General Aptitude (GA) Set-1
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.
1. “ Going by the _________ that many hands make light work, the school _______ involved all the students in the task.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) principle, principal
(B) principal, principle
(C) principle, principle
(D) principal, principal
2. “ Her _______ should not be confused with miserliness; she is ever willing to assist those in need.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) cleanliness
(B) punctuality
(C) frugality
(D) greatness
3. Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same rate, how many minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 100
(D) 700
4. A rectangle becomes a square when its length and breadth are reduced by 10 m and 5 m, respectively. During this process, the rectangle loses 650 m2 of area. What is the area of the original rectangle in square meters?
(A) 1125
(B) 2250
(C) 2924
(D) 4500
5. A number consists of two digits. The sum of the digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the number, its digits are interchanged. What is the number?
(A) 63
(B) 72
(C) 81
(D) 90
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
6. F or integers 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑐, what would be the minimum and maximum values respectively of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if log |𝑎| + log |𝑏| + log |𝑐| = 0?
(A) -3 and 3
(B) -1 and 1
(C) -1 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
7. Given that 𝑎 and 𝑏 are integers and 𝑎 + 𝑎2 𝑏3 is odd, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both odd
(B) 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both even
(C) 𝑎 is even and 𝑏 is odd
(D) 𝑎 is odd and 𝑏 is even
8. From the time the front of a train enters a platform, it takes 25 seconds for the back of the train to leave the platform, while travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h. At the same speed, it takes 14 seconds to pass a man running at 9 km/h in the same direction as the train. What is the length of the train and that of the platform in meters, respectively?
(A) 210 and 140
(B) 162.5 and 187.5
(C) 245 and 130
(D) 175 and 200
9. Which of the following functions describe the graph shown in the below figure?
(A) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 2
(B) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| − 1
(C) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| + 1| − 1
(D) 𝑦 = ||𝑥 − 1| − 1|
10. Consider the following three statements:
(i) Some roses are red.
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly.
(iii) Some roses fade quickly.
Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is false.
(B) If (i) is true and (ii) is false, then (iii) is true.
(C) If (i) and (ii) are true, then (iii) is true.
(D) If (i) and (ii) are false, then (iii) is false.
Life Sciences (XL)
Chemistry (COMPULSORY) – XL-P
XL-P: Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each & Q. 6 – Q. 15 carry two marks each
1. F or the complete combustion of graphite and diamond in oxygen individually, the standard
enthalpy change (ΔH°298) values are –393.5 kJ mol–1 and –395.4 kJ mol–1, respectively. Then, the ΔH° 298 for the conversion of graphite into diamond is
(A) +1.9 kJ mol–1
(B) –1.9 kJ mol–1
(C) +3.8 kJ mol–1
(D) –3.8 kJ mol–1
2. F or a 4s orbital of hydrogen atom, the magnetic quantum number (ml) is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 0
3. Hybridization of xenon in XeF2 is
(A) sp
(B) sp2
(C) sp3
(D) sp3d
4. Two equivalents of P react with one equivalent of Q to produce a major product R.
The number of double bonds present in the major product R is _______.
5. T he total number of possible stereoisomers for the compound with the structural formula CH3CH(OH)CH=CHCH2CH3 is _______.
6. Among B—H, C—H, N—H and Si—H bonds in BH3, CH4, NH3 and SiH4, respectively, the polarity of the bond which is shown INCORRECTLY is
(A) Bδ+ – Hδ–
(B) Cδ– – Hδ–
(C) Nδ– – Hδ+
(D) Siδ–– Hδ+
7. Among the following statements,
(i) [NiCl4]2– (atomic number of Ni = 28) is diamagnetic
(ii) Ethylamine is a weaker Lewis base compared to pyridine
(iii) [NiCl2{P(C6H5)3}2] has two geometrical isomers
(iv) Bond angle in H2O is greater than that in H2S,
the CORRECT one is
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
8. In [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (atomic number of Mn = 25), the d-d transitions according to crystal field theory (CFT) are
(A) Laporte forbidden and spin forbidden
(B) Laporte allowed and spin allowed
(C) Laporte forbidden and spin allowed
(D) Laporte allowed and spin forbidden
9. The major product M in the reaction
10. The two major products of the reaction
are
11. The compound, which upon mono-nitration using a mixture of HNO3 and H2SO4, does NOT give the meta-isomer as the major product, is
12. The standard reduction potential (E°) for the conversion of CrO72– to Cr3+ at 25°C in an aqueous solution of pH 3.0 is 1.33 V. The concentrations of CrO72– to Cr3+ are 1.0 × 10–4 M and 1.0 × 10–3 M, respectively. Then the potential of this half-cell reaction is (Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol–1, Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
(A) 1.04 V
(B) 0.94 V
(C) 0.84 V
(D) 0.74 V
13. The solubility product (Ksp) of Mg(OH)2 at 25 °C is 5.6 × 10–11. Its solubility in water is S × 10–2 g/L, where the value of S is _______ (up to two decimal places). (Given: Molecular weight of Mg(OH)2 = 58.3 g mol–1)
14. The activation energy (Ea) values for two reactions carried out at 25°C differ by 5.0 kJ mol–1. If the pre-exponential factors (A1 and A2) for these two reactions are of the same magnitude, the ratio of rate constants (k1/k2) is _______ (up to two decimal places). (Given: Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
15. One mole of helium gas in an isolated system undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion at 25 °C from an initial volume of 2.0 liters to a final volume of 10.0 liters. The change in entropy (ΔS) of the surroundings is ______ J K–1 (up to two decimal places). (Given: Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Biochemistry-XL(Q)
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q.11 – Q.20 carry two marks each.
1. To which one of the following classes of enzymes does chymotrypsin belong?
(A) Oxidoreductase
(B) Hydrolase
(C) Transferase
(D) Isomerase
2. The substrate saturation profile of an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics is depicted in the figure. What is the order of the reaction in the concentration range between 0.8 to 1.4 M?
(A) Zero
(B) Fraction
(C) First
(D) Second
3. Which one of the following conformations of glucose is most stable?
(A) Boat
(B) Half Chair
(C) Chair
(D) Planar
4. Which one of the following profiles represent the phenomenon of cooperativity?
5. Which one of the following amino acids is responsible for the intrinsic fluorescence of proteins?
(A) Pro
(B) Met
(C) His
(D) Trp
6. The glycosylation of the proteins occurs in_____.
(A) glyoxysomes
(B) lysosomes
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) plasma membrane
7. Which one of the following properties of the myeloma cells is used in the hybridoma technology to generate monoclonal antibody?
(A) lack of thymidylate synthase
(B) over-expression of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
(C) over-expression of inosine 5´-monophosphate cyclohydrolase
(D) lack of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
8. The movement of protons through the FoF1-ATPase during mitochondrial respiration is required for ____
(A) the increase in pH of mitochondrial matrix.
(B) changing the conformation of FoF1-ATPase to expel the ATP.
(C) importing Pi from inter membrane space.
(D) decreasing the affinity of ADP to FoF1-ATPase.
9. The number of NADP+ molecules required to completely oxidize one molecule of glucose to CO2 through pentose phosphate pathway is ____ (correct to integer number).
10. Measurement of the absorbance of a solution containing NADH in a path length of 1cm cuvette at 340 nm shows the value of 0.31. The molar extinction coefficient of NADH is 6200 M-1 cm-1. The concentration of NADH in the solution is ___ μM (correct to integer number).
Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.
11. Among the reagents given below which one of the combination of reagents will NOT break the disulphide bonds in the immunoglobulin molecules?
(P) Reduced glutathione
(Q) Dithiothritol
(R) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(S) Methionine
(A) R&S
(B) P&R
(C) P&S
(D) Q&R
12. Match the protein elution condition given in Group I with the appropriate chromatography matrices from Group II.
(A) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
(B) P-ii; Q-iv; R-i; S-iii
(C) P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv
(D) P- iv; Q-ii; R-iii; S-i
13. Which one of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Glutamate
(C) Histamine
(D) Histidine
14. The type-II hypersensitivity reaction is mainly mediated by____.
(A) IgE
(B) IgM
(C) IgA
(D) T cells
15. Which one the following reaction mechanisms drives the conversion of low energy 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde to high energy 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate?
(A) Oxidation without anhydride bond formation
(B) Oxidation coupled with anhydride bond formation
(C) Substrate level phosphorylation
(D) Formation of carboxylate
16. A polymerase reaction is carried out for 10 cycles in a volume of 1 ml with 5 molecules of template DNA. Assuming that the efficiency of the reaction is 100 %, the number of molecules of DNA present in 100 μl at the end of the reaction is ___ (correct to integer number).
17. The secondary structure topology diagram of 400 amino acid long “Protein-X” is depicted in the figure. The start and end amino acid residue numbers of each α-helix are marked. The percentage (correct to integer number) of residues forming α-helix is____.
18. An enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics with substrate S. The fraction of the maximum velocity (Vmax) will be observed with the substrate concentration [S] = 4Km is _____ (correct to one decimal place). (Km is Michaelis-Menten constant)
19. The mass spectrum of benzoic acid will generate the fragment as a base peak (100% relative abundance) of m/z (mass to charge ratio) at ____ (correct to integer number).
20. The standard free energy(ΔG´) values of reactions catalyzed by citrate lyase and citrate synthetase are -670 and -8192 cal/mol, respectively.
The standard free energy (in cal/mol) of acetyl-CoA hydrolysis is ___ (correct to integer number).
Botany (XL-R)
XL-R: Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.
1. Which of the following genera produces dimorphic seeds that help to broaden the time of germination in a variable habitat?
(A) Xanthium
(B) Pisum
(C) Mangifera
(D) Linum
2. The genes for microRNA (miRNA) in plants are usually transcribed by
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III
(D) RNA polymerase IV
3. Which of the statements is TRUE for transposable elements Ac and Ds?
(A) Both Ac and Ds are autonomous because they encode their own transposase
(B) Both Ac and Ds are non-autonomous because they do not encode their own transposase
(C) Only Ac is autonomous because it encodes its own transposase
(D) Only Ds is autonomous because it encodes its own transposase
4. Identify the CORRECT statement.
(A) Receptor-like kinases play role in gametophytic self-incompatibility in Brassicaceae
(B) Receptor-like kinases play role in sporophytic self-incompatibility in Solanaceae
(C) Ribonucleases play role in sporophytic self-incompatibility in Brassicaceae
(D) Ribonucleases play role in gametophytic self-incompatibility in Solanaceae
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ecotone?
(A) An ecotone is the synonym of an ecosystem
(B) An ecotone is an interface zone of two or more ecosystems
(C) An ecotone is a special feature of land biomes
(D) An ecotone is exclusively characterized by decreased biodiversity
6. Acid rain with a pH of 4.0 is more acidic than the rain with a pH of 6.0 by
(A) 2 times
(B) 10 times
(C) 100 times
(D) 1000 times
7. Which of the following plants produces Ylang-ylang oil?
(A) Cananga odorata
(B) Carcum copticum
(C) Pandanus odoratissimus
(D) Pimenta racemosa
8. Identify the INCORRECT statement in connection with polar transport of auxin.
(A) The putative influx carrier AUX1 is a cytosolic protein
(B) Polar auxin transport in root tends to be both acropetal and basipetal in direction
(C) Naphthylphthalamic acid (NPA) is an inhibitor of polar auxin transport
(D) AUX1 and PIN1 proteins are located in the opposite ends of a cell for polar transport
9. Which of the following stains is used to visualize callose under the microscope?
(A) Alcian blue
(B) Aniline blue
(C) Toluidine blue
(D) Thymol blue
10. The coding sequence of a gene XLR18 has the single ORF of 783 bp. The pproximate molecular weight of the XLR18 protein in kDa is ______.
11. Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Select the CORRECT combination.
P. Mitosis occurs exclusively in diploid mother cell
Q. Mitosis occurs both in diploid and haploid mother cells
R. Meiosis occurs exclusively in diploid mother cell
S. Meiosis occurs both in diploid and haploid mother cells
(A) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-F
(B) P-F, Q-T, R-F, S-T
(C) P-T, Q-F, R-F, S-T
(D) P-F, Q-T, R-T, S-F
12. You are asked to design a genetic construct for high-level expression of a gene encoding the therapeutic protein 18 (TP18) via plastid transformation. Select the CORRECT set ofgenetic elements for this construct.
(A) Actin1 promoter → TP18 coding sequence → Actin1 transcription terminator
(B) Ubiquitin1 promoter → TP18 coding sequence → Ubiquitin1 transcription terminator
(C) rbcS promoter → TP18 coding sequence → rbcS transcription terminator
(D) rbcL promoter → TP18 coding sequence → rbcL transcription terminator
13. Select the CORRECT combination of the following statements.
P. The cyclic electron transport chain involving PSI results in net production of both ATP and NADPH
Q. The cyclic electron transport chain involving PSI results in net production of ATP
R. Rubisco enzyme usually converts RuBP and CO2 into 2-phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate
S. Rubisco enzyme usually converts RuBP and O2 into 2-phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate
(A) P, Q
(B) R, S
(C) Q, S
(D) P, R
14. Match the fruit characters with their families and representative plant species.
(A) P-2-iv, Q-3-ii, R-1-vi, S-4-v
(B) P-1-iii, Q-3-iv, R-2-i, S-4-ii
(C) P-3-i, Q-2-iii, R-4-ii, S-1-vi
(D) P-4-v, Q-1-ii, R-2-v, S-3-i
15. Select the CORRECT combination by matching the disease, affected plant and the causal organism.
(A) P-2-v, Q-1-iv, R-3-iii, S-4-vi
(B) P-2-ii, Q-1-i, R-4-iii, S-3-i
(C) P-4-iii, Q-1-iv, R-2-i, S-3-ii
(D) P-4-vi, Q-1-iii, R-3-ii, S-2-v
16. Select the CORRECT combination by matching Group-I with Group-II.
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
17. Match the plant alkaloids with their uses and source species.
(A) P-2-iv, Q-1-iii, R-4-i, S-3-ii
(B) P-4-iii, Q-2-v, R-1-vi, S-3-i
(C) P-2-v, Q-1-vi, R-3-iv, S-4-ii
(D) P-3-ii, Q-4-iii, R-1-iv, S-2-i
18. Identify the CORRECT combination of statements with respect to chemical defense in plants.
P. Pisatin, a phytoalexin produced by Ricinus communis is a constitutive defense compound
Q. Phaseolus vulgaris produces Phaseolus agglutinin I, which is toxic to the cowpea weevil
R. A single step non-enzymatic hydrolysis of cyanogenic glycoside releases the toxic hydrocyanic acid (HCN) to protect plant against herbivores and pathogens
S. Avenacin, a triterpenoid saponin from oat prevents infection by Gaeumannomyces graminis, a major pathogen of cereal roots
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, S
(C) R, S
(D) P, S
19. In garden pea, dwarf plants with terminal flowers are recessive to tall plants with axial flowers. A true-breeding tall plant with axial flowers was crossed with a true-breeding dwarf plant with terminal flowers. The resulting F1 plants were testcrossed, and the following progeny were obtained:
Tall plants with axial flowers = 320
Dwarf plants with terminal flowers = 318
Tall plants with terminal flowers = 79
Dwarf plants with axial flowers = 83
The map distance between the genes for plant height and flower position is______cM.
20. Two true-breeding snapdragon (Antirrhinum majus) plants, one with red flowers and another with white flowers were crossed. The F1 plants were all with pink flowers. When the F1 plants were selfed, they produced three kinds of F2 plants with red, pink and white flowers in a 1:2:1 ratio. The probability that out of the five plants picked up randomly, two would be with pink flowers, two with white flowers and one with red flowers is _____%.
Microbiology (XL-S)
XL (S): Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.
1. David Baltimore’s classification of viruses is based on differences in
(A) host cell receptors used by viruses
(B) the pathways required to synthesize virus mRNA
(C) the modes of transmission of viruses
(D) the envelope proteins on the surface of viruses
2. Which of the following immune system components can function as an opsonin?
(A) Antibodies
(B) T-cell receptors
(C) Histamines
(D) Interferons
3. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) consists of
(A) live attenuated virus
(B) killed virus
(C) viral toxin
(D) viral capsid subunit
4. Which of the following eukaryotic cellular components carries out intracellular degradation during autophagy?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Golgi bodies
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Lysosomes
5. A nalysis of DNA sequences suggest that eukaryotic mitochondrial genomes primarily originated from
(A) fungi
(B) protozoa
(C) algae
(D) bacteria
6. Binomial nomenclature has NOT yet been adopted for
(A) bacteria
(B) fungi
(C) viruses
(D) protozoa
7. Which of the following is NOT an accepted method for sterilization?
(A) Autoclaving
(B) X-rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) UV rays
8. The primary product of nitrogen fixation is
(A) N2
(B) NH4+
(C) NO2–
(D) NO3
9. In humans, the key stages in the life cycle of malarial parasites occur in
(A) red blood cells and the liver
(B) red blood cells and platelets
(C) red blood cells and the pancreas
(D) red blood cells and the gut
10. You have a 50 mg/mL stock solution of arginine. To prepare 1 liter of growth medium for an arginine auxotroph that requires 70 μg/mL of arginine, the volume of this stock solution that should be added is _____________ mL (up to 1 decimal point) .
11. Accumulating evidence suggest that Domain Archaea is more closely related to Domain Eukarya than to Domain Bacteria. Which of the following properties are shared between eukaryotes and archaea ?
(i) Protein biogenesis
(ii) Presence of sterol containing membranes
(iii) Ribosomal subunit structures
(iv) Adaptation to extreme environmental conditions
(v) Fatty acids with ester linkages in the cell membrane
(A) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
12. Match the antimicrobial agents in group I with their category/mode of action in group II.
(A) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)
(B) (i)-(s), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)
(C) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p)
(D) (i)-(s), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p)
13. Match the microorganisms to their predominant modes of transmission.
(A) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(q)
(B) (i)-(s), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(r)
(C) (i)-(q), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(r)
(D) (i)-(s), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)
14. Match the precursors/intermediates with the corresponding metabolic pathways.
(A) (i)-(q), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(p)
(B) (i)-(p), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(q)
(C) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(q)
(D) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p)
15. Match the scientists to their area of major contribution
(A) (i)-(s), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(r)
(B) (i)-(s), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(r)
(C) (i)-(p), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(q)
(D) (i)-(q), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(s)
16. Which of the following combinations would improve the resolution of a microscope?
(i) Increasing the half aperture angle of the objective lens
(ii) Decreasing the wavelength of the illumination source
(iii) Decreasing the numerical aperture of the objective lens
(iv) Decreasing the refractive index of immersion medium
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
17. Active transport involves the movement of a biomolecule against a concentration gradient across the cell membrane using metabolic energy. If the extracellular concentration of a biomolecule is 0.005M and its intracellular concentration is 0.5M, the least amount of energy that the cell would need to spend to transport this biomolecule from the outside to the inside of the cell is ________ kcal/mol (up to 2 decimal points). (Temperature T = 298K and universal gas constant R= 1.98 cal/mol·K)
18. A continuous cell culture being carried out in a stirred tank reactor is described in terms of its cell mass concentration X and substrate concentration S. The concentration of the substrate in the sterile feed stream is SF = 10 g/L and yield coefficient Yx/s = 0.5. The flow rates of the feed stream and the exit stream are equal (F=5 mL/min) and constant. If the
specific growth rate 
the steady state concentration of S is _____ g/L (up to 1 decimal point).
19. The initial concentration of cells (N0) growing unrestricted in a culture is 1.0×106 cells/mL. If the specific growth rate (μ) of the cells is 0.1 h-1, the time required for the cell concentration to become 1.0×108 cells/mL is _________ hours (up to 2 decimal points).
20. The following stoichiometric equation represents the conversion of glucose to lactic acid in a cell:
Glucose + 2Pi + 2ADP → 2Lactate + 2ATP +2H2O
If the free energy of conversion of glucose to lactic acid only is ΔG0 = –47000 cal/mol, the efficiency of energy transfer is _______ % (up to 1 decimal point). (ΔG0 for ATP hydrolysis is –7.3 kcal/mol)
Zoology (XL-T)
XL (T): Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.
1. Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata are closer to chordates than other invertebrate phyla. Which ONE of the following reasons can account for this relatedness?
(A) Highly evolved nervous system
(B) Radially symmetric body plan
(C) Deuterostomic development
(D) Well-developed muscles
2. A zoologist recovered some tissue from preserved skin of a woolly mammoth. Further genetic analysis requires DNA isolation and increasing its amount. Which ONE of the following techniques would be most useful for increasing the amount of DNA?
(A) RFLP analysis
(B) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(C) Electroporation
(D) Chromatography
3. In a chemical reaction where the substrate and product are in equilibrium in solution, what will occur if an enzyme is added?
(A) The equilibrium of the reaction will not change.
(B) There will be a decrease in product formed.
(C) Additional substrate will be formed.
(D) The free energy of the system will change.
4. Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic disorder that is associated with defects in which ONE of the following cellular organelles?
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Lysosome
5. Increase in the existent population of grey peppered moth, Biston betularia, during industrial revolution in Britain is an example of which ONE of the following evolutionary processes?
(A) Neutral selection
(B) Disruptive selection
(C) Directional selection
(D) Stabilizing selection
6. Which ONE of the following is NOT a characteristic of a cancer cell?
(A) Increase in cell motility
(B) Loss of contact inhibition
(C) Decrease in apoptosis
(D) Uncontrolled meiosis
7. Cardiac and cerebral tissues are derived from the following germ layers respectively
(A) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(B) Mesoderm and ectoderm
(C) Mesoderm and endoderm
(D) Endoderm and ectoderm
8. An animal’s ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home area is an example of
(A) Latent learning
(B) Insight learning
(C) Mimicry
(D) Imprinting
9. Bowman’s capsules are present in which ONE of the following organs/ tissues?
(A) Renal cortex
(B) Urinary bladder
(C) Renal medulla
(D) Ureter
10. Which ONE of the following is the primary function of lung surfactants?
(A) Remove dust particles from bronchi
(B) Provide immunity to respiratory tract
(C) Prevent alveoli from collapsing by decreasing surface tension
(D) Aid in carbon dioxide exchange
11. Match the disorders/diseases listed in Column I to their respective causative agents listed in Column II.
(A) I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
(B) I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i
(C) I-iii, II-iv, III-i, IV-ii
(D) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
12. Glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer. During this process, changes in the free energy, total energy, and entropy respectively are represented correctly by which ONE of the following options?
(A) +ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS.
(B) +ΔG, -ΔH, -ΔS.
(C) -ΔG, +ΔH, +ΔS.
(D) +ΔG, +ΔH, -ΔS.
13. In Drosophila melanogaster, a mutation in Ultrabithorax which defines the third segment of the thorax or T3 leads to development of four winged flies, as the halteres develop into a second pair of wings. Which ONE of the following phenotypes in fly will result from overexpression of Ultrabithorax in the second thoracic segment?
(A) Four winged flies.
(B) Two wings and two halteres flies.
(C) Flies with four halteres.
(D) Flies with two halteres.
14. Which ONE of the following is TRUE in case of respiratory acidosis?
(A) Increased rate of ventilation is a cause of respiratory acidosis
(B) Blood pH more than 7
(C) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in blood
(D) Acidosis can be compensated through reduction of bicarbonate levels in plasma
15. Match the proteins / molecules listed in column I with the cellular location mentioned in the column II.
(A) I-ii; II-iii; III-i; IV-iv
(B) I-iii; II-iv; III-i; IV-ii
(C) I-iii; II-iv; III-ii; IV-i
(D) I-iv; II-iii; III-ii; IV-i
16. In an experiment, nucleus from a Drosophila oocyte was transplanted into the anterior part of another oocyte, at a region opposite to the existing nucleus. Which ONE of the following phenotypes will the developing egg show?
(A) A ventralized egg with no dorsal appendages
(B) A dorsalized egg with two dorsal appendages
(C) A ventralized egg with two dorsal appendages
(D) A dorsalized egg with four dorsal appendages
17. Match the organisms listed in Column I with the features listed in Column II
(A) I-iii; II-i; III-iv; IV-ii
(B) I-ii; II-iv; III-i; IV-iii
(C) I-iv; II-i; III-ii; IV-iii
(D) I-iv; II-iii; III-ii; IV-i
18. Which ONE of the following statements is NOT part of the classical Darwinian theory of evolution by natural selection?
(A) A trait which is constantly used will get inherited by next generation.
(B) Phenotypic variations exist among the individuals of a population of a species
(C) Individuals that best fit into a given environment are more likely to survive
(D) Each population can randomly acquire a distinct and separate suite of variations.
19. A population of rabbits was determined to have a birth rate of 200 and mortality rate of 50 per year. If the initial population size is 4000 individuals, after 2 years of non-interfered breeding the final population size will be _______________.
20. In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of occurrence of a disorder caused by recessive allele (q) is 1 in 1100. The frequency of heterozygotes in the population will be ______________. (Give the answer to three decimal places).
Food Technology ( XL-U)
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each & Q.11 – Q.20 carry two marks each.
1. Which of the following is an oil soluble pigment present in fruits and vegetables?
(A) Flavonoids
(B) Carotenoids
(C) Anthocyanins
(D) Tannins
2. Which of the following represent the group of saturated fatty acids?
(A) Lauric, Myristic, Arachidic
(B) Palmitic, Linoleic, Linolenic
(C) Capric, Stearic & Oleic
(D) Behenic, Caprylic, Arachidonic
3. The anti-nutritional factor present in fava bean is
(A) Gossypol
(B) Curcine
(C) Vicine
(D) Cyanogen
4. Which of the following is a Gram positive bacteria?
(A) Listeria monocytogenes
(B) Proteus vulgaris
(C) Salmonella typhi
(D) Shigella dysenteriae
5. Irradiation carried out to reduce viable non-spore forming pathogenic bacteria using a dose between 3 to 10 kGy is
(A) Radurization
(B) Thermoradiation
(C) Radappertization
(D) Radicidation
6. Identify the correct statement related to the viscosity of Newtonian fluids from the following.
(A) It is not influenced by temperature
(B) It increases with shearing rate
(C) It decreases with shearing rate
(D) It is not influenced by shearing rate
7. Adult male Wistar rats were fed with a protein based diet. Total 150 g of protein was ingested per animal. If the average weight increased from 110 g to 350 g after the end of experiment, the Protein efficiency ratio of the given protein would be _______. (up to two decimal points).
8. The initial moisture content of a food on wet basis is 50.76%. Its moisture content (%) on dry basis is _______.(up to two decimal points)
9. The oxygen transmission rate through a 2.54 × 10-3 cm thick low density polyethylene film with air on one side and inert gas on the other side is 3.5 × 10-6 mL cm-2 s-1. Oxygen partial pressure difference across the film is 0.21 atm. The permeability coefficient of the film to oxygen is _______ × 10-11 mL (STP) cm cm-2 s-1 (cm Hg)-1.
10. Ambient air at 30°C dry bulb temperature and 80% relative humidity was heated to a dry bulb temperature of 80°C in a heat exchanger by indirect heating. The amount of moisture gain (g kg-1 dry air) during the process would be _______.
Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.
11. Match the commodity in Group I with the bioactive constituent in Group II
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
12. Match the process operation in Group I with the separated constituent in Group II
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
13. Match the spoilage symptom in Group I with the causative microorganism in Group II
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
14. Match the fermented product in Group I with the base material in Group II
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
15. Match the operation in Group I with the process in Group II
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
16. Out of 7 principles of HACCP system, 4 are listed below. Arrange these principles in the order in which they are applied.
(P) Conduct a hazard analysis
(Q) Establish monitoring process
(R) Establish critical limit
(S) Establish record keeping and documentation process
(A) P, R, Q, S
(B) Q, R, P, S
(C) P, Q, R, S
(D) R, S, P, Q
17. Identify an example of a classical diffusional mass transfer process without involving heat, among the following.
(A) Drying of food grains
(B) Carbonation of beverages
(C) Distillation of alcohol
(D) Concentration of fruit juice
18. For an enzyme catalyzed reaction S → P the kinetic parameters are:
[S] = 40 μM, V0 = 9.6 μM s-1 and Vmax = 12.0 μM s-1.
The Km of the enzyme in μM will be _______.(up to one decimal points)
19. A microbial sample taken at 10 AM contained 1 × 105 CFU/mL. The count reached to 1 × 1010 CFU/mL at 8 PM of the same day. The growth rate (h-1) of the microorganism would be _______.(up to two decimal points)
20. The rate of heat transfer per unit area from a metal plate is 1000 W m-2. The surface temperature of the plate is 120°C and ambient temperature is 20°C. The convective heat transfer coefficient (W m-2 °C-1) using the Newton’s law of cooling will be _______.