M.Sc Biotechnology Question Paper

Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2007 Biophysics Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

SC 30

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

SECOND SEMESTER – APRIL 2007

PH 2901 – BIO PHYSICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 26/04/2007 / 1:00 – 4:00         Dept. No.                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

Answer all the following questions                                                                         (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. _________ at Stanford university developed an array based on cDNA libraries.
  2. a) Pat Brown b) Leibler c) Maxam        d) Smith
  3. K stands for _________.

a)Proline    b) Leucine       c)Lysine           d) Valine.

  1. _________ is the secondary structure that is spontaneously formed.
  2. a) helix b) turn c) coil  d) strand
  3. At higher resolution of _________ the individual atoms can be visualized.

a)4A0         b)2 A0              c)1 A0                 d)3 A0

  1. Type I and II reverse turns differ by a _________ flip of the peptide unit.
  2. a) 1800 b) 650 c)850    d) 1500

 

  1. State whether the following statements are True or False : (5 x 1 = 5 )
  2. In a α helix R groups exist outward from the center of the helix.
  3. The H bonding patterns are similar in parallel and antiparallel β sheets.
  4. Asparagine is the first aminoacid to be discovered.
  5. In proteins the hydrophobic aminoacids are present on the surface .
  6. Left handed helices are allowed in ramachandran plots.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                              (5 x 1 = 5)

  1. In microarrays________ is used to fix DNA to the glass slide.
  2. nano________ can be used in cancer treatment.
  3. The Bfactor is called ________ factor.
  4. ________ are also called fullerenes.
  5. MAD stands for ________.

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following each within 50 words . (5 x 1 = 5)
  2. TΨCG loop.
  3. Greek key motif.
  4. Quantum effect.
  5. Writhing number.
  6. Disulfide bonds.

Part B

 Answer any five of the following each in about 350 words.                            (5 x 8 = 40)

  1. Give an account on Rama chandran plots.
  2. Explain the topology of DNA supercoiling.
  3. Explain Multiwavelength anomalous Diffraction in detail.
  4. Discuss about Multiple Isomorphous replacement.
  5. Explain MALDI-TOF in detail.
  6. Discuss about the factors affecting the stability of a helix.
  7. Discuss the importance and applications of biophysics in biotechnology.
  8. Explain the principle and applications of STM .

Part C

 

Answer the following, each  in about 1500 words. Draw necessary diagrams     (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) Explain in detail the various weak interactions that stabilize the protein structures.

OR

  1. Explain the bottum up methods in nanotechnology.

 

  1. a) Discuss about the gene expression studies and their applications.

OR

  1. Explain how NMR can be used the determination of protein structures.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology Nov 2008 Entrepreneurial Development Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

QB 28

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIOTECHNOLOGY

THIRD SEMESTER – November 2008

    CO 3900 – ENTREPRENEURIAL DEVELOPMENT

 

 

 

Date : 14-11-08                 Dept. No.                                        Max. : 100 Marks

Time : 9:00 – 12:00

PART A

Answer ALL the questions                                                                       (10 X 2 = 20)

State the meaning of the following:

 

  1. Motives.
  2. Entrepreneur.
  3. Entrepreneurial mobility.
  4. Project report
  5. TCOs, ICICI, IDBI and PERT
  6. Any two differences between an Entrepreneur and a manager.
  7. Any four specialized institutions in India for entrepreneurial assistances
  8. Any four successful leading entrepreneurs in Chennai city.
  9. Any four objectives of EDPs.
  10. IPR, WTO, NGOs and SHG.

PART B

Answer any FIVE Questions                                                                        (5 X 8 = 40)

  1. What are the major entrepreneurial competencies? Explain.
  2. Bring out the contents of a project report.
  3. Explain the problems of women entrepreneurs.
  4. What are the sources of short-term finance?
  5. Write short notes on  a) L/C.            b) Export Finance.                 (4 + 4)
  6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of Pay Back Period method?
  7. Appreciate the need for tax benefits to small-scale industries.
  8. “Developing rural entrepreneurship is necessary but not so easy”. Explain.

 

PART C

Answer any TWO Questions                                                                        (2 X 20 = 40)

 

  1. What factors do influence the emergence and development of entrepreneurship?
  2. What is entrepreneurial motivation? Is it necessary for a successful entrepreneur?    Explain the

factors, which prompt people to become entrepreneurs (2 + 6 + 12)

  1. Explain the functions of a) NSIC  b) SIDO   and   c) SISIs   (7 + 7 + 6)

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Structural Biology & Bioinformatics Question Paper PDF Download

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        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 35

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2820 – STRUCTURAL BIOLOGY & BIOINFORMATICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 27/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                            SECTION A  (20 marks)

                                              Answer all the questions

  1. Choose the best answer (5×1=5)
  2. Alpha helix breakers are
  3. a) Pro and Gly b) Asp and Asn c) Phe and Tyr d) Ala and His
  4. Three dimensional structure of a protein is elucidated by
  5. a) X ray crystallography b) NMR c) CD d) MS
  6. In standard microarrays probes are attached to the chip coated with chemical matrix by
  7. a) Covalent bonding b) van der waals forces
  8. c) Hydrophobic forces d) ionic bonding
  9. The most frequently used target for drugs are
  10. a) GPCR and ion channels b) Ligands and small molecules
  11. c) Kinases and esterase d) Sugars and lipids
  12. Identify the type of isochore in which most of the house keeping genes are located?
  13. a) L1 b) H1                         c) L2                            d) H3
  14. State True or False; if false, give reasons (5×1=5)
  15. Negatively supercoiled DNA runs faster in agarose gel electrophoresis.
  16. Protein coding genes are transcribed by RNA polymerase I in eukaryotes.
  17. RNA secondary structures can be predicted by software tool based on energy

minimization.

  1. Protein signatures can be analysed by PRINTS.
  2. KEGG and CaZy are enzyme databases.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                    (5×1=5)

  1. Proteins present in silk fibre are called _______and _______.
  2. UTR represents _________.
  3. Energy required for protein folding is______kJ/mol.
  4. GEO stands for___________.
  5. DNA is stabilized by _________forces.

 

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  2. Define alternative splicing
  3. Explain folding funnel.
  4. Differentiate Topoisomerase I and Topoisomerase II.
  5. What are indels?
  6. Write about NCBI.

 

SECTION B

  Answer any five of the following, each in about 350 words:                  (5 x 8 = 40)                     

 

  1. Draw the structure of a gene and locate the ORF. What are the tools available to

analyze an ORF and CpG islands?

  1. Explain how a hit compound succeeds to become a potential drug.
  2. Write in detail about collagen and its biomedical significance and disorders.
  3. What are the four levels of structures of the proteins?
  4. Explain the different transition states of a folded protein.
  5. Briefly write about Alpha and Beta Keratin.
  6. Differentiate A, B and Z forms of DNA.
  7. Write about Chou-Fasman, GOR and NN methods of protein prediction.

 

SECTION C

 Answer the following, each in about 1500 words:                                                (2 x 20 = 40)  

 

29.a)    i) Define steric collision and draw a planar peptide bond with Phi and Psi angle.

  1. ii) Explain Ramachandran plot and show the allowable and disallowable quadrants for alpha

and beta structures.

(or)

  1. Elaborate upon the Protein sequence and structural Databases and any five

proteomic tools.

30 a)    i) Detail gene expression analysis using Microarrays.

  1. ii) Explain clustering approach and write about Mutation microarray analysis.

iii) List out the applications.

(or)

  1. b) i)  Explain sequence alignment .
  2. ii) Write about BLAST and its applications.

iii) Brief about the MSA tools available and interpret it using phylogenetic trees.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Recombinant Dna & Gene Cloning Question Paper PDF Download

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  LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 32

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2817 – RECOMBINANT DNA & GENE CLONING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 20/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                    PART – A                                          (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)
  2. The site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds on the DNA to precede transcription is called
  3. a) primer b) promoter                 c) operator                   d) repressor
  4. Which one of the following is an artificial plasmid?
  5. a) Col E1 b) RSF  1030               c) pSC 101                  d) pBR 322
  6. The process involving direct uptake of naked DNA is called
  7. a) transformation b) transduction                        c)transfection              d) recombination
  8. M 13 phage can produce
  9. a) SS DNA b) DS DNA                 c) both SS & DS DNA’s        d) either  SS or DS DNA’s
  10. Which one of the following is a selectable marker gene?
  11. a) npt II b) Lux                         c) Gus                          d) GFP

 

  1. State true or false. If false; state the reason: (5×1=5)
  2. Ligation is the formation of phosphodiester bonds.
  3. Lambda gt1 1 contain lac Z gene with a unique EcoRI site.
  4. The red and gam gene products are used in lac selection.
  5. The Lac Z1 gene has multiple cloning sites.
  6. S1 nuclease removes the single strands protrusions at each end.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

  1. Cloning all DNA fragments of an organism at a time in a population of a bacterium is called

______________________.

  1. The EcoRI restriction enzyme produces ___________________ ends.
  2. The chain termination method of DNA sequencing is also called ______________________.
  3. The insitu – hybridization assay is also called _______________________.
  4. Polyhedrin gene is isolated from ______________________ virus.
  5. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  6. What is X – gal?
  7. Define shuttle vectors.
  8. What is fusion protein?
  9. Distinguish insertional and replacement vectors.
  10. What is Ti – plasmid?

PART – B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)
  2. Distinguish between selectable and scorable markers.
  3. Explain insertional mutagenesis, with labelled sketch.
  4. Describe the southern blotting technique.
  5. Explain the principle and working methodology of Real – time PCR.
  6. Elaborate how the baculoviruses are useful in biotechnology and write its applications.
  7. Describe the chemical and biological methods of transformation.
  8. Describe the lifecycle of M 13 phages and its role as a vector.
  9. Give an account on chain termination sequencing.

                                               

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each in about 1500 words: (2×20=40)
  2. (a) What are restriction endonucleases? Describe their types and properties with examples.

(or)                             

(b) Describe the various genetic markers used in the selection of recombinant clones.

  1. (a) Give an account on Yeast artificial Chromosomes. Add a note how YAC are advantageous than

other vectors used in cloning.

(or)

(b) What is a cDNA library? Describe the steps involved in the synthesis of cDNA.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Nanotechnology & Medical Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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VE 39

       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2953 – NANOTECHNOLOGY & MEDICAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 29/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A

                                                          Answer all questions                                   (20 marks)

  1. Choose the correct answer for the following questions. (5×1=5)
  2. Consanguinity increases the chance that a couple will both carry—————————
  3. Two disease genes b. the same disease gene c. one disease gene d. none
  4. X linked recessive diseases are more common among————————————
  5. Males b. Females c. Males & Females  d. None
  6. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an————————————–
  7. X linked dominant disease c. X linked recessive disease
  8. Communicable disease d. Y linked disease
  9. Actuators are devices that convert——————————————-
  10. Electrical Energy to Light Energy
  11. Electrical Energy to Sound Energy
  12. Electrical Energy to Mechanical Energy
  13. Mechanical Energy to Light Energy
  14. Glycine is an aminoacid that has a typical size of about——————————-
  15. 50nm b. 0.42nm c.  20nm d.  150nm
  16.   State whether the Following statements are True or False. If False state the reason.                                                                                                                       (5×1=5)
  17. Measurement of zeta potential gives the degree of attraction between particles.
  18. In Reactive Ion Etching the substrate is placed inside a reactor in which several gases are

introduced.

  1. Richard Feynman coined the term Nanotechnology.
  2. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder caused due to the deficiency of Blood clotting Factor II.
  3. Candidate genes are those whose characteristics suggest that they may be responsible for a

genetic disease.

 

  • Complete the Following : (5×1=5)
  1. Li fraumeni syndrome is a condition in which point mutations are seen in highly conserved

regions of the —————— gene.

  1. The ideal time to do an Amniocentesis is between ———————— weeks.
  2. Quantum Nanotechnology is the sum of all things based on—————————
  3. A typical wafer is made out of pure—————————- that is grown into monocylindrical

crystalline ingots.

  1. The gene essential for chloride transport and mucus secretion which is defective in Cystic

Fibrosis patients is the ———————— gene.

 

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 50 words. (5×1=5)
  2. Write a note on FISH.
  3. Define a Proband?
  4. What is a Nanowire?
  5. What is a DNA Nanostructure?
  6. Write a note on Goldberg-Hogness box?

 

PART B

  1. Answer any Five of the following questions each in about 350 words. (5 x 8 = 40)
  2. Explain the role of p53 in Cancer.
  3. Write a note on Carbon nanofoam.
  4. Describe the application of Nanotechnology in the treatment of Cancer?
  5. Give an account on β thalassemia.
  6. Explain the role of DNA fingerprinting in Forensic analysis.
  7. Write a note on Targeted drug delivery.
  8. Describe the different types of Genetic counseling?
  9. Write a note on Amniocentesis as a diagnostic tool in prenatal diagnosis.

 

PART C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words (2 x 20 = 40)
  2. What are Biological Nanostructures? Give examples and discuss their applications.

(or)

  1. b.What are Autosomal dominant disorders? Give examples and describe how

Nanotechnology is useful to overcome these disorders.

  1. What are Stem cells? What are the different types of Stem cells? Explain their

application in Medical treatment.

(or)

  1. b. Explain the working principle and Applications of a Flow Cytometer.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Microbial & Bioprocess Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 40

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2954 – MICROBIAL & BIOPROCESS TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 29/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                  Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                            PART – A                                          (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)
  2. Which one of the following is a secondary metabolite?
  3. a) proteins b) lipids                                   c) nucleotides              d) antibiotics
  4. Name the fermenter part that is used to check vortex and improve aeration?
  5. a) agitator b) ball-bearing             c) sparger                     d) baffles
  6. The evaporator used for concentrating higher viscous product is
  7. a) falling-film b) plate evaporator      c) forced-film              d) centrifugal-forced film
  8. The CO2 concentration is commonly monitored using
  9. a) paramagnetic gas analyser b) galvanic electrode
  10. c) infra-red gas analyser d) polarographic electrode
  11. Which one of the following is not used in cell disruption?
  12. a) sonicator b) French press                        c) lyophiliser                d) homogenizer

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give the reason: (5×1=5)
  2. Enriched cultures are ideal for isolating industrially important organisms.
  3. The two-phase aqueous separation is induced when hydrophilic polymers are added.
  4. In inoculum development, the age of inoculum is important for the growth of sporulating bacteria.
  5. In batch fermentation, the substrate is added at the start of the fermentation.
  6. Sodium lauryl sulphate is a solvent.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

  1. The advantage of using stainless-steel in the fermentor as construction material is _____________

and _____________________.

  1. The process of inducing multiple mutations at the replication point is called ________________.
  2. The measure of electron activity is called __________________________.
  3. The chromatographic separation based on molecular recognition is ________________________.
  4. The separation of components from a liquid mixture by treatment with a solvent is known as

________________________.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)
  2. Define ideal Bioreactor.
  3. What are precursors? Give examples.
  4. What do you mean by interfacing -technique?
  5. Name two enzymes used to disrupt yeast cells?
  6. What is GMP?

PART- B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)
  2. Explain briefly the ranges of fermentation processes.
  3. What is sterilization? What are the methods used for sterilizing thermolabile substances?
  4. Describe the brewing process of malted barley in beer production.
  5. What is scale-up operation? Write about their significance in bioprocessing.
  6. Describe the methods involved in cell-disruption.
  7. Explain the computer aided control of fermentation.
  8. Describe the solid-liquid separation in down-stream processing.
  9. Discuss the ethical implications in bioprocessing.

                                                                        PART- C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words: (2×20=40)
  2. (a) Comment on Single-cell protein production from bacteria and algae and their commercial

significance.

(or)

(b) Discuss the processes of strain improvement using mutation and recombination.

  1. (a) Describe the effluent treatment and disposal in sewered areas.

(or)  

(b) Give an account of media formulation for bioprocessing.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Metabolic Engineering Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 46

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 4951 – METABOLIC ENGINEERING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00  Dept. No.                                                    Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

SECTION A  (20 marks)

Answer all the questions

 

  1. Choose the best answer                                     (5X1=5)

 

  1. Energy required to express the house keeping genes are derived from
  2. a) Biosynthetic reaction c) Fueling reaction
  3. b) Enzymatic reaction d) Hormonal reaction

 

  1. Initial rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction depends on
  2. a) Enzyme concentration c) pH of the medium
  3. b) Substrate concentration d) Temperature of the medium.

 

  1. A ligand can be a
  2. a) Protein c) Carbohydrate
  3. b) Lipid d) metal ion

 

  1. Choose the carbon source which enters the TCA cycle.
  2. a) Glucose b) Acetyl coA c) Pyruvate                  d) Citrate

 

  1. Name the enzyme for which insulin is not an inducer
  2. a) Phosphofructokinase c) Glucose-6-Phosphatase
  3. b) Pyruvate kinase d) Glycogen synthetase

 

  1. State True or False; if false give reasons (5X1=5)

 

  1. Primary metabolism synthesizes building block metabolite and energy in uniform

amounts.

  1. The fluxes in and out of the Black box model are given by a constant rate and a

variable substrate and product rate.

  1. Recombinant PCR cannot be used for making novel proteins.
  2. Strongly weak nodes are insensitive to regulation.
  3. Secondary metabolites cannot be overproduced by altering flux.

 

III. Complete the following.                                                             (5X1=5)

 

  1. NLS corresponds to _______.
  2. Glutamic acid was overproduced in_______.
  3. Hsp refers to________.
  4. Electronic cell mimicks ________.
  5. GOGAT stands for________.

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each about 50 words (5X1=5)

 

  1. Explain Substrate level phosphorylation.
  2. What is an irreversible inhibitor?
  3. Write about UAS.
  4. Define Metabolic Control theory.
  5. Explain Gene shuffling.

SECTION B

 

 Answer any five, each answer within 350 words only.                (5X8=40)

 

  1. What are perturbations? How are they helpful in analyzing flux?
  2. Describe Pentose phosphate pathway and its regulation.
  3. Give a schematic representation of various types of enzyme inhibition.
  4. What are secondary metabolites? Discuss its production in a plant cell.
  5. What are the criteria to be employed in the choice of an organism for metabolite

overproduction?

  1. Give a blueprint for the selection of induced mutants synthesizing ethanol from xylose.
  2. What are the potentials and perils of Metabolic engineering?
  3. Discuss the glycolysis pathway and its regulation in Corynebaterium glutamicum.

overproducing Lysine.

 

SECTION C

 

Answer the following, each in about 1500 words.                          (2X20=40)

 

29 a) Elaborate the classification of nodes and highlight the various strategies adopted for

accelerating primary metabolism.

(Or)

  1. b) Outline the pathway of TCA cycle and MFA of a plant cell.

 

30 a) Give a detailed description on Protein Engineering and discuss the various methodologies

followed.

 

(Or)

  1. b) Write about Signal Transduction and the pathways involved.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Marine Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 47

FOURTH SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 4952 – MARINE BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 9:00 – 12:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

                                                            PART – A                                                      (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)

 

  1. The darker zone in lakes where light penetration is negligible is called ______________ zone
  2. a) littoral             b) limnetic                   c) profundal                d) euphotic
  3. The type of estuary that is formed from deeper V- shaped channels is
  4. a) bar-built b) salt-wedge              c) fjord type                d) coastal-plain
  5. The marine flowering plants are called
  6. a) Anthophyta b) Phaeophyta             c) Rhodophyta                        d) Chlorophyta
  7. Coral reefs are built from the accumulated layers of
  8. a) CaCO3 b) CaSO          4                              c) MgSO4                    d) MgCl2
  9. Which one of the following can be used for induced breeding of fishes?
  10. a) ovatide                        b) ovatin                      c) ovaprom                  d) ovaran

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give the reason: (5×1=5)

 

  1. Sunderbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
  2. Alginates are produced by blue- green algae.
  3. Probiotics are hormones that stimulate reproduction in fishes.
  4. Shrimps are generally cultured in a land based ponds or impoundments.
  5. Bacteria are first organisms to foul surfaces exposed to seawater.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

 

  1. The symbiotic algae present in the coral reef is ___________________.
  2. Ciguatoxin is isolated from the viscera of moray eel _____________________.
  3. Biopolymers are made of repetitive units called _______________________.
  4. The estuarine habitat that tolerates limited salinity ranges exposure is termed as _____________.
  5. ______________ is a potential source of phycoflours, used as label for biologically active

molecules.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)

 

  1. What is an Atoll?
  2. Define thermocline.
  3. What are ‘anti-freeze proteins’?
  4. Differentiate fall-turnover and spring –turnover.
  5. Name the 4 types of pneumatophores produced by black mangroves.

                                                  

 

 

 

 

 

PART -B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)

 

  1. List the characteristic zonation of standing- water ecosystem.
  2. Bring out the salient features of marine toxins naturally contaminating the sea.
  3. How metals are recovered by microbes in the marine environment?
  4. Explain the significance of hatchery feed and farming practices in shrimp aquaculture.
  5. Discuss the salient features of an estuarine ecosystem.
  6. Explain the role of marine microbes in pollution abatement.
  7. Discuss briefly the commercial importance of marine natural products and their pharmaceutical

applications.

  1. What are the various applications of PCR in aquaculture?

 

PART -C

  1. Answer the following questions each in about 1500 words: (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. (a) Comment on the emerging trends in marine agronomy that exploits seaweed cultivation for a

variety of consumer  products.

(or)           

(b) Illustrate the marine biofouling process and add a note on its control.

  1. (a) Describe the three stages of coral reef development around a new volcanic island.

(or)

(b)  Discuss the genetic & hormonal manipulation of reproduction in fishes.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Genetic Engineering Question Paper PDF Download

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    LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 29

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2813 – GENETIC ENGINEERING

 

 

 

Date & Time: 20/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION – A

Answer all the questions                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer. (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Which of the following is not an example of DNA cleaving reagent used in

footprinting?

  1. a) DNAse I b) Hydroxyl radical   c) Dimethyl sulfate   d) β-mercaptoethanol
  2. The pore size for the filters used in dot blots for large nucleic acids is ____ µm.
  3. a) 0.25 b) 0.35  c) 0.45   d) 0.55
  4. Which is the optimum reaction temperature for Taq 1 enzyme
  5. a) 25 degrees b) 37 degrees c)  65 degrees   d) 45 degrees
  6. Which is the first licensed drug produced through rDNA technology?
  7. a) Human insulin b) Hepatitis-B vaccine c) Somatostatin  d)tPA
  8. Alpha complementation is used in
  9. a) bacterial transformation b) transfection c) transduction d) conjugation

 

  1. Say True or False; if false, state reasons. (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Polylinkers are also called as Multiple Cloning Sites.
  3. Science published Taq polymerase as the molecule of the year in 1989.
  4. Enhancers are bidirectional gene regulatory elements.
  5. EMBL3 is used for the construction of cDNA libraries.
  6. Agrobacterium transformation is mainly used for monocots.

 

III. Complete the following.                                                                (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. ________ and ________ discovered the concept of RNAi.
  2. IPTG stands for _________.
  3. ________ is called as molecular glue.
  4. ‘aad’ confers resistance to _______ and ________ antibiotics.
  5. ________ radioactive isotope is used for in situ hybridization.

 

  1. Answer the following in one or two sentences, each in about 50 words. (5 X 1 =5)
  2. Site-directed mutagenesis
  3. PBRs
  4. Photolithography
  5. Transformation
  6. Plantibodies

 

 

 

 

SECTION – B

 

  1. Answer any five questions, each in about 350 words only. (5 X 8 = 40)

 

  1. What are the features of molecular probes? Differentiate between radioactive and

non-radioactive methods of labeling.

  1. List out the components of hybridization buffer and add a note on stringency control.

Add a note on autoradiography.

  1. Mention the parameters to be considered for primer designing for PCR applications.

How do you design primers using Primer3 software?

  1. Differentiate RFLP and RAPD. How can the former technique be used for detection

of genetic disorders and epidemiological typing?

  1. Enumerate the steps involved in bacterial transformation.
  2. Give an account on subtractive hybridization with an example.
  3. What is electroporation? Mention its advantages and disadvantages.
  4. What are the advantages of organelle transformation and give a brief description of it.

 

SECTION – C

  1. Answer the following, each in about 1500 words. (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) ‘The nub of the new (genetic engineering) technology is to move genes back and forth, not only across species lines, but across any boundaries that divide living organisms. The results will be essentially new organisms, self-perpetuating and hence permanent. Once created, they cannot be recalled’ – Discuss this statement of George Wald, throwing light upon the technical, ethical, social, ecological and legal issues involved in Genetic Engineering. (3 + 3 + 3 + 5 + 6)

.

(or)

 

  1. b) Explain the post-transcriptional gene silencing machinery using RNA interference technology. Differentiate between siRNA and miRNA, and add a note on the various applications of RNAi. (12 + 3 + 5)

 

  1. a) How do you generate a transgenic tobacco plant resistant to TMV (Tobacco

Mosaic Virus)? Describe the procedure with appropriate diagram.

 

(or)

 

  1. b) Enlist the characteristics of various yeast vectors used for transformation, and also mention their merits and demerits.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Enzymology & Enzyme Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 33

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2818 – ENZYMOLOGY & ENZYME TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A                                                  (20 Marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Energy required by the reactants to undergo the reactions is known as:

(i) Input energy                                   (ii) Energy change                                                       (iii) Activation energy                         (iv) Enthalpy

  1. Specificity of enzyme mostly depends on the:

(i) Apoenzyme            (ii) Coenzyme              (iii) Substrate               (iv) Reaction

  1. Coenzyme not related to B complex which is required for glycogen synthesis is:

(i) ATP                        (ii) CDP                       (iii) UDP                     (iv) PAPS

  1. The enzyme which plays a major role in Myocardial Infarction is:

(i) AST                        (ii) ALT                       (iii) LDH                     (iv) ACP

  1. The mutant, which plays a major role in the mechanism of α-helix capping is:

(i) A4T                        (ii) G147A                   (iii) G189A                  (iv) K305D

  1. State True or False: If false give the reason: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Name of the enzyme usually indicates the substrate involved in a particular reaction.
  3. Synthases and synthatases are different class of enzymes.
  4. Coenzymes are otherwise called as second substrates.
  5. Transition state analogs are potential enzyme inhibitors.
  6. In endergonic reactions, the energy is liberated.

III. Complete the following:                                                                            (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. Racemase and epimerase are the examples for the …………… class of enzyme.
  2. The site at which both the ……………. and……….. are present is called as active site.
  3. Isoenzymes are distinguishable only by ………………..
  4. Lysozyme breaks the ……………….. linkages in Glucosaminoglycans.
  5. Inhibitor responsible for the competitive inhibition closely resembles the …………..

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each within 50 words:                  (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Define – Katal.
  3. What is Turnover number?
  4. Define: Enzyme degradation.
  5. Explain: Enzyme electrode.
  6. Define – Abzymes.

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five questions, each within 350 words: (5 X 8 = 40)
  2. Explain in detail about the IUBMB classification of enzymes.
  3. Discuss on importance and methods for isolation and purification of enzymes.
  4. Write in detail about the types of reversible inhibition?
  5. Define multienzyme complex. Explain evolutionary relationship between serine protease.
  6. Explain the diagnostic importance of SGOT, SGPT and ALP in hepatic diseases?
  7. Write about enzyme therapy for genetic disorders and cancer.
  8. Explain in detail about the single point mutagenesis for optimization of industrial enzymes.
  9. What are proteolytic enzymes? Explain their role in digestive tract.

 

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each answer within 1500 words: (2 X 20 = 40)
  2. (a) Explain the specificity, salient features and mechanism of action of active sites.

(OR)

(b) Derive Michaelis-Menten equation. Explain the effect of substrate, temperature, pH, and product concentration on the regulation of enzyme activity.

  1. (a) Explain the Phillip’s mechanism of enzyme action with reference to lysozyme. Give the importance of catalytic residues in serine proteases.

(OR)

(b) Explain the types, advantages and applications of enzyme immobilization with suitable examples.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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       LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 33

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2818 – ENZYMOLOGY & ENZYME TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00       Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A                                                  (20 Marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Energy required by the reactants to undergo the reactions is known as:

(i) Input energy                                   (ii) Energy change                                                       (iii) Activation energy                         (iv) Enthalpy

  1. Specificity of enzyme mostly depends on the:

(i) Apoenzyme            (ii) Coenzyme              (iii) Substrate               (iv) Reaction

  1. Coenzyme not related to B complex which is required for glycogen synthesis is:

(i) ATP                        (ii) CDP                       (iii) UDP                     (iv) PAPS

  1. The enzyme which plays a major role in Myocardial Infarction is:

(i) AST                        (ii) ALT                       (iii) LDH                     (iv) ACP

  1. The mutant, which plays a major role in the mechanism of α-helix capping is:

(i) A4T                        (ii) G147A                   (iii) G189A                  (iv) K305D

  1. State True or False: If false give the reason: (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Name of the enzyme usually indicates the substrate involved in a particular reaction.
  3. Synthases and synthatases are different class of enzymes.
  4. Coenzymes are otherwise called as second substrates.
  5. Transition state analogs are potential enzyme inhibitors.
  6. In endergonic reactions, the energy is liberated.

III. Complete the following:                                                                            (5 X 1 = 5)

  1. Racemase and epimerase are the examples for the …………… class of enzyme.
  2. The site at which both the ……………. and……….. are present is called as active site.
  3. Isoenzymes are distinguishable only by ………………..
  4. Lysozyme breaks the ……………….. linkages in Glucosaminoglycans.
  5. Inhibitor responsible for the competitive inhibition closely resembles the …………..

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following, each within 50 words:                  (5 X 1 = 5)
  2. Define – Katal.
  3. What is Turnover number?
  4. Define: Enzyme degradation.
  5. Explain: Enzyme electrode.
  6. Define – Abzymes.

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five questions, each within 350 words: (5 X 8 = 40)
  2. Explain in detail about the IUBMB classification of enzymes.
  3. Discuss on importance and methods for isolation and purification of enzymes.
  4. Write in detail about the types of reversible inhibition?
  5. Define multienzyme complex. Explain evolutionary relationship between serine protease.
  6. Explain the diagnostic importance of SGOT, SGPT and ALP in hepatic diseases?
  7. Write about enzyme therapy for genetic disorders and cancer.
  8. Explain in detail about the single point mutagenesis for optimization of industrial enzymes.
  9. What are proteolytic enzymes? Explain their role in digestive tract.

 

PART – C

  1. Answer the following, each answer within 1500 words: (2 X 20 = 40)
  2. (a) Explain the specificity, salient features and mechanism of action of active sites.

(OR)

(b) Derive Michaelis-Menten equation. Explain the effect of substrate, temperature, pH, and product concentration on the regulation of enzyme activity.

  1. (a) Explain the Phillip’s mechanism of enzyme action with reference to lysozyme. Give the importance of catalytic residues in serine proteases.

(OR)

(b) Explain the types, advantages and applications of enzyme immobilization with suitable examples.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 42

THIRD SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 3813 – ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 16/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00   Dept. No.                                     Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

PART – A                                          (20 marks)

Answer ALL the questions                                                                             (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer
  2. ___________ operates on the principle of adsorption followed by biodegradation
  3. Trickling filter b) Packed bed reactor
  4. Fabric reaction d) Rotating Biological contactor
  5. The process of aggregation of destabilized particle is called.
  6. Flocculation b) sedimentation         c) Coagulation                         d) flotation
  7. Addition of a compound that lowers the surface tension
  8. Biochealator b)biosurfactant                        c) enzyme        d) electron acceptor
  9. The average global temperature is
  10. 20oC b) 14oC                                    c) 25oC                        d) 30oC
  11. The bacteria which is dominant in biofilm is
  12. Fusarium sp b) Geotrichum sp        c) Achromobacter sp   d) Zoogloea ramigera

 

  1. State true or false, if false state reason (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Cytochrome P450 complex is involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics.
  2. Polyethylene is a biodegradable plastic.
  3. Microorganisams present in biofiltration system are predominantly aerobic.
  4. Parathion is a chlorinated pesticide used widely.
  5. Bioaugmentation is extraction of metals from ores with help of microorganisms.

 

  • Complete the following (5 x 1=5)

 

  1. _____________ sp is mainly involved in microbial leaching.
  2. ____________ an alkaloid isolated from tree frog.
  3. ___________ test to detect the potability of drinking water.
  4. SCP are rich source of ___________ pigment.
  5. _____________ is the process of removal of nitrogen from waste matter.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in 50 words each                                                           (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Biofuel
  2. Sedimentation
  3. Landfills
  4. Composting
  5. Eutrophication

PART – B

 

Answer any FIVE question within 350 words only                                                     (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Give an account on air pollution.
  2. Write notes on (i) trickling filter (ii) packed bed reactor and add a note on their applications.
  3. Define vermicomposting? What are the different methods of composting?
  4. Explain about bioremediation of sub surface material.
  5. Write details on bioaugmentation.
  6. Discuss the biodegradation of chlorinated hydrocarbons.
  7. Write n essay on algal hydrocarbons.
  8. Explain the mechanism of microbial corrosion with example.

 

PART – C

Answer the following each within 1500 words                                                             (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) What is bioremediation? Explain in detail about in situ and ex situ bioremediation.

 

(OR)

  1. Write in detail the different types of reactors used in waste water treatment.

 

  1. a) Write a detail account on bio degradation of aromatic xenobiotics.

 

(OR)

  1. b) Describe the mechanism of bioleaching.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 34

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2819 – ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 24/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

                                                        PART – A                                              (20 Marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5×1=5)

 

  1. 1. The progressive accumulation of non-biodegradable chemicals through the food chain is known as
  2. ecological balance b) trophic  structure
  3. biological magnification d) biodegradation
  4. Which of the following gas has maximum contribution to enhanced green house effect?
  5. CFC b) CH4                         c) N2 O                        d) CO2
  6. The method of introducing natural microbial strains or GEMS to the contaminated site is called
  7. a) Biostimulation b) Bioremediation
  8. c) Bioaugmentation d) Bioaccumulation
  9. If BOD of river is high, it means that the river is
  10. a) not polluted b) highly polluted
  11. c) gets least amount of light d) has low temperature of  water
  12. Metallothioneins are rich in
  13. a) Cysteine b)Leucine                         c)Proline                             d)Glutamic acid

 

  1. State true or false. If false; give reasons: (5×1=5)

 

  1. Fossil fuels are derived from long dead biological material.
  2. Assimilable organic carbon fraction represents the easily degradable compounds.
  3. Polyhydroxyalkanoates are biodegradable polymers.
  4. The ideal microbe for bioleaching of metals from ore is Bacillus subtilis.
  5. 10. Bacterial merA operon degrades inorganic mercury.

 

III. Complete the following:                                                                                     (5×1=5)

 

  1. Compounds which persist in the environment are called ____________________.
  2. Gasohol is a mixture of ____________________ and ______________________.
  3. The world environment day is celebrated on _________________________.
  4. Denaturing agents used in DGGE are____ ________ and ______________________.
  5. Lin A gene degrades ________________________.

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 50 words: (5×1=5)

           

  1. What is activated carbon?
  2. Name the particulate pollutants found in atmosphere.
  3. Differentiate Bioventing and Biosparging
  4. Define Siderophores with examples.
  5. What are Phase – I reactions?

 

 

 

 

 

PART – B

  1. Answer any five of the following questions each in about 350 words: (5×8=40)

 

  1. What are the effects of air pollution? Add a note on its remedial measures.
  2. Write about the attached aerobic treatment processes with examples.
  3. Describe the problems and remedies in soaps, surfactant and dye manufacturing industries.
  4. “Microbes can convert waste into energy” – Justify the statement.
  5. Write about the pathway involved in Toluene degradation by Pseudomonas putida.
  6. Explain the process of Composting of organic waste.
  7. Write about the role of Poplar and Arabidopsis as Phytoremediating plants.
  8. Describe Biphenyl degradation by microbes.

 

PART – C

Answer the following each in about 1500 words:                                                  (2×20=40)

 

  1. (a) What is remote sensing? Explain its working principle and applications.

(or)

(b) Explain the biofilm formation,  ecology and its control measures.

  1. (a) Elaborate upon the procedures used by Dr Anand Chakrabarty in getting US patent

No 4259444.

(or)

(b)Write about T-RFLP as a tool for molecular analysis of pollutant degrading microbes.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Biostatistics & Bioinformatics Question Paper PDF Download

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     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 43

THIRD SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 3814 – BIOSTATISTICS AND BIOINFORMATICS

 

 

 

Date & Time: 23/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                      Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A  (20×1= 20)

Answer all the questions

I Choose the best answer:                                                                             (5 x 1 =5)

 

1.A cluster database which represent unique genes as mRNA and EST is

  1. a) UniProt b)Unigene                   c)Swissprot     d)Homologene
  2. SINES and LINES can be identified by

a)Repeat Masker         b)GenScan                c)GRAIL        d)DUST

  1. A protein prediction approach that mimicks human Brain

a)ANN                                    b)GOR                                    c)ANR                        d)GNR

  1. Captions and stubs are related with
  2. a) rows and columns b) body and title
  3. c) general and special purpose d) simple and complex
  4. The shape of the normal distribution curve is
  5. Flat curve b. Hump like               c. Bell shape                d. Irregular shape

 

II State whether the following True or False:                                                        (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. Month database is subset of nr which gets updated every 30 days
  2. First step in Drug designing for a particular protein is to identify Lead Compound
  3. GEO denotes Gene Expression Omnibus
  4. The value of correlation coefficient lies always between +1 to 0.
  5. Eye colour of fathers with eye colour of sons can tested by t test.

 

III Complete the following                                                                           (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. BankIt and Sequin are _______________
  2. CaZy and BRENDA are ________and ________ databases respectively

13.The format in which basic information about structure of a phylogenetic tree is conveyed in a

series of nested parantheses is called___________

  1. Chance of happening and not happening of an event refers to —————–.
  2. ————– distribution is an approximation to binomial distributions.

 

IV Answer the following, each not exceeding 50 words.                           (5 x 1 =5)

 

  1. Comment on L1 isochore.
  2. Define GU-AG Rule.
  3. Differentiate Phi BLAST and Psi BLAST.
  4. What is ranking correlation
  5. Define Null hypothesis

 

 

 

 

PART – B

Answer any 5 of the following, choose not more than 3 in each section.

Each answer not exceeding 350 words (8×5= 40 marks)

Draw diagrams / flow charts wherever necessary.

 

Section I

21.Explain signal sensors and Content sensors of Eukaryotic gene prediction tools and also list

the softwares involved..

22.Brief the Conformational parameters of secondary structure of a protein and interpretation  by

Ramachandran Plot

23.Write about Medical Databases and Genome databases and list its features

  1. Discuss about Multiple Sequence Alignment and Phylogenetic Tree building methods

 

Section II

  1. The lengths of 200 parasites in the human blood were measured to the nearest micron as given in the following table. Calculate the mean and standard deviations of this distributions.
Length 80-89 70-79 60-69 50-59 40-49 30-39 20-29 10-19
Frequency 2 2 6 20 56 40 42 32

 

  1. Calculate the correlation coefficient between height (in inches) of father (A) and son (B) from the data given below:
A 67 64 65 69 70 74 60
B 66 67 60 68 73 70 65

 

  1. Enumerate the properties of normal distribution.

 

  1. Write down the test criteria for small sample inspection and explain their uses.

 

PART –  C

Answer the following, each not exceeding 1500 words.

Draw diagrams / flow charts wherever necessary (2 x 20 = 40 marks)

 

  1. a)Align the following sequences using Needleman Wunsch global Algorithm

Seq 1:ACTCG

Seq 2:ACAGTAG

How dynamic programming is applied in  BLAST FASTA and other tools?

Or

  1. b) Elaborate upon the various Structure Visualization tools, databases used, its features and

advantages with emphasis on Homology Modeling

 

  1. (a) The following table shows the ages (X) and systolic blood pressure (Y) of 8 persons. Fit a linear regression equation of Y on X and estimate the blood pressure of a person of 70 years.
Age (X) 16 15 11 27 39 22 20
BP (Y) 24 25 34 40 35 20 23

 

  1. (b) Two random samples drawn from two normal populations are:
S – 1 55 54 52 53 56 58 52 50 51 49
S – 2 108 107 105 105 106 107 104 103 104 101 105

Obtain the estimates of the variance of the two populations that have the same variance.

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Bioprocess & Enzyme Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 30

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2814 – BIOPROCESS AND ENZYME TECHNOLOGY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 22/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                 Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION – A

Answer all the questions                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer. (5 X 1 = 5)

 

  1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces the enzyme

(a) dextranase          (b) invertase    (c) uric oxidase            (d) glucose isomerase.

  1. Pick the odd one out:

(a) disc turbine        (b) vaned disc (c) open turbine           (d) Ekato intermig.

  1. Which one of the following is a precursor in media formulation?

(a) pectin    (b) bromide     (c) phenoxy aceticacid            (d) glutamic acid.

  1. In ion –exchange chromatography the separation principle is based on the

(a) size and shape                            (b) molecular recognition

(c) net charge                                  (d) hydrophobicity.

  1. Sulphite waste liquor is a by-product from __________ industry

(a) molasses                                     (b) cane sugar

(c) paper pulping                             (d) steeping of corn starch.

 

  1. Say True or False; if false, state reasons.  (5 X 1 = 5)

 

  1. The hydrolysis of starch with amylase results in short chain polymers called

dextrins.

  1. The ‘Prochem Maxflo T’ is a conventional agitator.
  2. Osmotic shock is a mechanical method of cell disruption.
  3. Triton X-100 is a detergent.
  4. Mutagenicity of chemicals can be detected using biosensors.

 

III. Complete the following.                                                                (5 X 1 = 5)

 

  1. The genetic modification for improving the strain is achieved by __________ &

___________.

  1. The ______________ type of sparger has perforation pipes which may be of cross or

ring type.

  1. The other term for ‘Del factor’ is ___________________.
  2. ______________ is used to measure the air-flow rate in bioprocess control.
  3. The method of separating the amphoteric substances based on their isoelectric point is

called ___________________.

 

  1. Answer the following in one or two sentences, each in about 50 words. (5 X 1 =5)
  2. Define idiophase.
  3. What are on-line sensors?
  4. Give two examples of microorganisms used in effluent treatment.
  5. What are precursors? Give examples.
  6. What is super-critical fluid extraction?

 

SECTION – B

 

  1. Answer any five questions, each in about 350 words only. (5 X 8 = 40)

 

  1. Explain the various ranges of fermentation products.
  2. Give an account on the industrial applications of enzymes.
  3. Illustrate the various methods of preserving the pure cultures.
  4. Determine the mass, energy and momentum transfer in transport phenomena.
  5. Explain the working mechanism of air-lift reactor with applications.
  6. Bring out the significance of computer aided control in fermentation technology.
  7. Enumerate and explain the uses of enzymes in biotransformation.
  8. Give an account on foaming and its control.

 

SECTION – C

 

  1. Answer the following, each in about 1500 words. (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) Describe the various types and methods of enzyme immobilization and add a note

on its applications.

 

(or)

 

  1. b) Brief out the methods of producing the healthy state of inoculum for bacterial and

mycelial processes.

 

  1. a) Explain how media formulation effects the fermentation process.

 

(or)

 

  1. b) Explain the primary separation techniques involved in recovering the metabolites.

(cell-disruption techniques and solid-liquid separation).

 

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Bio-Instrumentation Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

AF 01

SECOND SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 2815 – BIO-INSTRUMENTATION

 

 

 

Date & Time: 24/04/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART –A

Answer all the questions:                                                  (20 marks)

 

I  Choose the best answer:                                                      (5×1=5)

1 One curie is defined as

(a)  3.7x 1010disintegrations/ second       (b) 3.7x 1012disintegrations/ second

(c) 3.7x 108disintegrations/ second         (d) 3.7x 1011disintegrations/ second

  1. Handerson Hasselbach equation is represented as

(a) pH= pK + log A–/ HA                                (b) pH= pK + log HA/A–

(c) pH= pK – log A–/ HA                                 (d) pH= pK-log HA/A–

  1. The logarithm of the reciprocal of the transmittance is called as

(a) quantum efficiency (b) optical density (c) extinction (d) concentration

  1. The volume of mobile phase present outside the gel particles is called as

(a) elution volume (b) bed volume (c) void volume (d) total volume

  1. Which of the following is not included under the main text of the thesis?

(a) introduction (b) review (c) results (d) references

 

II Say true or false, if false state reason:                             (5×1=5)

 

  1. In isopycnic centrifugation, separation is independent of buoyant density of the particle.
  2. TEMED catalyses the formation of free radicals from ammonium per sulfate.
  3. Avidin is not used as ligand for separation of biotin containing enzymes in affinity

chromatography.

  1. 1-phenyl 4-phenyloxazole is used as secondary scintillant in liquid scintillation

counting

  1. MEDLINE is an example of off-line literature search.

 

III Complete the following:                                                   (5×1=5)

 

  1. ———– is the ratio of weight of the particle in the centrifugal field to the weight of

same particle when acted by gravity alone.

  1. SDS-PAGE is used for the analysis of ———- and ———.
  2. ————— is a helium consisting of two protons and two neutrons
  3. A mixture of substances with different partition coefficients can be separated by a

technique called ———-

  1. —————— is the hardest portion in any thesis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IV Answer the following each within 50 words:         (5×1=5)

 

  1. Compare prism and grating in UV-vis spectrophotometer.
  2. Define isotachophoresis.
  3. Define isocratic elution
  4. What is quenching?
  5. What is Byline?

 

 

PART-B

 

V Answer any 5 questions each within 350 words:                      (5×8=40)

 

21 Describe the principle and instrumentation of Atomic emission flame

spectrophotometry.

22 Write an account on principle and applications of Biosensors.

  1. Explain the principle and procedure of ion exchange chromatography

24 Describe Geiger-Muller Counter with a diagram. Add a note on its applications with

biosafety measures adopted.

  1. Explain the principle and procedure for the separation of isoenzymes

using polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.

  1. Write notes on principle and applications of Mass spectroscopy
  2. Describe the principle and applications of radioimmunoassay.

28   What are the various points to be considered while writing a review paper?

 

 

PART-C

 

VI Answer any one of the following each within 1500 words:        (2×20=40)

 

29 (a) Explain the principle, design and applications of analytical ultracentrifuge. Add a

note on their advantages over conventional centrifuges.

(Or)

(b) Write the principle, operation and applications of Rank oxygen electrode.

30 (a) Describe in detail about HPLC and its operation with a flow diagram.

(Or)

(b) Explain the various parts of a thesis in detail, giving the significance of each

portion.

 

 

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Loyola College M.Sc. Biotechnology April 2009 Advanced Biochemistry Question Paper PDF Download

by

      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

M.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – BIO TECHNOLOGY

VE 27

FIRST SEMESTER – April 2009

BT 1820 – ADVANCED BIOCHEMISTRY

 

 

 

Date & Time: 04/05/2009 / 1:00 – 4:00  Dept. No.                                                   Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART A                                             (20 marks)

  1. Choose the best answer: (5 x 1 = 5)
  2. In living system, most of the reactions fall into the category of

(i) Oxidation – reduction                    (ii) Internal rearrangement                              (iii) Group transfer                              (iv) All of those

  1. Amino acid molecules can be covalently joined through a substituted amide linkage, termed as,

(i) Dipeptide    (ii) Covalent bond       (iii) Peptide bond        (iv) Isoelectric bond

  1. The overall yield of ATP from the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule is

(i) 30 – 32        (ii) 20-24                     (iii) 16-19                    (iv) 6-9

  1. The possible energy relationship between catabolic and anabolic pathway.

(i)  ATP → ADP                                 (ii) NADH→NAD                                          (iii) FADH2 → FAD                           (iv) All of those

  1. Hormones which are released into the blood and carried to target cells throughout the body are called

(i) Endocrine   (ii) Paracrine                (iii) Autocrine              (iv) None of these

  1. State true or false, if false give the reason: (5 x 1 = 5)
  2. The configuration of molecules is changed only by breaking bonds.
  3. Sickle-cell anemia is a molecular disease of hemoglobin.
  4. DNA isolated from different tissues of the same species has the same base composition.
  5. The first step of glycolysis is reversible.
  6. Lowered blood glucose triggers secretion of glucose of glucagons and increases insulin release.

III. Complete the following:                                                                             (5 x 1 = 5)

  1. The energy required to break a bond is called …………..
  2. Human erythrocytes are formed from precursor stem cell called …………..
  3. The main storage polysaccharide of animal cell is ………….
  4. The agents which completely scavenge the free radicals are known as ………….
  5. The water soluble hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are collectively termed as…………..

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following each in about 50 words: (5 x 1 = 5)
  2. Define Functional group. List out the functional groups of biomolecules.
  3. Write the biological role of molecular chaperones.
  4. Define: Mutarotation.
  5. What are Apolipoproteins?
  6. Mention the biological importance of hypothalamus.

 

PART B

  1. Answer any five questions, each in about 350 words: (5 x 8 = 40)
  2. Explain briefly the principles of bioenergetics.
  3. Write in detail about the amino acid classification and physical properties.
  4. Explain the role of water and fat soluble vitamins in living system with an example.
  5. Write short notes on regulation and integration of metabolism.
  6. Discuss the types of fatty acid oxidation and add a note on their importance.
  7. Explain the principle and separating technique for electrophoresis.
  8. How does the drug get metabolized and distributed in liver?
  9. Explain the chemical nature and biological action of prostaglandin?

 

PART C

  1. Answer the following each in about 1500 words: (2 x 20 = 40)
  2. (a) Explain in detail the classification, structure, chemistry and properties of carbohydrates.

(OR)

(b) Give an account of glucose metabolism in blood.

  1. (a) Explain the role of enzymes in determining the concentration of metabolites for clinical diagnosis.

(OR)

(b) Describe the biosynthesis of pancreatic hormone. Explain the regulation of insulin and glucagons.

 

 

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