National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination Held on 10-9-2017 General Studies Question Paper With Answer Key

National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination Held on 10-9-2017
National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination Held on 10-9-2017 General Studies Question Paper With Answer Key

National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination Held on 10-9-2017

General Studies

 

1. Which one of the following statements about a satellite orbiting around the Earth is correct?

(A)  Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from ground station

(B)  Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and solar energy keeps it moving around the Earth

(C)  Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting

(D)  Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting

Answer: (D)

2. Which one of the following statements about energy is correct?

(A)  Energy can be created as well as destroyed

(B)  Energy can be created but not destroyed

(C)  Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

(D)  Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed

Answer: (C)

3. Step-up transformers are used for-

(A)  increasing electrical power

(B)  decreasing electrical power

(C)  decreasing voltage

(D)  increasing voltage

Answer: (D)

4. Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?

(A)  X-rays

(B)  Radio waves

(C)  Light waves

(D)  Microwaves

Answer: (A)

5. How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon ?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

6. Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because zinc is-

(A)  more electropositive than iron

(B)  cheaper than iron

(C)  a bluish white metal

(D)  a good conductor of heat and electricity

Answer: (A)

7. Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth’s atmosphere?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Hydrogen

(C)  Nitrogen

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (A)

8. Which one of the following is a chemical change?

(A)  Cutting of hair

(B)  Graying of hair naturally

(C)  Swelling of resin in water

(D)  Cutting of fruit

Answer: (B)

9. Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda?

(A)  Calcium carbonate

(B)  Calcium bicarbonate

(C)  Sodium carbonate

(D)  Sodium bicarbonate

Answer: (C)

10. Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water?

(A)  It k ills germs

(B)  It dissolves the impurities

(C)  It is a reducing agent

(D)  It is an oxidizing agent

Answer: (D)

11. Consider the following movements:

(1) Moplah Rebellion

(2) Bardoli Satyagraha

(3) Champaran Satyagraha

(4) Salt Satyagraha

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order ?

(A)  1-3-4-2

(B)  3-1-2-4

(C)  2-3-1-4

(D)  4-2-1-3

Answer: (B)

12. Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammd Bin Tughlaq?

(A)  Ibn Battuta’s Rihla

(B)  Francois Bernier’s Travels in the Mogul Empire

(C)  Nicolao Manucci’s Storia do Mogor

(D)  Tavernier’s Travels in India

Answer: (A)

13. Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint ?

(A)  Khwaja Moinuddin

(B)  Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar

(C)  Nizamuddin Auliya

(D)  Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

Answer: (D)

14. In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi’s-

(A)  Satyagraha in Kheda

(B)  Dandi March

(C)  Satyagraha in Champaran

(D)  Return from South Africa

Answer: (C)

15. A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomena?

(A)  Dispersion of light

(B)  Interference of light

(C)  Diffraction of light

(D)  Scattering of light by atmospheric dust

Answer: (A)

16. Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected-

(A)  Infrasonic waves

(B)  Ultrasonic waves

(C)  Radio waves

(D)  Microwaves

Answer: (B)

17. The statement that ‘heat cannot flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature’, is known as-

(A)  Zeroth law of thermodynamics

(B)  First law of thermodynamics

(C)  Second law of thermodynamics

(D)  Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: (C)

18. Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three?

(A)  X-rays

(B)  Microwaves

(C)  Radio waves

(D)  Sound waves

Answer: (D)

19. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A)  Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens

(B)  The retina of the human eye contains millions of light sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages

(C)  Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down

(D)  We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately

Answer: (A)

20. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A)  Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed

(B)  Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal structure of common structure materials

(C)  Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like diamond

(D)  Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through vacuum

Answer: (A)

21. Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012-2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

(A)  7 per cent

(B)  8 per cent

(C)  9 per cent

(D)  10 per cent

Answer: (C)

22. Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(A)  Non-conventional energy resources

(B)  Roads

(C)  Higher education

(D)  Libraries

Answer: (C)

23. Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

(A)  Friedrich Engels

(B)  Eric Hobsbawm

(C)  Arnold Toynbee

(D)  Georges Michelet

Answer: (C)

24. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian Struggle, 1920-1934’?

(A)  Maulana Abul Kalam

(B)  Jayprakash Narayan

(C)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(D)  Manabendra Nath Roy

Answer: (C)

25. Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?

(A)  Its centre was Maharashtra

(B)  Its main participants were students

(C)  It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

(D)  It publicly burnt foreign clothes

Answer: (C)

26. Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

(A)  The Bengal British India Society

(B)  The East India Association

(C)  The British Indian Association

(D)  The Madras Native Association

Answer: (B)

27. Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of-

(A)  Southern Atlantic Ocean

(B)  Western Pacific Ocean

(C)  Eastern Pacific Ocean

(D)  Northern Atlantic Ocean

Answer: (B)

28. Taklamakan Desert is situated in-

(A)  Western Asia

(B)  Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa

(C)  South America

(D)  Central Asia

Answer: (D)

29. Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and-

(A)  Bhagirathi

(B)  Mandakini

(C)  Nandakini

(D)  Dhauliganga

Answer: (B)

30. Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from west to east :

(1) Bilaspur

(2) Jodhpur

(3) Bhopal

(4) Ranchi

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A)  3-2-1-4

(B)  2-3-1-4

(C)  4-1-2-3

(D)  2-1-3-4

Answer: (B)

31. The Kashmir region receives additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by-

(A)  South-west-Monsoon

(B)  Western Disturbances

(C)  Retreating Monsoon

(D)  Temperate Cyclone

Answer: (B)

32. Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field?

(A)  Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

(B)  Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal

(C)  Himalayan mountain region

(D)  Cardamom hills in Kerala

Answer: (C)

33. Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous protein?

(A)  Fibrin

(B)  Collagen

(C)  Elastin

(D)  Cellulose

Answer: (B)

34. Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis?

(A)  Ascaris lumbricoides

(B)  Culex pipiens

(C)  Wuchereria bancrofti

(D)  Fasciola hepatica

Answer: (C)

35. Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against

(A)  Ultraviolet radiation

(B)  Infrared radiation

(C)  X-ray radiation

(D)  Short wave radio radiation

Answer: (A)

36. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Inter-disciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Government of India to examine framework for virtual currencies?

(A)  Secretary, Department of Financial Services

(B)  Special Secretary, Department of Revenue

(C)  Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

(D)  Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (C)

37. SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of

(A)  Finance

(B)  Housing and Urban Affairs

(C)  Food Processing Industries

(D)  Earth Sciences

Answer: (C)

38. The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on-

(A)  21st March

(B)  23rd September

(C)  22nd November

(D)  22nd December

Answer: (D)

39. The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following have taken place in recent years?

(1) Gauge conversion

(2) Track electrification

(3) Automatic signals

Select the correct answer using the codes given  below :

(A)  1 and 2 only

(B)  2 and 3 only

(C)  1and 3 only

(D)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

40. In India, maximum amount of rainfall is received from-

(A)  Western Disturbances

(B)  North-east Monsoon

(C)  South-west Monsoon

(D)  Retreating Monsoon

Answer: (C)

41. Which set of the following biosphere reserves in India is included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves?

(A)  Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Simlipal

(B)  Gulf of Mannar, Kanchanjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam

(C)  Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Panna

(D)  Nilgiri, Nokrek, Panchmarhi and Seshachalam

Answer: (A)

42. Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?

(1) It is known as black ore.

(2) It contains 60%

(3) It possesses magnetic properties

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A)  1 only

(B)  2 and 3 only

(C)  1 and 3 only

(D)  1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting?

(A)  Vitamin A

(B)  Vitamin D

(C)  Vitamin E

(D)  Vitamin K

Answer: (D)

44. The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to-

(A)  Organic food

(B)  Antacid

(C)  Antibiotic

(D)  Live microbial food/feed supplement

Answer: (D)

45. Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk?

(A)  Lactic acid Bacillus

(B)  Clostridium botulinum

(C)  Vibrio cholerate

(D)  Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer: (A)

46. Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids?

(A)  Erwin Chargaff

(B)  Maurice Hugh Fredrick Wilkins

(C)  Rosalind Franklin

(D)  Phoebus Levene

Answer: (B)

47. Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes, because-

(A)  the air pressure is less

(B)  outside temperature is less

(C)  latent heat is less

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

48. Concave mirror is used in head lights of vehicles, because it-

(A)  focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles

(B)  sends parallel rays

(C)  fits well into the shape of the headlight

(D)  is cheaper than other mirrors

Answer: (B)

49. If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air ?

(A)  Increase

(B)  Decrease

(C)  Remain exactly the same

(D)  Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

Answer: (B)

50. Light year is a measure of

(A)  time

(B)  distance

(C)  total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year

(D)  average intensity of light falling on the

Answer: (B)

51. Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients having Gouty Arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level?

(A)  Food fibres

(B)  Nucleic acids

(C)  Lipids

(D)  Carbohydrates

Answer: (B)

52. Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct?

(A)  They are used in sewage treatment plants

(B)  They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages

(C)  No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe

(D)  They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases

Answer: (C)

53. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant of biosynthesis of-

(A)  Omega-3 fatty acids

(B)  Vitamin A

(C)  Vitamin B

(D)  Vitamin C

Answer: (B)

54. An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)  The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve i.e., curve of smaller radius)

(B)  The centripetal acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve

(C)  The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the gentle and sharp curves

(D)  The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow down

Answer: (B)

55. The force acting on a particle of mass m moving along the x-axis is given by F(x) = Ax2 – Bx. Which one of the following is the potential energy of the particle?

(A)  2Ax – B

(B) 

(C)  Ax3 – Bx2

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

56. The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for

(A)  Holm

(B)  Halogen

(C)  Henry

(D)  Hertz

Answer: (C)

57. In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t1, t2 and t3 In this situation, we will observe that-

(A)  t1 > t2 > t3

(B)  t1 > t3 > t2

(C)  t3 > t1 > t2

(D)  t1 = t2 = t3

Answer: (D)

58. Electron emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as-

(A)  Thermionic emission

(B)  Photoelectric emission

(C)  High field emission

(D)  Autoelectronic emission

Answer: (B)

59. How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun ?

(A)  About 4 minutes

(B)  About 8 minutes

(C)  About 24 minutes

(D)  About 24 hours

Answer: (B)

60. Radioactivity is measured by-

(A)  GM Counter

(B)  Polarimeter

(C)  Calorimeter

(D)  Colorimeter

Answer: (A)

61. The mirrors used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles are-

(A)  concave

(B)  convex

(C)  cylindrical

(D)  plane

Answer: (A)

62. Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes?

(A)  Ultraviolet waves

(B)  Infrared waves

(C)  Radio waves

(D)  Microwaves

Answer: (A)

63. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are-

(A)  free electrons

(B)  conduction electrons

(C)  ions

(D)  holes

Answer: (D)

64. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is-

(A)  13.6 MeV

(B)  13.6 eV

(C)  13.6 Joule

(D)  Zero

Answer: (B)

65. When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of, –

(A)  air

(B)  hydrogen

(C)  hydrogen and oxygen

(D)  water vapour

Answer: (A)

66. Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution?

(A)  HCl

(B)  CH3COOH

(C)  CH3OH

(D)  NaOH

Answer: (B)

67. According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017 released by the World Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked-

(A)  50th

(B)  40th

(C)  30th

(D)  20th

Answer: (B)

68. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017 celebrated by the World Health Organization?

(A)  Diabetes

(B)  Food Safety

(C)  Depression : Let’s Talk

(D)  Ageing and Health

Answer: (C)

69. Which one of the following Ministries has launched a new programme on Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R & D?

(A)  Ministry of Earth Sciences

(B)  Ministry of Science and Technology

(C)  Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

(D)  Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Answer: (B)

70. Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture :

(1) This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.

(2) The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal shikhara

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A)  1 only

(B)  2 only

(C)  Both 1 and 2

(D)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A)

71. Ashoka’s connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts?

(A)  Major Rock Edict 13

(B)  Rock Edict 6

(C)  Minor Rock Edict 1

(D)  Pillar Edict 4

Answer: (C)

72. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a –

(A)  Federation

(B)  Confederation

(C)  Unitary form of Government

(D)  Union of States

Answer: (D)

73. The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by-

(A)  Law Commission

(B)  Santhanam Committee

(C)  Shah Commission

(D)  Administrative Reforms Commission

Answer: (D)

74. Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains?

(A)  Ozone

(B)  Ammonia

(C)  Sulphur dioxide

(D)  Carbon monoxide

Answer: (C)

75. The desirable range of pH for drinking water is-

(A)  6.5 to 8.5

(B)  5.0 to 6.5

(C)  6.5 to 7.0

(D)  7.0 to 8.5

Answer: (C)

76. Consider the following reaction :

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct?

(1) Carbon is oxidized

(2) Hydrogen is oxidized

(3) Hydrogen is reduced

(4) Carbon is reduced

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(A)  1 only

(B)  1 and 2 only

(C)  2 and 3 only

(D)  2 and 4 only

Answer: (A)

77. Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would b e about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat?

(A)  One hour

(B)  Two hours

(C)  Three hours

(D)  Four hours

Answer: (B)

78. Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the total area of the State :

(1) Karnataka

(2) Odisha

(3) Kerala

(4) Andhra Pradesh

Which one of the following is the correct descending order ?

(A)  1-2-4-3

(B)  3-1-2-4

(C)  3-2-1-4

(D)  2-3-1-4

Answer: (C)

79. Which one of the following States in India has the longest constline?

(A)  Odisha

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Karnataka

(D)  West Bengal

Answer: (B)

80. Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?

(A)  Maharashtra

(B)  Chhattisgarh

(C)  Madhya Pradesh

(D)  Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (C)

81. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock ?

(A)  Gabbro

(B)  Granite

(C)  Dolomite

(D)  Basalt

Answer: (C)

82. The Coriolis effect is the result of-

(A)  Pressure gradient

(B)  Earth’s axis of inclination

(C)  Earth’s rotation

(D)  Earth’s revolution

Answer: (C)

83. Where is Mekong Delta located?

(A)  Thailand

(B)  Cambodia

(C)  Myanmar

(D)  Vietnam

Answer: (D)

84. Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?

(A)  Godavari : Indravati

(B)  Ganga : Penganga

(C)  Krishna : Bhima

(D)  Luni : Sukri

Answer: (B)

85. Consider the following characteristics of tropical cyclone :

(1) A warm sea temperature of > 26°C

(2) High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 ,

(3) Atmospheric instability

The above mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its development?

(A)  Formulation and initial stage

(B)  Modification stage

(C)  Full maturity

(D)  Decay

Answer: (C)

86. In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?

(A)  Dilmun

(B)  Meluha

(C)  Magan

(D)  Failaka

Answer: (A)

87. The principal use of hydrofluoric acid is-

(A)  in etching glass

(B)  as a bleaching agent

(C)  as an extremely strong oxidizing agent

(D)  in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds

Answer: (A)

88. The species that has the same number of electrons as  is :

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

89. The compound C6H12O­4 contains

(A)  22 atoms per mole

(B)  twice the mass per cent of H as compared to the mass per cent of C

(C)  six times the mass per cent of C as compared to the mass per cent of H

(D)  thrice the mass per cent of H as compared to the mass per cent of O

Answer: (C)

90. The proposition ‘equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure’ is known as-

(A)  Avogadro’s hypothesis

(B)  Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis

(C)  Planck’s hypothesis

(D)  Kirchhoff’s theory

Answer: (A)

91. Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct?

(A)  It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases

(B)  It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans

(C)  It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts

(D)  It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists

Answer: (A)

92. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House?

(A)  The Solicitor General of India

(B)  The Vice-President of India

(C)  The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(D)  The Attorney General of India

Answer: (D)

93. Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857?

(A)  Mangal Pandey

(B)  Bahadur Shah II

(C)  Queen Zeenat Mahal

(D)  Nana Sahib

Answer: (D)

94. Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?

(A)  Murshid Quli Khan

(B)  Saadat Khan

(C)  Alivardi Khan

(D)  Sarfaraz Khan

Answer: (B)

95. Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement ?

(A)  Henry Vivian Derozio

(B)  David Hare

(C)  Dwarkanath Tagore

(D)  Prasanna Kumar Tagore

Answer: (A)

96. Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct?

(A)  It broke out in August 1942

(B)  Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months

(C)  Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement

(D)  Communist Party did not support the movement

Answer: (D)

97. Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles title 2017?

(A)  Kidambi Srikanth

(B)  Lin Dan

(C)  B. Sai Praneeth

(D)  Kento Momota

Answer: (C)

98. Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in-

(A)  Nagpur

(B)  Raipur

(C)  Mumbai

(D)  Secunderabad

Answer: (A)

99. Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day for Monuments and Sites (World Heritage Day) 2017?

(A)  The Heritage of Sport

(B)  Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

(C)  Past and Present Heritage

(D)  Heritage and Science

Answer: (B)

100. In April 2017, USA dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast popularly known as the Mother of All Bombs) in the suspected hideouts of militants in which one of the following countries?

(A)  Iran

(B)  Syria

(C)  Afghanistan

(D)  Somalia

Answer: (C)

National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (NDA & NA) UPSC

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY AND NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION

        National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission. The examination is for Army, Navy and Air Force Wings twice every year and this exam is conducted for unmarried male. The candidate joining this wing must undergo four years B.Tech course and would given an opportunity in joining Executive and Technical Subject for Navy Academy. The candidate opting National Defence Academy and Naval Academy must give his first preference of the option from Army, Naval and Air Wings.

Eligibility Criteria:

       Candidate must either be

  • The citizen of India
  • The citizen of Bhutan
  • The citizen of Nepal
  • Migrated to different countries with the intention of moving to the native

            Only male candidates can apply. Candidate should marry only if the training is completed. The candidate who marries on training stage is discharged and all the expenditure done to him must be refunded to the government. The candidate must be 10+2 passed for the exams based on the Higher Secondary Education System. The candidate must be physically fit.

Selection Procedure:

     The stages of selection are

  • Written Examination
  • Interview

Syllabus:

      The written Examination syllabus is

Paper-I    Mathematics

Algebra:

           Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.  De Morgan laws.  Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation. Representation of real numbers on a line.  Complex numbers – basic properties, modulus, argument and cube roots of unity.  Binary system of numbers.  Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa.  Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions.  Quadratic equations with real coefficients.  Solution of linear inequations of two variables by graphs.  Permutation and Combination.  Binomial theorem and its application.  Logarithms and their applications. 

Matrices and Determinants: 

           Types of matrices, operations on matrices Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of determinant.  Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications – Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method. 

Trigonometry: 

          Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae.  Multiple and Sub-multiple angles.  Inverse trigonometric functions.  Applications – Height and distance, properties of triangles. 

Analytical Geometry of two and three dimensions: 

            Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system.  Distance formula.  Equation of a line in various forms.  Angle between two lines.  Distance of a point from a line.  Equation of a circle in standard and in general form.  Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola.  Eccentricity and axis of a conic. 
Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points.  Direction Cosines and direction ratios.  Equation of a plane and a line in various forms.  Angle between two lines and angle between two planes.  Equation of a sphere. 

Differential Calculus: 

            Concept of a real valued function – domain, range and graph of a function.  Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions.  Notion of limit, Standard limits – examples.  Continuity of functions – examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions.  Derivative of a function at a point, geometrical and physical interpreatation of a derivative – applications.  Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect of another function, derivative of a composite function.  Second order derivatives.  Increasing and decreasing functions.  Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima. 

Integral Calculus and Differential equations: 

          Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions.  Evaluation of definite integrals – determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves – applications. Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential equation by examples.  General and particular solution of a differential equation, solution of first order and first degree differential equations of various types – examples.  Application in problems of growth and decay. 

 Vector Algebra:

          Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector.  Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of vector, scalar product or dot product of two-vectors.  Vector product and cross product of two vectors.  Applications-work done by a force and moment of a force, and in geometrical problems. 

Statistics and Probability:

        Statistics:  Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency distribution – examples Graphical representation – Histogram, Pie Chart, Frequency Polygon – examples.  Measures of Central tendency – mean, median and mode.  Variance and standard deviation – determination and comparison.  Correlation and regression. 

        Probability: Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events.  Union and Intersection of events.  Complementary, elementary and composite events.  Definition of probability – classical and statistical – examples.  Elementary theorems on probability – simple problems.  Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem – simple problems.  Random variable as function on a sample space.  Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.

Paper-II 

 General Ability Test

  • Part ‘A’ – ENGLISH (Maximum Marks 200)
  • Part ‘B’ – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Exam Pattern:

         The exam consists of two papers of objective type with 300 and 600 marks respectively with two and half hours time duration. There is negative marks for wrong answer. Eligible candidates are moved to interview process.

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