magnitude T. The maximum tensile stress experienced at any point on the shaft is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D)

30. A clamped-clamped beam, subjected to a point load P at the midspan, is shown in the figure below. The magnitude of the moment reaction at the two fixed ends of the beam is

(A) PL/2

(B) PL/4

(D) PL/16

Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the state of a body in plane strain condition?

P: All the points in the body undergo displacements in one plane only, for example the x-y plane, leading to ε_zz = γ_xz = γ_yz = 0.

Q: All the components of stress perpendicular to the plane of deformation, for example the x-y plane, of the body are equal to zero, i.e. σ_zz = τ_xz = τ_yz = 0.

R: Except the normal component, all the other components of stress perpendicular to the plane of deformation of the body, for example the x-y plane, are equal to zero, i.e. σ_zz ≠ 0, τ_xz = τ_yz = 0.

(A) P only

(B) Q only

(D) P and R

Answer: (D)

32. An aircraft with a turbojet engine flies at a velocity of 100 m/s. If the jet exhaust velocity is 300 m/s, the propulsive efficiency of the engine, assuming a negligible fuel-air ratio, is

(A) 0.33

(B) 0.50

(D) 0.80

Answer: (B)

33. An aircraft with a turboprop engine produces a thrust of 500 N and flies at 100 m/s. If the propeller efficiency is 0.5, the shaft power produced by the engine is

(A) 50 kW

(B) 100 kW

(D) 500 kW

Answer: (B)

34. An axial compressor that generates a stagnation pressure ratio of 4.0, operates with inlet and exit stagnation temperatures of 300 K and 480 K, respectively. If the ratio of specific heats (𝛾) is 1.4, the isentropic efficiency of the compressor is

(A) 0.94

(B) 0.81

(D) 0.63

Answer: (B)

35. A rocket has an initial mass of 150 kg. After operating for a duration of 10 s, its final mass is 50 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s² and the thrust produced by the rocket is 19.62 kN, the specific impulse of the rocket is

(A) 400 s

(B) 300 s

(D) 100 s

Answer: (C)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

36. Consider the vector field where The contour integral is tangent to the contour that encloses the origin, is __________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (6.25 to 6.35)

37. The magnitude of the x-component of a unit vector at the point (1, 1) that is normal to equi-potential lines of the potential function is _______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.68 to 0.73)

38. Assuming ISA standard sea level conditions (288.16 K, density of 1.225 kg/m³, g = 9.81 m/s², R = 287 J/(kg-K)), the density (in kg/m³) of air at Leh, which is at an altitude of 3500 m above mean sea level is ________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.85 to 0.88)

39. Consider a cubical tank of side 2 m with its top open. It is filled with water up to a height of 1 m. Assuming the density of water to be 1000 kg/m³, g as 9.81 m/s² and the atmospheric pressure to be 100 kPa, the net hydrostatic force (in kN) on the side face of the tank due to the air and water is ______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (9.80 to 9.81)

40. An aircraft with mass of 400,000 kg cruises at 240 m/s at an altitude of 10 km. Its lift to drag ratio at cruise is 15. Assuming g as 9.81 m/s², the power (in MW) needed for it to cruise is _______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (62.00 to 63.50)

41. A statically-stable aircraft has a 𝐶_𝐿𝛼= 5 (where the angle of attack, α, is measured in radians). The coefficient of moment of the aircraft about the center of gravity is given as 𝐶_{𝑀,𝑐.𝑔}=0.05−4𝛼. The mean aerodynamic chord of the aircraft wing is 1 m. The location (positive towards the nose) of the neutral point of the aircraft from the center of gravity is ______ (in m, accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (-0.81 to -0.79)

42. An aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 kg, has a speed of 130 m/s at sea level, where the conditions are: 1 atmosphere (pressure), 288 K (temperature), and 1.23 kg/m³ (density). The speed (in m/s) required by the aircraft at an altitude of 9000 m, where the conditions are: 0.31 atmosphere, 230 K, and 0.47 kg/m³, to maintain a steady, level flight is ________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (209.00 t0 211.00)

43. A pitot probe on an aircraft in a steady, level flight records a pressure of 55,000 N/m². The static pressure and density are 45,280 N/m2 and 0.6 kg/m³, respectively. The wing area and the lift coefficient are 16 m² and 2, respectively. The wing loading (in N/m²) on this aircraft is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (18000 to 19440)

44. A spacecraft forms a circular orbit at an altitude of 150 km above the surface of a spherical Earth. Assuming the gravitational parameter, μ = 3.986 × 10¹⁴ m³/s² and radius of earth, RE = 6,400 km, the velocity required for the injection of the spacecraft, parallel to the local horizon, is _______________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (7.80 to 7.80 (or) 7800 to 7802)

45. Air at 50 kPa pressure and 400 K temperature flows in a duct at Mach 3.0. A part of the flow leaks through an opening on the duct wall into the ambient, where the pressure is 30 kPa. The maximum Mach number achieved in the discharge is _______ (accurate to two decimal places). (Ratio of specific heats of air is 𝛾=1.4).

Answer: (3.30 to 3.40)

46. Consider a 20° half-angle wedge in a supersonic flow at Mach 3.0 at standard sea-level conditions. If the shock-wave angle on the wedge is 36°, the Mach number of the tangential component of the flow post-shock is _______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.90 to 2.20)

47. The boundary layer thickness at the location of a sensor on a flat plate in an incompressible, laminar flow of air is required to be restricted to 1 mm for an effective measurement. If the flow velocity is 20 m/s with 1 bar pressure, 300 K temperature, and 1.789×10^˗5 kg/(m-s) viscosity, the maximum distance (in mm) of the sensor location from the leading edge is ________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (47.0 to 55.0)

48. Gross weight of an airplane is 7000 N, wing area is 16 m², and the maximum lift coefficient is 2.0. Assuming density at the altitude as 1.23 kg/m³, the stall speed (in m/s) of the aircraft is _________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (18.80 to 18.90)

49. A thin-walled tube with external radius of 100 mm and wall thickness of 2 mm, is fixed at one end. It is subjected to a compressive force of 1 N acting at a point on the circumference parallel to its length. The maximum normal stress (in kPa) experienced by the structure is _____________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Answer: (-2.50 to -2.20)

50. A 1 m long massless cantilever beam oscillates at 2Hz, while a 60 kg mass is attached at the tip of it. The flexural rigidity of the beam (in kN-m²) is _________________ (accurate to two decimal places)..

Answer: (3.10 to 3.20)

51. A cantilever beam having a rectangular cross-section of width 60 mm and depth 100 mm, is made of aluminum alloy. The material mechanical properties are: Young’s modulus, E = 73 GPa and ultimate stress, σ_u =480 MPa. Assuming a factor of safety of 4, the maximum bending moment (in kN-m) that can be applied on the beam is _____ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (12.0 to 12.0)

52. The components of stress in a body under plane stress condition, in the absence of body forces, is given by:

𝜎_𝑥𝑥=𝐴𝑥²; 𝜎_𝑦𝑦= 12𝑥²−6𝑦² and 𝜎_𝑥𝑦=12𝑥𝑦.

The coefficient, A, such that the body is under equilibrium is _____ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (-6.0 to -6.0)

53. An axial compressor rotor with 50 % degree of reaction, operates with an axial velocity of 200 m/s. The absolute flow angle at the inlet of the rotor is 22° with reference to the axial direction. If the axial velocity is assumed to remain constant through the rotor, the magnitude of the relative velocity (in m/s) at the rotor exit is __________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (215.0 to 216.5)

54. The relative velocity of air leaving a straight radial impeller of a centrifugal compressor is 100 m/s. If the impeller tip speed is 200 m/s, for a slip free operation, the absolute velocity (in m/s) at the impeller exit is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Answer: (222.0 to 225.0)

55. An aircraft wind tunnel model, having a pitch axis mass moment of inertia (I_yy) of 0.014 kg-m², is mounted in such a manner that it has pure pitching motion about its centre of gravity, where it is supported through a frictionless hinge. If the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to angle of attack (α), denoted by ‘M_α’, is -0.504 N-m/rad and the pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to pitch rate (q), denoted by ‘M_q’, is -0.0336 N-m/(rad/s), the damping ratio of the resulting motion due to an initial disturbance in pitch angle is approximately _________ (accurate to three decimal places).

Answer: (0.195 to 0.205)