GATE Exam 2019 Civil Engineering (CE-2) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-9

1 – 5 carry one mark each.

1. Daytime temperatures in Delhi can 40ºC.

(A) get

(B) stand

(C) reach

(D) peak

Answer: (C)

2. The growth rate of ABC Motors in 2017 was the same XYZ Motors in 2016.

(A) as off

(B) as those of

(C) as that off

(D) as that of

Answer: (D)

3. Suresh wanted to lay a new carpet in his new mansion with an area of 70 × 55 s mts. However an area of 550 s mts. had to be left out for flower pots. If the cost of carpet is Rs. 50 per s mts., how much money (in Rs.) will be spent by Suresh for the carpet now?

(A) Rs. 1,65,000

(B) Rs. 1,92,500

(C) Rs. 2,75,000

(D) Rs. 1,27,500

Answer: (A)

4. A retaining wall with measurements 30m × 12m × 6m was constructed with bricks of dimensions 8cm × 6cm × 6cm. If 60% of the wall consists of bricks, the number of bricks used for the construction is lakhs.

(A) 30

(B) 40

(C) 45

(D) 75

Answer: (C)

5. Hima Das was only Indian athlete to win _ gold for India.

(A) the, many

(B) the, a

(C) an, a

(D) an, the

Answer: (B)

6 – 10 carry two marks each.

6. Mohan, the manager, wants his four workers to work in pairs. No pair should work for more than 5 hours. Ram and John have worked together for 5 hours. Krishna and Amir have worked as a team for 2 hours. Krishna does not want to work with Ram. Whom should Mohan allot to work with John, if he wants all the workers to continue working?

(A) Amir

(B) Krishna

(C) Ram

(D) None of the three

Answer: (B)

7. Population of state X increased by x% and the population of state Y increased by y% from 2001 to 2011. Assume that x is greater than y. Let P be the ratio of the population of state X to state Y in a given year. The percentage increase in P from 2001 to 2011 is _______.

Answer: (D)

8. The Newspaper reports that over 500 hectares of tribal land spread across 28 tribal settlements in Mohinitampuram forest division have already been “alienated”. A top forest official said, “First the tribals are duped out of their land holdings. Second, the families thus rendered landless are often forced to encroach further into the forests”.

On the basis of the information available in the paragraph, is/are responsible for duping the tribals.

(A) forest officials

(B) landless families

(C) The Newspaper

(D) it cannot be inferred who

Answer: (D)

9. An oil tank can be filled by pipe X in 5 hours and pipe Y in 4 hours, each pump working on its own. When the oil tank is full and the drainage hole is open, the oil is drained in 20 hours. If initially the tank was empty and someone started the two pumps together but left the drainage hole open, how many hours will it take for the tank to be filled? (Assume that the rate of drainage is independent of the Head)

(A) 1.50

(B) 2.00

(C) 2.50

(D) 4.00

Answer: (C)

10.  “Popular Hindi fiction, despite – or perhaps because of – its wide reach, often does not appear in our cinema. As ideals that viewers are meant to look up to rather than identify with, Hindi film protagonists usually read books of aspirational value: textbooks, English books, or high value literature.”

Which one of the following CANNOT be inferred from the paragraph above?

(A) Though popular Hindi fiction has wide reach, it often does not appear in the movies

(B) Protagonists in Hindi movies, being ideals for viewers, read only books of aspirational value

(C) Textbooks, English books or high literature have aspirational value, but not popular Hindi fiction

(D) People do not look up to writers of textbooks, English books or high value literature

Answer: (B OR D)

Civil Engineering

1 – 25 carry one mark each.

1. Euclidean norm (length) of the vector [4 −2 − 6]𝑇 is

(A) √12

(B) √24

(C) √48

(D) √56

Answer: (D)

2. The Laplace transform of sinh (at) is

Answer: (A)

3. The following inequality is true for all x close to 0.

What is the value of 

(A) 0

(B) 1/2

(C) 1

(D) 2

Answer: (D)

 4. What is curl of the vector field 2𝑥2𝑦𝐢 + 5𝑧2𝐣 − 4𝑦𝑧𝐤 ?

(A) 6𝑧𝐢 + 4𝑥𝐣 − 2𝑥2𝐤

(B) 6𝑧𝐢 − 8𝑥𝑦𝐣 + 2𝑥2𝑦𝐤

(C) −14𝑧𝐢 + 6𝑦𝐣 + 2𝑥2𝐤

(D) −14𝑧𝐢 − 2𝑥2𝐤

Answer: (D)

5. A closed thin-walled tube has thickness, 𝑡, mean enclosed area within the boundary of the centerline of tube’s thickness, 𝐴m, and shear stress, 𝜏. Torsional moment of resistance, T, of the section would be

(A) 0.5𝜏𝐴𝑚𝑡

(B) 𝜏𝐴𝑚𝑡

(C) 2𝜏𝐴𝑚𝑡

(D) 4𝜏𝐴𝑚𝑡

Answer: (C)

6 A steel column is restrained against both translation and rotation at one end and is restrained only against rotation but free to translate at the other end. Theoretical and design (IS:800- 2007) values, respectively, of effective length factor of the column are

(A) 1.0 and 1.0

(B) 1.2 and 1.0

(C) 1.2 and 1.2

(D) 1.0 and 1.2

Answer: (C OR D)

7 If the finenes in the sample s modulus of a sample of fine aggregates is 4.3, the mean size of the particles is between

(A) 150 μm and 300 μm

(B) 300 μm and 600 μm

(C) 1.18 mm and 2.36 mm

(D) 2.36 mm and 4.75 mm

Answer: (C)

8. For a channel section subjected to a downward vertical shear force at its centroid, which one of the following represents the correct distribution of shear stress in flange and web?

Answer: (A)

9. Which one of the following options contains ONLY primary air pollutants?

(A) Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides

(B) Hydrocarbons and ozone

(C) Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate

(D) Nitrogen oxides and peroxyacetyl nitrate

Answer: (A)

10. Analysis of a water sample revealed that the sample contains the following species. 


Concentrations of which of the species will be required to compute alkalinity?

Answer: (A)

11. Structural fa ilures considered in the mechanistic method of bituminous pavement design are

(A) Fatigue and Rutting

(B) Fatigue and Shear

(C) Rutting and Shear

(D) Shear and Slippage

Answer: (A)

12. A solid sphere of radius, r, and made of material with density, ρs , is moving through the atmosphere (constant pressure, p) with a velocity, v. The net force ONLY due to atmospheric pressure (Fp) acting on the sphere at any time, t, is

(A) π r2 p

(B) 4π rp

(C) 

(D) zero

Answer: (D)

13. The velocity field in a flow system is given by 𝑣 = 2𝐢 + (𝑥 + 𝑦)𝐣 + (𝑥𝑦𝑧)𝐤. The acceleration of the fluid at (1, 1, 2) is

(A) 2𝐢 + 10𝐤

(B) 4𝐢 + 12𝐤

(C) 𝐣 + 𝐤

(D) 4𝐣 + 10𝐤

Answer: (D)

14. An inflow hydrograph is routed through a reservoir to produce an outflow hydrograph. The peak flow of the inflow hydrograph is PI and the time of occurrence of the peak is tI. The peak flow of the outflow hydrograph is PO and the time of occurrence of the peak is tO. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) PI < PO and tI < tO

(B) PI < PO and tI > tO

(C) PI > PO and tI < tO

(D) PI > PO and tI > tO

Answer: (C)

15. An earthen dam of height H is made of cohesive soil whose cohesion and unit weight are c and γ, respectively. If the factor of safety against cohesion is Fc, the Taylor’s stability number (Sn) is

Answer: (C)

16. The notation “SC” as per Indian Standard Soil Classification System refers to

(A) Sandy clay

(B) Silty clay

(C) Clayey silt

(D) Clayey sand

Answer: (D)

17. An anisotropic soil deposit has coefficient of permeability in vertical and horizontal directions as 𝑘𝑧 and 𝑘𝑥, respectively. For constructing a flow net, the horizontal dimension of the problem’s geometry is transformed by a multiplying factor of

Answer: (A)

18. The value of the function f(x) is given at n distinct values of x and its value is to be interpolated at the point x*, using all the n points. The estimate is obtained first by the Lagrange polynomial, denoted by IL, and then by the Newton polynomial, denoted by IN. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) IL is always greater than IN

(B) IL and IN are always equal

(C) IL is always less than IN

(D) No definite relation exists between IL and IN

Answer: (B)

19. The speed-density relationship in a mid-block section of a highway follows the Greenshield’s model. If he free flow speed is 𝑣𝑓 and the jam density is 𝑘𝑗, the maximum flow observed on this section is

Answer: (C)

20. The degree of static indeterminacy of the plane frame as shown in the figure is______

 

Answer: (15 to 15)

21. The characteristic compressive strength of concrete required in a project is 25 MPa and the standard deviation in the observed compressive strength expected at site is 4 MPa. The average compressive strength of cubes tested at different water-cement (w/c) ratios using the same material as is used for the project is given in the table.

The water-cement ratio (in percent, round off to the lower integer) to be used in the mix is______

Answer: (46 to 46)

22. The data from a closed traverse survey PQRS (run in the clockwise direction) are given in the table

The closing error for the traverse PQRS (in degrees) is__________

Answer: (3 to 3)

23. A vehicle is moving on a road of grade +4% at a speed of 20 m/s. Consider the coefficient of rolling friction as 0.46 and acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2. On applying brakes to reach a speed of 10 m/s, the required braking distance (in m, round off to nearest integer) along the horizontal, is_____

Answer: (30 to 30)

24. The command area of a canal grows only one crop, i.e., wheat. The base period of wheat is 120 days and its total water requirement, Δ, is 40 cm. If the canal discharge is 2 m3/s, the area, in hectares, rounded off to the nearest integer, which could be irrigated (neglecting all losses) is_____

Answer: (5180 to 5190)

25. Construction of a new building founded on a clayey soil was completed in January 2010. In January 2014, the average consolidation settlement of the foundation in clay was recorded as 10 mm. The ultimate consolidation settlement was estimated in design as 40 mm. Considering double drainage to occur at the clayey soil site, the expected consolidation settlement in January 2019 (in mm, round off to the nearest integer) will be _______

Answer: (15 to 15)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The probability density function of a continuous random variable distributed uniformly between x and y (for y > x) is
(A)  vertical-align: middle; margin-bottom: 1px;

(B) 

(C) x – y

(D) y – x

Answer: (B)

27. Consider the hemi-spherical tank of radius 13 m as shown in the figure (not drawn to scale). What is the volume of water (in m3) when the depth of water at the centre of the tank is 6 m?

(A) 78π

(B) 156π

(C) 396π

(D) 468π

Answer: (C)

28. An ordinary differential equation is given below.

The solution for the above equation is

(Note : K denotes a constant in the options)

(A) y = Kx ln x

(B) y – Kxex

(C) y = Kxe–x

(D) y = K ln x

Answer: (D)

29. For a plane stress problem, the state of stress at a point P is represented by the stress element as shown in figure.

By how much angle (θ) in degrees the stress element should be rotated in order to get the planes of maximum shear stress?

(A) 13.3

(B) 26.6

(C) 31.7

(D) 48.3

Answer: (C)

30. The critical bending compressive stress in the extreme fibre of a structural steel section is 1000 MPa. It is given that the yield strength of the steel is 250 MPa, width of flange is 250 mm and thickness of flange is 15 mm. As per the provisions of IS:800-2007, the non-dimensional slenderness ratio of the steel cross-section is

(A) 0.25

(B) 0.50

(C) 0.75

(D) 2.00

Answer: (B)

31. In the context of provisions relating to durability of concrete, consider the following assertions:

Assertion (1): As per IS 456-2000, air entrainment to the extent of 3% to 6% is required for concrete exposed to marine environment.

Assertion (2): The equivalent alkali content (in terms of Na2O equivalent) for a cement containing 1% and 0.6% of Na2O and K2O, respectively, is approximately 1.4% (rounded to 1 decimal place).

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) Assertion (1) is FALSE and Assertion (2) is TRUE

(B) Assertion (1) is TRUE and Assertion (2) is FALSE

(C) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are FALSE

(D) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2) are TRUE

Answer: (A)

32. Chlorine is used as the disinfectant in a municipal water treatment plant. It achieves 50 percent of disinfection efficiency measured in terms of killing the indicator microorganisms (E-Coli) in 3 minutes. The minimum time required to achieve 99 percent disinfection efficiency would be

(A) 9.93 minutes

(B) 11.93 minutes

(C) 19.93 minutes

(D) 21.93 minutes

Answer: (C)

33. A camera with a focal length of 20 cm fitted in an aircraft is used for taking vertical aerial photographs of a terrain. The average elevation of the terrain is 1200 m above mean sea level (MSL). What is the height above MSL at which an aircraft must fly in order to get the aerial photographs at a scale of 1:8000?

(A) 2600 m

(B) 2800 m

(C) 3000 m

(D) 3200 m

Answer: (B)

34. A flexible pavement has the following class of loads during a particular hour of the day.

i. 80 buses with 2-axles (each axle load of 40 kN);

ii. 160 trucks with 2-axles (front and rear axle loads of 40 kN and 80 kN, respectively)

The equivalent standard axle load repetitions for this vehicle combination as per IRC:37- 2012 would be

(A) 180

(B) 240

(C) 250

(D) 320

Answer: (A)

35. The inverse of the matrix  is 

Answer: (C)

36. A long uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m and a concentrated load of 60 kN are moving together on the beam ABCD shown in the figure (not drawn to scale). The relative positions of the two loads are not fixed. The maximum shear force (in kN, round off to the nearest integer) caused at the internal hinge B due to the two loads is_________

Answer: (70 to 70 or -70 to -70)

37. A plane frame shown in the figure (not to scale) has linear elastic springs at node H. The spring constants are kx = ky = 5 × 105 kN/m and kθ = 3 × 105 kNm/rad.

For the externally applied moment of 30 kNm at node F, the rotation (in degrees, round off to 3 decimals) observed in the rotational spring at node H is_______

Answer: (0.005 to 0.007)

38. A rolled I-section beam is supported on a 75 mm wide bearing plate as shown in the figure. Thicknesses of flange and web of the I-section are 20 mm and 8 mm, respectively. Root radius of the I-section is 10 mm. Assume: material yield stress, 𝑓𝑦 = 250 𝑀𝑃𝑎 and partial safety factor for material, 𝛾𝑚𝑜 = 1.10.

As per IS: 800-2007, the web bearing strength (in kN, round off to 2 decimal places) of the beam is______

Answer: (272.60 to 272.80)

39. When a specimen of M25 concrete is loaded to a stress level of 12.5 MPa, a strain of 500×10–6 is recorded. If this load is allowed to stand for a long time, the strain increases to 1000×10–6. In accordance with the provisions of IS:456-2000, considering the long-term effects, the effective modulus of elasticity of the concrete (in MPa) is ________

Answer: (12500 to 12500)

40. A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of water per day. As a part of the treatment process, discrete particles are required to be settled in a clarifier. A column test indicates that an overflow rate of 1.5 m per hour would produce the desired removal of particles through settling in the clarifier having a depth of 3.0 m. The volume of the required clarifier, (in m3, round off to 1 decimal place) would be_______

Answer: (495.0 to 505.0)

41. Raw municipal solid waste (MSW) collected from a city contains 70% decomposable material that can be converted to methane. The water content of the decomposable material is 35%. An elemental analysis of the decomposable material yields the following mass percent.

C : H : O : N : other = 44 : 6 : 43 : 0.8 : 6.2

The methane production of the decomposable material is governed by the following stoichiometric relation

CaHbOcNd + nH2O → mCH4 + sCO2 + dNH3

Given atomic weights: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, N = 14. The mass of methane produced (in grams, round off to 1 decimal place) per kg of raw MSW will be ________

Answer: (135.0 to 140.0)

42. Consider the reactor shown in the figure. The flow rate through the reactor is Q m3/h. The concentrations (in mg/L) of a compound in the influent and effluent are C0 and C, respectively. The compound is degraded in the reactor following the first order reaction. The mixing condition of the reactor can be varied such that the reactor becomes either a completely mixed flow reactor (CMFR) or a plug-flow reactor (PFR). The length of the reactor can be adjusted in these two mixing conditions to LCMFR and LPFR while keeping the cross-section of the reactor constant. Assuming steady state and for C/C0 = 0.8, the value of LCMFR/LPFR (round off to 2 decimal places) is______

Answer: (1.10 to 1.15)

43. A series of perpendicular offsets taken from a curved boundary wall to a straight survey line at an interval of 6 m are 1.22, 1.67, 2.04, 2.34, 2.14, 1.87, and 1.15 m. The area (in m2, round off to 2 decimal places) bounded by the survey line, curved boundary wall, the first and the last offsets, determined using Simpson’s rule, is_______

Answer: (67.00 to 70.00)

44. The uniform arrival and uniform service rates observed on an approach road to a signalized intersection are 20 and 50 vehicles/minute, respectively. For this signal, the red time is 30 s, the effective green time is 30 s, and the cycle length is 60 s. Assuming that initially there are no vehicles in the queue, the average delay per vehicle using the approach road during a cycle length (in s, round off to 2 decimal places) is__________

Answer: (12.00 to 13.00)

45. A broad gauge railway line passes through a horizontal curved section (radius = 875 m) of length 200 m. The allowable speed on this portion is 100 km/h. For calculating the cant, consider the gauge as centre-to-centre distance between the rail heads, equal to 1750 mm. The maximum permissible cant (in mm, round off to 1 decimal place) with respect to the centre-to-centre distance between the rail heads is________

Answer: (157.2 to 157.6)

46. The speed-density relationship of a highway is given as

𝑢 = 100 − 0.5 𝑘

where, u = speed in km per hour, k = density in vehicles per km. The maximum flow (in vehicles per hour, round off to the nearest integer) is_______

Answer: (5000 to 5000)

47. A confined aquifer of 15 m constant thickness is sandwiched between two aquicludes as shown in the figure (not drawn to scale).

The heads indicated by two piezometers P and Q are 55.2 m and 34.1 m, respectively. The aquifer has a hydraulic conductivity of 80 m/day and its effective porosity is 0.25. If the distance between the piezometers is 2500 m, the time taken by the water to travel through the aquifer from piezometer location P to Q (in days, round off to 1 decimal place) is______

Answer: (924.0 to 926.0)

48. At the foot of a spillway, water flows at a depth of 23 cm with a velocity of 8.1 m/s, as shown in the figure.

The flow enters as an M-3 profile in the long wide rectangular channel with bed slope = 1/1800 and Manning’s n = 0.015. A hydraulic jump is formed at a certain distance from the foot of the spillway. Assume the acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2. Just before the hydraulic jump, the depth of flow 𝑦1 (in m, round off to 2 decimal places) is______

Answer: (041 to 0.43)

49. Two identical pipes (i.e., having the same length, same diameter, and same roughness) are used to withdraw water from a reservoir. In the first case, they are attached in series and discharge freely into the atmosphere. In the second case, they are attached in parallel and also discharge freely into the atmosphere. Neglecting all minor losses, and assuming that the
friction factor is same in both the cases, the ratio of the discharge in the parallel arrangement to that in the series arrangement (round off to 2 decimal places) is_______

Answer: (2.80 to 2.90)

50. The ordinates, u, of a 2-hour unit hydrograph (i.e., for 1 cm of effective rain), for a catchment are shown in the table.

A 6-hour storm occurs over the catchment such that the effective rainfall intensity is 1 cm/hour for the first two hours, zero for the next two hours, and 0.5 cm/hour for the last two hours. If the base flow is constant at 5 m3/s, the peak flow due to this storm (in m3/s, round off to 1 decimal place) will be ______

Answer: (96.5 to 97.5)

51. The dimensions of a soil sampler are given in the table.

For this sampler, the outside clearance ratio (in percent, round off to 2 decimal places) is_______

Answer: (11.10 to 11.12)

52. A 2 m × 4 m rectangular footing has to carry a uniformly distributed load of 120 kPa. As per the 2:1 dispersion method of stress distribution, the increment in vertical stress (in kPa) at a depth of 2 m below the footing is_____

Answer: (40 to 40)

53. Constant head permeability tests were performed on two soil specimens, S1 and S2. The ratio of height of the two specimens (LS1:LS2) is 1.5, the ratio of the diameter of specimens (DS1:DS2) is 0.5, and the ratio of the constant head (hS1:hS2) applied on the specimens is 2.0. If the discharge from both the specimens is equal, the ratio of the permeability of the soil specimens (kS1:kS2) is______

Answer: (2.95 to 3.05)

54. A timber pile of length 8 m and diameter 0.2 m is driven with a 20 kN drop hammer, falling freely from a height of 1.5 m. The total penetration of the pile in the last 5 blows is 40 mm. Use the Engineering News Record expression. Assume a factor of safety of 6 and empirical factor (allowing reduction in the theoretical set, due to energy losses) of 2.5 cm. The safe load carrying capacity of the pile (in kN, round off to 2 decimal places) is______

Answer: (151.00 to 152.00)

55. A square footing of 2 m sides rests on the surface of a homogeneous soil bed having the properties: cohesion c = 24 kPa, angle of internal friction Φ = 25º, and unit weight γ = 18 kN/m3. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors for Φ = 25º are Nc = 25.1, The ultimate bearing capacity of the foundation (in kPa, round off to 2 decimal places) is_______

Answer: (920.00 to 925.00 or 350.00 to 356.00)

GATE Exam 2019 Civil Engineering (CE-1) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-7

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The lecture was attended by quite students, so the hall was not very .

(A) a few, quite

(B) few, quiet

(C) a few, quiet

(D) few, quite

Answer: (C)

2. They have come a long way in trust among the users.

(A) creating

(B) created

(C) creation

(D) create

Answer: (A)

3. On a horizontal ground, the base of a straight ladder is 6 m away from the base of a vertical pole. The ladder makes an angle of 45o to the horizontal. If the ladder is resting at a point located at one-fifth of the height of the pole from the bottom, the height of the pole is meters.

(A) 15

(B) 25

(C) 30

(D) 35

Answer: (C)

4.  If E = 10; J = 20; O = 30; and T = 40, what will be P + E + S + T?

(A) 51

(B) 82

(C) 120

(D) 164

Answer: (C)

5. The CEO’s decision to quit was as shocking to the Board as it was to .

(A) I

(B) me

(C) my

(D) myself

Answer: (B)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. The new cotton technology, Bollgard-II, with herbicide tolerant traits has developed into a thriving business in India. However, the commercial use of this technology is not legal in India. Notwithstanding that, reports indicate that the herbicide tolerant Bt cotton had been purchased by farmers at an average of Rs 200 more than the control price of ordinary cotton, and planted in 15% of the cotton growing area in the 2017 Kharif season.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Farmers want to access the new technology if India benefits from it

(B) Farmers want to access the new technology even if it is not legal

(C) Farmers want to access the new technology for experimental purposes

(D) Farmers want to access the new technology by paying high price

Answer: (B)

7. In a sports academy of 300 people, 105 play only cricket, 70 play only hockey, 50 play only football, 25 play both cricket and hockey, 15 play both hockey and football and 30 play both cricket and football. The rest of them play all three sports. What is the percentage of people who play at least two sports?

(A) 23.30

(B) 25.00

(C) 28.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (B)

8. “The increasing interest in tribal characters might be a mere coincidence, but the timing is of interest. None of this, though, is to say that the tribal hero has arrived in Hindi cinema, or that the new crop of characters represents the acceptance of the tribal character in the industry. The films and characters are too few to be described as a pattern.”

What does the word ‘arrived’ mean in the paragraph above?

(A) reached a terminus

(B) came to a conclusion

(C) attained a status

(D) went to a place

Answer: (C)

9. A square has sides 5 cm smaller than the sides of a second square. The area of the larger square is four times the area of the smaller square. The side of the larger square is cm.

(A) 18.50

(B) 15.10

(C) 10.00

(D) 8.50

Answer: (C)

10. P, Q, R, S and T are related and belong to the same family. P is the brother of S. Q is the wife of P. R and T are the children of the siblings P and S respectively. Which one of the following statements is necessarily FALSE?

(A) S is the aunt of R

(B) S is the aunt of T

(C) S is the sister-in-law of Q

(D) S is the brother of P

Answer: (B)

Civil Engineering

1. Which one of the following is correct?

Answer: (A)

2. Consider z direction a two-dimensional flow through isotropic soil along x direction and  If h is the hydraulic head, the Laplace’s equation of continuity is expressed as

Answer: (C)

3. A simple mass-spring oscillatory system consists of a mass m, suspended from a spring of stiffness k. Considering z as the displacement of the system at any time t, the equation of motion for the free vibration of the system is . The natural frequency of the system is

Answer: (B)

4. For a small value of h, the Taylor series expansion for f (x + h)

Answer: (A)

5. A plane truss is shown in the figure (not drawn to scale).

Which one of the options contains ONLY zero force members in the truss?

(A) FG, FI, HI, RS

(B) FG, FH, HI, RS

(C) FI, HI, PR, RS

(D) FI, FG, RS, PR

Answer: (D)

6. An element is subjected to biaxial normal tensile strains of 0.0030 and 0.0020. The normal strain in the plane of maximum shear strain is

(A) Zero

(B) 0.0010

(C) 0.0025

(D) 0.0050

Answer: (C)

7.  Consider the pin-jointed plane truss shown in the figure (not drawn to scale). Let RP, RQ, RR denote the vertical reactions (upward positive) applied by the supports at P, Q, and R, respectively, on the truss. The correct combination of (RP, RQ, RR) is represented by

(A) (30, −30, 30) kN

(B) (20, 0, 10) kN

(C) (10, 3 0, −10) kN

(D) (0, 60, −30) kN

Answer: (A)

8.  Assuming that there is no possibility of shear buckling in the web, the maximum reduction permitted by IS 800-2007 in the (low-shear) design bending strength of a semi-compact steel section on due to high shear is

(A) zero

(B) 25%

(C) 50%

(D) governed by the area of the flange

Answer: (A)

9. In the reinforced beam section shown in the figure (not drawn to scale), the nominal cover at provided the bottom of the beam as per IS 456-2000, is

(A) 30 mm

(B) 36 mm

(C) 42 mm

(D) 50 mm

Answer: (A)

10. The interior angles of four triangles are given below

Which of the triangles are ill-conditioned and should be avoided in Trianuglation surveys?

(A) Both P and R

(B) Both Q and R

(C) Both P and S

(D) Both Q and S

Answer: (D)

11. The coefficient of average rolling friction of a road is fr and its grade is +G%. If the grade of this road is doubled, what will be the percentage change in the braking distance (for the design vehicle to come to a stop) measured along the horizontal (assume all other parameters are kept unchanged)?

Answer: (A)

12. An isolated concrete pavement slab of length L is resting on a frictionless base. The temperature of the top and bottom fibre of the slab are Tt and Tb, respectively. Given: the coefficient of thermal expansion = α and the elastic modulus = E. Assuming 𝑇𝑡 > 𝑇𝑏 and the unit weight of concrete as zero, the maximum thermal stress is calculated as

Answer: (D)

13. In a rectangular channel, the ratio of the velocity head to the flow depth for critical flow condition, is

(A) 1/2

(B) 2/3

(C) 3/2

(D) 2

Answer: (A)

14. If the path of an irrigation canal is below the bed level of a natural stream, the type of cross- drainage structure provided is

(A) Aqueduct

(B) Level crossing

(C) Sluice gate

(D) Super passage

Answer: (D)

15. A catchment may be idealised as a rectangle. There are three rain gauges located inside the catchment at arbitrary locations. The average precipitation over the catchment is estimated by two methods: (i) Arithmetic mean (PA), and (ii) Thiessen polygon (PT). Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) PA is always smaller than PT

(B) PA is always greater than PT

(C) PA is always equal to PT

(D) There is no definite relationship between PA and PT

Answer: (D)

16. A retaining wall of height H with smooth vertical backface supports a back-fill inclined at an angle β with the horizontal. The back-fill consists of cohesionless soil having angle of internal friction Φ. If the active lateral thrust acting on the wall is Pa, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Pa acts at a height H/2 from the base of the wall and at an angle β with the horizontal

(B) Pa acts at a height H/2 from the base of the wall and at an angle Φ with the horizontal

(C) Pa acts at a height H/3 from the base of the wall and at an angle β with the horizontal

(D) Pa acts at a height H/3 from the base of the wall and at an angle Φ with the horizontal

Answer: (C)

17. In a soil specimen, the total stress, effective stress, hydraulic gradient and critical hydraulic are σ σ’ , i and ic, respectively. For initiation of quicksand condition, which one of following statements is TRUE?

(A) σ’ ≠ 0 and i = ic

(B) σ’ = 0 and i = ic

(C) σ’ ≠ 0 and i ≠ ic

(D) σ = 0 and i = ic

Answer: (B)

18. Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?

(A) Ozone

(B) Carbon Monoxide

(C) Hydrocarbon

(D) Volatile Organic Carbon (VOC)

Answer: (A)

19. For a given loading on a rectangular plain concrete beam with an overall depth of 500 mm, the compressive strain and tensile strain developed at the extreme fibers are of the same magnitude of 2.5×10–4. The curvature in the beam cross-section (in m–1, round off to 3 decimal places), is ________

Answer: (0.001 to 0.001)

20. A completely mixed dilute suspension of sand particles having diameters 0.25, 0.35, 0.40, 0.45 and 0.50 mm are filled in a transparent glass column of diameter 10 cm and height 2.50 m. The suspension is allowed to settle without any disturbance. It is observed that all particles of diameter 0.35 mm settle to the bottom of the column in 30 s. For the same period of 30 s, the percentage removal (round off to integer value) of particles of diameters 0.45 and 0.50 mm from the suspension is______

Answer: (100 to 100)

21. The maximum number of vehicles observed in any five minute period during the peak hour is 160. If the total flow in the peak hour is 1000 vehicles, the five minute peak hour factor (round off to 2 decimal places) is ______

Answer: (0.51 to 0.53)

22. A circular duct carrying water gradually contracts from a diameter of 30 cm to 15 cm. The figure (not drawn to scale) shows the arrangement of differential manometer attached to the duct.

When the water flows, the differential manometer shows a deflection of 8 cm of mercury (Hg). The values of specific gravity of mercury and water are 13.6 and 1.0, respectively. Consider the acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2. Assuming frictionless flow, the flow rate (in m3/s, round off to 3 decimal places) through the duct is________

Answer: (0.078 to 0.085)

23. The probability that the annual maximum flood discharge will exceed 25000 m3/s, at least once in next 5 years is found to be 0.25. The return period of this flood event (in years, round off to 1 decimal place) is________

Answer: (17.8 to 18.0)

24. A soil has specific gravity of its solids equal to 2.65. The mass density of water is 1000 kg/m3. Considering zero air voids and 10% moisture content of the soil sample, the dry density (in kg/m3, round off to 1 decimal place) would be_______

Answer: (2086.6 to 2095.0)

25. A concentrated load of 500 kN is applied on an elastic half space. The ratio of the increase in vertical normal stress at depths of 2 m and 4 m along the point of the loading, as per
Boussinesq’s theory, would be_________

Answer: (4 to 4)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement?

Answer: (B)

27. A one-dimensional domain is discretized into N sub-domains of width Δx with node numbers i = 0,1, 2, 3, …, N . If the time scale is discretized in steps of Δt, the forward-time and centered- space finite difference approximation at ith node and nth time step, for the partial differential  is

Answer: (A)

28. A rectangular open channel has a width of 5 m and a bed slope of 0.001. For a uniform flow of depth 2 m, the velocity is 2 m/s. The Manning’s roughness coefficient for the channel is

(A) 0.002

(B) 0.017

(C) 0.033

(D) 0.050

Answer: (B)

29. For the following statements:

P – The lateral stress in the soil while being tested in an oedometer is always at-rest.

Q – For a perfectly rigid strip footing at deeper depths in a sand deposit, the vertical normal contact stress at the footing edge is greater than that at its centre.

R – The corrections for overburden pressure and dilatancy are not applied to measured SPT-N values in case of clay deposits.

The correct combination of the statements is

(A) P – TRUE; Q – TRUE; R – TRUE

(B) P – FALSE; Q – FALSE; R – TRUE

(C) P – TRUE; Q – TRUE; R – FALSE

(D) P – FALSE; Q – FALSE; R – FALSE

Answer: (A)

30. Consider two functions:  x = Ψ lnϕ and y = ϕlnΨ. Which one of the following is the correct expression for  ?

Answer: (D)

31. The cross-section of a built-up wooden beam as shown in the figure (not drawn to scale) is subjected to a vertical shear force of 8 kN. The beam is symmetrical about the neutral axis (N.A.) shown, and the moment of inertia about N.A. is 1.5×109 mm4. Considering that the nails at the location P are spaced longitudinally (along the length of the beam) at 60 mm, each of the nails at P will be subjected to the shear force of

(A) 60 N

(B) 120 N

(C) 240 N

(D) 480 N

Answer: (C)

32. The rigid-jointed plane frame QRS shown in the figure is subjected to a load P at the joint v R. Let the axial deformations in the frame be neglected. If the support S undergoes a settlement of the vertical reaction at the support S will become zero when β is equal to

(A) 0.1

(B) 3.0

(C) 7.5

(D) 48.0

Answer: (C)

33. If the section shown in the figure turns from fully-elastic to fully-plastic, the depth of neutral axis (N.A.), , decreases by

(A) 10.75 mm

(B) 12.25 mm

(C) 13.75 mm

(D) 15.25 mm

Answer: (C)

34. Sedimentation basin in a water treatment plant is designed for a flow rate of 0.2 m3/s. The basin is rectangular with a length of 32 m, width of 8 m, and depth of 4 m. Assume that the settling velocity of these particles is governed by the Stokes’ law. Given: density of the particles = 2.5 g/cm3; density of water = 1 g/cm3; dynamic viscosity of water = 0.01 g/(cm.s); gravitational acceleration = 980 cm/s2. If the incoming water contains particles of diameter 25 μm (spherical and uniform), the removal efficiency of these particles is

(A) 51%

(B) 65%

(C) 78%

(D) 100%

Answer: (B)

35. A survey line was measured to be 285.5 m with a tape having a nominal length of 30 m. On checking, the true length of the tape was found to be 0.05 m too short. If the line lay on a slope of 1 in 10, the reduced length (horizontal length) of the line for plotting of survey work would be

(A) 283.6 m

(B) 284.5 m

(C) 285.0 m

(D) 285.6 m

Answer: (A)

36. A 16 mm thick gusset plate is connected to the 12 mm thick flange plate of an I-section using fillet welds on both sides as shown in the figure (not drawn to scale). The gusset plate is subjected to a point load of 350 kN acting at a distance of 100 mm from the flange plate. Size of fillet weld is 10 mm

The maximum resultant stress (in MPa, round off to 1 decimal place) on the fillet weld along the vertical plane would be_____

Answer: (78.0 to 78.2 or 105.3 to 105.5)

37. The network of a small construction project awarded to a contractor is shown in the following figure. The normal duration, crash duration, normal cost, and crash cost of all the activities are shown in the table. The indirect cost incurred by the contractor is INR 5000 per day.

If the project is targeted for completion in 16 days, the total cost (in INR) to be incurred by the contractor would be______

Answer: (149500 to 149500)

38. A box measuring 50 cm × 50 cm × 50 cm is filled to the top with dry coarse aggregate of mass 187.5 kg. The water absorption and specific gravity of the aggregate are 0.5% and 2.5, respectively. The maximum quantity of water (in kg, round off to 2 decimal places) required to fill the box completely is _____

Answer: (5.50 to 51.20)

39. A portal frame shown in figure (not drawn to scale) has a hinge support at joint P and a roller support at joint R. A point load of 50 kN is acting at joint R in the horizontal direction. The flexural rigidity, EI, of each member is 106 kNm2. Under the applied load, the horizontal displacement (in mm, round off to 1 decimal place) of joint R would be_______

Answer: (24.9 to 25.1)

40. A sample of air analysed at 0ºC and 1 atm pressure is reported to contain 0.02 ppm (parts per million) of NO2. Assume the gram molecular mass of NO2 as 46 and its volume at 0°C and 1 atm pressure as 22.4 litres per mole. The equivalent NO2 concentration (in microgram per cubic meter, round off to 2 decimal places) would be_______

Answer: (41.00 to 41.10)

41. A 0.80 m deep bed of sand filter (length 4 m and width 3 m) is made of uniform particles (diameter = 0.40 mm, specific gravity = 2.65, shape factor = 0.85) with bed porosity of 0.4. The bed has to be backwashed at a flow rate of 3.60 m3/min. During backwashing, if the terminal settling velocity of sand particles is 0.05 m/s, the expanded bed depth (in m, round off to 2 decimal places) is ______

Answer: (1.15 to 1.25)

42. A wastewater is to be disinfected with 35 mg/L of chlorine to obtain 99% kill of micro- organisms. The number of micro-organisms remaining alive (Nt) at time t, is modelled by Nt = No e–kt , where No is number of micro-organisms at t = 0, and k is the rate of kill. The wastewater flow rate is 36 m3/h, and k = 0.23 min‒1. If the depth and width of the chlorination tank are 1.5 m and 1.0 m, respectively, the length of the tank (in m, round off to 2 decimal places) is ________

Answer: (7.95 to 8.15)

43. A staff is placed on a benchmark (BM) of reduced level (RL) 100.000 m and a theodolite is placed at a horizontal distance of 50 m from the BM to measure the vertical angles. The measured vertical angles from the horizontal at the staff readings of 0.400 m and 2.400 m are found to be the same. Taking the height of the instrument as 1.400 m, the RL (in m) of the theodolite station is  ______

Answer: (100 to 100)

44. Consider the ordinary differential equation Given the values of y(1) = 0 and y(2) = 2, the value of y(3) (round off to 1 decimal place), is ______

Answer: (5.9 to 6.1)

45. Average free flow speed and the jam density observed on a road stretch are 60 km/h and 120 vehicles/km, respectively. For a linear speed-density relationship, the maximum flow on the road stretch (in vehicles/h) is______

Answer: (1800 to 1800)

46. Traffic on a highway is moving at a rate of 360 vehicles per hour at a location. If the number of vehicles arriving on this highway follows Poisson distribution, the probability (round off to 2 decimal places) that the headway between successive vehicles lies between 6 and 10 seconds is ______

Answer: (0.17 to 0.19)

47. A parabolic vertical curve is being designed to join a road of grade +5% with a road of grade
–3%. The length of the vertical curve is 400 m measured along the horizontal. The vertical point of curvature (VPC) is located on the road of grade +5%. The difference in height between VPC and vertical point of intersection (VPI) (in m, round off to the nearest integer) is_____

Answer: (10 to 10 or -10 to -10)

48. Tie bars of 12 mm diameter are to be provided in a concrete pavement slab. The working tensile stress of the tie bars is 230 MPa, the average bond strength between a tie bar and concrete is 2 MPa, and the joint gap between the slabs is 10 mm. Ignoring the loss of bond and the tolerance factor, the design length of the tie bars (in mm, round off to the nearest integer) is_______

Answer: (700 to 700)

49. The hyetograph of a storm event of duration 140 minutes is shown in the figure.

The infiltration capacity at the start of this event (𝑡 = 0) is 17 mm/hour, which linearly decreases to 10 mm/hour after 40 minutes duration. As the event progresses, the infiltration rate further drops down linearly to attain a value of 4 mm/hour at 𝑡 = 100 minutes and remains constant thereafter till the end of the storm event. The value of the infiltration index, φ (in mm/hour, round off to 2 decimal places), is _________

Answer: (7.00 to 7.30)

50. Two water reservoirs are connected by a siphon (running full) of total length 5000 m and diameter of 0.10 m, as shown below (figure not drawn to scale).

The inlet leg length of the siphon to its summit is 2000 m. The difference in the water surface levels of the two reservoirs is 5 m. Assume the permissible minimum absolute pressure at the summit of siphon to be 2.5 m of water when running full. Given: friction factor f = 0.02 throughout, atmospheric pressure = 10.3 m of water, and acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m/s2. Considering only major loss using Darcy-Weisbach equation, the maximum height of the summit of siphon from the water level of upper reservoir, h (in m, round off to 1 decimal place) is _______

Answer: (5.7 to 5.9)

51. Consider a laminar flow in the x-direction between two infinite parallel plates (Couette flow). The lower plate is stationary and the upper plate is moving with a velocity of 1 cm/s in the x-direction. The distance between the plates is 5 mm and the dynamic viscosity of the fluid is 0.01 N-s/m2. If the shear stress on the lower plate is zero, the pressure gradient, ∂p/∂x (in N/m2 per m, round off to 1 decimal place) is________

Answer: (7.9 to 8.1)

52. A reinforced concrete circular pile of 12 m length and 0.6 m diameter is embedded in stiff clay which has an undrained unit cohesion of 110 kN/m2. The adhesion factor is 0.5. The Net Ultimate Pullout (uplift) Load for the pile (in kN, round off to 1 decimal place) is_______

Answer: (1240.0 to 1250.0)

53. A granular soil has a saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m3 and an effective angle of shearing resistance of 30°. The unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m3. A slope is to be made on this soil deposit in which the seepage occurs parallel to the slope up to the free surface. Under this seepage condition for a factor of safety of 1.5, the safe slope angle (in degree, round off to 1 decimal place) would be_______

Answer: (10.8 to 11.3)

54. A 3 m × 3 m square precast reinforced concrete segments to be installed by pushing them through an existing railway embankment for making an underpass as shown in the figure. A reaction arrangement using precast PCC blocks placed on the ground is to be made for the jacks.

At each stage, the jacks are required to apply a force of 1875 kN to push the segment. The jacks will react against the rigid steel plate placed against the reaction arrangement. The footprint area of reaction arrangement on natural ground is 37.5 m2. The unit weight of PCC block is 24 kN/m3. The properties of the natural ground are: c = 17 kPa; ϕ = 25º and γ = 18 kN/m3. Assuming that the reaction arrangement has rough interface and has the same properties that of soil, the factor of safety (round off to 1 decimal place) against shear failure is _________

Answer: (1.8 to 2.1)

55. A square footing of 4 m side is placed at 1 m depth in a sand deposit. The dry unit weight (γ) of sand is 15 kN/m3. This footing has an ultimate bearing capacity of 600 kPa. Consider the depth factors: dq = dγ = 1.0 and the bearing capacity factor: Nγ = 18.75. This footing is placed at a depth of 2 m in the same soil deposit. For a factor of safety of 3.0 as per Terzaghi’s theory, the safe bearing capacity (in kPa) of this footing would be _______

Answer: (240 to 240 or 250 to 250 or 270 to  270)

GATE Exam 2019 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The Bt toxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis used to generate genetically modified crops is
(A) cry (B) cro (C) cdc (D) cre

n p

Q.3 Tetracycline inhibits the
(A) interaction between tRNA and mRNA
(B) translocation of mRNA through ribosome
(C) peptidyl transferase activity
(D) binding of amino-acyl tRNA to ribosome

Q.4 Which one of the following is a database of protein sequence motifs?
(A) PROSITE (B) TrEMBL (C) SWISSPROT (D) PDB

Q.5 Which one o
genome? f the following enzymes is encoded by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
(A) Reverse transcriptase (B) Phospholipase
(C) Phospha tase (D) ATP synthase

Q.6 DNA synthesis in eukaryotes occurs during which phase of the mitotic cell cycle?
(A) M (B) G1 (C) S (D) G0

Q.7 Match the human diseases in Group I with the causative agents in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Amoebiasis 1. Leishmania donovani
Q. African sleeping sickness 2. Trypanosoma cruzi
R. Kala azar 3. Entamoeba histolytica
S. Chagas’ disease 4. Trypanosoma gambiense

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.8 Which one of t
number of gen he following techniques can be used to compare the expression of a large es in two biological samples in a single experiment?
(A) Polymerase chain reaction (B) DNA microarray
(C) Northern h ybridization (D) Southern hybridization

Q.9 Which of the following processes can increase genetic diversity of bacteria in nature?

P. Conjugation
Q. Transformation
R. Transduction
S. Transfection
(A) P only (B) P and Q only (C) P, Q and R only (D) P, Q, R and S

Q.10 Which one of the following is NOT a part of the human nonspecific defense system?
(A) Interferon (B) Mucous (C) Saliva (D) Antibody

Q.11 A mutation i
the last three n a gene that codes for a polypeptide results in a variant polypeptide that lacks amino acids. What type of mutation is this?
(A) Synonym ous mutation (B) Nonsense mutation
(C) Missens e mutation (D) Silent mutation

Q.12 Which one of the following equations represents a one-dimensional wave equation?
(A) 𝜕𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕2𝑢
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥2 (B) 𝜕2𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕2𝑢
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥2 (C) 𝜕2𝑢 = 𝑐2 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥 (D) 𝜕2𝑢 + 𝜕2𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑡2 𝜕𝑥2

Q.13 Which of the following are geometric series?

P. 1, 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, …
Q. 9, 6, 3, 0, -3, -6, …
R. 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, …
S. 4, -8, 16, -32, 64, …
(A) P and Q only (B) R and S only (C) Q and S only (D) P, Q and R only

Q.14 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for enzyme catalyzed reactions? (𝛥𝐺 is Gibbs free energy change, 𝐾𝑒𝑞 is equilibrium constant)
(A) Enzymes affect 𝛥𝐺, but not 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(B) Enzymes affect 𝐾𝑒𝑞, but not 𝛥𝐺
(C) Enzymes affect both 𝛥𝐺 and 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(D) Enzymes do not affect 𝛥𝐺 or 𝐾𝑒𝑞

Q.15 Which one of the following can NOT be a limiting substrate if Monod’s growth kinetics is applicable?
(A) Extracellular carbon source
(B) Extracellular nitrogen source
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Intracellular carbon source

Q.16 Which one of the following is the unit of heat transfer coefficient?
(A) W m2 K-1 (B) W m-2 K (C) W m-2 K-1 (D) W m2 K

Q.17 Which one o
bacterial cult f the following is catabolized during endogenous metabolism in a batch ivation?
(A) internal r eserves (B) extracellular substrates
(C) extracell ular products (D) toxic substrates

Q.18 Which one of the f ollowing need NOT be conserved in a biochemical reaction?
(A) Total mass (B) Total moles
(C) Number of ato ms of each element (D) Total energy

Q.19 The number of possible rooted trees in a phylogeny of three species is .

Q.20 Matrix A = [0 6 will be skew-symmetric when 𝑝 = .
𝑝 0]

Q.21 The solution of lim (𝑥2−64) is .
𝑥→8 𝑥−8

Q.22 The median value for the dataset (12, 10, 16, 8, 90, 50, 30, 24) is .

Q.23 The degree of reduction for acetic acid (C2H4O2) is .

Q.24 The mass of 1 kmol of oxygen molecules is g (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.25 Protein concentration of a crude enzyme preparation was 10 mg mL-1. 10 µL of this sample gave an activity of 5 µmol min-1 under standard assay conditions. The specific activity of
this crude enzyme preparation is units mg-1.

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 In general, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
(A) Hydrogen bonds result from electrostatic interactions
(B) Hydrogen bonds contribute to the folding energy of proteins
(C) Hydrogen bonds are weaker than van der Waals interactions
(D) Hydrogen bonds are directional

Q.27 For site-directed mutagenesis, which one of the following restriction enzymes is used to digest methylated DNA?
(A) KpnI (B) DpnI (C) XhoI (D) MluI

Q.28 Match the organelles in Group I with their functions in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Lysosome 1. Digestion of foreign substances
Q. Smooth ER 2. Protein targeting
R. Golgi apparatus 3. Lipid synthesis
S. Nucleolus 4. Protein synthesis
5. rRNA synthesis
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

Which of
searched u

P. A large
Q. E-valu
R. A high
S. E-value the following statements are CORRECT when a protein sequence database is sing the BLAST algorithm?

r E-value indicates higher sequence similarity e < 10-10 indicates sequence homology
er BLAST score indicates higher sequence similarity
> 1010 indicates sequence homology
(A) P, Q a nd R only (B) Q and R only
(C) P, R a nd S only (D) P and S only

p

Which o
reaction

P. Mg2+
Q. pH
R. Ann f the following factors affect the fidelity of DNA polymerase in polymerase chain
?
concentration ealing temperature
(A) P an d Q only (B) P and R only
(C) Q an d R only (D) P, Q and R

Q.32 Group I lists spectroscopic methods and Group II lists biomolecular applications of these methods. Match the methods in Group I with the applications in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Infrared 1. Identification of functional groups
Q. Circular Dichroism 2. Determination of secondary structure
R. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance 3. Estimation of molecular weight
4. Determination of 3-D structure

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4

Q.33 The hexapeptide P has an isoelectric point (pI) of 6.9. Hexapeptide Q is a variant of P that contains valine instead of glutamate at position 3. The two peptides are analyzed by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis at pH 8.0. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) P will migrate faster than Q towards the anode
(B) P will migrate faster than Q towards the cathode
(C) Both P and Q will migrate together
(D) Q will migrate faster than P towards the anode

Q.34 Antibody-produci ng hybridoma cells are generated by the fusion of a
(A) T cell with a myeloma cell (B) B cell with a myeloma cell
(C) macrophage w ith a myeloma cell (D) T cell and a B cell

Q.35 Which of the following statements are CORRECT about the function of fetal bovine serum in animal cell culture?

P. It stimulates cell growth
Q. It enhances cell attachment
R. It provides hormones and minerals
S. It maintains pH at 7.4
(A) P and Q only (B) P and S only (C) P, Q and R only (D) P, Q, R and S

Q.36 Which one
and mRN of the following covalent linkages exists between 7-Methyl guanosine (m7G) As?
(A) 2’–3′ tr iphosphate (B) 3’–5′ triphosphate
(C) 5’–5′ tr iphosphate (D) 2’–5′ triphosphate

Q.37 Which one of the following amino acid residues will destabilize an α-helix when inserted in the middle of the helix?
(A) Pro (B) Val (C) Ile (D) Leu

Q.38 What is the solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑥 , with the initial condition, at 𝑥 =
𝑑𝑥 𝑦
0, 𝑦 = 1?
(A) 𝑥2 = 𝑦2 + 1 (B) 𝑦2 = 𝑥2 + 1 (C) 𝑦2 = 2𝑥2 + 1 (D) 𝑥2 – 𝑦2 = 0

Q.39 The Laplace transform of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑡2 + 2𝑡 + 1 is
(A) 1 + 3 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (B) 4 + 4 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (C) 1 + 2 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠 (D) 2 + 2 + 1
𝑠3 𝑠2 𝑠

Q.40 Which of the following factors can influence the lag phase of a microbial culture in a batch fermentor?

P. Inoculum size
Q. Inoculum age
R. Medium composition
(A) P and Q only (B) Q and R only (C) P and R only (D) P, Q and R

Q.41 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about proportional controllers?
(A) The initial change in control output signal is relatively slow
(B) The initial corrective action is greater for larger error
(C) They have no offset
(D) There is no corrective action if the error is a constant

Q.42 Match the instruments in Group I with their corresponding measurements in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Manometer 1. Agitator speed
Q. Rotameter 2. Pressure difference
R. Tachometer 3. Cell number
S. Haemocytometer 4. Air flow rate

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.43 Which of the following statements is ALWAYS CORRECT about an ideal chemostat?

P. Substrate concentration inside the chemostat is equal to that in the exit stream
Q. Optimal dilution rate is lower than critical dilution rate
R. Biomass concentration increases with increase in dilution rate
S. Cell recirculation facilitates operation beyond critical dilution rate
(A) P and Q only (B) P, R and S only (C) P and S only (D) P, Q and S only

Q.44 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

Assertion [a]: It is possible to regenerate a whole plant from a single plant cell. Reason [r]: It is easier to introduce transgenes in to plants than animals.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.45 A UV-visible spectrophotometer has a minimum detectable absorbance of 0.02. The minimum concentration of a protein sample that can be measured reliably in this
instrument with a cuvette of 1 cm path length is µM. The molar extinction coefficient of the protein is 10,000 L mol-1 cm-1.

Q.46 The difference in concentrations of an uncharged solute between two compartments is 1.6-fold. The energy required for active transport of the solute across the membrane separating the two compartments is cal mol-1 (rounded off to the nearest integer). (R
= 1.987 cal mol-1 K-1, T = 37 ºC)

Q.47 In pea plants, purple color of flowers is determined by the dominant allele while white color is determined by the recessive allele. A genetic cross between two purple flower- bearing plants results in an offspring with white flowers. The probability that the third offspring from these parents will have purple flowers is (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).

Q.48 The molecular mass of a protein is 22 kDa. The size of the cDNA (excluding the untranslated regions) that codes for this protein is kb (rounded off to 1 decimal
place).

A new game is being introduced in a casino. A player can lose Rs. 100, break even, win Rs. 100, or win Rs. 500. The probabilities (𝑃(𝑋)) of each of these outcomes (𝑋) are given in the following table:

𝑋 (in Rs.) -100 0 100 500
𝑃 (𝑋) 0.25 0.5 0.2 0.05

The standard deviation (σ) for the casino payout is Rs. (rounded off to the nearest integer).

∫−1 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 calculated using trapezoidal rule for the values given in the table is
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).

𝑥 −1 −2⁄3 −1⁄3 0 1⁄3 2⁄3 1
𝑓(𝑥) 0.37 0.51 0.71 1.0 1.40 1.95 2.71

Q.51 Yeast biomass (C6H10O3N) grown on glucose is described by the stoichiometric equation given below:
C6H12O6 + 0.48 NH3 + 3 O2  0.48 C6H10O3N + 3.12 CO2 + 4.32 H2O

The amount of glucose needed for the production of 50 g L-1 of yeast biomass in a batch reactor with a working volume of 1,00,000 L is _ kg (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.52 Phenolic wastewater discharged from an industry was treated with Pseudomonas sp. in an aerobic bioreactor. The influent and effluent concentrations of phenol were 10,000 and 10 ppm, respectively. The inlet feed rate of wastewater was 80 L h-1. The kinetic properties of the organism are as follows:
Maximum specific growth rate (µ𝑚) = 1 h-1 Saturation constant (𝐾𝑆) = 100 mg L-1
Cell death rate (𝑘𝑑) = 0.01 h-1
Assuming that the bioreactor operates under ‘chemostat’ mode, the working volume required for this process is L (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.53 In a cross-flow filtration process, the pressure drop (𝛥𝑃) driving the fluid flow is 2 atm, inlet feed pressure (𝑃𝑖) is 3 atm and filtrate pressure (𝑃𝑓) is equal to atmospheric pressure.
The average transmembrane pressure drop (𝛥𝑃𝑚) is atm.

Q.54 An industrial fermentor containing 10,000 L of medium needs to be sterilized. The initial spore concentration in the medium is 106 spores mL-1. The desired probability of contamination after sterilization is 10-3. The death rate of spores at 121 ºC is 4 min-1.
Assume that there is no cell death during heating and cooling phases. The holding time of the sterilization process is min (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.55 The dimensions and operating condition of a lab-scale fermentor are as follows: Volume = 1 L
Diameter = 20 cm Agitator speed = 600 rpm
Ratio of impeller diameter to fermentor diameter = 0.3
This fermentor needs to be scaled up to 8,000 L for a large scale industrial application. If the scale-up is based on constant impeller tip speed, the speed of the agitator in the larger reactor is rpm. Assume that the scale-up factor is the cube root of the ratio of fermentor volumes.

GATE Exam 2019 Architecture and Planning (AR) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Architecture and Planning

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. Which of the following commands in AUTOCAD is used to create 3D solid between various cross sections?

(A) LOFT

(B) MESH

(C) XEDGES

(D) PFACE

Answer: (A)

2. Name the architect who criticized ornament in useful objects in his essay ‘Ornament and Crime’.

(A) John Ruskin

(B) H P Berlage

(C) Adolf Loos

(D) Walter Gropius

Answer: (C)

3. A sanit ground ary landfill is provided with High Density Poly Ethylene (HDPE) lining along the surface. This is provided primarily to prevent

(A) Bleaching

(B) Leaching

(C) Ro dents

(D) Plant growth

Answer: (B)

4. Super-ele vation of a road with pre-determined radius of curvature is primarily dependent on

(A) Altitude

(B) Soil bearing capacity

(C) Traffic volume

(D) Design traffic speed

Answer: (D)

5. In a mono-centric urban model, land rent is expected to

(A) diminish as one moves towards the center

(B) diminish as one moves away from the center

(C) remain constant across the whole urban area

(D) be unrelated with distance from center

Answer: (B)

6. Fineness modulus of sand measures its

(A) Compressive strength

(B) Grading according to particle size

(C) Bulking of sand

(D) Ratio of coarse and fine sand

Answer: (B)

7. The spherical surface of the geodesic dome comprises of

(A) Equilateral triangles of various sizes

(B) Isosceles triangles of various sizes

(C) Equilateral triangles of uniform size

(D) Isosceles triangles of uniform size

Answer: (C)

8. The abrup t change or junction between two ecological zones is termed as

(A) Ecological niche

(B) Ecosystem

(C) Ecotype

(D) Ecotone

Answer: (D)

9. Complementary colours in a Munsell pigment colour wheel refers to

(A) Colours in alternate positions

(B) Colours opposite to one another

(C) Colours adja cent to each other

(D) A pair of secondary colours

Answer: (B)

10. The closing syntax, for an executable command line in C or C++ program, is

(A) :

(B) ,

(C) ;

(D) .

Answer: (C)

11. The term ‘Necropolis’ refers to

(A) Orginacally growing Settlment

(B) Origin of settlement

(C) A dead settlement

(D) Merging of two settlements

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following projection types is adopted in the Universal Transeverse Mercator (UTM)?

(A) Spherical Conical

(B) Planar

(C) Cylindrical

Answer: (D)

13. The ing redient to be added to produce Aerated Cement Concrete, is

(A) Aluminum

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Gypsum

(D) Sulphur

Answer: (A)

14. The cause of short column effect, during seismic occurrence, is due to

(A) Centralized rupture of the column

(B) Tearing of reinforcement bars

(C) Buckling of co lumn

(D) Stress concentration

Answer: (D)

15. The solar protection system consisting of fixed slats or grids, outside a building façade in front of openings, is known as

(A) Brise–soleil

(B) Solarium

(C) Malqaf

(D) Trombe wall

Answer: (A)

16. The Indian property inscribed by UNESCO on the World Heritage List in the year 2018 is

(A) Mattanchery Palace, Ernakulam

(B) The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(C) Ancient Buddhist Site, Sarnath

(D) Mughal Gardens in Kashmir

Answer: (B)

17. Typical features of Buddhist architecture are

(A) Mandapa, Chattri, Amalaka, Torana

(B) Stambha, Torana, Vimana , Harmika

(C) Vedika, Chattri, Torana, Harmika

(D) Vedika , Stupa, Chaitya, Vimana

Answer: (C)

18. Identify the Queen closure

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

19. Identify th e role of Vermiculate in vertical landscapes

(A) Fertilizer

(B) Holding material

(C) Binding material

(D) Water retention element

Answer: (Mark to All)

20. Which of the following parameters is essential to estimate the Envelope Performance Factor (EPF) of a building as per the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2011?

(A) Building Type

(B) Maximum humidity

(C) Maximum and minimum monthly temperature

(D) Building occupancy duration

Answer: (D)

21. The illumination level of a room is 300 lux and the efficacy of the lamps is 60. The Light Power Density (LPD) of the room in Watt/m2 is _____.

Answer: (5  to 5)

22. The load on a RCC column is 150 kN. The soil bearing capacity is 80 kN/m2. Assuming a factor of safety of 1.2, the side of the square column footing is meter (rounded off to one decimal place)________.

Answer: (1.49 to 1.51)

23. A room is separated by a partition wall. The average intensities of sound in the source and
receiving sides across the partition are 10-4 W/m2 and 10-7 W/m2 respectively. The transmission loss (TL) of the partition wall is dB______.

Answer: (30 to 30)

24. If the purchase price of 2BHK flat rises by 10 percent, the demand for such flats is observed to decrease by 8 percent. The price elasticity of the housing demand for 2BHK flats is (rounded off to one decimal place)________.

Answer: (0.75 to 0.85)

25. ‘Threshold of enclosure’ created by vertical surfaces or series of vertical elements in an urban plaza, represented by the ratio of height and distance, is given by an angle of degrees (rounded off to one decimal place)_______.

Answer: (260.0 to 30.0)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. Match the instruments in Column – I with the various types of surveying in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (D)

27. Match the characteristics of settlement systems in Column – I with their corresponding theory/rules in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Answer: (D)

28. Match the architectural projects in Column – I with the architect in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Answer: (A)

29. Match the Name of the book provided in Column – I with the corresponding author in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

Answer: (A)

30. Match the thermal properties in the Column – I and their respective units in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (B)

31. Match the application in the field of construction in the Column – I and the respective items in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Answer: (C)

32. Match the following types of masonry joints in Column – I with their corresponding description in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Answer: (B OR D)

33. Match the following in Column – I with their suitable description in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Answer: (D)

34. Match the units provided in Column – I with their corresponding items in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

35. Match the scientific names of the trees provided in Column – I with the corresponding color of their bloom in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Answer: (D)

36. Match the items in Column – I and their respective location in building/site in Column – II, and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Answer: (C)

37. As per the Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, CPWD – 2014, match the design guidelines in Column – I with their appropriate standards in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Answer: (C)

38. Match the contemporary Urban Design Movements listed in Column – I with the corresponding principles listed in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

Answer: (A OR D)

39. Match the figures of vaults in Column – I with their corresponding types in Column – II and select the appropriate option.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Answer: (A)

40. A colony of 50 people is served by a septic tank. The rate of water supply is 90 lpcd in the colony and 40% of it is going to the septic tank. The retention period of the tank is 24 hours. The length of the septic tank is meter (rounded off to two decimal places)__________.

Assume, storage capacity/person = 0.085m3 (3 years)

Space for digestion = 0.0425 m3/person

Depth of tank = 1.4 m Length: Width = 2:1

Answer: (3.40 to 3.45)

41. A cone, with a base of 10 cm diameter and axis of 12 cm, is lying on Horizontal Plane (HP) along its generator. The internal angle which the base of the cone makes with the HP is _____ degrees.

Answer: (67.0 to 68.0)

42. A public utility building of 5000 m2 was constructed 5 years before, on a site of 1 hectare. The present value of open land in that location is Rs. 100/m2 and present construction cost of such building is Rs. 2500/m2. If the value of the building is assumed to be depreciating at a constant rate of 6 percent per annum, then the present value of the property using ‘Valuation by Cost Method’ is___ (in Rs. lakhs) (rounded off to one decimal place).

Answer: (101.0 to 104.0)

43. A residential area of 20 hectares is planned for three different types of plots of 500 m2, 300 m2 and 200 m2 with numbers of plot in each category are 100, 120 and 150 respectively. The rest of the area is allocated for roads and facilities such as schools, shops and parks. Each plot has one dwelling unit and the average household size is 5 persons.

The net residential density of the area in persons per hectare is ______.

Answer: (159 to 160)

44. In a single lane road, traffic volume of 1000 vehicle/h moving at 20 km/h, comes to a halt due to an accident. If jam density is 150 vehicle/km, the velocity of the shock wave generated (in absolute value) is _____ km/h.

Answer: (9.9 to 10.1)

45. In a site map, a rectangular residential plot measures 150 mm × 40 mm, and the width of the front road in the map measures 16 mm. Actual width of the road is 4 m. If the permissible F.A.R. is 1.2, the maximum built-up area for the residential building will be ____ m2.

Answer: (450 to 450)

46. The internal dimension of a room is 10m × 10m × 4m (height). The total area of the doors and windows are 16 m2. Keeping the doors and windows closed, the reverberation time of the room becomes 1.2 second. Assume all the interior surfaces including doors and windows have same sound absorption coefficient. If all the doors and windows of the room are kept fully open, the reverberation time will be_____ second (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.93 to 0.97)

47. A depressed portion of a land is identified by three closed contours, as shown in the figure below. The area bounded by three contour lines are 6 m2, 24 m2 and 96 m2 respectively.

The contour interval is 1 m. Using prismoidal method, the volume of the earth needed to fill the land depression is_____ m3.

Answer: (65 to 76)

48. Solar panels are proposed to be installed on a building roof top to generate electricity. The size of each solar panel is 2 m2. The efficiency of each panel is 75%. The orientations of the solar panel and related solar data are given in the table below.

As per the above proposal ____ kWh solar power will be generated daily. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Answer: (28.4 to 28.6)

49. A power shovel is having 1.8 m3 excavation output per batch of operation. The average cycle time of the batch operation is 45 seconds. The lost time per hour of the excavation activity is 10 minutes. Assume six working hours of operation per day. The amount of soil excavated by the power shovel per day is _____ m3 (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (719.75 to 720.25)

50. A room having dimension 12 m × 10 m × 3.5 m is required to be mechanically ventilated by air-conditioner. The temperature difference between outdoor ambient air and the supply air is 12°C. Consider three air exchanges per hour. The volumetric specific heat of the air is 1250 J/m3°C. Assume one ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to 3.5 kW. The capacity of the air-conditioner for the room in TR will be _____.

Answer: (1.49 to 1.51)

51. A simply supported beam AB has a clear span of 7 meter. The bending moment diagram (BMD) of the beam due to a single concentrated load is shown in the figure below.

The magnitude of the concentrated load in kN is _____ .

Answer: (21 to 21)

52. For a symmetrical trapezoidal open drain in a landscape with grass and loose rock surface, the velocity of flow of water is _____ m/sec, (rounded off to two decimal places), given the following data.

Water edge width at the top = 750 mm

Water edge width at the bottom = 450 mm

Water depth = 600 mm

Manning’s coefficient of roughness = 0.05

Slope along the drain = 1 in 250

Answer: (0.40 to 0.50)

53. The stack pressure is created by 10 m height of stack and 15°C temperature difference. The motive force due to the stack pressure over a cross section area of 2.5 m2 is ____ N.

Answer: (15.0 to 16.0)

54. An industrial building contains 3000 kg of combustible materials, in dry state, distributed over three rooms of area 100 m2, 500 m2 and 300 m2 each, in a proportion of 30%, 50% and 20% of the contents, respectively. Calorific value of the material is 4400 kCal/kg.

The Total Fire Load of the rooms is equal to _____ kCal/ m2.

Answer: (61500 to 61700 OR 14600 to 14700)

55. A simple truss is shown in the figure below. The truss is loaded with horizontal and vertical force 15 kN and 25 kN, respectively. The force in the member AB will be _____ kN.

Answer: (20 to 20)

GATE Exam 2019 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2. Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6. Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10. “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Agricultural Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1. has the value

(A) 0.785

(B) 0.915

(C) 1.000

(D) 1.245

Answer: (A)

2. The determinant of the matrix  is

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) -1

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

3. In a relay race there are five teams A, B, C, D and E. Assuming that each team has an equal chance of securing any position (first, second, third, fourth or fifth) in the race, the probability that A, B and C finish first, second and third, respectively is

(A) 1/60

(B) 1/20

(C) 1/10

(D) 3/10

Answer: (A)

4. The path traced by the material threshed between the cylinder and the concave of an axial flow thresher is

(A) straight single pass and perpendicular to the cylinder shaft

(B) curved and perpendicular to the cylinder shaft

(C) helical and several times

(D) straight and parallel to the cylinder shaft

Answer: (C)

5. The farm machine/implement used only for preparing wetland is

(A) rotavator

(B) disk harrow

(C) hydro-tiller

(D) cultivator

Answer: (C)

6. The type of typical spray distribution profile of a hollow cone nozzle is

(A) steep sided slo pes

(B) gradual sloping sides

(C) narrow topped with gradual slopes

(D) narrow topped with steep sides

Answer: (A)

7. The amount of biogas required to run a diesel engine is 0.65 m3 kW-1h-1. The minimum size of the Deenbandhu model biogas plant in m3 required to run a 1 kW (brake power) diesel engine daily for one hour is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (B)

8. A soil sample has a porosity of 40%. Void ratio of the soil sample is

(A) 0.367

(B) 0.467

(C) 0.567

(D) 0.667

Answer: (D)

9. In the Muskingum method of channel routing, the routing equation is written as 𝑄2 = 𝐶𝑜𝐼2 + 𝐶1𝐼1 + 𝐶2𝑄1. If the storage-time constant K = 12 h, weighting factor x = 0.15 and the time step for routing ∆𝑡 = 4 h, the coefficient 𝐶𝑜 is

(A) 0.016

(B) 0.048 .

(C) 0.328

(D) 0.656

Answer: (A)

10. Match the following items between Column-I and Column-II with the most appropriate combinations:

(A) 1-P,2-R,3-S,4-Q

(B) 1-S,2-P,3-Q,4-R

(C) 1-Q,2-S,3-P,4-R

(D) 1-S,2-Q,3-P,4-R

Answer: (B)

11. Tensiometer installed in the soil measures

(A) osmotic suction of soil moisture

(B) soil permeability

(C) soil moisture content

(D) capillary potential of the soil

Answer: (D)

12. Head pulley of a bucket elevator has an effective radius of 150 mm. In order to obtain the most satisfactory discharge from this elevator, the speed of the head pulley in rpm is

(A) 36

(B) 44

(C) 50

(D) 77

Answer: (D)

13. The clean paddy production per annum is 160 million tonnes. Average milling quality analysis indicates the husk content, total yield and degree of polish as 22%, 73.32% and 6%, respectively. For an average bran oil yield of 20%, the annual rice bran oil potential in million tonnes is

(A) 1.268

(B) 1.498

(C) 1.617

(D) 1.945

Answer: (B)

14. A batch of 10000 L milk is to be sterilized and thereafter packed in 20000 packets of 500 ml each. The mean Standard Plate Count (SPC) of Bacillus subtilis in 100 samples of fresh milk was found to be 50 ml -1. The milk is to be sterilized such that each 500 ml packet is completely devoid of the same organism. Minimum number of log cycle reduction for sterilization of this batch is_______ .

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 10

(D) 12

Answer: (B)

15. A tube-in-tube counter-flow heat exchanger is heating oil from 35°C to 77°C by circulating hot water at 100°C. The outlet temperature of water is 70 °C. The log-mean-temperature difference (LMTD) is

(A) exactly equal to the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(B) significantly greater than the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(C) significantly smaller than the mean arithmetic temperature difference

(D) very nearly equal to the mean arithmetic temperature difference

Answer: (D)

16. Using trapezoidal rule, the value of (rounded off to three decimal places)is_______ .

Answer: (1.820 to 1.830)

17. Two cards are drawn at random and without replacement from a pack of 52 playing cards. The probability that both the cards are black (rounded off to three decimal places) is__________.

Answer: (0.244 to 0.246)

18. The total width between the two extreme furrow openers in a tractor drawn 9-row wheat seed drill is 1.6 m. The average mass of wheat seeds dropped per meter of row length in each furrow opener is 2.15 g. Seed rate obtained with the seed drill in kg ha-1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (107.4 to 107.8)

19. The purchase price of a tractor is Rs. 5,50,000. Useful life of the tractor is 10 years and its salvage value is 10% of the purchase price. Following the sum of the years digit method, the depreciation in 3rd year in Rs. is________ .

Answer: (72000 to 72000)

20. A pair of straight teeth spur gears is transmitting power at 500 rpm. The pinion has 16 standard full depth involute teeth of module 8 mm. The pitch line velocity of the pinion in m s-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

Answer: (3.30 to 3.40)

21. A soil conservation structure has an expected life of 10 years and is designed for a flood magnitude of return period 50 years. The risk of this hydrologic design in percentage (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (18.00 to 18.40)

22. A watershed of area 80 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.3. A storm of intensity 5 cm h-1 occurs for a duration more than the time of concentration of the watershed. The peak discharge in m3 s-1 (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (3.30 to 3.35)

23. A lateral has 12 sprinklers spaced 14 m apart in a sprinkler irrigation system. The laterals are spaced 20 m apart on the main line. If the recommended fertilizer dose is 80 kg ha-1, the amount of fertilizer to be applied at each setting in kg (rounded off to two decimal places) is_______.

Answer: (26.87 to 26.89)

24. In a rubber roll sheller, 250 mm diameter rolls are set at a clearance of 1 mm. If the mean thickness of paddy grains being shelled is 2 mm, the length of husking zone in mm (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (22.20 to 22.35)

25. Air-water vapour mixture at 1 atmosphere pressure has 0.035 kg water vapour (kg dry air)-1 and dry bulb temperature of 37 oC. The value of Universal gas constant is 8.314 kJ (kg mole K)-1. The humid volume of this air-water vapour mixture in m3 (kg dry air)-1 (rounded off to three decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (0.920 to 0.930)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 General soluti on to the differential equation y″ + 4y’ + 5y = 0 is

(A) 𝑒2𝑥(𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 𝑥)

(B) 𝑒−2𝑥(𝑎 cos 𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 𝑥)

(C) 𝑒𝑥(𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥)

(D) 𝑒−𝑥(𝑎 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑏 sin 2𝑥)

Answer: (B)

27. For vectors on the curve C (y = 2x2) in the x-y plane from (0, 0) to (1, 2) is

(A) -1.17

(B) 1.50

(C) -2.67

(D) 2.67

Answer: (A)

28. A 3-cylinder 4-stroke CI engine coupled with a turbocharger has a bore and stroke length of 120 mm and 130 mm, respectively. The engine is running at 1600 rpm with a volumetric efficiency of 150%. The air to fuel ratio for complete combustion on weight basis is 14.9:1 and the density of air entering the cylinder is 1.2 kg m-3. The fuel consumption in kg h-1 is

(A) 17.05

(B) 25.57

(C) 33.33

(D) 51.14

Answer: (B)

29. A level field of 1.2 ha (120 m × 100 m) is ploughed using a reversible mould board plough with a total effective cutting width of 0.64 m. The average field overlap is 80 mm between two consecutive laps. The average time taken for each turn is 30 seconds and the mean operating speed is 5.0 km h-1. The maximum effective field capacity in ha h-1 is

(A) 0.207

(B) 0.236

(C) 0.283

(D) 0.318

Answer: (A)

30. The thresher ‘A’ has output capacity of 170 kg h-1 while threshing paddy crop at 14% moisture content (m.c.) with a grain to straw ratio 45:55. The thresher ‘B’ has output capacity of 160 kg h-1 while threshing paddy crop at 13% m.c. with a grain to straw ratio 40:60. Both the threshers have threshing efficiency of 97%. If a farmer has to carry out threshing of paddy crop at 12% m.c. with a grain to straw ratio 40:60 in the least time, the selected thresher and its output in kg when operated for 5 hours will be

(A) A and 738

(B) A and 850

(C) B and 791

(D) B and 800

Answer: (C)

31. A horizontal axis drag type wind rotor, fitted with 4 thin rectangular blades having drag coefficient 1.29, is used to extract power when the average wind velocity in the rotor plane is 10 km h-1. The maximum power coefficient is

(A) 0.148

(B) 0.191

(C) 0.393

(D) 0.593

Answer: (B)

32.  A two-wheel drive tractor while operating a plough at a forward speed of 5 km h-1 experiences a wheel slip of 15%. If the angular speed of the rear axle is 2.4 rad s-1, the rolling radius of the traction wheel in meter will be

(A) 0.49

(B) 0.58

(C) 0.68

(D) 0.75

Answer: (C)

33. The combined mass of a tractor seat and operator is 75 kg and the undamped natural frequency of the operator seat is 10 rad s-1. If the seat suspension damping rate is 600 N m-1 s-1, the damping ratio is

(A) 0.2

(B) 0.4

(C) 0.6

(D) 0.8

Answer: (B)

34.  A catchment has eight raingauge stations. In a year, the annual rainfall recorded by the gauges (in cm) are 93.8, 106.5, 170.6, 138.7, 87.8, 156.2, 180.9 and 110.3. For a 10% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall, the optimum number of stations in the catchment is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

35. On a 4% land slope in a medium rainfall zone, the horizontal spacing of bunds in meter and the length of bunds per hectare in meter, respectively are

(A) 25 and 300

(B) 25 and 400

(C) 30 and 300

(D) 30 and 400

Answer: (B)

36. In a drainage area of 15 ha, the slope and drainage coefficient are 0.4% and 11 mm/day, respectively. The value of Manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.016. The inside diameter (in mm) of the corrugated plastic tubing used for drainage is

(A) 200.51

(B) 205.52

(C) 209.51

(D) 215.23

Answer: (C)

37. A 20 cm diameter well fully penetrates a confined aquifer of thickness 20 m. After a long period of pumping at the rate of 1500 L min-1, the steady drawdowns in the wells at 30 m and 50 m from the pumping well are found to be 2.0 m and 1.5 m, respectively. Assuming π = 3.14, the transmissivity of the aquifer in m2 s-1 is

(A) 0.244

(B) 14.676

(C) 352.224

(D) 880.560

Answer: (Marks to All)

38. Water is flowing at a velocity of 1.6 m s-1 in a pipe of diameter 8 cm and length 100 m. Assuming the value of coefficient of friction for pipe, f = 0.005 and acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m s-2, the head loss (in meter) due to friction in the pipe is

(A) 1.28

(B) 2.28

(C) 2.78

(D) 3.26

Answer: (D)

39. A cream separator has discharge radii of 6 cm and 9 cm and the density of cream and skim milk are 860 and 1035 kg m-3, respectively. The ideal radius (in meter) for placing the feed inlet is

(A) 0.085

(B) 0.098

(C) 0.113

(D) 0.174

Answer: (D)

40.  Head rice contents in the samples collected at feed inlet, head rice outlet and broken rice outlet of an indented cylinder grader are 82%, 94% and 15%, respectively. If the grader receives the feed at 1200 kg h-1, the flow rate (in kg h-1) of head rice in the broken rice stream is

(A) 20.17

(B) 27.34

(C) 182.28

(D) 1017.72

Answer: (B)

41.  A batch of 100 kg grain at 32% moisture content (wet basis) is being dried using hot air at 70 °C and 30% RH. The values of Henderson equation’s constants c and n for the grain are 8.5×10-6 and 2.07, respectively. Considering the maximum possible drying of the batch, the quantity of moisture removed in kg is

(A) 10.20

(B) 17.05

(C) 21.98

(D) 25.07

Answer: (D)

42. A chiller used for 3 hours. kW and working on mechanical vapour compression refrigeration system (COP = 4.5) is cooling 12500 kg of fresh cow milk (cp = 3.8 kJ kg-1 K-1) from 30°C to 4°C in Assuming ideal compression process, the power consumed by the electric motor in the tonnage of refrigeration (TR), respectively are

(A) 25.4 and 32.5

(B) 25.4 and 114.3

(C) 32.5 and 25.4

(D) 114.3 and 25.4

Answer: (A)

43. Two streams of air with the following conditions are adiabatically mixed:

Latent heat of vapourization of water at 0°C = 2501 kJ kg-1 Specific heat capacity of dry air = 1.005 kJ kg-1 K-1 Specific heat capacity of water vapour = 1.880 kJ kg-1 K-1

Using above values, the dry bulb temperature and the absolute humidity of the mixed air in o°C and g water vapour (kg dry air)-1, respectively are

(A) 43 and 30

(B) 44 and 31

(C) 45 and 33

(D) 46 and 35

Answer: (D)

44. Directional derivative of 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 𝑥𝑦2 + 𝑦𝑧3 at the point (2, -1, 1) in the direction of vector  (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

Answer: (-3.70 TO -3.60)

45. The mean absolute deviation about the median for the data 3, 9, 5, 3, 12, 10, 18, 4, 7, 19, 21
(rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Answer: (5.26 to 5.28)

46. The application rate of an 18-nozzle hydraulic sprayer is 1120 L ha-1. The nozzle spacing and forward speed are 400 mm and 3.4 km h-1, respectively. The operating pressure is 2.1 MPa and the pump efficiency is 60%. If 10% of the pump output power is used for agitating the liquid, the power needed to operate the sprayer in kW (rounded off to three decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (2.900 to 3.000)

47.  A two-wheel drive tractor is taking a turn with a radius of curvature 5.0 m. The minimum horizontal distance between the tipping axis and line of action of the CG is 800 mm. The angle between the line of action of centrifugal force and perpendicular direction to the tipping plane is 15o. If the vertical distance of the CG from the ground level is 900 mm, the limiting speed (in km h-1) of the tractor to prevent overturning (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

Answer: (24.00 to 24.45)

48. During operation, a two-wheel drive tractor with a total weight of 2000 kg has a weight distribution of 35% and 65% in front and rear axles, respectively. The width and diameter of the tyres fitted to the front axle are 0.18 m and 0.56 m, and those of the rear axle are 0.34 m and 1.10 m, respectively. If tyre deflection is 20%, then rolling resistance (in kN) of the tractor in a soil with average cone index 1000 kPa at a wheel slip of 15% (rounded off to two decimal places) will be __________.

Answer: (1.31 to 1.36)

49. The peak of a flood hydrograph due to a 5-hour storm is 670 m3 s-1. The total depth of rainfall is 9 cm. Assuming an average infiltration loss of 0.2 cm h-1 and a constant baseflow of 30 m3 s-1, the peak discharge of the 5-hour unit hydrograph for this catchment in m3 s-1 is ________.

Answer: (80 to 80)

50. A parabolic grassed water channel 8 m wide at the top and 60 cm deep is laid on a slope of 3%. Assuming the value of ‘n’ in Manning’s formula as 0.04 m-1/3 s, the discharge capacity (in m3 s-1) of the channel (rounded off to two decimal places) is __________.

Answer: (7.35 to 7.55)

51.  Undisturbed soil sample is collected from a field when the soil moisture is at field capacity. The inside diameter of the core sampler is 7.5 cm with a height of 15 cm. Weight of the core sampling cylinder with moist soil is 2.81 kg and that with oven dry soil is 2.61 kg. The weight of the core sampling cylinder is 1.56 kg. Assuming π = 3.14, the water depth in centimeter per meter depth of soil (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________.

Answer: (30.10 to 30.30)

52. An irrigation stream of 27 L s-1 is diverted to a check basin of size 12 m × 12 m. The water holding capacity of the soil is 15% and the average soil moisture content in the crop root zone prior to applying water is 7.5%. The depth of crop root zone is 1.2 m and apparent specific gravity of the soil is 1.5. Assuming no loss due to deep percolation, irrigation time (in minute) required to replenish the root zone moisture to its field capacity is _______.

Answer: (12 to 12)

53. Angle of internal friction of a certain grain (bulk density = 650 kg m-3) is 30°. A bin filled with this grain experiences a pressure of 60 kPa at its base. Ignoring the factor of safety, the safe height (in meter) to which water (density = 1000 kg m-3) can be filled in this bin (rounded off to two decimal places) is ________.

Answer: (2.00 to 2.10)

54. The steady-state mass transfer coefficient (kg) based on water vapour pressure differential (VPD) operating across stagnant, non-diffusing air was estimated to be 0.05 g mole s-1 m-2 kPa-1. If VPD varies from 12 kPa to 7 kPa over a distance of 2 mm, then the mass transfer coefficient (kyˈ) based on equimolar counter-diffusion in g mole s-1 m-2 (mole fraction)-1 (rounded off to one decimal place) is __________.

Answer: (4.5 to 4.7)

55.  In an air blast freezing operation, a flat tray of 1.0 m×1.0 m×0.02 m dimensions is used to freeze filled depodded peas. Bulk density and moisture content of peas are 550 kg m-3 and 85% (w.b.), respectively. Latent heat of freezing from water to ice at -1 −°C is 335 kJ kg-1 and heat transfer occurs identically from the top and the bottom surfaces of the tray. Convective film heat transfer coefficient on the heat transfer surfaces of the tray is 30 W m-2 K-1 and the thermal conductivity of frozen peas is 0.54 W m-1 K-1. Assuming the tray to be a semi-infinite slab, the freezing time (in minutes) to completely freeze the product (rounded off to one decimal place) is ________.

Answer: (Marks to All)

GATE Exam 2019 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

1. The fishermen, ________ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the government.

(A) whom

(B) to which

(C) to whom

(D) that

Answer: (C)

2.  Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.

3. At least one student was involved in the strike.

4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

3. The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is .

(A) 17.1

(B) 21.0

(C) 33.1

(D) 72.8

Answer: (C)

4. Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions given below:

1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.

2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.

3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

5. Until Iran came along, India had never been in kabaddi.

(A) defeated

(B) defeating

(C) defeat

(D) defeatist

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

6.  Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are also reduced

(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rates

(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes

(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

7. In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50

(B) 14.70

(C) 15.00

(D) 50.00

Answer: (A)

8. The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal

(C) baaj, institution

(D) gharana, lineage

Answer: (C)

9. Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they were 540 km apart is AM.

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 11.30

Answer: (B)

10.  “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads

(C) the number of taxes he could levy

(D) the number of heads he could gather

Answer: (D)

Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

1.  The maximum value of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥𝑒−𝑥 (where x is real) is

(A) 1/𝑒

(B) 2/𝑒2

(C) (𝑒−1/2)/2

(D) ∞

Answer: (A)

2. Vector 𝑏⃗ is obtained by rotating 𝑎 = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ by 90° about 𝑘̂, where 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ and 𝑘̂ are unit vectors along the x, y and z axes, respectively. 𝑏⃗ is given by

(A) 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂

(B) −𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂

(C) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂

(D) −𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂

Answer: (B)

3. A scalar function is given by 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥2 + 𝑦2. Take 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ as unit vectors along the x and y axes, respectively. At (𝑥, 𝑦) = (3, 4), the direction along which 𝑓 increases the fastest is

Answer: (C)

4. The dimensions of kinematic viscosity of a fluid (where L is length, T is time) are

(A) LT−1

(B) L2T −1

(C) LT −2

(D) L−2T

Answer: (B)

5. ϕ(𝑥, 𝑦) represents the velocity potential of a two-dimensional flow with velocity field are unit vectors along the x and y axes, tively. Which of the following is necessarily true?

(A) ∇2ϕ

(D) 𝑢 = −𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑦,  𝑣  = 𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑥

Answer: (B)

6. For a quasi-one-dimensional isentropic supersonic flow through a diverging duct, which of the following is true in the direction of the flow?

(A) Both the Mach number and the static temperature increase.

(B) The Mach number increases and the static temperature decreases.

(C) The Mach number decreases and the static temperature increases.

(D) Both the Mach number and the static temperature decrease.

Answer: (B)

7. For a NACA2415 airfoil of chord length c, which of the following is true?

(A) Maximum camber is located at 0.2c from the leading edge.

(B) Maximum thickness is located at 0.15c from the leading edge.

(C) Maximum camber is 0.02c.

(D) Maximum thickness is 0.05c.

Answer: (C)

8. When a propeller a the following state irplane in ground-roll during take-off experiences headwind, which of ments is FALSE?

(A) The drag on the airplane increases.

(B) The thrust from the propellers decreases.

(C) The wing lift in creases.

(D) The ground-roll distance increases.

Answer: (D)

9.  Which of the following graphs represents the response of a dynamically unstable airplane?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

10. The propulsive efficiency of a ramjet engine is lower than that of a low bypass turbofan engine operating under the same conditions and producing the same thrust, primarily because the ramjet engine

(A) has larger kinetic energy lost in the exhaust jet.

(B) has lower thrust power.

(C) is not self-starting.

(D) has higher thrust to weight ratio.

Answer: (A)

11. While flying at order from the l Mach 2.0, 11 km altitude and producing the same thrust, what is the correct owest thrust specific fuel consumption (tsfc) to the highest tsfc?

(A) Turbofan, R amjet, Turbojet

(B) Turbofan, Turbojet, Ramjet

(C) Ramjet, Tur bojet, Turbofan

(D) Turbojet, Turbofan, Ramjet

Answer: (B)

12. For a single stage subsonic compressor, which of the following statements about the highest possible compressor pressure ratio (CPR) is correct?

(A) CPR of an axial compressor > CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(B) CPR of an axial compressor < CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(C) CPR of an axial compressor = CPR of centrifugal compressor.

(D) CPR of any value can be attained with either an axial or a centrifugal compressor.

Answer: (B)

13. For a beam subjected to a transverse shear load through its shear center,

(A) the twist per unit length is zero.

(B) the shear stress is uniform throughout the cross-section.

(C) the bending stresses in the cross section are zero.

(D) the shear strain is zero at the shear center.

Answer: (A)

14. A function 𝑓(𝑥) is defined by  The value of

is (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: ()

15. The value of the following limit is______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.5 to 0.5)

16. To simulate the aerodynamic forces on a cylinder of 1 m diameter due to a uniform air flow of 1 m/s at standard temperature and pressure (STP), low-speed wind tunnel experiments at STP are conducted on a 0.1 m diameter cylinder. The free stream air speed in the wind tunnel experiments should be _____ m/s (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (0.16 to 0.17)

17. The power-off glide range for an airplane with a maximum Lift to Drag ratio of 18, when the glide starts at an altitude of 4 km, is _______ km (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (10 to 10)

18. For an airplane flying in a vertical plane, the angle of attack is 3°, the horizontal and vertical components of velocity in wind axis are 300 km/h and 15.72 km/h, respectively. The pitch attitude of the airplane is _______ degrees (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (5.98 to 6.00)

19. An airplane is in steady level flight with a true air speed of 50 m/s. The ambient air density and ambient pressure at the flight altitude are 0.91 kg/m3 and 7×104N/m2, respectively. At sea level, air density is 1.225 kg/m3 and ambient pressure is 1.01×105 N/m2. The equivalent or indicated air speed of the airplane is ______ m/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (43.05 to 43.15)

20. For the complete combustion of 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH), the required number of moles of oxygen is _____ .

Answer: (3 to 3)

21. One kg of diatomic gas is heated and its temperature increases from 100 K to 600 K. The energy added at constant pressure during this process is 500 kJ. The specific heat at constant volume for the gas is _____ kJ/kgK. (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.70 to 0.72)

22. The number of independent elastic constants for a homogeneous isotropic linear elastic material is______ .

23. A thin plate with Young’s modulus 210 GPa and Poisson’s ratio 0.3 is loaded as shown in the figure. The change in length along the y-direction________ is mm (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (2 to 2)

24. For the state of stress shown in the figure, the normal stress, 𝜎𝑛 , on a plane inclined at 45 degrees to the x-axis is MPa (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (247 to 255)

25. In the spring-mass system, shown in the figure, mass m = 3 kg and the spring stiffness k = 20 kN/m. The natural frequency of the system is _____ Hz (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (16 to 16)

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

26. The following system of equations

2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,

−𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,

−𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 0

(A) has no solution.

(B) has a unique solution.

(C) has three solutions.

(D) has an infinite number of solutions.

Answer: (D)

27. A supersonic flow in a constant area duct at Mach number M1 encounters a ramp of angle θ1 (see Figure 1). The resulting oblique shock with shock angle β1 is then reflected from the top wall. For the reflected shock, the turn angle is θ2 and the shock angle is β2.

Use the weak shock solution from the θ-β-M plot shown in Figure 2 to choose the correct option from the following.

(A) β1 > β2

(B) β1 < β2

(C) θ1 > θ2

(D) θ1 < θ2

Answer: (B)

28. Which of the following statements about adverse yaw of an airplane is/are correct?

P. It is caused by flow separation resulting from large rudder deflection.

Q. It is caused by dissimilar drag forces acting on the two halves of the wing resulting from aileron deflections of same magnitude.

R. It can be eliminated by ensuring that the upward deflection of one aileron is greater than the downward deflection of the opposite aileron.

(A) P only

(B) Q only

(C) P and R

(D) Q and R

Answer: (D)

29. In a turbojet engine, the compressor outlet temperature increases with decreasing efficiency of the compressor. If the turbine inlet temperature remains constant, with decreasing efficiency of the compressor, the thrust specific fuel consumption of the engine

(A) decreases, as the heat input is lower.

(B) remains unchanged.

(C) increases, as the compressor needs more work input from the turbine.

(D) decreases, as the thrust produced is higher.

Answer: (C)

30. For a 1 m long simply supported beam with a concentrated vertical load of 200 N and a concentrated bending moment of 100 Nm at the center as shown in the figure, the correct bending moment diagram is :

(A)

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

31. For real x, the number of points of intersection between the curves 𝑦 = 𝑥 and 𝑦 = cos 𝑥 is_________.

Answer: (1 to 1)

32. One of the eigenvalues of the following matrix is 1.

The other eigenvalue is ______ .

Answer: (2 to 2)

33. The curve 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) is such that its slope is equal to 𝑦2 for all real x. If the curve passes through (1, -1), the value of y at 𝑥 = −2 is_______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (0.5 to 0.5)

34. The inviscid, incompressible flow field resulting from a uniform flow past a circular cylinder of radius R centered at the origin is given by:

where ur and uθ are the radial and azimuthal velocity components in polar coordinates, (r, θ), as shown in the figure. U is the free stream speed. Ignore the effects of gravity. The azimuthal location (in the first quadrant) on the cylinder at which the pressure coefficient is zero is ______ degrees (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (30 to 30)

35. A cylindrical container of radius R = 50 cm is filled with water up to a height ho. Upon rotating the cylinder about its central axis at a constant angular speed, the free surface takes a parabolic shape (see figure), and is displaced upwards by h1 = 10 cm at r = R. The magnitude of the downward displacement h2 of the free surface at r = 0 _____ is cm (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (10 to 10)

36. A two-dimensional, incompressible fluid flow is described by the stream function Ψ = xy3 m2/s on the Cartesian x-y plane. If the density and dynamic viscosity of the fluid are 1 kg/m3 and 0.1 kg/m-s, respectively, the magnitude of the pressure gradient in the x direction at x=1 m and y=1 m is _______ N/m3 (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (3.5 to 3.7 or 2.3 to 2.5)

37. The static pressure ratio across a stationary normal shock is given by

where M1 is the upstream Mach number. For a stationary normal shock in air (γ = 1.4, 𝑅 = 287 J/kg-K) with upstream flow conditions given by: speed 800 m/s, static temperature 300 K and static pressure 1 atm., the static pressure downstream of the shock is ____atm. (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (5.95 to 6.10)

38. For a symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack of 10º, assuming thin airfoil theory, the magnitude of the pitching moment coefficient about the leading edge is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.24 to 0.30)

39. The span-wise distribution of circulation over a finite wing of span b = 10 m is

If Γ0 = 20 m2/s and the free stream density and speed are 1.2 kg/m3 and 100 m/s, respectively, the total lift is _______ kN (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (18.00 to 19.20)

40. The airplane shown in figure starts executing a symmetric pull-up maneuver from steady level attitude with a constant nose-up pitch acceleration of 20 deg/s2. The vertical load factor measured at this instant at the centre of gravity (CG) is 2. Given that the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the vertical load factor measured at point P on the nose of the airplane, which is 2 m ahead of the CG, is _______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.06 to 2.08)

41. Consider an airplane with a weight of 8000 N, wing area of 16 m2, wing zero-lift drag coefficient of 0.02, Oswald’s efficiency factor of 0.8, and wing aspect ratio of 6, in steady level flight with wing lift coefficient of 0.375. Considering the same flight speed and ambient density, the ratio of the induced drag coefficient during steady level flight to that during a 30o climb is ______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (1.32 to 1.35)

42. The product of earth’s mass (M) and the universal gravitational constant (G) is GM = 3.986×1014 m3/s2. The radius of earth is 6371 km. The minimum increment in the velocity to be imparted to a spacecraft flying in a circular orbit around the earth at an altitude of 4000 km to make it exit earth’s gravitational field is______ km/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.54 to 2.62)

43. A propeller driven airplane has a gross take-off weight of 4905 N with a wing area of 6.84 m2. Assume that the wings are operating at the maximum of 13, the propeller efficiency is 0.9 and the specific fuel consumption of the engine is 0.76 kg/kW-hr. Given that the density of air at sea level is 1.225 kg/m3 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the weight of the fuel required for an endurance of 18 hours at sea level is ________ N (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (1440 to 1490)

44. The design of an airplane is modified to increase the vertical tail area by 20% and decrease the moment arm from the aerodynamic centre of the vertical tail to the airplane centre of gravity by 20%. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, the ratio of the modified to the original directional static stability ( due to tail fin) is ______ (round off to 2
decimal places).

Answer: (0.96 to 0.96)

45. For a rocket engine, the velocity ratio r is Va/Ve, where Va is the vehicle velocity and Ve is the exit velocity of the exhaust gases. Assume the flow to be optimally expanded through the nozzle. For r = 2, if F is the thrust produced and 𝑚̇ is the mass flow rate of exhaust gases, then, 𝐹/(𝑚̇𝑉𝑒) is__________ .

Answer: (1 to 1)

46. The specific impulse of a rocket engine is 3000 Ns/kg. The mass of the rocket at burnout is 1000 kg. The propellant consumed in the process is 720 kg. Assume all factors contributing to velocity loss to be negligible. The change in vehicle velocity Δu is ____ km/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (1.60 to 1.65)

47. The combustion products of a gas turbine engine can be assumed to be a calorically perfect gas with γ = 1.2. The pressure ratio across the turbine stage is 0.14. The measured turbine inlet and exit stagnation temperatures are 1200 K and 900 K, respectively. The total-to- total turbine efficiency is_______ % (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (88 to 90)

48. The figure shows the velocity triangles for an axial compressor stage. The specific work input to the compressor stage is kJ/kg_______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (2.50 to 2.60)

49. As shown in the figure, a rigid slab CD of weight W (distributed uniformly along its length) is hung from a ceiling using three cables of identical length and cross-sectional area. The central cable is made of steel (Young’s modulus = 3E) and the other two cables are made of aluminium (Young’s modulus = E). The percentage of the total weight taken by the central cable is______ % (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (60 to 60)

50. All the bars in the given truss are elastic with Young’s modulus 200 GPa, and have identical cross-sections with moment of inertia 0.1 cm4. The lowest value of the load P at which the truss fails due to buckling is _____ kN (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (550 to 570)

51. A solid circular shaft is designed to transmit a torque T with a factor of safety of 2. It is proposed to replace the solid shaft by a hollow shaft of the same material and identical outer radius. If the inner radius is half the outer radius, the factor of safety for the hollow shaft is (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (1.8 to 1.9)

52. In the structure shown in the figure, bars AB and BC are made of identical material and have circular cross-sections of 10 mm radii. The yield stress of the material under uniaxial tension is 280 MPa. Using the von Mises yield criterion, the maximum load along the z- direction (perpendicular to the plane of paper) that can be applied at C, such that AB does not yield is N (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (310 to 320)

53. A thin-walled tube, with the cross-section shown in the figure, is subjected to a torque of T = 1 kN-m. The walls have uniform thickness t = 1 mm and shear modulus G = 26 GPa. Assume that the curved portion is semi-circular. The shear stress in the wall is_____ MPa (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (17.0 to 17.5)

54. For a damped spring-mass system, mass m = 10 kg, stiffness k = 103 N/m, and damping coefficient c = 20 kg/s. The ratio of the amplitude of oscillation of the first cycle to that of the fifth cycle is______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Answer: (12.3 to 12.6)

55. For the system of springs and masses shown below, k = 1250 N/m and m = 10 kg. The highest natural frequency, ω, of the system is _____ radians/s (round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (25 to 25)

© Copyright Entrance India - Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams in India | Website Maintained by Firewall Firm - IT Monteur