JIPMER SOLVER PAPER-2018
1. The magnetic moment of an electron orbiting in a circulate orbit of radius r with a speed v is equal to
(a) evr/2
(b) evr
(c) er/2v
(d) None of these
2. If point charges Q1 = 2 × 10−7 C and Q2 = 3 × 10−7 C are at 30 cm separation, then find electrostatic force between them
(a) 2 × 10−3 N
(b) 6 × 10−3 N
(c) 5 × 10−3 N
(d) 1 × 10−3 N
3. If a machine perform 4000 J output work and 1000 J inside loss due to friction, then the find efficiency?
(a) 80%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 60%
4. Dimension of force is
(a) [M2L1T−1]
(b) [M1L1T−2]
(c) [M2L−1T−2]
(d) [M1L1T−1]
5. The efficiency of an ideal gas with adiabatic exponent γ for the shown cyclic process would be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
6. Find Rnet between A and B.
(a) 60 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 70 Ω
(d) 20 Ω
7. Velocity is given by v = 4t(1 – 2t), then find time at which velocity is maximum
(a) 0.25 s
(b) 1 s
(c) 0.45 s
(d) 4 s
8. Find current (i) in circuit shown in figure.
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 2 A
9. Find VP – VQ in the circuit shown in figure.
(a) 6.68 V
(b) 8 V
(c) 4.65 V
(d) 7 V
10. If a capacitor having capacitance 2F and plate separation of 0.5 cm will have area
(a) 1130 cm2
(b) 1130 m2
(c) 1130 km2
(d) None of these
11. Find the capacitance in shown figure
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
12. Find ratio of radius of gyration of a disk and ring of same radii at their tangential axis in plane.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 1
(d) 2/3
13. If compressibility of material is 4 × 10−5 per atm, pressure is 100 atm and volume is 100 cm3, then find ∆V = ?
(a) 0.4 cm3
(b) 0.8 cm3
(c) 0.6 cm3
(d) 0.2 cm3
14. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s and in water is 1480 m/s. If frequency of sound is 1000 kHz, then find wavelength in water
(a) 2.96 mm
(b) 1.48 mm
(c) 0.74 mm
(d) 1 mm
15. 1000 N force in required to lift a hook and 1000 N force is requires to lift a load slowly. Find power required to lift hook with load with speed v = 0.5 m/s
(a) 5 kW
(b) 1.5 kW
(c) 5.5 kW
(d) 4.5 kW
16. If minimum deviation = 30°, then speed of light in shown prism will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
17. A current i is flowing through the wire of diameter (d) having drift velocity of electrons vd in it. What will be new drift velocity when diameter of wire is made d/4?
(a) 4vd
(b) vd/4
(c) 16vd
(d) vd/16
18. How much intense is 80dB sound in comparision to 40 dB?
(a) 102
(b) 104
(c) 2
(d) 1/2
19. Find i in shown figure
(a) 0.2 A
(b) 0.1 A
(c) 0.3 A
(d) 0.4 A
20. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 0.5 kg for 0.25s starting from rest. What is its momentum now?
(a) 0.25 N/s
(b) 2.5 N/s
(c) 0.5 N/s
(d) 0.75 N/s
21. Which of the following is fusion process?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) Uranium decay
(d) None of the above
22. A ball of 0.5 kg collided with wall at 30° and bounced back elastically. The speed of ball was 12m/s. The contact remained for 1s. What is the force applied by wall on ball?
(a) 12√3 N
(b) √3 N
(c) 6√3 N
(d) 3√3 N
23. A electron (e−) is accelerated by V volts experiences a force F, when it enters in a uniform magnetic field. What will the force experienced when it is accelerated by 2V?
(a) √2F
(b) F
(c) 2F
(d) F/2
24. Kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 times. What will be the relation between initial and final momentum?
(a) p2 = 2p1
(b) p2= p1/2
(c) p2 = p1
(d) p2 = 4p1
25. What is the range of a projectile thrown with velocity 98 m/s with angle 30° from horizontal?
(a) 490√3 m
(b) 245√3 m
(c) 980√3 m
(d) 100 m
26. If the efficiency of an engine is 50% and its work output is 500 J, then find input.
(a) 1000 J
(b) 500 J
(c) 100 J
(d) 250 J
27. The efficiency of a heat engine is 1/6. Its efficiency double when the temperature of sink decrease by 62°C, its efficiency doubles. Then, what is the temperature of source?
(a) 470 K
(b) 372 K
(c) 542 K
(d) 1042 K
28. A ball is thrown upwards with a speed u from a height h above the ground. The time taken by the ball to hit the ground is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
29. A mass of Hg is executing SHM which is given by 
What is the maximum kinetic energy?
(a) 3 J
(b) 6 J
(c) 9 J
(d) 18 J
30. A uniform rod of mass m and length l0 is pivoted at one end and is hanging in the vertical direction. The period of small angular oscillations of the rod is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
31. A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30°. Its downward motion can be prevented by applying a horizontal force F, then value of F for which friction between the block and the incline surface is minimum, is
(a) 80/√3
(b) 40√3
(c) 40/√3
(d) 80√3
32. A mass M is hung with a light inextensible string as shown in the figure. Find the tension of the horizontal string.
(a) √2 Mg
(b) √3 Mg
(c) 2 Mg
(d) 3 Mg
33. A Carnot engine absorbs 6 × 105 cal at 227° The work done per cycle by the engine, if its sink is maintained at 127°C is
(a) 15 × 108 J
(b) 15 × 104 J
(c) 5 × 105 J
(d) 2 × 104 J
34. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute, with a velocity of 600 ms−1. If the power of the gun is 5.4 kW, then mass of each bullet is
(a) 5 kg
(b) 0.5 kg
(c) 5 g
(d) 0.5 g
35. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air 1 ms−1. The viscosity of air is 18 × 10−5 Find the viscous force on the rain drops.
(a) 2.05 × 10−7 N
(b) 1.018 × 10−7 N
(c) 1.05 × 10−7 N
(d) 2.058 × 10−7 N
36. Find density of ethyl alcohol
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
37. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each nucleus of uranium atoms U238 is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be
(a) 30 × 1025
(b) 4 × 1022
(c) 10 × 1020
(d) 5 × 1015
38. How much should the temperature of a brass rod be increased so as to increase its length by 1%? (Given, α for brass is 0.00002°C−1).
(a) 300°C
(b) 400°C
(c) 500°C
(d) 550°C
39. 
what is time period?
(a) 0.04 s
(b) 1 s
(c) 0.006 s
(d) 0.02 s
40. In the fusion reaction 
the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009, respectively. If 1 kg of deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find the amount of total energy released. (1 amu = 931.5 MeV).
(a) 9.0 × 1013 J
(b) 20 × 105 J
(c) 5 × 1016 J
(d) 8 × 105 J
41. A prism of crown glass with refracting angle of 5° and mean refractive index = 1.51 is combined with a flint glass prism of refractive index = 1.65 to produce no deviation. Find the angle of flit glass.
(a) 3.92°
(b) 4.68°
(c) 5.32°
(d) 7.28°
42. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section at the rate of 20 L min−1. What will be the velocity of water at a point where diameter is 4 cm?
(a) 0.2639 ms−1
(b) 0.5639 ms−1
(c) 0.4639 ms−1
(d) 0.3639 ms−1
43. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49 × 10−5°C−1. What is the fractional change in density for a 30°C rise in temperature?
(a) 0.0155
(b) 0.0145
(c) 0.0255
(d) 0.0355
44. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm and illuminated with light of λ = 6000 Å. If the screen is placed 2.5 m, from the slits. The distance of third bright image from the centre will be
(a) 1.5 mm
(b) 3 mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 9 mm
45. Calculate the dispersive power for crown glass from the given data
μV = 1.523
and μR = 1.5145
(a) 0.01639
(b) 1.05639
(c) 0.05639
(d) 2.05639
46. A particle doing SHM having amplitude 5 cm, mass 0.5 kg and angular frequency 5 rad/s is at 1 cm from mean position. Find potential energy and kinetic energy.
(a) KE = 625 × 10−4 J, PE = 150 × 10−3 J
(b) KE = 150 × 10−4 J, PE = 625 × 10−4 J
(c) KE = 625 × 10−4 J, PE = 625 × 10−4 J
(d) KE = 150 × 10−3 J, PE = 150 × 10−4 J
47. A organ pipe open on both ends in the nth harmonic is in resonance with a source of 1000 Hz. The length of pipe is 16.6 cm and speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. Find the value of n.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
48. R = 65 ± 1 Ω L, l = 5 ± 0.1 mm and d = 10 ± 0.5 mm. Find error in calculation of resistivity.
(a) 21%
(b) 13%
(c) 16%
(d) 41%
49. A solid floats with 1/4th of its volume above the surface of water, the density of the solid is
(a) 750 kg m−3
(b) 650 kg m−3
(c) 560 kg m−3
(d) 450 kg m−3
50. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension 0.06 Nm−1 from 2 cm radius to 5 cm radius is
(a) 0.004168 J
(b) 0.003168 J
(c) 0.003158 J
(d) 0.004568 J
51. The force of attraction between two charges 8 μC and −4 μC is 0.2 N. Find the distance of separation
(a) 1.2 cm
(b) 12 m
(c) 120 m
(d) 0.12 m
52. A runner starts from O and goes to O following path OQRO in 1 hr. What is net displacement and average speed?
(a) 0, 3.57 km/hr
(b) 0, 0 km/hr
(c) 0, 2.57 km/hr
(d) 0, 1 km/hr
53. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 revolving with 8 rad/s is placed on another disc of moment of inertia 4 kg-m2 revolving 4 rad/s. What is the angular frequency of composite disc?
(a) 4 rad/s
(b) 3/16 rad/s
(c) 16/3 rad/s
(d) 16/5 rad/s
54. In a L-C circuit, angular frequency at resonance is ω. What will be the new angular frequency when inductor’s inductance is made two times and capacitor’s capacitance is made four times?
(a) ω/2√2
(b) ω/√2
(c) 2ω
(d) 2ω/√2
55. Electron revolving with speed v is producing magnetic field B at centre. Find relation between radius of path B and v?
(a) B ∝ V ∝ 1/r
(b) B ∝ V ∝ 1/r2
(c) B ∝ V2 ∝ 1/r
(d) B ∝ V2 ∝ 1/r2
56. A regular hexagone of side a. A wire of length 24 a is coiled on that hexagone. If current in hexagone is I, then find the magnetic moment.
(a) 6√3 la2
(b) 3√3 la2
(c) 
(d) 6 la2
57. At what speed will the velocity of a stream of water be equal to 20 cm of mercury column? (Taking, g = 10 ms−2)
(a) 6.4 ms−1
(b) 7.3756 ms−1
(c) 6.4756 ms−1
(d) None of these
58. At what distance (in metre) from the centre of the Moon, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero? (Take, mass of Earth and Moon as 5.98 × 1024 kg and 7.35 × 1022 kg respectively and the distance between Moon and Earth is 3.85 × 108)
(a) zero
(b) 3.85 × 107
(c) 8 × 108
(d) 3.46 × 108
59. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
(b) 2 × 108 m/s
(c) 1 × 108 m/s
(d) 4 × 108 m/s
60. R is the radius of Earth and ω is its angular velocity and gp is the value of g at the poles. The effective value of g at a latitude λ = 60°.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Chemistry
61. Which one of the following species is paramagnetic in nature?
(a) V4+
(b) Sc3+
(c) V5+
(d) Zn2+
62. Given that, for the reaction,
∆Hf(HCl) = −93 kJ/mol
B.E (H2) = 434 kJ/mol
B.E (Cl2) = 242 kJ/mol
The bond dissociation energy of HCl is
(a) 232 kJ/mol
(b) 331 kJ/mol
(c) 431 kJ/mol
(d) 530 kJ/mol
63. The pair of structures given below represents
(a) Chain isomers
(b) Position isomers
(c) Tautomers
(d) Metamers
64. In the extraction of copper from is sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with
(a) FeS
(b) CO
(c) Cu2S
(d) SO2
65. For the following reaction,
2NH3(g) + CO2(g) ⇌ NH2CONH2 (aq) + H2O (l)
∆G° = −13.6 kJ mol−1 at 298 K
Then, log Keq for this equilibrium is
(a) −3.41
(b) 2.38
(c) 120
(d) 1500
66. Xenon hexatluoride reacts with silica to form a xenon compound X. The oxidation state of xenon of X is
(a) +2
(b) +4
(c) +6
(d) 0
67. Neopentyl chloride reacts with benzene in presence of a lewis acid (AlCl3) to form
68. Lead is extracted from galena (PbS), either by following ways.
Auto-reduction process is
(a) I
(b) II
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
69. In the reactoion,
The major product formed is
(a) C6H5 – CH2 – CHO
(b) C6H5 – COOH
(c) C6H5 – CH = CH – COOH
(d) C6H5 – CH = CH – COCH3
70. Which one of the following represents the correct structure of cellulose?
(a) Branched, α(1, 4) and β(1, 6) – glucose
(b) Unbranched, α(1, 6) – glucose
(c) Branched, α(1, 4) – glucose
(d) Unbranched, β(1, 4) – glucose
71. The correct formula for plaster of Paris is
(a) CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O
(b) CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O
(c)
(d) CaSO4 ∙ 1H2O
72. The value of KC for the reaction, 2A ⇌ B + C is 2 × 10−3. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10−4 In which direction, the reaction will proceed?
(a) Forward direction
(b) Reverse direction
(c) No net reaction occur
(d) None of these
73. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal tragedy”?
(i) Methylamine (ii) Phosgene
(iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethylamine
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
74. The correct order of ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion exchange resin is
(a) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(b) Li+ > K+ > Na+ < Rb+
(c) Na+ < Li+ < K+ < Rb+
(d) K+ < Na+ < Rb+ < Li+
75. Identify the major product that is obtained on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O−/CH3OH is
(a) CH3CH2(OCH3CH3
(b) CH3CH = CHCH3
(c) CH3CH2CH = CH2
(d) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
76. Among the following, the non-aromatic heterocyclic compound is
(a) piperidine
(b) pyrrole
(c) furan
(d) pyridine
77. If Na+ ioin is larger than Mg2+ ions and S2− ion is larger than Cl− ion, which of the following will be stable salt in water?
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Sodium sulphide
(c) Magnesium sulphide
(d) Magnesium chloride
78. 
Product P is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
79. Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) Aluminium dissolves in dilute mineral acids but is made passive by concentrated nitric acid.
(b) Aluminium vessel can be used as storage of NaOH.
(c) Alminium chloride does not dissociate in water.
(d) AlF3 is soluble in anhydrous HF.
80. If molar conductivity of Ca2+ and Cl− ions are 119 and 71S cm2mol−1 respectively, then the molar conductivity of CaCl2 at infinite dilution is
(a) 215 S cm2mol−1
(b) 340 S cm2mol−1
(c) 128 S cm2mol−1
(d) 261 S cm2mol−1
81. An atom forms face centred cubic crystal with density d = 8.92 g/mL and edge length a = 3.6 × 10−8 The molecular mass of atom in amu is
(a) 98 amu
(b) 63 amu
(c) 32 amu
(d) 93 amu
82. In a crystalline solid, having formula XY2O4, oxide ions are arranged in cubic close packed lattice while, cations X are present is tetrahedral voids and cations Y are present in octahedral voids. The percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied by X is
(a) 12.5%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
83. Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non-spontaneous at
(a) low temperature
(b) all temperature
(c) high temperature
(d) room temperature
84. A 100 mL flask contained H2 at 200 torr, and a 200 mL flask contained He at 100 torr. The two flask were then connected so that each gas filled their combined volume. Assume, no change in temperature, total pressure is
(a) 104 torr
(b) 163.33 torr
(c) 279 torr
(d) 133.33 torr
85. For the dot structure shown, the most likely elements X = … and Y = … are
(a) carbon, fluorine
(b) carbon, hydrogen
(c) carbon, oxygen
(d) oxygen, carbon
86. Valence electrons in the element X are 3 and that in element Y is 6. Most probable compound formed from X and Y is
(a) X2Y
(b) XY2
(c) X6Y3
(d) X2Y3
87. A compound, containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen has molecular weight of 44. On Complete oxidation, it is converted into a compound of molecular weight is 60. The original compound is
(a) alcohol
(b) acid
(c) aldehyde
(d) ether
88. Number of photons emitted by a 100 W (Js−1) yellow lamp in 1.0 s is
(λ of yellow light is 560 nm)
(a) 1.6 × 1018
(b) 1.4 × 1018
(c) 2.8 × 1020
(d) 2.1 × 1020
89. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen present in an organic compound in quantitatively converted into
(a) gaseous ammonia
(b) ammonium sulphate
(c) ammonium phosphate
(d) ammonia
90. In the reversible reaction,
the rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to
(a) 
(b) 2k1[NO2]2 – 2k2[N2O4]
(c) 2k1[NO2]2 – k2[N2O4]
(d) (2k1 – k2) [NO2]
91. If E°(Zn2+, Zn) = −763 V and E°(Fe2+, Fe) = −0.44 V, then the emf of the cell Zn|Zn2+ (a = 0.001)|| Fe2+ (a = 0.005)|Fe is
(a) equal to 0.323 V
(b) less than 0.323 V
(c) greater than 0.323 V
(d) equal to 1.103 V
92. For the electrochemical cell,
Ag−|AgCl|KCl||AgNO3|Ag+, the overall cell reaction is
(a) Ag+ + KCl → AgCl(s) + K+
(b) 
(c) AgCl(s) → Ag+ + Cl−
(d) Ag+ + Cl− → AgCl(s)
93. Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K4[Fe(CN)6]?
(a) Al2(SO4)3
(b) K2SO4
(c) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(d) Al(NO3)3
94. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is
(a) 91.3%
(b) 87%
(c) 100%
(d) 74%
95. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
(a) 3-propylpent-1-ene
(b) 3-ethylpent-1-ene
(c) 4-ethylhex-1-ene
(d) 3-ethylhex-1-ene
96. Bleeding due to a cut can be stopped by applying ferric chloride solution in the laboratory. This is due to
(a) coagulation of negatively charged blood particles by Fe3+ ions.
(b) coagulation of positively charged blood particles by Cl− ions.
(c) reaction taking place between ferric ions and the haemoglobin forming a complex
(d) common element, iron, in both FeCl3 and haemoglobin.
97. Relative stabilities of the following carbocations will be in the order
(a) C > B > A
(b) C < B < A
(c) B > C > A
(d) C > A > B
98. Among the following species, the one which become paramagnetic on heating at 850 K is
(a) Fe3O4
(b) MnO
(c) ZnFe2O4
(d) Both (a) and (c)
99. Which of the following is not a surfactant?
(a) CH3 – (CH2)15 – N+(CH3)3Br−
(b) CH3 – (CH2)14 – CH2NH2
(c) CH3 – (CH2)16 – CH2OSO2 Na+
(d) OHC – (CH2)14 –CH2 – COO−Na+
100. In the complex, [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+, the oxidation number of Cr is
(a) +4
(b) +3
(c) +2
(d) +6
101. Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecular forces.
Nylon-6, 6, buna-S, polythene, neoprene
(a) Neoprene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6, < polythene
(b) Neoprene < buna-S < polythene < nylon-6, 6
(c) Polythene < nylon-6. 6 < buna-S < neoprene
(d) Polythene < buna-S < nylon-6, 6 < neoprene
102. The product of electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution on anode and cathode respectively is
(a) H2 and Cl2
(b) Cl2 and H2
(c) Na and Cl2
(d) Na and O2
103. In adiabatic conditions, 2 mole of CO2 gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then , the work done is (CV = 6 cal mol−1 and γ = 1.33)
(a) 1400 cal
(b) 1000 cal
(c) 900 cal
(d) 1200 cal
104. The compounds 
and 
are distinguished by
(a) C6H5SO2Cl and OH− in H2O
(b) AgNO3 in H2O
(c) dilute HCl
(d) HNO2 and β-naphthol
105. Alkali metals readily dissolved in liquid ammonia to give blue coloured solutions. The blue colour is believed to be due to
(a) ammoniated cations
(b) ammoniated anions
(c) ammoniated electrons
(d) ammoniated cations and ammoniated electrons
106. 
What is the product ‘P’ is the above reaction?
(a) Methyl ethanoate
(b) Ethenoic acid
(c) Propanal
(d) Methyl proppanoate
107. If osmotic pressure of 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose is same as 2% (w/v) solution of ‘X’, then the molecular mass of X (g/mol) is
(a) 171
(b) 205.2
(c) 570
(d) None of these
108. Which of the following is disproportionation reaction?
(a) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(b) CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl
(c) 2F2 + 2OH− → 2F− + OF2 + H2O
(d) 2NO2 + 2OH− → NO2− + NO3− + H2O
109. Among the following the suitable reagent for Wurtz reaction is
(a) Na/alcohol
(b) Na/ether
(c) Zn/ether
(d) Zn/alcohol
110. Which type of drugs come under anti-microbial drugs?
(a) Antiseptics, antacids, antithista mines
(b) Tranquilizers, antiseptics, antifertility
(c) Tranquilizers, analgesics, antiseptics
(d) Antiseptics, antibiotics, disinfectants
111. Which of the following pair behaves as strong and weak base hydride respectively NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH, BiH3
(a) NH3, PH3
(b) NH3, BiH3
(c) PH3, BiH3
(d) BiH3, AsH3
112. Among the following the correct formula of Marshall’s acid is
(a) H2S2O6
(b) H2S2O8
(c) H2SO4
(d) H2SO5
113. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified solution of dichromate Cr2O72−, a deep blue coloured complex of chromic peroxide CrO5 is formed. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(a) +5
(b) +3
(c) +6
(d) −10
114. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH followed by acidification, salicylaldehyde is obtained. Which of the following species is involved in the above mentioned reaction as intermediates?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
115. Which of the following is the correct sequence of step involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro reaction?
(a) Nucleophilic attack, transfer of H− and transfer of H+
(b) Transfer of H−, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack
(c) Transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H−
(d) Electrophilic attack by OH−, transfer of H+ and transfer of H−
116. 
What is the product is the above reacton?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
117. Red blood cells are placed in a solution and neither a haemolysis nor crenation occurs. Therefore, the solution is
(a) hypertonic
(b) hypotonic
(c) isotonic
(d) isotopic
118. If M is element of actinoids series, the degree of complex formation decreases in the order
(a) M4+ > M3+ > MO22+ > MO2+
(b) M4+ > MO22+ > M3+ > MO2+
(c) MO2+ > MO22+ > M3+ > M4+
(d) MO22+ > MO2+ > M4+ > M3+
119. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and 280 K. The rate constant were found to be k1 and k2 respectively, then
(a) k2 = 4k1
(b) k2 = 0.25 k1
(c) k2 = 2k1
(d) k2 = 0.5k1
120. Which of the following compound can exhibit tautomerism?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Biology
121. Which of the following is not a derivative of cholesterol?
(a) Vitamin-B
(b) Vitamin-D
(c) Bile salts
(d) Steroid
122. Shape of chloroplast of Ulothrix is
(a) star-shaped
(b) band-shaped
(c) girdle-shaped
(d) spinal-shaped
123. What is the function of Kupffer’s cells?
(a) Bile secretion
(b) Digestion of lipid
(c) Phagocytosis
(d) Digestion of protein
124. Which one is an anti-allergic antibody?
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgD
125. Loss of water from body occurs by all of the following except
(a) muscles
(b) lungs
(c) kidney
(d) skin
126. Pollenkitt is present in
(a) anemophily
(b) entomophily
(c) malacophily
(d) zophily
127. Which motile-stage of p rotozoans is helpful in feeding?
(a) Pseudopodium
(b) Cilia
(c) Flagella
(d) Tentacles
128. Function of hypothalamus is
(a) themoregulation
(b) water balance
(c) control of hormone function
(d) All of the above
129. Inhibin is composed of
(a) glycoprotein
(b) lipoprotein
(c) steroid
(d) amino acid derivative
130. What is ribotide?
(a) Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(b) Deoxyribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(c) Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate
(d) Ribose + Thymine + Phosphate
131. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed in glycolysis?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 15
(d) 16
132. Molecular formula of chlorophyll-b is
(a) C55H70O6N4Mg
(b) C55H72O5N4Mg
(c) C55H70O5N4Mg
(d) C54H70O6N4Mg
133. Non-essential amino acid is
(a) valine
(b) arginine
(c) histidine
(d) lysine
134. Non-disjunction in meiosis results in
(a) trisomy
(b) normal diploid
(c) gene mutation
(d) None of these
135. Caryopsis is present in
(a) wheat
(b) groundnut
(c) coconut
(d) mango
136. AB blood group shows
(a) codominance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) polygenic inheritance
(d) pleiotropy
137. What is the symmetry of medusa?
(a) Bilateral
(b) Radial
(c) Asymmetrical
(d) Biradial
138. Which one is parasitic alga?
(a) Oedogonium
(b) Cephaleuros
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Cladophora
139. RQ of malic acid is
(a) 1.9
(b) 1.49
(c) 1.33
(d) 1
140. Which one is present in the urine of pregnant woman?
(a) hCG
(b) LH
(c) Oestrogen
(d) FSH
141. 
Above diagram represents
(a) anaphase-I
(b) metaphase-I
(c) telophase-I
(d) prophase-I
142. Histamine is secreted by
(a) mast cells
(b) Kupffer’s cells
(c) oxyntic cells
(d) neutrophils
143. Peyer’s patches are present in
(a) ileum
(b) jejunum
(c) duodenum
(d) sacculus rotandous
144. The correct sequence is
(a) Zygota → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
(b) Cleavage → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
(c) Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Cleavage → Gastrula
(d) Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula
145. Purkinje’s fibres are found in
(a) heart
(b) liver
(c) brain
(d) lungs
146. Gene transfer is present in
(a) biolistics
(b) hybridisation
(c) tissue culture
(d) vegetative propagation
147. Which one is used in tissue culture?
(a) Explant
(b) Somaclones
(c) Hybridization
(d) None of these
148. What is common between a eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella?
(a) Same structure
(b) Both are used for locomotion
(c) Composed of same proteins
(d) Both are extension of cell membrane
149. Heterotrichous thallus is shown by which organism?
(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Ectocarpus
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Volvax
150. What is acrosomal reaction?
(a) Contact of sperms with eggs
(b) Digestion of zona pellucida
(c) Disintegration of acrosome
(d) Contact of acrosome and nucleus of egg
151. Daily requirement of vitamin-A for adult women is
(a) 500 micrograms
(b) 700 micrograms
(c) 900 micrograms
(d) 300 micrograms
152. Which of these is incorrect for C4-plants?
(a) Kranz anatomy
(b) CO2 acceptor is PEP
(c) PEPCase in mesophyll
(d) RuBisCO in mesophyll
153. Rouleaux formation is related to which of the cell/tissue?
(a) RBCs
(b) WBCs
(c) Platelets
(d) Monocytes
154. Which of the following is not a plant growth inhibitor?
(a) Dormin
(b) IAA
(c) Ethylene
(d) ABA
155. What is the RQ of glucose?
(a) One
(b) Less than one
(c) More than one
(d) Infinite
156. Brunner’s gland is located in
(a) duodenum
(b) jejunum
(c) ileum
(d) stomach
157. Perianth is found in which family?
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Liliaceae
(d) Malvaceae
158. Which trait is shown by given pedigree analysis?
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) X-Linked dominant
(c) Autosomal recessive
(d) X-Linked recessive
159. Which of the following is involved in passive immunity?
(a) IgA
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgD
160. Fimbraie are associated with which organ?
(a) Fallopian tube
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) Ovary
161. Linker-DNA is attached to
(a) H1
(b) H2A
(c) H2B
(d) H3
162. To which of the following, repressor protein is attached?
(a) Operator
(b) Inducer
(c) Promoter
(d) Structural gene
163. Palmella stage is present in
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Cystopus
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) None of these
164. Formation of corpus luteum is induced by
(a) LH
(b) Oestrogen
(c) FSH
(d) Progesterone
165. Cell wall of fungi is composed of
(a) chitin
(b) pectin
(c) cellulose
(d) mannans
166. Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted as
(a) AUG, UGA, UUU
(b) UAA, UAV, UGG
(c) UAG, UGA, UUV
(d) UGA, UUV, UGG
167. Which is incorrect with reference to chloroplast?
(a) Presence in algae and plants
(b) Releases O2
(c) Occurs only in cells with aerobic respiration
(d) None of the above
168. Proteins are needed in diet because
(a) all amino acids are not available in body
(b) during fasting, body utilizes proteins
(c) proteins act as building blocks of our body.
(d) All of the above
169. Which of the following pituitary hormones works indirectly?
(a) MSH
(b) TSH
(c) GH
(d) Oxytocin
170. XYZ → composition
(a) Super female
(b) Hermaphrodite
(c) Male
(d) Super male
171. Which is present at 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA?
(a) Poly-A tail
(b) Modified C at 5’
(c) 7 mG
(d) Poly-C
172. Conditions required for cyclic photophosphorylation are
(a) aerobic condition, low light intensity
(b) aerobic, condition, optimum light intensity
(c) anaerobic condition, low light intensity
(d) anaerobic condition, optimum light intensity
173. What is/are is the function(s) of calcium?
(a) Blood clotting
(b) Muscular contraction
(c) Nerve conduction
(d) All of these
174. What is the role of sterol in cell membrane?
(a) Stability
(b) Communication with other cells
(c) Secretion
(d) Transport
175. Where is sacculus rotandus located?
(a) Between duodenum and jejunum
(b) Between ileum and caecum
(c) Caecum and colon
(d) Colon and rectum
176. 
Above diagram represents
(a) metaphase-I
(b) anaphase-I
(c) metaphase-II
(d) anaphase-II
177. Omega 3 fatty acid is present in
(a) sunflower oil
(b) flax seed oil
(c) groundnut oil
(d) butter
178. Which is the 21st amino acid?
(a) Pyrrolysine
(b) Selenocysteine
(c) Cystine
(d) Histidine
179. What is incorrect about inhibin?
(a) It is a lipoprotein
(b) Decreases FSH secretion
(c) Molecular weight is between 10k-30k Dalton
(d) Secreted by Sertoli cells
180. Eyespot is seen in
(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Ulothrix
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Polysiphonia
English and Quantitative Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-183) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
181. He used to regale us with antedotes.
(a) box
(b) flatter
(c) entertain
(d) tire
182. Millionaires become accentric in their old age.
(a) irritable
(b) peculiar
(c) dull
(d) miserly
183. The date complied by the organization was very useful.
(a) analysed
(b) enclosed
(c) collected
(d) published
Direction (Q. Nos. 184-186) Fill in the blanks.
184. Some regions of our country still remain ….. to the average man.
(a) inaccessible
(b) impossible
(c) impermeable
(d) invincible
185. The employees are entitled to ………. dividends from the annual surplus.
(a) submit
(b) deposit
(c) dedcut
(d) receive
186. His arrogance is preceeded only by his ……… ignorance.
(a) eternal
(b) abysmal
(c) meteoric
(d) diabolic
Direction (Q. Nos. 187-190) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
187. The treaty was ratified by the heads of states.
(a) set aside
(b) unsettled
(c) destroyed
(d) annulled
188. Many people try to resist reforms in the society.
(a) repel
(b) welcome
(c) accept
(d) fight
189. He was always prepared to refute the idea.
(a) agree
(b) subscribe
(c) recommend
(d) endorse
190. We should not belittle others achievements.
(a) recommend
(b) preuse
(c) encourage
(d) inspire
191. If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR, then how GREATNESS can be written in that code?
(a) HQZSMFRT
(b) HQFZUFRTM
(c) HQFZUODTR
(d) HQFZUMFRT
192. Find the missing number in the series given below
40, 30, 22, 16, ?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 17
193. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the series given below?
P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(a) Y17O
(b) X16M
(c) X17O
(d) X16O
194. Find the missing number in the following figure.
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 19
195. There are 25 boys in a horizontal row. Rahul was shifted by three laces towards his right side and he occupies the middle position in the row. What was his original position from the left end of the row?
(a) 15th
(b) 16th
(c) 12th
(d) 10h
196. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) AUnt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
197. Five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other. P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P, T is to the North of Q and S is to the East of T. Then, in which direction R is with respect to S?
(a) North-West
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) Data inadequate
198. If the day after tomorrow is a Sunday, what was it day before yesterday?
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
199. Four positions of a dice given below. Identify the number at the bottom when top is 6.
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
200. Choose the figure from the given answer figures that will complete the pattern of the given problem figure.
