Loyola College Question Paper 2009

Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Concepts In Inorganic Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

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M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

FIRST SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 1807 – CONCEPTS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 25/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                                    Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART – A

Answer all the questions                                                   (10 x 2 = 20)

 

  1. What are the informations obtained from radial and angular wave functions?
  2. Why is the ionization energy of Na+ ion higher than that of Ne though both are isoelectronic?
  3. Which of the following is readily soluble in water i) PbCl2 ii) PbCl4? Suggest reason(s).
  4. Why is CCl4 not a Lewis acid while SiCl4 and SnCl4 are?
  5. Why is the dipole moment of NH3 greater than that of NF3?
  6. Calculate the effective nuclear charge felt by a 3d electron of nickel (atomic number=27).
  7. Draw the (111) and (210) planes in a cube.
  8. What is F-center?
  9. What is leveling effect of solvent? Explain with examples.
  10. What are pseudohalogens? Why are they considered so?

 

PART – B

Answer any eight questions                                                           (8 x 5 = 40)

 

  1. Describe in detail the Slater’s rule and their important applications.
  2. Define the following and explain their trends in a group. i) Atomic radius ii) eletronegativity  iii) electron affinity
  3. Construct Born-Haber cycle for the formation of NaCl and explain how it is useful in calculating electron affinity.
  4. What are London Forces? What is their origin?
  5. Predict and explain magnetic properties of N2 and O2 molecules, using molecular orbital theory.
  6. Explain Schottky and Frenkel defects in crystals.
  7. Explain with examples, the factors favouring the formation of covalent character in ionic compounds.
  8. Predict the structure of the following molecules using VSEPR theory.

(i) XeF2  (ii) ICl4–.

  1. Mention the rules for hybridization. Explain the structure of (i) POCl3  (ii) CCl4.
  2. i) How are supramolecules different from clathrates?
  1. ii) Explain the role of hydrogen bonding in the architecture of supramolecular assemblies.
  1. Write short notes on i) symbiosis ii) proton sponges.

 

PART – C

Answer any four questions                                                             (4 x 10 = 40)

 

  1. Derive Born-Lande equation to calculate the lattice energy theoretically? What are the factors that affect the lattice energy?
  2. Explain the band theory of metals. What type of energy bands are obtained in i) sodium metal ii) an insulator iii) semiconductor.

Account for the following observations using molecular orbital theory:  i) the bond energy of NO+ is higher than that of NO ii) the bond length of CO+ is larger than that of CO.

  1. Explain the Pearson’s concept of hard and soft acids and bases, with examples. Discuss any three applications of this theory.
  2. Compare and contrast the principles involved in powder and single crystal X-ray diffraction analysis.
  3. What is radius ratio rule? Discuss the structures of  zinc blende and perovskite

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Chemistry Of Main Group Elements Question Paper PDF Download

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WD 32

     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 2815/CH 2809 – CHEMISTRY OF MAIN GROUP ELEMENTS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00         Dept. No.                                                           Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART – A

 

Answer ALL the questions                                                                                     (10 x 2 = 20)

 

  1. What are electron deficient compounds? Give an example.
  2. Why are oxides of non-metals acidic?
  3. What are calixeranes?
  4. Give the structure and laboratory use of iodinepentoxide.
  5. How is inorganic benzene prepared?
  6. What is the reaction of an alcohol with disilaethenes?
  7. What are pyrazoboles? Give two examples.
  8. Mention any two applications of sulphides of phosphorus.
  9. How is C2B10H12, carboranes prepared? Give the structure
  10. Which of the following compounds possesses high Lewis basicity.
  11. i) Si(CH3)4  ii) As(CH3)4. Give reasons.

 

PART – B

Answer any EIGHT  questions                                                                               (8 x 5 = 40)

 

  1. Compare the catenation properties of carbon and silicon, assigning reasons.
  2. Explain the biological significance of magnesium.
  3. Compare structures and properties of allotropes of carbon.
  4. Give preparation, properties and structures of any two chlorine oxides.
  5. Give preparation of oxides of xenon. Why are they not obtained by direct combination?
  6. Write notes on synthetic importance of boranes.
  7. Explain the principle and the role of brominating mixture (bromate-bromide) in volumetric analysis
  8. Explain the different methods (any four) of preparation of lithium organometallic compounds.
  9. Explain the classification of silicates with examples.
  10. Discuss the preparation, properties and uses of silanes.
  11. Discuss the synthetic applications of any two sulphides of phosphorus and discuss their structures.
  12. What are macrocyclic ligands ? Give the molecular structure of any two nitrogen containing macrocyclic ligands and explain their significances.

 

PART – C

 

Answer any FOUR questions                                                                                  (4 x 10 = 40)

 

  1. Discuss nature of bonds present in E-H and E-X and their reactivity.

(E= carbon and silicon; X= halogen)

  1. Discuss the preparation, structure and chemistry of various halogen compounds of nitrogen.
  2. Write an essay on organometallic compounds with reference to their stabilities and synthetic significance.
  3. Explain Why borazine is considered as inorganic benzene where as phosphazenes are not considered as inorganic benzene?
  4. Explain the structure and bonding in diborane.
  5. Discuss the types of bonding by giving styx number and predict the geometry of the following compounds by PSEPT theory
  6. i) B5H11  ii)B5H9           iii)B4H10          iv) B6H10

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Chemistry Of Heterocyclics & Natural Products Question Paper PDF Download

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      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

WD 35

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

          CH 2953 / 2951- CHEMISTRY OF HETEROCYCLICS AND NATURAL PRODUCTS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 27/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

 

PART-A                                      

Answer ALL questions.                                                                                              (10 x 2 = 20)

 

  1. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds:

 

  1. Why does the electrophilic attack of pyrimidine at C-5 preferred?
  2. What are alkaloids? Give an example for alkaloid does not contain nitrogen atom in the ring.
  3. Mention any two functions of morphine.
  4. Explain the importance of Tilden’s reagent in the elucidation of terpenoids.
  5. What are diterpenoids? How is it differentiated from monoterpenoids?
  6. Write a note on: Classification of hormones.
  7. Draw the structure and write any two functions of cortisone.
  8. What happens when anthocyanidin is fused with hot KOH?
  9. How is isoflavone synthesized?

 

 

                                                                      

                                                                       PART-B                                      

Answer ANY EIGHT questions.                                                                                 (8 x 5 = 40)

 

  1. Write short notes on: Spectral properties of heterocyclic compounds.
  2. Orientation in nucleophilic substitution of pyridine at the 2- or 4- position is preferred. Why? Explain.
  3. Explain the acidic and basic character of azoles.
  4. How are alkaloids extracted from plants? Explain.
  5. Explain the structure of belladine.
  6. Elucidate the structure of atropine.
  7. How is zinziberene synthesized? Explain.
  8. Write a note on: a) Classification of terphenes       b) General characteristics of terpenoids
  9. Equatorial hydroxyl and carboxyl groups of sreroids are esterified more readily than the axial groups. Why? Explain.
  10. Give the structure and any two functions of oestrone and progestrone.
  11. Explain the amphoterric nature of cyanidin chloride with mechanism.
  12. Discuss the structure of flavonol.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

PART-C                                    

Answer ANY FOUR questions.                                                                                  (4 x 10 = 40)

 

  1. a) Predict the products of the following reactions:           (5×1)
  2. b) How will you synthesize coumarins? (5)
  3. a) How does uric acid is formed in human body? Explain. (5)
  4. b) Discuss the constitution of ecgonine. (5)
  5. Elucidate the structure of Morphine.
  6. Discuss the structural elucidation of camphor.
  7. a) Secondary axial hydroxyl groups are more readily oxidized by chromic acid than secondary equatorial hydroxyl groups in steroids. Explain. (4)
  8. b) How does the IR and UV spectra used in conformational analysis of steroids? Explain with cotton effect. (6)
  9. Explain the general method to determine the structure of anthocyanidin.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Chemical Kinetics Question Paper PDF Download

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      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

WD 46

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 4807 / 3801 – CHEMICAL KINETICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 18/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00   Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A

Answer ALL the questions.                                                          (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)

  1. Differentiate between time order from true order.
  2. What is your inference if the rate of a chemical reaction involving H2(g) as one reactant was decreased when hydrogen was substituted with Deuterium?
  3. The racemisation of pinene is a first order reaction. In the gas phase, the specific rate constant was found to be 2.2×10-5 min-1 at 457.6K and 3.07 x10-3 min-1 at 510K. Estimate the energy of activation
  4. The absolute rate theory predicts that the frequency factor (A) is proportional to Tn, where T is temperature. Calculate the value of exponent ‘n’ for the following reaction:                                  atom + atom         à   linear activated complex
  5. Predict the influence of ionic strength on the rate of the following reaction and estimate the sign of DS#: [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ + OH– à [Co(NH3)5OH]2+ + Cl–
  6. What are Arrhenius and vant Hoff Intermediates?
  7. What is meant by capillary condensation?
  8. The turnover number of an enzyme with a single active site that metabolizes acetylcholine is     4 x 104 s-1.  How may grams of it can 2.16 x 10-6 g of the enzyme metabolize in one hour.  The molecular masses of the enzyme and the substrate are 4.2 x 104 and 146.21 g/mol respectively.
  9. The thermal decomposition of acetaldehyde forming gaseous products CH4 and CO through a chain mechanism follows the rate law d[CH4]/dt = (k1/k4)1/2.k2[CH3CHO]3/2.  Deduce an expression for observed activation energy in terms of stepwise activation energies and stepwise rate constants k1,k2 and k4
  10. For the base 2,4 dinitro aniline (B) pKBH+ = – 4.55. Evaluate H0 if [BH+]/[B]= 45 x10-6 in 1 M HClO4

PART – B

Answer ANY EIGHT questions                                               (8 x 5 = 40 Marks)

 

  1. The half life of 64Cu which emits a beta particle is 12.8 h. (a) How many grams of Copper are required to produce 150 beta particles per minute? (b) For a biochemical experiment, it is calculated that the activity must not go below 150 beta particles per minute.  The duration of the experiment is 10 hours.  What is the minimum initial amount of 64Cu and what is the minimum initial activity that one should start with?
  2. Find the relation between half-life (t1/2) and temperature and from this relation, show how Ea can be obtained.
  3. For the second order gas phase reaction, H2+I2 à 2HI, the pre–exponential term at 3000C is     4 x 1010   dm3 mol-1 s-1 and Ea = 150 kJ per mole.  Calculate DH#  and DS#
  4. Using the Collision theory of reaction rates, derive the expression for the Collision number between two different molecules A and B.
  5. Write a note on Okamato-Brown Equation.
  6. If the rate constant at high pressures for the isomerization of cyclo propane is 1.2×10-5 s-1 and that at low pressure is 5.14 x10-6 torr-1 s-1, above what pressure will the isomerization be, for all practical purposes, a first order reaction?
  7. The gas phase decomposition of acetic acid at 1189 K proceeds by way of two parallel reactions : i) CH3COOH à CH4 + CO2                       k1 = 3.74 s-1
  8. ii) CH3COOH à H2C==C==O + H2O k2 = 4.65 s-1

Calculate the maximum percentage yield of the ketene obtainable and the overall half life period.

  1. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, D+aq + OD–aq ó D2O (l) at 250C is 4.08 x 1016 mol-1 k-1 = 2.5 x 10-6 s-1.  Calculate the relaxation time for a temperature jump experiment to a final temperature of 250C.  The concentration of D2O at 250C is 55.13 M.
  2. Discuss the kinetics of bimolecular quenching and derive Stern-Volmer equation.
  3. Explain how kinetic parameters be evaluated for a single substrate enzymatic reaction.

 

  1. Show that Bronsted catalytic law is a form of linear free energy relation.
  2. Ina typical BET plot for the adsorption of N2(g) on solid Al2O3, a straight line was obtained with slope = 123 x 10-5 mm-3 and y-intercept 3.98 x 10-6 mm-3. Assume that the volumes are corrected to STP conditions and each atom occupies an area of 0.16 nm2.  Calculate the surface area of the solid catalyst.

 

 

PART – C

Answer ANY FOUR questions                                              (4 x 10 = 40 Marks)

 

  1. The following data were obtained for the reaction between benzoyl chloride and aniline in benzene at 250 The initial concentration of benzoyl chloride was 5 x 10-3 mol dm-3 and that of aniline     1 x 10-2 mol dm-3. Calculate the second order rate constant for the reaction, C6H5COCl + 2C6H5NH2 à C6H5CONHC6H5 + C6H5NH2HCl

t/min                                        0          2.5       5.6       9.6       14.6

[C6H5COCl]103/mol dm-3       5.0       4.5       4.0       3.5       3.0

  1. a) The pKa for the dissociation of phenol in water at 250C is 9.85. The r value for the dissociation H2O + X-C6H4OH à X-C6H4O– + H3O+ is 2.00. If  s–p value of –CH3 is –0.31, determine Ka for the dissociation of p-methyl phenol in water at this temperature.                                                (4)
  2. b) Derive the expression to show the effect of dielectric constant of the medium on the rate of a reaction between dipoles and explain it.                                                                                  (6)

25.a)    Discuss the mechanism of bimolecular surface reaqctions with specific reference to NH3(g) + D2(g) à NH2D(g) + HD(g).  Given that NH3 is molecularly adsorbed and D2 is dissociatively adsorbed species.  Derive the relevant rate law consistent with the mechanism you choose and explain.                                                                                                                      (6)

  1. b) Explain the PE diagrams for Arrehenius type intermediates.                                     (4)
  2. The decomposition of nitramide in water, O2N-NH2 (aq) à N2O(g) + H2O(l)

follows the mechanism:

  1. i) O2N-NH2 (aq)    à         O2N-NH– (aq) + H+(aq)       fast equilibrium
  2. ii) O2N-NH–  (aq)    à     N2O (g)  + OH–(aq)                 slow

iii)        H+ (aq)+ OH–(aq)à    H2O(l)                                     fast

  1. Derive the rate law for the reaction using i) equilibrium approach ii) steady state approximation     for O2N-NH–                                                                                                                              (6)
  2. Express the observed rate constant in terms of stepwise rate constants in each case. Deduce an expression for overall activation energy in terms of stepwise activation energies as per equilibrium approach.                                                                                                                   (4)
    1. Explain any two of the following: a)  Determination of Hammett acidity function     b)   Kinetics of reversible first order reaction  c)  Kinetics of H2-Br2 chain reaction.  d)   Evaluation of catalytic coefficients in a general acid-base catalysed reaction.                                                               (2 x 5)
    2. For the oxidation of glyoxaylic acid (GOx) by peroxomonophosphoric acid (PMP) in acid perchlorate medium (pH = 3), the following data were obtained: i) A plot of initial rate vs [PMP] yielded a straight line passing through the origin ii) The plot of initial rate vs [GOx] also yielded a straight line passing through the origin   iii) The pseudo first order rate constants (kobs) increased with increasing [lithium perchlorate]  iv)  The rate increased with increasing pH.  The plot of k (observed second order rate constant) vs 1/[H+] was a straight line with non-zero intercept.              v) The addition of  acrylonitrile had no effect on the rate of oxidation.                               (5)

Propose a suitable mechanism and derive the rate law to account for all the above experimental data.                                                                                                                                            (5)

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Applications Of Spectroscopy Question Paper PDF Download

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        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

WD 48

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 4809 – APPLICATIONS OF SPECTROSCOPY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00  Dept. No.                                                 Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A

Answer all the questions.                                                                                   10 x 2 = 20

  1. Calculate lmax for the following compounds
  2. a)                        b)
  3. Why the solution of iodine in hexane is violet while in benzene, it is brown?
  4. Distinguish between maleic acid and fumaric acid using IR spectroscopy.
  5. Why methyl alcohol is a good solvent for UV but not for IR determination?
  6. State the fragmentation modes in benzene.
  7. How does NMR distinguish between the isomers of a primary and secondary alcohol.
  8. Compare the magnitude of 3JHH with 2JHH.
  9. Solution spectra of a compound of lower symmetry is isotropic. Explain.
  10. Which of the following is NQR active in solid state? NaCl or Cl2.
  11. High spin Fe3+ has zero quadrupole splitting while high spin Fe2+ has a large quadrupole splitting. Explain.

PART B

Answer any eight questions.                                                                                8 x 5 = 40

  1. Predict the structure of the compound which shows m/e peaks at 88, 70, 55, 42, 31 (much intense) and 29.
  2. a) which type of transitions are considered to be the origin of charge transfer bands?
  3. b) Why hydrogen bonding shifts the absorption to shorter wavelengths in alcohols?
  4. Distinguish between the following each pair using IR spectra.
  5. a) acetone and acetylene
  6. b) ethanol and ethanal
  7. c) o-hydroxyl benzoic acid and m-hydroxy benzoic acid
  8. d) phenol and cyclohexanol
  9. e) aniline and N-methyl aniline
  10. Interpret octahedral complexes of Mn2+ using Orgel energy level diagram.
  11. Deduce the structure of the organic compound with the molecular formula C8H8O2 which shows IR peaks at 3300, 1700, 3050, 2990, 1590 and 1540 cm-1.
  12. Explain the fragmentation pattern of acetophenone.
  13. Explain the various coupling possible in an alkene and compare their magnitude.
  14. Bring out the differences between homotopic, enantiotopic and diastereotopic protons.
  15. a) How many lines are expected in the EPR spectrum of the free radical HBr..
  16. b) What is the spin of a single nucleus which gives three lines EPR spectrum. (3+2)
  17. Explain the use of NQR technique in the determination of covalency of nickel and platinum complexes.

 

  1. Which of the following hybridization accounts for a higher isomer shift? sp3 or d2sp3. Explain.
  2. How many NQR transitions are possible for iodine and bromine in their solid state.

PART C

Answer any four questions.                                                                              4 x 10 = 40

  1. Identify the compound with the molecular mass 72 which responds to iodoform test. It absorbs in UV spectrum at 275 nm (emax is 17). In IR spectrum the various bands obtained are i) 2941 ii) 1715 and iii) 1460 cm-1. In mass spectrum, the fragmentations are obtained at m/e values of 72, 43 (maximum intensity), 29 and 15. In NMR spectrum, three signals appear at i) quartet, 2.5 d, ii) singlet, 2.2 d, iii) 1.1 d.
  2. a) Distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols by using mass spectroscopy with an example.
  3. b) Explain the McLafferty rearrangement of 1-pentene. (8+2)
  4. a) Explain the characteristic IR absorptions in ethyl acetate.

 

  1. b) Calculate lmax for the following compounds
  2. i) ii)

iii)                                                         iv)

  1. v)                                                        (5+5)

 

  1. a) 60 MHz proton NMR of toluene shows first order pattern while 300 MHz shows second order pattern. Explain.
  2. b) How will you account for the splitting pattern of vinyl protons?                          (6+4)
  3. a) What is quadrupole coupling constant? Explain the fact that the quadrupole coupling constant determined for chlorine molecule and chlorine atom are comparable.
  4. b) Discuss the EPR spectrum of triplet naphthalene radical. (6+4)
  5. a) What is hyperfine splitting? Explain the hyperfine splitting caused by a quadrupole nucleus.
  6. b) Discuss the effect of coordination number on isomer shift and quadrupole splitting in tin compounds.                                                                         (5+5)

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Analytical Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

WD 28

FIRST SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 1809 / CH 3805 – ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 30/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A

Answer all the questions.                                                                                   10 x 2 = 20

  1. Round each of the following numbers to four and three significant figures
  2. a) 28755 b) 0.002045
  3. Five determinations of vitamin C content of citrus fruit gave the following results:

0.218, 0.219, 0.230, 0.215 and 0.220 mg/ml. Apply the Q-test to see if 0.230 value can be discarded?   (Q table = 0.64)

  1. How are the samples derivatised in gas chromatography?
  2. What are the factors affecting the flame temperature of the burners in flame spectrometry?
  3. What is the principle of atomic absorption spectroscopy?
  4. Differentiate the formality of a solution from molarity with an example.
  5. Acetic acid has autoprotolysis constant of 3.55 x 10-15. Calculate the pH of pure acetic acid.
  6. Calculate the ionic strength of a solution obtained by mixing 50 ml o f 0.01M sodium perchlorate and 50 ml of 0.01M lanthanum(III) perchlorate.
  7. Mention the significance of selectivity coefficient in ion selective electrode.
  8. What are the advantages of dropping mercury electrode?

PART B

Answer any eight questions.                                                                                8 x 5 = 40

  1. Write short notes on chemical interferences in flame emission spectroscopy?
  2. What are the different types of pumps used in HPCL? Explain.
  3. How is the purity of pharmaceuticals determined by DSC?
  4. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using premix and total consumption burners used in AAS.
  5. How is sulphate determined by turbidimetry?
  6. Discuss the fluorimetric determination of quinine.
  7. 50 ml of sample of a sugar substitute containing amino acids as the active ingredient was dissolved in 25 ml of 0.02M perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid as the solvent. The excess acid required 14.62 ml of 0.01M potassium acetate for titration using methyl violet as indicator. If the molecular mass of the amino acid mixture is 90. Calculate its percentage by weight. Also express it in terms of ppm.

 

  1. Derive an expression for equivalence point potential for the redox reaction between MnO4- and Fe2+ in acid medium.
  2. Explain the effect of i) complexation, ii) adding an indifferent electrolyte as the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt with suitable example for each.
  3. What is the origin of polarographic maxima? Explain.
  4. 50 ml of 0.1M H2A is titrated with 0.1M KOH. Calculate the pH after adding 50 ml of NaOH. K1 = 10-5 and k2 = 10-8. Derive the relevant relation.
  5. How is Sb3+ estimated using coulometry?

 

PART C

Answer any four questions.                                                                              4 x 10 = 40

  1. Explain the principle and instrumentation of capillary electrophoresis.
  2. a) Draw and explain the thermal decomposition of CuSO4.5H2O by TGA and

DTA studies.

  1. b) Discuss the various types of detectors used in GC. (5+5)
  2. What are spectrophotometric titrations? Explain the types with the advantages.
  3. Explain any two of the following:
  4. a) principle of cyclic voltammetry
  5. b) solid state ion selective electrodes
  6. c) non-aqueous titrations
  7. d) Ilkovic equation
  8. 0.2767g sample of an alloy containing principally iron and zinc is dissolved in acid and diluted to 500 ml (solution A). The pH of a 50 ml aliquot of A is adjusted to 1 and the iron is titrated with 32 ml of 0.0125M EDTA. The pH is then adjusted 10 and titrated with 6.4 ml of the same EDTA. Calculate the percentage of Fe and Zn in the sample. Also explain the significance of controlling pH in EDTA titrations. (5+5)
  9. a) 25 ml of 0.1M KBr is treated with 0.2 M AgNO3 solution. Calculate the pAg after adding i) 5, ii) 12.5, iii) 15 ml of 0.2 M AgNO3. Ksp for AgBr is 5 x 10-13.
  10. b) What is the principle of Volhard’ method? (6+4)

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Chemistry April 2009 Advanced Coordination Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – CHEMISTRY

WD 52

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

CH 4956 – ADVANCED COORDINATION CHEMISTRY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 28/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00     Dept. No.                                              Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART-A

Answer all questions. Each question carries two marks

 

  1. Define relaxivity. What are contrast enhancing agents for MRI?
  2. The direct excitation of lanthanide ions does not give rise to significant emission. Comment.
  3. Mention the structural components of dendrimers and cite a few functional dendrimers.
  4. How do you differentiate low-spin and high-spin octahedral complexes of Fe(II)?
  5. How do you infer spin-orbit coupling from electronic spectroscopy? Mention one example where such an effect is very predominant.
  6. Illustrate transmetallation reaction with an example.
  7. What are radiopharmaceuticals? Cite two examples.
  8. What are optically transparent electrodes? Where is it employed?
  9. What is pseudorotaxane? Cite an example.
  10. Define quantum-up and quantum-down conversion processes.

 

PART-B

Answer eight questions. Each question carries five  marks

 

  1. Explain the theory of relaxivity by Gd(III)-based contrast agents for MRI and highlight the parameters of relaxivity optimization.
  2. Explain the synthetic strategies of polynuclear supramolecular assemblies involving d,d– and d,f -metal ions.
  3. Explain the synthesis of any three supramolecular architectures.
  4. What are the general methods of constructing rotaxanes? Explain the construction of such assemblies by each method.
  5. The 31P NMR spectrum of [Rh(PPh3)3Cl3] consists of two triplets and two doublets. Interpret the spectrum and comment upon its geometry.
  6. Explain the principle and methodology of constructing a dye sensitized solar cell.
  7. Explain the synthesis and properties of dendrimer-encapsulated gold nanoparticles.
  8. Discuss the structural features of ferredoxins and rubredoxins.
  9. Explain the electronic spectral features of tetragonally distorted octahedral complexes of low-spin Co(III) with a qualitative energy level diagram.
  10. Explain the template synthesis of catenanes with illustrative examples.
  11. Explain template synthesis of macrocyclic ligands and their complexes with illustrative examples.
  12. Define molecular machine. Explain the construction of two such devices.

 

 

 

 

 

PART-C

Answer four questions. Each question carries ten marks

 

  1. What is an A-ET-E molecular device?

Explain the photochemistry of encapsulated complexes of Eu(II) and Tb(III).

24a.Explain zero field splitting and hyperfine splitting.

  1. The EPR spectrum of a high spin Mn(II) complex doped onto a diamagnetic host consists of 30 lines. Explain the spectrum with the help of hyperfine splitting energy level diagram.
  2. Explain the synthetic strategies for compartmental macrocyclic- and macroacyclic ligands and their complexes of lanthanides and actinides.
  3. What are molecular shuttles? Give an account of the construction of molecular shuttles controlled by (a) electrochemically, (b) pH, and (c) redox process.

27a. Explain the principle and methodology of cyclic voltammetry.

b.The cyclic voltammogram of a Co(III) complex consists of two cathodic waves at     Epc = -0.65  and -0.42 V and two anodic waves at Epa = -0.52  and -0.35 V at the scan rate of 50 mV s-1 with ipc values of 25 and 19 mA, and ipa values of 23 and 19 mA. Explain the electrochemical behavior of the system from the computed parameters.

28a. Explain the synthesis of dendrimers with two examples.

  1. Give an account of the application potential of dendrimers.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology Nov 2008 Entrepreneurial Development Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

QB 28

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIOTECHNOLOGY

THIRD SEMESTER – November 2008

    CO 3900 – ENTREPRENEURIAL DEVELOPMENT

 

 

 

Date : 14-11-08                 Dept. No.                                        Max. : 100 Marks

Time : 9:00 – 12:00

PART A

Answer ALL the questions                                                                       (10 X 2 = 20)

State the meaning of the following:

 

  1. Motives.
  2. Entrepreneur.
  3. Entrepreneurial mobility.
  4. Project report
  5. TCOs, ICICI, IDBI and PERT
  6. Any two differences between an Entrepreneur and a manager.
  7. Any four specialized institutions in India for entrepreneurial assistances
  8. Any four successful leading entrepreneurs in Chennai city.
  9. Any four objectives of EDPs.
  10. IPR, WTO, NGOs and SHG.

PART B

Answer any FIVE Questions                                                                        (5 X 8 = 40)

  1. What are the major entrepreneurial competencies? Explain.
  2. Bring out the contents of a project report.
  3. Explain the problems of women entrepreneurs.
  4. What are the sources of short-term finance?
  5. Write short notes on  a) L/C.            b) Export Finance.                 (4 + 4)
  6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Pay Back Period method?
  7. Appreciate the need for tax benefits to small-scale industries.
  8. “Developing rural entrepreneurship is necessary but not so easy”. Explain.

 

PART C

Answer any TWO Questions                                                                        (2 X 20 = 40)

 

  1. What factors do influence the emergence and development of entrepreneurship?
  2. What is entrepreneurial motivation? Is it necessary for a successful entrepreneur?    Explain the

factors, which prompt people to become entrepreneurs (2 + 6 + 12)

  1. Explain the functions of a) NSIC  b) SIDO   and   c) SISIs   (7 + 7 + 6)

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Structural Biology & Bioinformatics Question Paper PDF Download

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        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 35

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2820 – STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY & BIOINFORMATICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 27/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                            SECTION A  (20 marks)

                                              Answer all the questions

  1. Choose the best answer (5×1=5)
  2. Alpha helix breakers are
  3. a) Pro and Gly b) Asp and Asn c) Phe and Tyr d) Ala and His
  4. Three dimensional structure of a protein is elucidated by
  5. a) X ray crystallography b) NMR c) CD d) MS
  6. In standard microarrays probes are attached to the chip coated with chemical matrix by
  7. a) Covalent bonding b) van der waals forces
  8. c) Hydrophobic forces d) ionic bonding
  9. The most frequently used target for drugs are
  10. a) GPCR and ion channels b) Ligands and small molecules
  11. c) Kinases and esterase d) Sugars and lipids
  12. Identify the type of isochore in which most of the house keeping genes are located?
  13. a) L1 b) H1                         c) L2                            d) H3
  14. State True or False; if false, give reasons (5×1=5)
  15. Negatively supercoiled DNA runs faster in agarose gel electrophoresis.
  16. Protein coding genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I in eukaryotes.
  17. RNA secondary structures can be predicted by software tool based on energy

minimization.

  1. Protein signatures can be analysed by PRINTS.
  2. KEGG and CaZy are enzyme databases.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                    (5×1=5)

  1. Proteins present in silk fibre are called _______and _______.
  2. UTR represents _________.
  3. Energy required for protein folding is______kJ/mol.
  4. GEO stands for___________.
  5. DNA is stabilized by _________forces.

 

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  2. Define alternative splicing
  3. Explain folding funnel.
  4. Differentiate Topoisomerase I and Topoisomerase II.
  5. What are indels?
  6. Write about NCBI.

 

SECTION B

  Answer any five of the following, each in about 350 words:                  (5 x 8 = 40)                     

 

  1. Draw the structure of a gene and locate the ORF. What are the tools available to

analyze an ORF and CpG islands?

  1. Explain how a hit compound succeeds to become a potential drug.
  2. Write in detail about collagen and its biomedical significance and disorders.
  3. What are the four levels of structures of the proteins?
  4. Explain the different transition states of a folded protein.
  5. Briefly write about Alpha and Beta Keratin.
  6. Differentiate A, B and Z forms of DNA.
  7. Write about Chou-Fasman, GOR and NN methods of protein prediction.

 

SECTION C

 Answer the following, each in about 1500 words:                                                (2 x 20 = 40)  

 

29.a)    i) Define steric collision and draw a planar peptide bond with Phi and Psi angle.

  1. ii) Explain Ramachandran plot and show the allowable and disallowable quadrants for alpha

and beta structures.

(or)

  1. Elaborate upon the Protein sequence and structural Databases and any five

proteomic tools.

30 a)    i) Detail gene expression analysis using Microarrays.

  1. ii) Explain clustering approach and write about Mutation microarray analysis.

iii) List out the applications.

(or)

  1. b) i)  Explain sequence alignment .
  2. ii) Write about BLAST and its applications.

iii) Brief about the MSA tools available and interpret it using phylogenetic trees.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Recombinant Dna & Gene Cloning Question Paper PDF Download

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  LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 32

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2817 – RECOMBINANT DNA & GENE CLONING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 20/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                    PART – A                                          (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)
  2. The site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds on the DNA to precede transcription is called
  3. a) primer b) promoter                 c) operator                   d) repressor
  4. Which one of the following is an artificial plasmid?
  5. a) Col E1 b) RSF  1030               c) pSC 101                  d) pBR 322
  6. The process involving direct uptake of naked DNA is called
  7. a) transformation b) transduction                        c)transfection              d) recombination
  8. M 13 phage can produce
  9. a) SS DNA b) DS DNA                 c) both SS & DS DNA’s        d) either  SS or DS DNA’s
  10. Which one of the following is a selectable marker gene?
  11. a) npt II b) Lux                         c) Gus                          d) GFP

 

  1. State true or false. If false; state the reason: (5×1=5)
  2. Ligation is the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
  3. Lambda gt1 1 contain lac Z gene with a unique EcoRI site.
  4. The red and gam gene products are used in lac selection.
  5. The Lac Z1 gene has multiple cloning sites.
  6. S1 nuclease removes the single strands protrusions at each end.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

  1. Cloning all DNA fragments of an organism at a time in a population of a bacterium is called

______________________.

  1. The EcoRI restriction enzyme produces ___________________ ends.
  2. The chain termination method of DNA sequencing is also called ______________________.
  3. The insitu – hybridization assay is also called _______________________.
  4. Polyhedrin gene is isolated from ______________________ virus.
  5. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  6. What is X – gal?
  7. Define shuttle vectors.
  8. What is fusion protein?
  9. Distinguish insertional and replacement vectors.
  10. What is Ti – plasmid?

PART – B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)
  2. Distinguish between selectable and scorable markers.
  3. Explain insertional mutagenesis, with labelled sketch.
  4. Describe the southern blotting technique.
  5. Explain the principle and working methodology of Real – time PCR.
  6. Elaborate how the baculoviruses are useful in biotechnology and write its applications.
  7. Describe the chemical and biological methods of transformation.
  8. Describe the lifecycle of M 13 phages and its role as a vector.
  9. Give an account on chain termination sequencing.

                                               

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each in about 1500 words: (2×20=40)
  2. (a) What are restriction endonucleases? Describe their types and properties with examples.

(or)                             

(b) Describe the various genetic markers used in the selection of recombinant clones.

  1. (a) Give an account on Yeast artificial Chromosomes. Add a note how YAC are advantageous than

other vectors used in cloning.

(or)

(b) What is a cDNA library? Describe the steps involved in the synthesis of cDNA.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Nanotechnology & Medical Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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VE 39

       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2953 – NANOTECHNOLOGY & MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 29/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A

                                                          Answer all questions                                   (20 marks)

  1. Choose the correct answer for the following questions. (5×1=5)
  2. Consanguinity increases the chance that a couple will both carry—————————
  3. Two disease genes b. the same disease gene c. one disease gene d. none
  4. X linked recessive diseases are more common among————————————
  5. Males b. Females c. Males & Females  d. None
  6. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an————————————–
  7. X linked dominant disease c. X linked recessive disease
  8. Communicable disease d. Y linked disease
  9. Actuators are devices that convert——————————————-
  10. Electrical Energy to Light Energy
  11. Electrical Energy to Sound Energy
  12. Electrical Energy to Mechanical Energy
  13. Mechanical Energy to Light Energy
  14. Glycine is an aminoacid that has a typical size of about——————————-
  15. 50nm b. 0.42nm c.  20nm d.  150nm
  16.   State whether the Following statements are True or False. If False state the reason.                                                                                                                       (5×1=5)
  17. Measurement of zeta potential gives the degree of attraction between particles.
  18. In Reactive Ion Etching the substrate is placed inside a reactor in which several gases are

introduced.

  1. Richard Feynman coined the term Nanotechnology.
  2. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder caused due to the deficiency of Blood clotting Factor II.
  3. Candidate genes are those whose characteristics suggest that they may be responsible for a

genetic disease.

 

  • Complete the Following : (5×1=5)
  1. Li fraumeni syndrome is a condition in which point mutations are seen in highly conserved

regions of the —————— gene.

  1. The ideal time to do an Amniocentesis is between ———————— weeks.
  2. Quantum Nanotechnology is the sum of all things based on—————————
  3. A typical wafer is made out of pure—————————- that is grown into monocylindrical

crystalline ingots.

  1. The gene essential for chloride transport and mucus secretion which is defective in Cystic

Fibrosis patients is the ———————— gene.

 

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words. (5×1=5)
  2. Write a note on FISH.
  3. Define a Proband?
  4. What is a Nanowire?
  5. What is a DNA Nanostructure?
  6. Write a note on Goldberg-Hogness box?

 

PART B

  1. Answer any Five of the following questions each in about 350 words. (5 x 8 = 40)
  2. Explain the role of p53 in Cancer.
  3. Write a note on Carbon nanofoam.
  4. Describe the application of Nanotechnology in the treatment of Cancer?
  5. Give an account on β thalassemia.
  6. Explain the role of DNA fingerprinting in Forensic analysis.
  7. Write a note on Targeted drug delivery.
  8. Describe the different types of Genetic counseling?
  9. Write a note on Amniocentesis as a diagnostic tool in prenatal diagnosis.

 

PART C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words (2 x 20 = 40)
  2. What are Biological Nanostructures? Give examples and discuss their applications.

(or)

  1. b.What are Autosomal dominant disorders? Give examples and describe how

Nanotechnology is useful to overcome these disorders.

  1. What are Stem cells? What are the different types of Stem cells? Explain their

application in Medical treatment.

(or)

  1. b. Explain the working principle and Applications of a Flow Cytometer.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Microbial & Bioprocess Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 40

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2954 – MICROBIAL & BIOPROCESS TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 29/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                  Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                            PART – A                                          (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)
  2. Which one of the following is a secondary metabolite?
  3. a) proteins b) lipids                                   c) nucleotides              d) antibiotics
  4. Name the fermenter part that is used to check vortex and improve aeration?
  5. a) agitator b) ball-bearing             c) sparger                     d) baffles
  6. The evaporator used for concentrating higher viscous product is
  7. a) falling-film b) plate evaporator      c) forced-film              d) centrifugal-forced film
  8. The CO2 concentration is commonly monitored using
  9. a) paramagnetic gas analyser b) galvanic electrode
  10. c) infra-red gas analyser d) polarographic electrode
  11. Which one of the following is not used in cell disruption?
  12. a) sonicator b) French press                        c) lyophiliser                d) homogenizer

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give the reason: (5×1=5)
  2. Enriched cultures are ideal for isolating industrially important organisms.
  3. The two-phase aqueous separation is induced when hydrophilic polymers are added.
  4. In inoculum development, the age of inoculum is important for the growth of sporulating bacteria.
  5. In batch fermentation, the substrate is added at the start of the fermentation.
  6. Sodium lauryl sulphate is a solvent.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

  1. The advantage of using stainless-steel in the fermentor as construction material is _____________

and _____________________.

  1. The process of inducing multiple mutations at the replication point is called ________________.
  2. The measure of electron activity is called __________________________.
  3. The chromatographic separation based on molecular recognition is ________________________.
  4. The separation of components from a liquid mixture by treatment with a solvent is known as

________________________.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  2. Define ideal Bioreactor.
  3. What are precursors? Give examples.
  4. What do you mean by interfacing -technique?
  5. Name two enzymes used to disrupt yeast cells?
  6. What is GMP?

PART- B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)
  2. Explain briefly the ranges of fermentation processes.
  3. What is sterilization? What are the methods used for sterilizing thermolabile substances?
  4. Describe the brewing process of malted barley in beer production.
  5. What is scale-up operation? Write about their significance in bioprocessing.
  6. Describe the methods involved in cell-disruption.
  7. Explain the computer aided control of fermentation.
  8. Describe the solid-liquid separation in down-stream processing.
  9. Discuss the ethical implications in bioprocessing.

                                                                        PART- C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words: (2×20=40)
  2. (a) Comment on Single-cell protein production from bacteria and algae and their commercial

significance.

(or)

(b) Discuss the processes of strain improvement using mutation and recombination.

  1. (a) Describe the effluent treatment and disposal in sewered areas.

(or)  

(b) Give an account of media formulation for bioprocessing.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Metabolic Engineering Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 46

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 4951 – METABOLIC ENGINEERING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00  Dept. No.                                                    Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

SECTION A  (20 marks)

Answer all the questions

 

  1. Choose the best answer                                     (5X1=5)

 

  1. Energy required to express the house keeping genes are derived from
  2. a) Biosynthetic reaction c) Fueling reaction
  3. b) Enzymatic reaction d) Hormonal reaction

 

  1. Initial rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction depends on
  2. a) Enzyme concentration c) pH of the medium
  3. b) Substrate concentration d) Temperature of the medium.

 

  1. A ligand can be a
  2. a) Protein c) Carbohydrate
  3. b) Lipid d) metal ion

 

  1. Choose the carbon source which enters the TCA cycle.
  2. a) Glucose b) Acetyl coA c) Pyruvate                  d) Citrate

 

  1. Name the enzyme for which insulin is not an inducer
  2. a) Phosphofructokinase c) Glucose-6-Phosphatase
  3. b) Pyruvate kinase d) Glycogen synthetase

 

  1. State True or False; if false give reasons (5X1=5)

 

  1. Primary metabolism synthesizes building block metabolite and energy in uniform

amounts.

  1. The fluxes in and out of the Black box model are given by a constant rate and a

variable substrate and product rate.

  1. Recombinant PCR cannot be used for making novel proteins.
  2. Strongly weak nodes are insensitive to regulation.
  3. Secondary metabolites cannot be overproduced by altering flux.

 

III. Complete the following.                                                             (5X1=5)

 

  1. NLS corresponds to _______.
  2. Glutamic acid was overproduced in_______.
  3. Hsp refers to________.
  4. Electronic cell mimicks ________.
  5. GOGAT stands for________.

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each about 50 words (5X1=5)

 

  1. Explain Substrate level phosphorylation.
  2. What is an irreversible inhibitor?
  3. Write about UAS.
  4. Define Metabolic Control theory.
  5. Explain Gene shuffling.

SECTION B

 

 Answer any five, each answer within 350 words only.                (5X8=40)

 

  1. What are perturbations? How are they helpful in analyzing flux?
  2. Describe Pentose phosphate pathway and its regulation.
  3. Give a schematic representation of various types of enzyme inhibition.
  4. What are secondary metabolites? Discuss its production in a plant cell.
  5. What are the criteria to be employed in the choice of an organism for metabolite

overproduction?

  1. Give a blueprint for the selection of induced mutants synthesizing ethanol from xylose.
  2. What are the potentials and perils of Metabolic engineering?
  3. Discuss the glycolysis pathway and its regulation in Corynebaterium glutamicum.

overproducing Lysine.

 

SECTION C

 

Answer the following, each in about 1500 words.                          (2X20=40)

 

29 a) Elaborate the classification of nodes and highlight the various strategies adopted for

accelerating primary metabolism.

(Or)

  1. b) Outline the pathway of TCA cycle and MFA of a plant cell.

 

30 a) Give a detailed description on Protein Engineering and discuss the various methodologies

followed.

 

(Or)

  1. b) Write about Signal Transduction and the pathways involved.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Marine Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 47

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 4952 – MARINE BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

                                                            PART – A                                                      (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)

 

  1. The darker zone in lakes where light penetration is negligible is called ______________ zone
  2. a) littoral             b) limnetic                   c) profundal                d) euphotic
  3. The type of estuary that is formed from deeper V- shaped channels is
  4. a) bar-built b) salt-wedge              c) fjord type                d) coastal-plain
  5. The marine flowering plants are called
  6. a) Anthophyta b) Phaeophyta             c) Rhodophyta                        d) Chlorophyta
  7. Coral reefs are built from the accumulated layers of
  8. a) CaCO3 b) CaSO          4                              c) MgSO4                    d) MgCl2
  9. Which one of the following can be used for induced breeding of fishes?
  10. a) ovatide                        b) ovatin                      c) ovaprom                  d) ovaran

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give the reason: (5×1=5)

 

  1. Sunderbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
  2. Alginates are produced by blue- green algae.
  3. Probiotics are hormones that stimulate reproduction in fishes.
  4. Shrimps are generally cultured in a land based ponds or impoundments.
  5. Bacteria are first organisms to foul surfaces exposed to seawater.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

 

  1. The symbiotic algae present in the coral reef is ___________________.
  2. Ciguatoxin is isolated from the viscera of moray eel _____________________.
  3. Biopolymers are made of repetitive units called _______________________.
  4. The estuarine habitat that tolerates limited salinity ranges exposure is termed as _____________.
  5. ______________ is a potential source of phycoflours, used as label for biologically active

molecules.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)

 

  1. What is an Atoll?
  2. Define thermocline.
  3. What are ‘anti-freeze proteins’?
  4. Differentiate fall-turnover and spring –turnover.
  5. Name the 4 types of pneumatophores produced by black mangroves.

                                                  

 

 

 

 

 

PART -B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)

 

  1. List the characteristic zonation of standing- water ecosystem.
  2. Bring out the salient features of marine toxins naturally contaminating the sea.
  3. How metals are recovered by microbes in the marine environment?
  4. Explain the significance of hatchery feed and farming practices in shrimp aquaculture.
  5. Discuss the salient features of an estuarine ecosystem.
  6. Explain the role of marine microbes in pollution abatement.
  7. Discuss briefly the commercial importance of marine natural products and their pharmaceutical

applications.

  1. What are the various applications of PCR in aquaculture?

 

PART -C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words: (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. (a) Comment on the emerging trends in marine agronomy that exploits seaweed cultivation for a

variety of consumer  products.

(or)           

(b) Illustrate the marine biofouling process and add a note on its control.

  1. (a) Describe the three stages of coral reef development around a new volcanic island.

(or)

(b)  Discuss the genetic & hormonal manipulation of reproduction in fishes.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Genetic Engineering Question Paper PDF Download

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    LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 29

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2813 – GENETIC ENGINEERING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 20/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION – A

Answer all the questions                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer. (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Which of the following is not an example of DNA cleaving reagent used in

footprinting?

  1. a) DNAse I b) Hydroxyl radical   c) Dimethyl sulfate   d) β-mercaptoethanol
  2. The pore size for the filters used in dot blots for large nucleic acids is ____ µm.
  3. a) 0.25 b) 0.35  c) 0.45   d) 0.55
  4. Which is the optimum reaction temperature for Taq 1 enzyme
  5. a) 25 degrees b) 37 degrees c)  65 degrees   d) 45 degrees
  6. Which is the first licensed drug produced through rDNA technology?
  7. a) Human insulin b) Hepatitis-B vaccine c) Somatostatin  d)tPA
  8. Alpha complementation is used in
  9. a) bacterial transformation b) transfection c) transduction d) conjugation

 

  1. Say True or False; if false, state reasons. (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Polylinkers are also called as Multiple Cloning Sites.
  3. Science published Taq polymerase as the molecule of the year in 1989.
  4. Enhancers are bidirectional gene regulatory elements.
  5. EMBL3 is used for the construction of cDNA libraries.
  6. Agrobacterium transformation is mainly used for monocots.

 

III. Complete the following.                                                                (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. ________ and ________ discovered the concept of RNAi.
  2. IPTG stands for _________.
  3. ________ is called as molecular glue.
  4. ‘aad’ confers resistance to _______ and ________ antibiotics.
  5. ________ radioactive isotope is used for in situ hybridization.

 

  1. Answer the following in one or two sentences, each in about 50 words. (5 X 1 =5)
  2. Site-directed mutagenesis
  3. PBRs
  4. Photolithography
  5. Transformation
  6. Plantibodies

 

 

 

 

SECTION – B

 

  1. Answer any five questions, each in about 350 words only. (5 X 8 = 40)

 

  1. What are the features of molecular probes? Differentiate between radioactive and

non-radioactive methods of labeling.

  1. List out the components of hybridization buffer and add a note on stringency control.

Add a note on autoradiography.

  1. Mention the parameters to be considered for primer designing for PCR applications.

How do you design primers using Primer3 software?

  1. Differentiate RFLP and RAPD. How can the former technique be used for detection

of genetic disorders and epidemiological typing?

  1. Enumerate the steps involved in bacterial transformation.
  2. Give an account on subtractive hybridization with an example.
  3. What is electroporation? Mention its advantages and disadvantages.
  4. What are the advantages of organelle transformation and give a brief description of it.

 

SECTION – C

  1. Answer the following, each in about 1500 words. (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) ‘The nub of the new (genetic engineering) technology is to move genes back and forth, not only across species lines, but across any boundaries that divide living organisms. The results will be essentially new organisms, self-perpetuating and hence permanent. Once created, they cannot be recalled’ – Discuss this statement of George Wald, throwing light upon the technical, ethical, social, ecological and legal issues involved in Genetic Engineering. (3 + 3 + 3 + 5 + 6)

.

(or)

 

  1. b) Explain the post-transcriptional gene silencing machinery using RNA interference technology. Differentiate between siRNA and miRNA, and add a note on the various applications of RNAi. (12 + 3 + 5)

 

  1. a) How do you generate a transgenic tobacco plant resistant to TMV (Tobacco

Mosaic Virus)? Describe the procedure with appropriate diagram.

 

(or)

 

  1. b) Enlist the characteristics of various yeast vectors used for transformation, and also mention their merits and demerits.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Enzymology & Enzyme Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 33

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2818 – ENZYMOLOGY & ENZYME TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A                                                  (20 Marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Energy required by the reactants to undergo the reactions is known as:

(i) Input energy                                   (ii) Energy change                                                       (iii) Activation energy                         (iv) Enthalpy

  1. Specificity of enzyme mostly depends on the:

(i) Apoenzyme            (ii) Coenzyme              (iii) Substrate               (iv) Reaction

  1. Coenzyme not related to B complex which is required for glycogen synthesis is:

(i) ATP                        (ii) CDP                       (iii) UDP                     (iv) PAPS

  1. The enzyme which plays a major role in Myocardial Infarction is:

(i) AST                        (ii) ALT                       (iii) LDH                     (iv) ACP

  1. The mutant, which plays a major role in the mechanism of α-helix capping is:

(i) A4T                        (ii) G147A                   (iii) G189A                  (iv) K305D

  1. State True or False: If false give the reason: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Name of the enzyme usually indicates the substrate involved in a particular reaction.
  3. Synthases and synthatases are different class of enzymes.
  4. Coenzymes are otherwise called as second substrates.
  5. Transition state analogs are potential enzyme inhibitors.
  6. In endergonic reactions, the energy is liberated.

III. Complete the following:                                                                            (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. Racemase and epimerase are the examples for the …………… class of enzyme.
  2. The site at which both the ……………. and……….. are present is called as active site.
  3. Isoenzymes are distinguishable only by ………………..
  4. Lysozyme breaks the ……………….. linkages in Glucosaminoglycans.
  5. Inhibitor responsible for the competitive inhibition closely resembles the …………..

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each within 50 words:                  (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Define – Katal.
  3. What is Turnover number?
  4. Define: Enzyme degradation.
  5. Explain: Enzyme electrode.
  6. Define – Abzymes.

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five questions, each within 350 words: (5 X 8 = 40)
  2. Explain in detail about the IUBMB classification of enzymes.
  3. Discuss on importance and methods for isolation and purification of enzymes.
  4. Write in detail about the types of reversible inhibition?
  5. Define multienzyme complex. Explain evolutionary relationship between serine protease.
  6. Explain the diagnostic importance of SGOT, SGPT and ALP in hepatic diseases?
  7. Write about enzyme therapy for genetic disorders and cancer.
  8. Explain in detail about the single point mutagenesis for optimization of industrial enzymes.
  9. What are proteolytic enzymes? Explain their role in digestive tract.

 

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each answer within 1500 words: (2 X 20 = 40)
  2. (a) Explain the specificity, salient features and mechanism of action of active sites.

(OR)

(b) Derive Michaelis-Menten equation. Explain the effect of substrate, temperature, pH, and product concentration on the regulation of enzyme activity.

  1. (a) Explain the Phillip’s mechanism of enzyme action with reference to lysozyme. Give the importance of catalytic residues in serine proteases.

(OR)

(b) Explain the types, advantages and applications of enzyme immobilization with suitable examples.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

by

       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 33

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2818 – ENZYMOLOGY & ENZYME TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A                                                  (20 Marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Energy required by the reactants to undergo the reactions is known as:

(i) Input energy                                   (ii) Energy change                                                       (iii) Activation energy                         (iv) Enthalpy

  1. Specificity of enzyme mostly depends on the:

(i) Apoenzyme            (ii) Coenzyme              (iii) Substrate               (iv) Reaction

  1. Coenzyme not related to B complex which is required for glycogen synthesis is:

(i) ATP                        (ii) CDP                       (iii) UDP                     (iv) PAPS

  1. The enzyme which plays a major role in Myocardial Infarction is:

(i) AST                        (ii) ALT                       (iii) LDH                     (iv) ACP

  1. The mutant, which plays a major role in the mechanism of α-helix capping is:

(i) A4T                        (ii) G147A                   (iii) G189A                  (iv) K305D

  1. State True or False: If false give the reason: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Name of the enzyme usually indicates the substrate involved in a particular reaction.
  3. Synthases and synthatases are different class of enzymes.
  4. Coenzymes are otherwise called as second substrates.
  5. Transition state analogs are potential enzyme inhibitors.
  6. In endergonic reactions, the energy is liberated.

III. Complete the following:                                                                            (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. Racemase and epimerase are the examples for the …………… class of enzyme.
  2. The site at which both the ……………. and……….. are present is called as active site.
  3. Isoenzymes are distinguishable only by ………………..
  4. Lysozyme breaks the ……………….. linkages in Glucosaminoglycans.
  5. Inhibitor responsible for the competitive inhibition closely resembles the …………..

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each within 50 words:                  (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Define – Katal.
  3. What is Turnover number?
  4. Define: Enzyme degradation.
  5. Explain: Enzyme electrode.
  6. Define – Abzymes.

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five questions, each within 350 words: (5 X 8 = 40)
  2. Explain in detail about the IUBMB classification of enzymes.
  3. Discuss on importance and methods for isolation and purification of enzymes.
  4. Write in detail about the types of reversible inhibition?
  5. Define multienzyme complex. Explain evolutionary relationship between serine protease.
  6. Explain the diagnostic importance of SGOT, SGPT and ALP in hepatic diseases?
  7. Write about enzyme therapy for genetic disorders and cancer.
  8. Explain in detail about the single point mutagenesis for optimization of industrial enzymes.
  9. What are proteolytic enzymes? Explain their role in digestive tract.

 

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each answer within 1500 words: (2 X 20 = 40)
  2. (a) Explain the specificity, salient features and mechanism of action of active sites.

(OR)

(b) Derive Michaelis-Menten equation. Explain the effect of substrate, temperature, pH, and product concentration on the regulation of enzyme activity.

  1. (a) Explain the Phillip’s mechanism of enzyme action with reference to lysozyme. Give the importance of catalytic residues in serine proteases.

(OR)

(b) Explain the types, advantages and applications of enzyme immobilization with suitable examples.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

by

        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 42

THIRD SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 3813 – ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 16/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                     Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

PART – A                                          (20 marks)

Answer ALL the questions                                                                             (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer
  2. ___________ operates on the principle of adsorption followed by biodegradation
  3. Trickling filter b) Packed bed reactor
  4. Fabric reaction d) Rotating Biological contactor
  5. The process of aggregation of destabilized particle is called.
  6. Flocculation b) sedimentation         c) Coagulation                         d) flotation
  7. Addition of a compound that lowers the surface tension
  8. Biochealator b)biosurfactant                        c) enzyme        d) electron acceptor
  9. The average global temperature is
  10. 20oC b) 14oC                                    c) 25oC                        d) 30oC
  11. The bacteria which is dominant in biofilm is
  12. Fusarium sp b) Geotrichum sp        c) Achromobacter sp   d) Zoogloea ramigera

 

  1. State true or false, if false state reason (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Cytochrome P450 complex is involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics.
  2. Polyethylene is a biodegradable plastic.
  3. Microorganisams present in biofiltration system are predominantly aerobic.
  4. Parathion is a chlorinated pesticide used widely.
  5. Bioaugmentation is extraction of metals from ores with help of microorganisms.

 

  • Complete the following (5 x 1=5)

 

  1. _____________ sp is mainly involved in microbial leaching.
  2. ____________ an alkaloid isolated from tree frog.
  3. ___________ test to detect the potability of drinking water.
  4. SCP are rich source of ___________ pigment.
  5. _____________ is the process of removal of nitrogen from waste matter.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in 50 words each                                                           (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Biofuel
  2. Sedimentation
  3. Landfills
  4. Composting
  5. Eutrophication

PART – B

 

Answer any FIVE question within 350 words only                                                     (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Give an account on air pollution.
  2. Write notes on (i) trickling filter (ii) packed bed reactor and add a note on their applications.
  3. Define vermicomposting? What are the different methods of composting?
  4. Explain about bioremediation of sub surface material.
  5. Write details on bioaugmentation.
  6. Discuss the biodegradation of chlorinated hydrocarbons.
  7. Write n essay on algal hydrocarbons.
  8. Explain the mechanism of microbial corrosion with example.

 

PART – C

Answer the following each within 1500 words                                                             (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) What is bioremediation? Explain in detail about in situ and ex situ bioremediation.

 

(OR)

  1. Write in detail the different types of reactors used in waste water treatment.

 

  1. a) Write a detail account on bio degradation of aromatic xenobiotics.

 

(OR)

  1. b) Describe the mechanism of bioleaching.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

by

        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 34

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2819 – ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 24/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                        PART – A                                              (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)

 

  1. 1. The progressive accumulation of non-biodegradable chemicals through the food chain is known as
  2. ecological balance b) trophic  structure
  3. biological magnification d) biodegradation
  4. Which of the following gas has maximum contribution to enhanced green house effect?
  5. CFC b) CH4                         c) N2 O                        d) CO2
  6. The method of introducing natural microbial strains or GEMS to the contaminated site is called
  7. a) Biostimulation b) Bioremediation
  8. c) Bioaugmentation d) Bioaccumulation
  9. If BOD of river is high, it means that the river is
  10. a) not polluted b) highly polluted
  11. c) gets least amount of light d) has low temperature of  water
  12. Metallothioneins are rich in
  13. a) Cysteine b)Leucine                         c)Proline                             d)Glutamic acid

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give reasons: (5×1=5)

 

  1. Fossil fuels are derived from long dead biological material.
  2. Assimilable organic carbon fraction represents the easily degradable compounds.
  3. Polyhydroxyalkanoates are biodegradable polymers.
  4. The ideal microbe for bioleaching of metals from ore is Bacillus subtilis.
  5. 10. Bacterial merA operon degrades inorganic mercury.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

 

  1. Compounds which persist in the environment are called ____________________.
  2. Gasohol is a mixture of ____________________ and ______________________.
  3. The world environment day is celebrated on _________________________.
  4. Denaturing agents used in DGGE are____ ________ and ______________________.
  5. Lin A gene degrades ________________________.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)

           

  1. What is activated carbon?
  2. Name the particulate pollutants found in atmosphere.
  3. Differentiate Bioventing and Biosparging
  4. Define Siderophores with examples.
  5. What are Phase – I reactions?

 

 

 

 

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)

 

  1. What are the effects of air pollution? Add a note on its remedial measures.
  2. Write about the attached aerobic treatment processes with examples.
  3. Describe the problems and remedies in soaps, surfactant and dye manufacturing industries.
  4. “Microbes can convert waste into energy” – Justify the statement.
  5. Write about the pathway involved in Toluene degradation by Pseudomonas putida.
  6. Explain the process of Composting of organic waste.
  7. Write about the role of Poplar and Arabidopsis as Phytoremediating plants.
  8. Describe Biphenyl degradation by microbes.

 

PART – C

Answer the following each in about 1500 words:                                                  (2×20=40)

 

  1. (a) What is remote sensing? Explain its working principle and applications.

(or)

(b) Explain the biofilm formation,  ecology and its control measures.

  1. (a) Elaborate upon the procedures used by Dr Anand Chakrabarty in getting US patent

No 4259444.

(or)

(b)Write about T-RFLP as a tool for molecular analysis of pollutant degrading microbes.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Biostatistics & Bioinformatics Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 43

THIRD SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 3814 – BIOSTATISTICS AND BIOINFORMATICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                      Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A  (20×1= 20)

Answer all the questions

I Choose the best answer:                                                                             (5 x 1 =5)

 

1.A cluster database which represent unique genes as mRNA and EST is

  1. a) UniProt b)Unigene                   c)Swissprot     d)Homologene
  2. SINES and LINES can be identified by

a)Repeat Masker         b)GenScan                c)GRAIL        d)DUST

  1. A protein prediction approach that mimicks human Brain

a)ANN                                    b)GOR                                    c)ANR                        d)GNR

  1. Captions and stubs are related with
  2. a) rows and columns b) body and title
  3. c) general and special purpose d) simple and complex
  4. The shape of the normal distribution curve is
  5. Flat curve b. Hump like               c. Bell shape                d. Irregular shape

 

II State whether the following True or False:                                                        (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. Month database is subset of nr which gets updated every 30 days
  2. First step in Drug designing for a particular protein is to identify Lead Compound
  3. GEO denotes Gene Expression Omnibus
  4. The value of correlation coefficient lies always between +1 to 0.
  5. Eye colour of fathers with eye colour of sons can tested by t test.

 

III Complete the following                                                                           (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. BankIt and Sequin are _______________
  2. CaZy and BRENDA are ________and ________ databases respectively

13.The format in which basic information about structure of a phylogenetic tree is conveyed in a

series of nested parantheses is called___________

  1. Chance of happening and not happening of an event refers to —————–.
  2. ————– distribution is an approximation to binomial distributions.

 

IV Answer the following, each not exceeding 50 words.                           (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. Comment on L1 isochore.
  2. Define GU-AG Rule.
  3. Differentiate Phi BLAST and Psi BLAST.
  4. What is ranking correlation
  5. Define Null hypothesis

 

 

 

 

PART – B

Answer any 5 of the following, choose not more than 3 in each section.

Each answer not exceeding 350 words (8×5= 40 marks)

Draw diagrams / flow charts wherever necessary.

 

Section I

21.Explain signal sensors and Content sensors of Eukaryotic gene prediction tools and also list

the softwares involved..

22.Brief the Conformational parameters of secondary structure of a protein and interpretation  by

Ramachandran Plot

23.Write about Medical Databases and Genome databases and list its features

  1. Discuss about Multiple Sequence Alignment and Phylogenetic Tree building methods

 

Section II

  1. The lengths of 200 parasites in the human blood were measured to the nearest micron as given in the following table. Calculate the mean and standard deviations of this distributions.
Length 80-89 70-79 60-69 50-59 40-49 30-39 20-29 10-19
Frequency 2 2 6 20 56 40 42 32

 

  1. Calculate the correlation coefficient between height (in inches) of father (A) and son (B) from the data given below:
A 67 64 65 69 70 74 60
B 66 67 60 68 73 70 65

 

  1. Enumerate the properties of normal distribution.

 

  1. Write down the test criteria for small sample inspection and explain their uses.

 

PART –  C

Answer the following, each not exceeding 1500 words.

Draw diagrams / flow charts wherever necessary (2 x 20 = 40 marks)

 

  1. a)Align the following sequences using Needleman Wunsch global Algorithm

Seq 1:ACTCG

Seq 2:ACAGTAG

How dynamic programming is applied in  BLAST FASTA and other tools?

Or

  1. b) Elaborate upon the various Structure Visualization tools, databases used, its features and

advantages with emphasis on Homology Modeling

 

  1. (a) The following table shows the ages (X) and systolic blood pressure (Y) of 8 persons. Fit a linear regression equation of Y on X and estimate the blood pressure of a person of 70 years.
Age (X) 16 15 11 27 39 22 20
BP (Y) 24 25 34 40 35 20 23

 

  1. (b) Two random samples drawn from two normal populations are:
S – 1 55 54 52 53 56 58 52 50 51 49
S – 2 108 107 105 105 106 107 104 103 104 101 105

Obtain the estimates of the variance of the two populations that have the same variance.

 

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