SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-II Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-II
SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-II Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-II Solved Papers

Paper-II

English Language and Comprehension

   Directions-(Q. 1-20) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B), (C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

1. Neither the USA nor the UK (A)/ are the largest democracy (B)/ in the twentieth century. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

2. One should not (A)/ tell lies (B)/ to his friends. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

3. Twelve inches (A)/ makes (B)/ a foot. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

4. The jury (A)/ was divided (B)/ in their opinion about the prisoner. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

5. I prefer (A)/ dancing (B)/ to singing. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

6. Scarcely he (A)/ started the speech (B)/ audience began to leave. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

7. While he was on holiday last week (A)/ he wrote a long poetry (B)/ about the cuckoo. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

8. The teacher (A)/ said the class to open (B)/ their books at page 40. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

9. Professor Gupta teaches (A)/ both Botany as well as Chemistry (B)/ every semester. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

10. Bombay’s slums (A)/ are not any better than (B)/ Calcutta. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

11. No sooner (A)/ had we set out (B)/ when a thunder storm occurred. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

12. Some of you (A)/ speak French (B)/ Isn’t it ? (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

13. The girl whom you were speaking to (A)/ while I was on the phone (B)/ is my cousin. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

14. Coins were (A)/ made of an alloy (B)/ half a gold and half a copper. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

15. The price of everything (A)/ is raising (B)/ fast. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

16. The principal asked (A)/ Mani and I (B)/ where our teacher was. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (D)

17. Speculation is still rife (A)/ as to (B)/ whom will captain the Indian team. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

18. We congratulated (A)/ Miss Pushpa (B)/ for her success. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

19. Newspaper(A)/ carried a report (B)/ of the plane crash. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

20. He had scarcely set foot (A)/ on the road than (B)/ he was knocked down by a car. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 21-25) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.

21. She did not approve …….. my going abroad for further studies.

(A)  over

(B)  with

(C)  of

(D)  about

Answer: (C)

22. Racial violence erupted throughout the United States………….Martin Luther King was assassinated in April 1968.

(A)  for

(B)  because

(C)  when

(D)  while

Answer: (C)

23. She …….. because she had been waiting for you for an hour.

(A)  is angry

(B)  will be angry

(C)  shall be angry

(D)  was angry

Answer: (A)

24. The leader, with all his men,…….. imprisoned.

(A)  were

(B)  are

(C)  will

(D)  was

Answer: (D)

25. I can imagine no place ………….. interesting than a railway station.

(A)  better

(B)  more

(C)  equally

(D)  as

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 26-28) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

26. She baffled me with her argument.

(A)  surprised

(B)  perplexed

(C)  convinced

(D)  defeated

Answer: (B)

27. Indigenous

(A)  homely

(B)  indignant

(C)  native

(D)  wholesome

Answer: (C)

28. At loggerheads

(A)  heading

(B)  gorgeous

(C)  logical

(D)  quarrelling

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 29-31) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

29. Wholesome

(A)  Unhealthy

(B)  Incomplete

(C)  Discrete

(D)  Discursive

Answer: (B)

30. Flagrant

(A)  Mediocre

(B)  Meek

(C)  Mild

(D)  Modest

Answer: (*)

31. Ostensible

(A)  insensible

(B)  actual

(C)  apparent

(D)  unostentatious

Answer: (*)

   Directions-(Q. 32-34) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.

32.

(A)  Embarass

(B)  Embarres

(C)  Embarrass

(D)  Embaras

Answer: (C)

33. 

(A)  Courageaous

(B)  Coragageous

(C)  Corrageous

(D)  Courageous

Answer: (D)

34.

(A)  Changeable

(B)  Changable

(C)  Changablle

(D)  Changeble

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 35-44) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

35. It is high time we buried the hatchet and worked for the progress of our country.

(A)  start fighting, kill the enemy

(B)  stop being lazy, work hard

(C)  start burying the hatchet

(D)  stop fighting, be friendly

Answer: (D)

36. I’m sure the new office order serves them right.

(A)  changes their mind

(B)  gives good service to them

(C)  get that they deserve

(D)  realize their mistakes

Answer: (B)

37. He is always in debt as he makes ducks and drakes off his money.

(A)  often squanders money

(B)  grows ducks and hens

(C)  gives loans to other people

(D)  often buys non-vegetarian dishes with

Answer: (A)

38. My teacher is a man of his word.

(A)  one who fulfils his promise

(B)  one who pays lip service

(C)  one who makes no promise

(D)  a man of letters

Answer: (A)

39. Trying to find life on the Mars is a wild goose chase.

(A)  competition where one is prepared to face to consequences

(B)  a futile exercise

(C)  useful enterprise

(D)  mad race for something

Answer: (B)

40. Beware of the wolf in sheep’s clothing.

(A)  terror

(B)  satirist

(C)  sly

(D)  hypocrite

Answer: (D)

41. When he took charge as the General Manager of the company, the situation was at sixes and sevens.

(A)  the money was meagre

(B)  the company was in debt

(C)  only a few workers were there

(D)  in utter confusion

Answer: (D)

42. All the participants were first asked to break the ice soon after the key note address was over.

(A)  to bring out good news

(B)  to accomplish a task

(C)  familiarize with each other

(D)  to get the truth

Answer: (C)

43. The manager gave his secretary her marching orders when he found her work unsatisfactory.

(A)  dismissal

(B)  transfer

(C)  training

(D)  punishment

Answer: (A)

44. After getting selected for the job, he has been putting on airs these days.

(A)  travelling only by air

(B)  putting on weight

(C)  becoming very boastful

(D)  wearing costly clothes

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q 45-64) The Ist and the last sentence/parts of the sentence are numbered I and 6. The rest of the sentences/sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate in the Answer Sheet.

45. (1) Let us admit

(P) in the number of cars, lorries etc.

(Q) a daily occurrence in the cities

(R) that traffic jam has become

(S) because of the enormous increase

(6) which clog the roads to much.

(A)  RQSP

(B)  SPRQ

(C)  QRPS

(D)  PRSQ

Answer: (A)

46. (1) A recent study has shown :

(P) come out of various colonies of major cities

(Q) the essential arteries of city life.

(R) that about 250 tonnes of plastic waste

(S) which disrupt the sewer system,

(6) Hence ‘Ban on Plastics’.

(A)  SRPQ

(B)  RPSQ

(C)  PSRQ

(D)  PRSQ

Answer: (B)

47. (1) Advertising is a form of

(P) mass communication which is presented in

(Q) and further persuading people to

(R) giving information and arousing interest

(S) form of sign and symbols

(6) buy the product.

(A)  PSRQ

(B)  RSPQ

(C)  QPRS

(D)  SQPR

Answer: (A)

48. (1) Every country popularizes

(P) which are handed down from

(Q) old generation to the new.

(R) some stories known as epic

(S) that facilitates transmission of virtues

(6) values and cultural norms.

(A)  RPQS

(B)  SQPR

(C)  QPRS

(D)  PQRS

Answer: (A)

49. (1) On the last Saturday of March every year,

(P) as people from across the world

(Q) showing their commitment towards

(R) the lights around the globe will go off

(S) take part in the ‘Earth Hour’.

(6) the cause of protecting the earth’s environment

(A)  PRSQ

(B)  PQRS

(C)  RSPQ

(D)  RPSQ

Answer: (D)

50. (1) A thief was trying to break into a house.

(P) The thief tried to run away.

(Q) People chased him and caught hold of him.

(R) The neighbor rushed to the house.

(S) The dog started barking.

(6) He was handed over to the police

(A)  PRSQ

(B)  RPSQ

(C)  SRPQ

(D)  RPQS

Answer: (C)

51. (1) There is a dire need to set up

(P) social homes for the blind

(Q) so as to enable them to enter

(R) where they can learn useful skills

(S) the main streams of society

(6) which will make them self reliant.

(A)  PSRQ

(B)  RSPQ

(C)  PRQS

(D)  SPRQ

Answer: (C)

52. (1) A famous magician

(P) to the college of Arts

(Q) failed to entertain

(R) who was invited

(S) the crowd of students when he showed

(6) his old tricks to them.

(A)  PSQR

(B)  SQPR

(C)  QRSP

(D)  RPQS

Answer: (D)

53. (1) Laugh together without reason for healthy life

(P) by the followers of laughter therapy.

(Q) Those who propound the therapy insist

(R) is a concept propagated

(S) that laughing has various physical and psychological effect,

(6) which are good for our health.

(A)  PRSQ

(B)  PQRS

(C)  PSRQ

(D)  RPQS

Answer: (D)

54. (1) The charity birds hospital is situated in Chandni Chowk in Delhi.

(P) Injured birds are admitted there,

(Q) Which is the only one of its kind in the country.

(R) It was started in 1929.

(S) and after recovery they fly away.

(6) The treatment is free of cost.

(A)  SRPQ

(B)  SRQP

(C)  QRPS

(D)  RSPQ

Answer: (C)

55. (1) Naseeruddin Shah is a legendary actor

(P) later contributed to the Indian film industry

(Q) through his meaningful cinema and has

(R) as a theatre artist and

(S) who started his career

(6) also worked in Hollywood films.

(A)  RSPQ

(B)  SRPQ

(C)  PSQR

(D)  QSRP

Answer: (B)

56. (1) Noise pollution is mainly caused by loudspeakers

(P) which has serious impact on Central Nervous System

(Q) They are used indiscriminately

(R) to cause deafness.

(S) their noise is jarring and harmful

(6) Noise pollution is as harmful as pollution of air or water.

(A)  QSPR

(B)  PRSQ

(C)  SPRQ

(D)  QPRS

Answer: (B)

57. (1) Sahil was very disappointed

(P) for ten  years with sincerity and

(Q) any increment in salary

(R) because he worked for his company

(S) diligence but was never given

(6) or appreciation for his work.

(A)  SQPR

(B)  RPSQ

(C)  QRSP

(D)  PSQR

Answer: (B)

58. (1) Democracy is a perfect system

(P) provided it is lubricated

(Q) goal oriented individuals, who

(R) and put in the hands of

(S) work with dedication

(6) for the maximum good of the largest number of people.

(A)  PRQS

(B)  RPSQ

(C)  QSPR

(D)  SQRP

Answer: (A)

59. (1) When a person

(P) put in sincere and diligent

(Q) strives for perfection

(R) efforts along with authentic

(S) in his work, he must

(6) and novel ideas of his own.

(A)  SPQR

(B)  RQPS

(C)  QSPR

(D)  PSQR

Answer: (C)

60. (1) Her mother often

(P) tuition fee after the

(Q) failed to pay for

(R) sudden death of Madhu’s father

(S) the books and school.

(6) who died many years ago.

(A)  PSQR

(B)  QSPR

(C)  SPRQ

(D)  RSQP

Answer: (B)

61. (1) The press should help to create

(P) who govern the fate of nation

(Q) the masses and those

(R) a healthy understanding between

(S) and reflect reactions and opinions

(6) to the contemporary issues concerning them.

(A)  PQRS

(B)  SPRQ

(C)  RQPS

(D)  QRPS

Answer: (C)

62. (1) Character is that

(P) If we want to build a great nation,

(Q) to look upto the men of vision and sacrifice

(R) on which the destiny of a nation is built.

(S) we must try to train young men and women

(6) and emulate them.

(A)  RPSQ

(B)  QPRS

(C)  SRPQ

(D)  PRSQ

Answer: (A)

63. (1) India has the capacity

(P) provided it utilized its

(Q) to emerge as a super power

(R) material resources and manpower

(S) in the next century,

(6) effectively and efficiently.

(A)  RSPQ

(B)  QSPR

(C)  SPRQ

(D)  PQRS

Answer: (B)

64. (1) We first became aware

(P) who sat at one table

(Q) when one of the ship’s officers came up to the chief engineer.

(R) that something unusual was happening

(S) and spoke to him in a low voice

(6) which made us feel that something was wrong.

(A)  PRQS

(B)  SRPQ

(C)  RSPQ

(D)  RQPS

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 65-76) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

65. A supporter for the cause of women :

(A)  Feminist

(B)  Womanish

(C)  Hero

(D)  Colleague

Answer: (A)

66. Conveyance of property as security for debt until money is repaid

(A)  subterfuge

(B)  refuge

(C)  mortgage

(D)  reridity

Answer: (C)

67. ‘One who has knowledge of everything’.

(A)  satisfactory

(B)  fool proof

(C)  trust worthy

(D)  omniscient

Answer: (D)

68. An illness of accident that causes death.

(A)  fatal

(B)  eternal

(C)  mortar

(D)  fatalist

Answer: (A)

69. Science of heavenly bodies:

(A)  Astronomy

(B)  Archaeology

(C)  Anatomy

(D)  Astrology

Answer: (A)

70. A person who is indifferent to pleasure and pain.

(A)  apostate

(B)  sceptic

(C)  stoic

(D)  patriot

Answer: (C)

71. ‘A remedy for all diseases or cure-all’.

(A)  panacea

(B)  antidote

(C)  quick-fix

(D)  nullifier

Answer: (A)

72. Relating to the car:

(A)  Nasal

(B)  Oral

(C)  Renal

(D)  Aural

Answer: (D)

73. One who eats every kind of food.

(A)  Gourment

(B)  Omnivore

(C)  Herbivore

(D)  Cannibal

Answer: (B)

74. The book containing life story of a man.

(A)  Fable

(B)  Travelogue

(C)  Biography

(D)  Autobiography

Answer: (C)

75. A specialist who studies about snakes.

(A)  Snake charmer

(B)  Ophiodist

(C)  Ophthalmologist

(D)  Ophiologist

Answer: (A)

76. The act of killing one self by cutting open one’s stomach with a sword, to avoid losing honour-

(A)  sati

(B)  assassination

(C)  self-immolation

(D)  hara-kiri

Answer: (D)

   Direction-(Q. 77-96) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark you answer in the Answer-Sheet.

77. He offered me all the money at his command.

(A)  I was offered all the money at his command.

(B)  I am being offered all the money at his command.

(C)  I had been offered all the money at his command.

(D)  I have been offered all the money at his command.

Answer: (A)

78. We must thank God for all the good things.

(A)  Let us thank God for all the good things.

(B)  God must be thanked for all the good things.

(C)  God could be thanked for all good things.

(D)  God must be thanked by us.

Answer: (B)

79. The comic scenes in the play were over done by the actors.

(A)  The actors over did the comic scenes in the play.

(B)  The actors had over done the comic scenes in the play.

(C)  The actors are over doing the comic scenes in the play

(D)  The actors over do the comic scenes in the play.

Answer: (A)

80. Little strokes fell great oaks.

(A)  Great oaks fell with little strokes

(B)  Great oaks were felled by little strokes

(C)  Great oaks can be felled with little strokes

(D)  Great oaks are felled by little strokes

Answer: (B)

81. Each member of the academy was given a prize.

(A)  Every member of the academy got a prize

(B)  They give a prize to each member of the academy

(C)  They are giving a prize to each member of the academy

(D)  They gave a prize to each member of the academy

Answer: (D)

82. Rabindranath Tagore wrote the ‘Gitanjali’.

(A)  The ‘Gitanjali’ was written by Rabindranath Tagore.

(B)  The ‘Gitanjali’ is written by Rabindranath Tagore.

(C)  The ‘Gitanjali’ is being written by Rabindranath Tagore.

(D)  The ‘Gitanjali’ has been written by Rabindranath Tagore.

Answer: (A)

83. When will you return my books?

(A)  When will my books be returned?

(B)  When my books will be returned?

(C)  When are my books returned by you?

(D)  When will my books return?

Answer: (A)

84. The Government is building new bridges.

(A)  New bridges were built by the government.

(B)  New bridges are building by the government.

(C)  New bridges have been built by the government.

(D)  New bridges are being built by the government.

Answer: (D)

85. The authorities are distributing food packets to the flood victims.

(A)  Food packets are distributed to the flood victims by the authorities.

(B)  Food packets is being distributed to the flood victims by the authorities.

(C)  Food packets were being distributed to the flood victims by the authorities.

(D)  Food packets are being distributed to the flood victims by the authorities.

Answer: (D)

86. They returned my money with interest.

(A)  My money was return with interest.

(B)  My money was returned with interest.

(C)  My money is being returned with interest.

(D)  My money had been returned by them.

Answer: (B)

87. He was given the details of his uncle’s will be the lawyer.

(A)  The lawyer gives him the details of his uncle’s will.

(B)  The lawyer has to give him the details of his uncle’s will.

(C)  The lawyer will be giving him the details of his uncle’s will.

(D)  The lawyer gave him the details of his uncle’s will.

Answer: (D)

88. All vulnerable places are kept under constant vigil by the Policeman.

(A)  The Policeman keep all vulnerable places under constant vigil.

(B)  The Policeman are keeping all vulnerable places under constant vigil.

(C)  The Policeman will be keeping all vulnerable places under constant vigil.

(D)  The Policeman will keep all vulnerable places under constant vigil.

Answer: (A)

89. Big Cars must be driven very carefully.

(A)  Drivers drive big cars very carefully

(B)  Drives have to drive big cars carefully

(C)  Drivers are driving big cars carefully

(D)  Drivers must drive big cars very carefully

Answer: (D)

90. You may choose the book.

(A)  The book may be choosed by you.

(B)  The book may be choosen by you.

(C)  The book may choose by you.

(D)  The book is choosen by you.

Answer: (B)

91. The board selects the members.

(A)  The members shall be selected by the board.

(B)  The members are selected by the board.

(C)  The members are being selected by the board.

(D)  The members were selected by the board.

Answer: (B)

92. Many children have been kidnapped by the militants.

(A)  The militants have kidnapped many children

(B)  The militants are kidnapping many children

(C)  The militants kidnapped many children

(D)  The militants had kidnapped many children

Answer: (A)

93. Follow all the instruction carefully.

(A)  All the instruction could be followed carefully

(B)  Let all the instruction be followed carefully

(C)  Instruction may be followed carefully

(D)  Let instruction be followed carefully

Answer: (B)

94. The thieves victimize the innocent commoners.

(A)  The innocent commoners had been victimized by the thieves

(B)  The innocent commoners will be victimized by the thieves

(C)  The innocent commoners are victimized by the thieves

(D)  The innocent commoners were victimized by the thieves

Answer: (C)

95. The Car is being washed by the driver

(A)  The driver has been washing the Car

(B)  The driver is washing the Car

(C)  The driver has washed the Car

(D)  The driver was washing the Car

Answer: (B)

96. Das has posted the letter.

(A)  The letter has been posted by Das.

(B)  The letter has posted by Das.

(C)  The letter had been posted by Das.

(D)  The letter have been posted by Das.

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 97-118) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which many improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

97. We are looking forward to seeing you at next year’s conference.

(A)  to see

(B)  seeing

(C)  that we will see

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

98. To assist and English course can be an interesting experience.

(A)  To attend

(B)  Attending

(C)  Assisting

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

99. The number of orders went up because we increased our prices by 15%.

(A)  when

(B)  although

(C)  if

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

100. How many copies did we sent with the order ?

(A)  sent we

(B)  did we send

(C)  have we send

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

101. If the components would have been delivered earlier, we might have been able to start the work on time.

(A)  were

(B)  may have been

(C)  had been

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

102. The warehouse entrance is opposite to the main car park.

(A)  opposite

(B)  opposite of

(C)  opposite from

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (D)

103. The paper started on time, didn’t it ?

(A)  hadn’t it ?

(B)  did it ?

(C)  isn’t it ?

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (D)

104. The level of discount is depending on the size of the order that is placed.

(A)  depends on

(B)  depends with

(C)  is depending upon

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (C)

105. Have you finish writing the report of the meeting?

(A)  Have you finished

(B)  Do you finish

(C)  Will you have finished

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

106. Kaul has been head of this department since ten years.

(A)  has been head of this department for

(B)  is head of this department for

(C)  is head of this department since

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

107. He went out of his way to oblige his superiors.

(A)  on his way

(B)  in his way

(C)  beyond his way

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (C)

108. He told us that he had been applying for a new job.

(A)  had applied

(B)  applies

(C)  is applying

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

109. Their product is marketed more imaginatively this reason.

(A)  is been marketed

(B)  is being marketed

(C)  is marketing

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

110. The new price lists are being printing and will be available in a few days.

(A)  will be printed

(B)  are printed

(C)  are being printed

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (C)

111. The documents arrived on Thursday, didn’t they ?

(A)  weren’t they ?

(B)  haven’t they ?

(C)  arrived they ?

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

112. If I don’t succeed this year, I will give the examination again next 

(A)  will take

(B)  will repeat

(C)  shall give

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

113. I have just sent our brochure, which should arrive next week.

(A)  I just have sent

(B)  Just I have sent

(C)  I have just send

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (D)

114. If you placed ice in warm water, it soon melts.

(A)  will place

(B)  would place

(C)  place

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (C)

115. I can’t be put with this insult.

(A)  put upon

(B)  put up

(C)  put by

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (B)

116. Iyer is the man, whose office you’ll be sharing this month.

(A)  man, of whom the

(B)  man with whom the

(C)  man whose

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (D)

117. When the post will arrive, I’ll bring it to your office.

(A)  arrives

(B)  shall arrive

(C)  is going to arrive

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

118. I can’t find my glasses, you saw them anywhere?

(A)  have you seen

(B)  saw you

(C)  are  you seeing

(D)  no improvement

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 119-145) A sentence has being given in Direct/Indirect form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect form and mark  your answer in the Answer Sheet.

119. Rohit asked me, “Have you read this novel?”

(A)  Rohit asked me if I had read that novel.

(B)  Rohit asked me if I could read this novel.

(C)  Rohit asked me if I would have read that novel.

(D)  Rohit asked me if I was reading that novel.

Answer: (A)

120. “Who was the first man to fly in space ?”

(A)  The examiner asked who the first man to fly in space was.

(B)  The examiner asked about the first man to fly in space.

(C)  The examiner questioned about the first man to fly in space.

(D)  The examiner asked who was the first man to fly in space.

Answer: (A)

121. The teacher said, “Neha why are you late again today?”

(A)  The teacher asked Neha why was she late again that day.

(B)  The teacher asked Neha why she was late again today.

(C)  The teacher asked Neha why she was

(D)  The teacher asked Neha why she was late again that day.

Answer: (A)

122. I was told to leave the room.

(A)  He told me that I should leave the room.

(B)  He told me to leave the room.

(C)  He told me that I should be leaving the room.

(D)  He said to me to leave the room.

Answer: (B)

123. The teacher said, “Boys, what do you understand by this phrase?”

(A)  The teacher asked the boys what they understood by that phrase.

(B)  The teacher asked the boys that they understood by this phrase.

(C)  The teacher asked the boys that they understand by this phrase.

(D)  The teacher asked by boys what they understand by that phrase.

Answer: (A)

124. The engineers located the fault in the machine.

(A)  The fault in the machine was to be located by the engineers.

(B)  In the machine, the fault was located by the engineers.

(C)  The fault in the machine would be located by the engineers

(D)  The fault in the machine was located by the engineers.

Answer: (D)

125. The passenger said to the clerk, ‘When is the next train to Hyderabad?”

(A)  The passenger asked the clerk when the next train to Hyderabad was.

(B)  The passenger enquired the clerk that when the next train was to Hyderabad.

(C)  The passenger enquired the clerk when was the next train to Hyderabad.

(D)  The passenger enquired the clerk when was the next train to Hyderabad.

Answer: (A)

126. The patient asked the doctor what he should normally eat.

(A)  The patient exclaimed, “What should I normally eat, Doctor?”

(B)  The patient said, “What should I normally eat Doctor?”

(C)  The patient told, “What should I normally eat ?”

(D)  The patient said, “What should I normally eat doctor?”

Answer: (D)

127. His angry mother jeered, “Do you suppose you know better than your father ?”

(A)  His angry mother jeered and asked if he was supposed to know better than his father.

(B)  His angry mother jeered and asked whether he knew better than this father.

(C)  His angry mother jeered and asked whether he supposed that he would know better than his father.

(D)  His angry mother jeered and masked whether he supposed that he knew better than his father.

Answer: (D)

128. He said to her, ‘Where is she going’ ?

(A)  He asked her where she was going.

(B)  He wanted to know where she is going.

(C)  He wants to know where she was going.

(D)  He said where she was going.

Answer: (A)

129. “I have to go into the town today”, Mr. Rao said to the Station Master.

(A)  Mr. Rao told the Station Master that he had to go into the town that day.

(B)  Mr. Rao advised the Station Master that he had to go into the town that day.

(C)  Mr. Rao spoke to the Station Master that he had to go into the town that day.

(D)  Mr Rao told the Station Master that he would go into the town that day.

Answer: (A)

130. ‘I’ll take a quick nap here in this soft grass’, said the hare.

(A)  The hare said that he would take a quick nap here in this soft grass.

(B)  The hare said that he would take a quick nap there in that soft grass.

(C)  The hare said he will take a quick nap here in this soft grass.

(D)  The hare said that I will take a quick nap here in this soft grass.

Answer: (B)

131. My mother said to me, “Where are you going at this time of the day ?”

(A)  My mother asked me where I was going at that time of the day.

(B)  My mother told me where I was going at that time of the day

(C)  My mother told me not to go at that time of the day.

(D)  My mother asked me where was I going at that time of the day.

Answer: (A)

132. He said, “Oh, that I had the wings of a bird”.

(A)  He proposed to have the wings of a bird.

(B)  He wished that he might have the wings of a bird.

(C)  He wished that he could have the wings of a bird.

(D)  He wished that he had the wings of a bird.

Answer: (B)

133. She said to Dhiru, “I am planning to leave tomorrow”.

(A)  She told Dhiru that she had planned to leave the next day.

(B)  She told Dhiru that she is planning to leave the next day.

(C)  She advised Dhiru that she was planning to leave next day.

(D)  She told Dhiru that she was planning to leave the next day.

Answer: (D)

134. Krishna said to his friends, ‘Let us go to a movie today’.

(A)  Krishna suggested to his friends that let them go to a movie that day.

(B)  Krishna proposed to his friends if they would go to a movie that day.

(C)  Krishna proposed to his friends what if they would go to a movie that day.

(D)  Krishna suggested to his friends that they should go to a movie that day.

Answer: (D)

135. Mother said to the baby, “Don’t play with fire”.

(A)  Mother warned the baby to play with fire.

(B)  Mother warned the baby not to play with fire.

(C)  Mother forbade the baby not to play with fire.

(D)  Mother requested the baby not to play with fire.

Answer: (C)

136. “Leave the room at once Ravi”, he shouted.

(A)  He ordered Ravi to leave the room at once.

(B)  He forbade Ravi to leave the room at once.

(C)  He suggested that Ravi should leave the room at once.

(D)  He requested Ravi to leave the room at once.

Answer: (A)

137. They said to him, “We shall visit your house tomorrow”.

(A)  They said that they will go to his house the next day.

(B)  They expressed a desire to visit his house the next day.

(C)  They told him that they might visit his house the next day.

(D)  They told him that they would visit his house the next day.

Answer: (D)

138. “Are we never to meet ?” Amit asked him.

(A)  Amit questioned him whether they were ever to be meet.

(B)  Amit wondered whether they are never to meet.

(C)  Amit said whether they were never to meet.

(D)  Amit asked him whether they were never to meet.

Answer: (D)

139. He said, ‘If I had the key with me, I could give you the solution’.

(A)  He said that if he had the key with him, he could given him/her the solution.

(B)  He said if he could have they key with him, he would give him/her the solution.

(C)  He told that if he could have the key with him, he would given him/her the solution.

(D)  He said that if he have had the key with  him, he could have given him/her the solution.

Answer: (D)

140. He said to her, “Rest assured. I shall repay your loan”.

(A)  He assured her that he would repay her loan.

(B)  He told her that he would repay her loan.

(C)  He said that he might repay her loan.

(D)  He told her not to worry about the repayment of her loan.

Answer: (A)

141. “Do you know anything about Robots, Sonu ?”

(A)  Meeta asked Sonu whether he knows anything about Robots.

(B)  Meeta asked Sonu if he know anything about Robots.

(C)  Meeta asked Sonu if he had known anything about Robots.

(D)  Meeta asked Sonu if he knew anything about Robots.

Answer: (D)

142. “Please bring me a glass of water”, she said to me.

(A)  She requested to bring her a glass of water.

(B)  She requested me brought her a glass of water.

(C)  She requested me to bring her a glass of water.

(D)  She requested me that bring her a glass of water.

Answer: (C)

143. The gardener said to the boys, “Do not pluck the flowers”.

(A)  The gardener said to the boys that they should not pluck flowers.

(B)  The gardener forbade the boys to pluck the flowers.

(C)  The gardener told the boys that they should not pluck flowers.

(D)  The gardener scolded the boys for plucking flowers.

Answer: (B)

144. The teacher said, “Surabhi, where are you going to spend your summer break this  year?”

(A)  The teacher asked Surabhi where she is going to spend her summer break.

(B)  The teacher asked Surabhi where was she going to spend her summer break.

(C)  The teacher asked to Surabhi where she was going to spend her summer break.

(D)  The teacher asked Surabhi where she was going to spend her summer break.

Answer: (B)

145. The General said, “Bravo ! Well done, my soldiers”.

(A)  The General told the soldiers that they had done well.

(B)  The General applauded his soldiers saying that they would do well.

(C)  The General applauded his soldiers for their excellent job.

(D)  The General applauded his soldiers saying that they had done well.

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 146-170) You have following three passages with 10 questions each in passage I and II and 5 questions in passage-III. Read the passages carefully and chose the best answer to fill in the blanks out of the four alternatives given and mark it in the answer sheet.

Passage-I (146-155)

   Men had to save himself …(146)… the attacks of animals and …(147)… cold of the winter season. He …(148)… how to light fire …(149)… probably the greatest invention in …(150)… world. Necessities grow with the …(151)… in times. Had there been …(152)… disease, the necessity to invent …(153)… would have never arisen. It …(154)… necessary to save man from the vagaries of …(155)…, house was invented, clothes were invented.

146.

(A)  on

(B)  for

(C)  from

(D)  by

Answer: (C)

147.

(A)  acute

(B)  dreadful

(C)  very

(D)  severe

Answer: (D)

148.

(A)  discovered

(B)  find out

(C)  decided

(D)  invented

Answer: (A)

149.

(A)  great

(B)  most

(C)  much

(D)  more

Answer: (B)

150.

(A)  this

(B)  such

(C)  the

(D)  one

Answer: (C)

151.

(A)  movement

(B)  Exchange

(C)  Span

(D)  change

Answer: (D)

152.

(A)  no

(B)  other

(C)  some

(D)  any

Answer: (A)

153.

(A)  medicine

(B)  Technology

(C)  Surgery

(D)  Science

Answer: (A)

154.

(A)  was

(B)  might be

(C)  could be

(D)  became

Answer: (B)

155.

(A)  fashion

(B)  idea

(C)  Time

(D)  nature

Answer: (D)

Passage-II (156-165)

   Pleasure and pain are two sides of the coin in one’s life. The great Roman orator Cicero, in …(156)… celebrated treatise on friendship remarks …(157)… truth that it increases happiness and …(158)… misery by the doubling …(159)… our joy and the …(160)… of our grief. When we do well, it is …(161)… to have friends who are …(162)… of our success that they …(163)… as much pleasure from it as we do …(164)… . For the …(165)… man, the attainment of wealth’s of little value.

156.

(A)  his

(B)  her

(C)  which

(D)  whose

Answer: (A)

157.

(A)  for

(B)  on

(C)  under

(D)  with

Answer: (D)

158.

(A)  creates

(B)  improves

(C)  diminishes

(D)  develops

Answer: (C)

159.

(A)  with

(B)  of

(C)  off

(D)  in

Answer: (B)

160.

(A)  division

(B)  retouch

(C)  rebuff

(D)  removal

Answer: (D)

161.

(A)  delightful

(B)  open

(C)  needful

(D)  good

Answer: (D)

162.

(A)  scornful

(B)  worried

(C)  proud

(D)  nice

Answer: (C)

163.

(A)  understand

(B)  receive

(C)  retrieve

(D)  derive

Answer: (D)

164.

(A)  it

(B)  please

(C)  them

(D)  ourselves

Answer: (D)

165.

(A)  friendly

(B)  nice

(C)  friendless

(D)  tall

Answer: (B)

Passage-III (166-170)

   Communication is the most …(166)… aspect of life. Like human beings, insects, birds and animals are also said to have some …(167)… of communication. It has been …(168)… that insects …(169)…to chemical communication of messages. Some female insects use their scent as communication to attract the males. The ants are said …(170)… trails which are used by other ants for transporting food.

166.

(A)  exclusive

(B)  essential

(C)  innovative

(D)  ordinary

Answer: (B)

167.

(A)  plan

(B)  proof

(C)  attempts

(D)  system

Answer: (D)

168.

(A)  invented

(B)  hoped

(C)  proved

(D)  suggested

Answer: (C)

169.

(A)  resort

(B)  attempt

(C)  pleased

(D)  want

Answer: (A)

170.

(A)  to leave

(B)  to be leaving

(C)  to have left

(D)  that they leave

Answer: (A)

   Directions-(Q. 171-200) You have following three brief passages with 10 questions in each passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Passage-I (171-180)

   In concert with the HUDCO and State Govts., the Ministry has launched a National programme for setting up Nirman or Nirmithi Kendras (Building Centres) for training of artisans in low cost construction skills and production of building materials and components through innovative techniques. Set with a target of 100 Building Centres, so for 86 Centres have been identified out of which 38 centres had already been set  up by the end of January, 1989.

   Till the end of the 6th Plan, 235 towns benefitted under the Scheme and a sum of Rs 63.57 crores was provided as Central assistance. The Scheme has been continued during the 7th Plan with an outlay of Rs 88.00 crores part of which is to be utilized for funding the on-going schemes and the remaining amount is to be utilized for schemes to be taken up in 102 additional towns in various States/UTs. 107 towns have been brought under the purview of the scheme and Rs 63.49 crores have been made available as Central assistance to the States/UTs till 29.3.1989, including Rs 15.84 crores released during 1988-89.

   An expenditure of approximately Rs 28 crores is likely to be incurred during the current year on construction of residential and non-residential accommodation in general pool. More than 5800 quarters are under construction in general pool out of which approximately 3000 quarters will be completed during the current year.

171. The target of the National programme was to build-

(A)  100 centres

(B)  86 centres

(C)  38 centres

(D)  not less than 265 centres

Answer: (A)

172. Innovative techniques means-

(A)  stylish techniques

(B)  new techniques

(C)  unique ways

(D)  wonderful technique

Answer: (B)

173. In the context of the passage, current year should stand for-

(A)  88-89

(B)  87-88

(C)  86-87

(D)  89-90

Answer: (A)

174. The programme was meant for-

(A)  farming

(B)  health care

(C)  education

(D)  housing

Answer: (D)

175. The passage appears to be a part of a-

(A)  report

(B)  press release

(C)  diary entry

(D)  proposal

Answer: (A)

176. In the context of the given passage, concert means-

(A)  company

(B)  collaboration

(C)  communication

(D)  connection

Answer: (B)

177. The word approximately is-

(A)  an adverb

(B)  a noun

(C)  determiner

(D)  an adjective

Answer: (D)

178. The National programme for setting up Nirman Kendras is taken care of by-

(A)  the central Governments

(B)  the state Governments

(C)  private parties

(D)  both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D)

179. In the context of the passage, UTs stands for-

(A)  Unit trust

(B)  Union traders

(C)  Union territories

(D)  United travels

Answer: (A)

180. Nirmithi or Nirman Kendras are meant for training-

(A)  skilled workers

(B)  farmers

(C)  artists

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

Passage-II (181-190)

   In looking at Air India in the 21st Century, I believe that the airline has an intrinsic advantage over its competitors. It being the national carrier of one of the largest markets in the world and the fact that it holds merely 25 per cent of the present market share in and out of India provides it with a unique opportunity of increasing it to atleast 50 per cents by the turn of the century. I believe that Air India has an inherent advantage in achieving this goal as it represents a nation which is traditionally known for its hospitality and culture which give it a cutting edge in the service industry.

   All of us who are familiar with the technological excellence of the west, are also distinctly conscious of the lack of a service culture to support the same. Natural courtesy and friendliness must however, be polished with professionalism and I believe that this attribute will contribute to the excellence of Air India in the future and provide it with the competitive edge it requires. Air lines which are deemed ‘great’ in our part of the world today base their product advantage on this attribute. I see a revival of a style which was created for aviation industry by Air India.

181. Which part of speech is the word distinctly?

(A)  verb

(B)  adverb

(C)  adjective

(D)  noun

Answer: (B)

182. India has an edge over the west because of-

(A)  a service culture

(B)  technological excellence

(C)  professionalism

(D)  All the above

Answer: (A)

183. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage-

(A)  Air India : a competitive airlines

(B)  Air India : an embodiment of Hospitality

(C)  Air India : an Airlines with a History

(D)  Air India : an economy airlines

Answer: (A)

184. In the context of the passage, professionalism implies-

(A)  good knowledge of technology

(B)  refined behaviour

(C)  courtesy and friendliness

(D)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D)

185. The passage seems to have been written-

(A)  in the early nineties

(B)  a couple of years ago

(C)  just before the close of the 20th century

(D)  at the beginning of the 21st century

Answer: (D)

186. The writer of the passage sounds ………. About the future of Air India.

(A)  optimistic

(B)  uncertain

(C)  pessimistic

(D)  skeptical

Answer: (A)

187. The intrinsic advantage that Air India has over the other airline is-

(A)  It has a large market share

(B)  It has an excellent service culture

(C)  It is highly professional

(D)  It is the national air lines

Answer: (A)

188. The phrase this goal refers to-

(A)  a cutting edge in the service industry

(B)  excel in hospitality

(C)  increasing the market share to 50 per cent

(D)  All the above

Answer: (D)

189. The last sentence is a/an of/for Air India-

(A)  advertisement

(B)  analytic study

(C)  eulogy

(D)  critique

Answer: (B)

190. In the context of the passage, competitive edge means-

(A)  spirit of competition

(B)  privileged

(C)  has a great potential

(D)  the end of competition

Answer: (A)

Passage-III (191-200)

   The Director/Deputy Secretary in charge of Administration in the Ministry continued to function as Liaison Officer for the work relating to employment of ex-servicemen. Additional Liaison Officers were also nominated in the Attached/Sub-ordinate Offices and Public Sector Undertakings to watch the implementation of the Government rules, regulations and orders on the subject. Statistics relating to appointment of ex-servicemen in the Ministry, its Attached/Subordinate Offices and Public Sector Undertakings are given in Appendix-V.

   During the period of 87-88, the workload of the Department registered a growth of more than 15%. In the year 88-89, the workload is expected to increase by more than 35%.

   A Special Cell in the Ministry watches the implementation of Government orders regarding reservation in services for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Cell, in addition to carrying out periodic inspections of the rosters maintained to ensure compliance of the Government orders, also looks into complaints, if any, received from the employees belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

   Statistics relating to the representation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Ministry and its other offices are contained in Appendices VI to IX.

191. The passage could be an extract from-

(A)  a Govt. circular

(B)  a rule book

(C)  an inter office memo

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

192. Tick the option which is false. The work of the special cell is-

(A)  looking into complaints

(B)  to oversee the promotion roster

(C)  implementation of government orders

(D)  periodic inspection

Answer: (C)

193. Appendix means an attachment containing-

(A)  corrections

(B)  addition

(C)  omissions

(D)  epilogue

Answer: (B)

194. Liason officer is-

(A)  one who exchanges information between different organisations

(B)  one who takes care of every one’s personal problems

(C)  incharge of the personal deptt.

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (D)

195. Which part of speech is the word Implementation ?

(A)  Verb

(B)  noun

(C)  adjective

(D)  adverb

Answer: (B)

196. Appendices VI to IX contain the-

(A)  Government orders

(B)  complaints by the public

(C)  report of periodic inspection

(D)  statistics regarding the representation of SC’s and ST’s

Answer: (D)

197. In the context of the passage cell means-

(A)  a place where monks and nuns live

(B)  a small group within a larger organisation

(C)  the smallest part of a plant

(D)  a small room where prisoners are locked

Answer: (B)

198. Periodic means something-

(A)  regularly

(B)  often

(C)  seldom

(D)  happening occasionally

Answer: (D)

199. The interests of the SC’s and ST’s are looked after by-

(A)  a special cell

(B)  the deputy secretary

(C)  the liason officer

(D)  the director

Answer: (A)

200. Compliance of government orders means-

(A)  execution of orders

(B)  complaints against government orders

(C)  take care of order

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I
SSC CAPFs-Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I Solved Papers

Part-A

General Intelligence & Reasoning

   Directions-(Q. 1 to 9) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives-

1. SKIT : TIKS : : ? : FLAP

(A)  PLFA

(B)  PFAL

(C)  PLAF

(D)  PALF

Answer: (D)

2. 6 : 72 :: 8 : ?

(A)  94

(B)  96

(C)  74

(D)  92

Answer: (B)

3. 6 : 36 : : 9 : ?

(A)  81

(B)  98

(C)  42

(D)  56

Answer: (A)

4. 384 : ? : : 216 : 63

(A)  128

(B)  124

(C)  112

(D)  192

Answer: (C)

5. Asthma : Lungs : : Conjunctivitis : ?

(A)  Bones

(B)  Teeth

(C)  Eyes

(D)  Blood

Answer: (C)

6. Communicable disease : Malaria : : Non-communicable disease : ?

(A)  Tuberculosis

(B)  Hepatitis

(C)  AIDS

(D)  Cancer

Answer: (D)

7. Thermometer : Temperature : : Glucometer : ?

(A)  Body sugar

(B)  Body resistance

(C)  Blood

(D)  Blood sugar

Answer: (D)

8. Dismay : Joy : : Tend : ?

(A)  Regret

(B)  Ignore

(C)  Negligible

(D)  Spoil

Answer: (B)

9. DCBA : WXYZ : : ? : ZYXW

(A)  ABCD

(B)  ABDC

(C)  CBAD

(D)  BCDA

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 10 to 14) Find the odd word/number/letters from the given alternatives-

10.

(A)  4249

(B)  7586

(C)  4623

(D)  9781

Answer: (C)

11.

(A)  ee gg ii kk

(B)  pp rr tt uu

(C)  bb dd ff hh

(D)  kk mm oo qq

Answer: (B)

12.

(A)  X

(B)  P

(C)  D

(D)  I

Answer: (D)

13.

(A)  Pen

(B)  Letter-head

(C)  Paper

(D)  Envelope

Answer: (A)

14.

(A)  Reed

(B)  Pit

(C)  Tab

(D)  Hold

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 15 to 23) A series are given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series-

15. CDF, DEG, EFH ….

(A)  FHG

(B)  EFI

(C)  FGH

(D)  FGI

Answer: (D)

16. ZA, VC, RE, NG, ……., FK

(A)  OH

(B)  KI

(C)  IJ

(D)  JI

Answer: (D)

17. 4, 16, 36, …., 100

(A)  56

(B)  64

(C)  48

(D)  52

Answer: (B)

18. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, …..

(A)  30

(B)  52

(C)  35

(D)  24

Answer: (C)

19. 12, 23, 34, 45, ….., 67, 78, 89

(A)  76

(B)  69

(C)  56

(D)  54

Answer: (C)

20. EAB, GCD, MIJ, ….

(A)  ROP

(B)  QOP

(C)  OKL

(D)  FOP

Answer: (C)

21. ACE, BDF, GIK, ….

(A)  JHM

(B)  HJI

(C)  HJL

(D)  MJH

Answer: (C)

22. WBP, SGM, OLJ, …

(A)  NPH

(B)  KQG

(C)  LPG

(D)  MQG

Answer: (B)

23. DEF, HIJ, MNO, …

(A)  RTV

(B)  SRQ

(C)  RST

(D)  STU

Answer: (D)

24. If 20 + 15 = 24 and 64 + 13 = 42, then 11 + 28 = ?

(A)  33

(B)  36

(C)  31

(D)  34

Answer: (B)

25. In the diagram alongside, AD = 2AB = What is the area of the shaded portion ?

(A)  2d2

(B)  d/2

(C)  d2/2

(D)  d2/4

Answer: (D)

26. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.

Given set : (9, 27, 108)

(A)  (15, 45, 90)

(B)  (8, 32, 96)

(C)  (5, 15, 75)

(D)  (11, 33, 132)

Answer: (D)

27. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two. Which one of the following alternatives observes this rule?

(A)  UROLIF

(B)  WTQNKJ

(C)  SPMLI

(D)  TSPNKH

Answer: (A)

28. Choose the synonym for the given word from the given options.

‘Exposition’

(A)  Examination

(B)  Expression

(C)  Elucidation

(D)  Revelation

Answer: (D)

29. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain principle. On the same basis, find the correct answer from among the alternatives given.

27(18)3; 216(180)6; 729(?)9

(A)  810

(B)  700

(C)  81

(D)  648

Answer: (C)

30. Karan facing towards South moved straight 2 km and from there, turned to his right 90° and travelled 2 km. Then, he took a 45° turn to his left and travelled 1 km. Where would he be now with respect to the starting point?

(A)  North West region

(B)  South West region

(C)  South region

(D)  South East region

Answer: (B)

31. Reena walks 4 km East and then cycles 10 km North, turns to the left and covers 4 km and once again turns to the North and moves 2 km. How far is she from the starting point?

(A)  10 km

(B)  14 km

(C)  8 km

(D)  12 km

Answer: (D)

32. Laxmi started walking Southwards and after covering a distance of 30 m, she turned left. She walked 25 meters, and turned to the left and again walked 30 meters. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?

(A)  20 m West

(B)  25 m West

(C)  25 m East

(D)  30 m East

Answer: (C)

33. In a certain code, ‘CAPITAL’ is written as ‘CPATILA’. How is ‘PERSONS’ written in that code?

(A)  PSONRES

(B)  PONSRES

(C)  PESONRS

(D)  PREOSSN

Answer: (D)

34. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you encode ACCEPT?

(A)  455978

(B)  735961

(C)  554978

(D)  547978

Answer: (A)

35. In the following problem :-

= Stand for ÷

+ stands for –

× stands for =

− stands for >

> stands for +

< stands for ×

÷ stands for <

When these new symbols are substituted, only one will be correct. Identify the correct equation-

(A)  24 = 4 > 5 × 17 + 13

(B)  24 = 4 + 2 × 17 + 13

(C)  24 = 4 > 5 × 17 > 13

(D)  24 + 4 = 5 × 17 + 13

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 36) Two statements are followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, definitely follows from the given statements.

36. Statements:

(1) Parental role in the education of their children is very significant.

(2) All parents must realize this.

Conclusions:

(I) Parentless children cannot develop to their maximum potential.

(II) Parents can help their children in their education.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(B)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Only conclusion I follows

(D)  Only conclusion II follows

Answer: (D)

37. Find out the number which does not belong to the group of ABCD-

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 38 to 40) Select the missing number from the given responses-

38.

5            7          4          39

6             9          5          59

7             11        ?          83

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

39.

8             16        10

2             8          5

4             ?          9

8             5          9

(A)  2

(B)  5

(C)  4

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

40.

8             (14)      15

13           (18)      22

25           (?)        41

(A)  33

(B)  42

(C)  14

(D)  36

Answer: (D)

Directions0(Q. 41) Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

41. 

Answer: (A)

42. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given figures, when the mirror is held as shown?

Answer: (A)

43. A word is represented by only one set of numbers is given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the 2 matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next column number. e.g., ‘F’ can be represented by 14, 21 etc. ‘S’ can be represented by 58, 96 etc. similarly, identify the word TRIP.

(A)  78, 76, 21, 76

(B)  59, 57, 41, 56

(C)  85, 88, 33, 89

(D)  66, 69, 40, 69

Answer: (B)

44. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden-

Answer: (A)

45. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the figure. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?

Answer: (C)

46. If a person has intelligence, character and position, which figure represents all of these?

Answer: (A)

47. How many squares are there in a given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  13

(C)  10

(D)  11

Answer: (A)

48. Which figure represents the relationship among Hockey players, Rubber balls, Poets?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  2

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

49. In the question, one part of the problem figure is subtracted. Select the option that shows the correct shape after subtraction-

Answer: (A)

50. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in question figure have been cut-

Answer: (B)

Part-B

General Knowledge & General Awareness

51. There is no selling cost under-

(A)  Oligopoly

(B)  Duopoly

(C)  Perfect competition

(D)  Monopolistic competition

Answer: (C)

52. Which of the following is not a function of the Exim Bank of India?

(A)  Financing of joint venture in foreign countries

(B)  Loans to Indian parties for contributing to share capital of joint ventures abroad

(C)  Financing of export and import of goods and services

(D)  Inspection of exported goods for quality assurance

Answer: (D)

53. Which of the following systems in independent India goes against the very basis of democracy?

(A)  Party system

(B)  Parliamentary system

(C)  Caste system

(D)  Economic system

Answer: (C)

54. According to Karl Marx, the change in economic system results in inevitable changes in-

(A)  the entire systems

(B)  religious system only

(C)  political system only

(D)  social system only

Answer: (D)

55. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)  The value of commodity depends upon its price.

(B)  The value of commodity is entirely dependent upon the substitutes.

(C)  A commodity will have value if it is wanted by somebody

(D)  A commodity will have value only if it is scarce relative to demand.

Answer: (C)

56. Which of the following formulae could be used for calculating the per capital income of a country?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

57. For controlling inflation, the Central Bank should-

(A)  purchase Government securities in the open market

(B)  lower the reserve ratio of the banks

(C)  sell Government securities in the open market

(D)  lower the bank rate

Answer: (C)

58. Match the medieval travellers with their countries:

List-I

(a) Marco Polo

(b) Ibnbattuta

(c) Antonio Monserrate

(d) Mahmud Wali Balkhi

List-II

(1) Spain

(2) Balkh

(3) Italy

(4) Morocco

(A)  (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-2

(B)  (a)-1; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-4

(C)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-1; (d)-2

(D)  (a)-3; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-2

Answer: (A)

59. Rana Kumbha constructed the Tower of Victory at Chittor to mark his victory over-

(A)  The Khan of Nagaur

(B)  Rao Jodha of Marwar

(C)  Ahmad Shah of Gujarat

(D)  Mahmud Khalji of Malwa

Answer: (D)

60. Match the following

List-I

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) M.A. Jinnah

(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

(d) V.D. Savarkar

List-II

(1) Muslim League

(2) Indian National Congress

(3) Hindu Mahasabha

(4) Liberal Party

(A)  (a)-2; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-3

(B)  (a)-4; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-2

(C)  (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-3

(D)  (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-4

Answer: (C)

61. The Social Forestry Scheme was introduced during-

(A)  Second Five Year Plan

(B)  Sixth Five Year Plan

(C)  Fourth Five Year Plan

(D)  Eighth Five Year Plan

Answer: (D)

62. The model code of conduct for political parties and candidates to be followed during the election is-

(A)  enjoined by the Supreme Court

(B)  agreed through a voluntary agreement among the recognized political parties

(C)  laid down in the Constitution of India

(D)  specified in The Representation of the People Act. 1951

Answer: (D)

63. A citizen can directly move the Supreme Court for any violation of Fundamental Rights under-

(A)  Article 33

(B)  Article 34

(C)  Article 31

(D)  Article 32

Answer: (D)

64. Which one of the following sitting Vice-Presidents of India contested for the post of President and lost the election?

(A)  S. Radhakrishnan

(B)  V. V. Giri

(C)  Bhairon Singh Shekhawat

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (C)

65. The French challenges to British in India came to an end with-

(A)  Battle of Plassey

(B)  Battle of Buxar

(C)  Battle of Wandiwash

(D)  Battle of Srirangapattnam

Answer: (C)

66. Identify the medical trio of ancient India from the following names-

(A)  Charaka, Susruta and Bharata

(B)  Charaka, Susruta and Patanjali

(C)  Charaka Susruta and Vagbhata

(D)  Charaka, Vatsyayana and Vagbhata

Answer: (C)

67. Vegetation is effective in absorbing-

(A)  High frequency sound

(B)  Pollutant metals

(C)  Pollutant gases

(D)  Polluted water

Answer: (C)

68. When a person cries, there is a watery discharge from the nose due to activation of-

(A)  Thyroid gland

(B)  Endocrine gland

(C)  Salivary gland

(D)  Lachrymal gland

Answer: (B)

69. The fundamental role of root hairs in plants is-

(A)  to absorb water and mineral salts from the soil

(B)  to bind soil particles to the root for firm fixation of the plant

(C)  to protect the  young root from damage by coarse soil particles

(D)  to protect the root from soil microbes

Answer: (A)

70. Catch crops are-

(A)  crops to be cut and fed green to the cattle

(B)  substitute crops planted after the regular crop has failed

(C)  crops planted to attract certain insect pests to be destroyed

(D)  crops planted to attract certain useful insects to be used for biological control of pests

Answer: (B)

71. Which one of the following acts as a mediator between the user’s program and the hardware-

(A)  Operating System

(B)  Browser

(C)  Compiler

(D)  Editor

Answer: (A)

72. The project similar to T.V.A. (Tennessee Valley Authority) of U.S.A. in India is-

(A)  Ramganga Multipurpose Project

(B)  Idukki Project

(C)  Damodar Valley Project

(D)  Mahanadi Delta Project

Answer: (C)

73. Petrology is the study of-

(A)  earth

(B)  minerals

(C)  rocks

(D)  soils

Answer: (C)

74. Match the Following:

List-I                                          List-II

(a) Rosewood                             1. Mangrove forests

(b) Bushes                                  2. Alpine Forests

(c) Birch                                     3. Deciduous forests

(d) Sundari tree                         4. Dry forests

(A)  (a)-1; (b)-2; (c)-3; (d)-4

(B)  (a)-2; (b)-3; (c)-4; (d)-1

(C)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-1

(D)  (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-2; (d)-1

Answer: (D)

75. During the period of South-West monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains dry because-

(A)  it lies in the rain-shadow area

(B)  the temperature is too  high to let the winds cool down

(C)  the winds do not reach this area

(D)  there are no mountains in this area

Answer: (C)

76. The red colour of ripe tomatoes is due to the presence of-

(A)  Chlorophyll

(B)  Carotenoids

(C)  Hormones

(D)  Vitamins

Answer: (B)

77. Anticoagulants are not present in-

(A)  Leech

(B)  Wasp

(C)  Mosquito

(D)  Bed bug

Answer: (B)

78. To eliminate the glare of headlights in motor cars-

(A)  thin films are used

(B)  filters are used

(C)  polaroids are used

(D)  glass prisms are used

Answer: (C)

79. The substances which have infinite electrical resistance are called-

(A)  conductors

(B)  resistors

(C)  insulators

(D)  condensers

Answer: (C)

80. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is located at-

(A)  Vienna

(B)  Sydney

(C)  Geneva

(D)  Washington

Answer: (A)

81. If you use a font that is not supported by a browser, then the text-

(A)  will be displayed using ‘ARIAL’ font only

(B)  will be displayed with a particular background

(C)  will be displayed in the default font

(D)  will not be displayed

Answer: (C)

82. The pigment that protects plants from UV damage is-

(A)  Phycocyanin

(B)  Carotenoids

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Xanthophyll

Answer: (D)

83. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development is called-

(A)  Air Summit

(B)  Resource Summit

(C)  Earth Summit

(D)  Water Summit

Answer: (C)

84. A bio-energy source obtained by fermentation to supplement fossil fuel petrol is-

(A)  Diesel

(B)  Methane

(C)  Kerosene

(D)  Ethanol

Answer: (D)

85. The substance that causes the worst air pollution is-

(A)  Carbon dioxide

(B)  Carbon monoxide

(C)  Smoke

(D)  Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (C)

86. A liquid is aid to boil when its-

(A)  vapor pressure is greater than the surrounding pressure

(B)  vapour pressure is less than the surrounding pressure

(C)  vapour pressure equal the surrounding pressure

(D)  vapour pressure vanishes to zero

Answer: (C)

87. Which is not correct regarding covalent compounds?

(A)  Compounds are usually liquids and gases

(B)  Boiling points and melting points are low

(C)  The reaction is slow

(D)  The reaction is fast

Answer: (D)

88. Choose the correct statement-

(A)  Mixtures are homogeneous

(B)  In a mixture the components are present in a fixed ratio

(C)  The components of a mixture cannot be separated

(D)  Chemical properties of a mixture are the same as those of its components

Answer: (D)

89. PVC is obtained from-

(A)  Styrene

(B)  Acetylene

(C)  Propene

(D)  Polyvinyl Chloride

Answer: (D)

90. What is the name of the first research station established by India in the Antarctica?

(A)  Agnihotri

(B)  Aryabhatta

(C)  Dakshin Gangotri

(D)  Maitri

Answer: (C)

91. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2011 for his exceptional and distinguished service in the field of trade and industry?

(A)  S. Gopalakrishnan

(B)  Mecca Rafeeque Ahmed

(C)  Azim Premji

(D)  Ratan  Tata

Answer: (C)

92. The five permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are-

(A)  China, Germany, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.

(B)  China, Germany, U.S.A. U.K. and Canada

(C)  China, France, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.

(D)  China, Canada, France, U.S.A. and Germany

Answer: (C)

93. Which of the following is not correctly paired?

(A)  Harbhajan Singh – Kabaddi

(B)  Saina Nehwal – Badminton

(C)  Jwala Gutta – Tennis

(D)  Virat Kohli – Cricket

Answer: (A)

94. Which of the following States has the largest gap in the male and female literacy as per 2011 Census (provisional data)?

(A)  Rajasthan

(B)  Kerala

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (A)

95. Stainless steel is an alloy of-

(A)  iron, carbon and zinc

(B)  iron, zinc and manganese

(C)  iron, chromium and nickel

(D)  iron, chromium and carbon

Answer: (D)

96. Enriched uranium used in a nuclear reactor is-

(A)  uranium alloyed with aluminium

(B)  uranium with a high percentage of a particular isotope

(C)  uranium free of all impurities

(D)  235U

Answer: (D)

97. In a refrigerator, cooling is produced by-

(A)  the sudden expansion of a compressed gas

(B)  the evaporation of a volatile liquid

(C)  the ice which deposite in the freezer

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

98. The first woman to conquer Mount Everest twice is-

(A)  Santosh Yadav

(B)  Suma Shirur

(C)  Surja Lata Devi

(D)  Jyoti Randhawa

Answer: (A)

99. Which one of the following iron and steel works in India is not under public sector?

(A)  Bhilai

(B)  Durgapur

(C)  Bokaro

(D)  Jamshedpur

Answer: (D)

100. Which Indian hockey player has a road named after him in Germany?

(A)  Roop Singh

(B)  Dhanraj Pillai

(C)  Dhyan Chand

(D)  Zafar Iqbal

Answer: (C)

Part-C

Quantitative Aptitude

101. In a fort, there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?

(A)  4 days

(B)  12 days

(C)  10 days

(D)  6 days

Answer: (D)

102. Equal amounts of water were poured into two empty jars of different capacities, which made one jar 1/4 full and the other jar 1/3 full. If the water in the jar with lesser capacity is then poured into the jar with greater capacity, then the part of the larger jar filled with water is-

(A)  1/4

(B)  1/3

(C)  1/2

(D)  7/12

Answer: (C)

103. A bookseller makes 8% profit after selling the book at 10% discount. The ratio of the cost price to the marked price is-

(A)  5 : 6

(B)  6 : 5

(C)  4 : 5

(D)  5 : 4

Answer: (A)

104. A certain sum of money is distributed to A and B in the ratio 2:5. If A received Rs 100, then the money received by B is-

(A)  Rs 250

(B)  Rs 300

(C)  Rs 200

(D)  Rs 150

Answer: (A)

105. Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my present age?

(A)  26 years

(B)  24 years

(C)  25 years

(D)  27 years

Answer: (A)

106. What is the value of 

(A)  92.51

(B)  0.9251

(C)  0.9261

(D)  92.61

Answer: (C)

107. The greatest number that can divide 140, 176, 264 leaving remainders of 4, 6 and 9 respectively is-

(A)  17

(B)  2

(C)  85

(D)  34

Answer: (A)

108. There are 4 terms in an A.P. such that the sum of two means is 110 and product of their extremes is 2125. The 3rd term is-

(A)  55

(B)  45

(C)  65

(D)  75

Answer: (C)

109. The value of  is-

(A)  106

(B)  136

(C)  116

(D)  126

Answer: (D)

110. If 10 men or 18 boys can do a work in 15 days, then the number of days required by 15 men and 33 boys to do twice the work is-

(A)  9

(B)  36

(C) 

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

111. A man walks a certain distance and rides back taking a total time of 37 minutes. He could walk both ways in 55 minutes. How long would he take to ride both ways?

(A)  19 minutes

(B)  20 minutes

(C)  9.5 minutes

(D)  18 minutes

Answer: (A)

112. Mahesh starts work as a sales representative on an annual salary of Rs 1,60,000. If he receives a 15% pay-rise each year, the number of years he has worked for the company, ,when his annual salary became Rs 2,79,841 is-

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

113. The base of a triangle is 2 cm more than twice its altitude. If the area is 12 sq. cm, its altitude will be-

(A)  4 cm

(B)  3 cm

(C)  6 cm

(D)  5 cm

Answer: (B)

114. A man leaves Rs 12,600 to be divided among 7 sons, 3 daughters and 5 nephews. If each daughter receives there times as much as each nephew and each son seven times as much as each nephew, then each daughter’s share is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 750

(C)  Rs 700

(D)  Rs 650

Answer: (A)

115. The average of three numbers 70, *7 and 5* is 57. If * represents the same digit, then it must be-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  6

Answer: (A)

116. Three years ago, the average of a family of 8 members was 30 years. If one child is also included in the family, the present average age of the family remained the same. Then the present age of the child is-

(A)  6 years

(B)  1 year

(C)  3 years

(D)  4 years

Answer: (A)

117. By selling an article for Rs 21,000, a man gains 5%. To get a profit of 15%, he has to sell it for-

(A)  Rs 23,000

(B)  Rs 25,000

(C)  Rs 19,800

(D)  Rs 20,700

Answer: (A)

118. Rahul bought two cycles for a total sum of Rs 1,500. He sold one cycle at 20% loss and the other cycle at 20% gain. If the selling price of both the cycles is the same, find the cost piece of the two cycles.

(A)  Rs 750 each

(B)  Rs 550, Rs 950

(C)  Rs 500, Rs 1,000

(D)  Rs 600, Rs 900

Answer: (D)

119. The salary of an employee increases every year in the month of July by 10%. If his salary in May 2000 was Rs 15,000, his salary in October 2001 was-

(A)  Rs 18,150

(B)  Rs 19,965

(C)  Rs 16,500

(D)  Rs 18,000

Answer: (A)

120. 72% of the students of a certain class took Biology and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Biology or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class was-

(A)  250

(B)  320

(C)  200

(D)  230

Answer: (A)

121. If the volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the numerical value of the radius of the sphere is-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

122. If   then the value of   is-

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

123. Minimum value of  is-

(A)  0

(B)  −1

(C)  −3

(D)  −2

Answer: (C)

124. If a + b = 5, a2 + b2 = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is-

(A)  1

(B)  −2

(C)  2

(D)  −1

Answer: (A)

125. If (3x – y) : (x + 5y) = 5 : 7, then the value of (x + y) : (x – y) is-

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  3 : 2

(C)  3 : 1

(D)  1 : 3

Answer: (C)

126. The line passing through the points (−2, 8) and (5, 7)-

(A)  Cuts y-axis only

(B)  Cuts both the axes

(C)  Does not cut any axes

(D)  Cut x-axis only

Answer: (B)

127. In ∆ ABC, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 40°, If AD bisects ∠BAC and AE ⊥ BC, then ∠EAD is-

(A)  10°

(B)  20°

(C)  40°

(D)  80°

Answer: (A)

128. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 64 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 13.2 cm and CM = 16.8 cm. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD in square centimeter is-

(A)  422.4

(B)  690.0

(C)  537.6

(D)  960.0

Answer: (D)

129. The area of a semi-circular field is 308 sq. m; taken taking π = 22/7, the length of the railing to surround it has to be-

(A)  88 m

(B)  80 m

(C)  44 m

(D)  72 m

Answer: (D)

130. Volume of a right circular cone is numerically equal to its slant surface area. Then value of  where h and r are height and radius of the cone respectively, is-

(A)  4 units

(B)  1/4 unit

(C)  9 units

(D)  1/9 unit

Answer: (D)

131. If the numerical value of volume of a right circular cylinder and its curved surface area are equal, then its radius is-

(A)  3 units

(B)  6 units

(C)  2 units

(D)  4 units

Answer: (C)

132. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side 2 feet. The area, in square feet, of the rectangle BCEF is-

(A)  8

(B)  4 + 4√3

(C)  4

(D)  4√3

Answer: (D)

133. If in ∆ ABC, ∠A = 90°, BC = a, AC = b and AB = c, then the value of tan B + tan C is-

(A)  a2/ab

(B) 

(C)  b2/ac

(D)  a2/bc

Answer: (D)

134. A ladder is resting against a wall at a height of 10 m. If the ladder is inclined with the ground at an angle of 30°, then the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall is-

(A)  10/√3 m

(B)  20/√3 m

(C)  10√3 m

(D)  20√3 m

Answer: (C)

135. tan 7° tan 23° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83° is equal to-

(A)  0

(B)  √3

(C)  1/√3

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

136. The value of (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) is-

(A)  1

(B)  3/2

(C)  2

(D)  0

Answer: (A)

137. In the figure below, if AB || CD and CE ⊥ ED, then the value of x is-

(A)  53

(B)  63

(C)  37

(D)  45

Answer: (A)

138. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre O where the points A and B are the points of contact. The quadrilateral OAPB must be-

(A)  A rectangle

(B)  A rhombus

(C)  A square

(D)  Cyclic

Answer: (D)

139. G is the centroid of ∆ If AG = BC, then ∠BGC is-

(A)  90°

(B)  30°

(C)  60°

(D)  120°

Answer: (A)

140. In the following figure, if OA = 10 and AC = 16, then OB must be-

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (B)

141. The graph f y = x + |x| is given by-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

142. The equation of this graph is-

(A)  y = x

(B)  y = 3x

(C)  y = −x

(D)  y = −3x

Answer: (B)

143. If tan(θ1 + θ2) = √3, and sec(θ1 – θ2) = 2/√3, then the value of sin 2θ1 + tan 3θ2 is equal to-

(assume that 0 < θ1 – θ2 < θ1 + θ2 < 90°)

(A)  0

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

144. The area of the shaded region in the following graph is-

(A)  6 units

(B)  8 units

(C)  2 units

(D)  4 units

Answer: (D)

145. The shaded region represents-

(A)  y ≥ x

(B)  y ≤ −x

(C)  y ≤ x

(D)  y ≥ −x

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 146-150) The pie-chart given below shows the distribution of workforce by occupational category for country X in 1981 and 1995. Study the chart and answer the questions.

146. The increase in the number of Clerical workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 (in millions) is-

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.25

(C)  0.75

(D)  1.5

Answer: (D)

147. The percentage decrease in the number of Blue-Collar workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 is-

(A)  20

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  35

Answer: (B)

148. In 1981, the number of Service workers in the workforce, in millions, was-

(A)  22.5

(B)  28.0

(C)  15.0

(D)  20.5

Answer: (A)

  1. In 1981, the number of categories which comprised of more than 25 million workers each, is-

(A)  Four

(B)  Five

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

Answer: (D)

150. The ratio of the number of workers in the Professional category in 1981 to the number of such workers in 1995 is-

(A)  9 : 14

(B)  14 : 9

(C)  4 : 9

(D)  5 : 14

Answer: (A)

Part-D

English Comprehension

   Directions-(Q. 151-155) Some parts of the sentence have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to letter (D) in the Answer Sheet.

151. The concentration of human and material resources at a few centres (A)/ have resulted in (B)/ large scale migration of rural population to urban areas. (C)/ No Error (D)

Answer: (B)

152. Who wouldn’t be triumphant (A)/ in their success (B)/ at the examination ? (C)/ No Error (D)

Answer: (B)

153. I dared (A)/ Mohan fights (B)/ a duel. (C)/ No Error (D)

Answer: (B)

154. All of you except Sheena (A)/ have done the homework (B)/ properly. (C)/ No Error (D)

Answer: (D)

155. The summit began (A)/ on a much voiced (B)/ optimism note. (C)/ No Error (D)

Answer: (B)

Directions-(Q. 156 to 160) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

156. Many modern methods of agriculture ……… thousands of years ago.

(A)  sprang

(B)  started

(C)  began

(D)  originated

Answer: (C)

157. He is utterly ……… at the end of the day.

(A)  worn away

(B)  worn on

(C)  worn through

(D)  worn out

Answer: (D)

158. People should refrain ………. Evil deeds.

(A)  from doing

(B)  doing

(C)  to do

(D)  in doing

Answer: (A)

159. A rare audio tape released by the court at the end of the hearing showed many judges asking ………… they should intervene at all.

(A)  in only

(B)  only if

(C)  weather

(D)  whether

Answer: (D)

160. Rita ……….. her home work yet.

(A)  has not done

(B)  will not do

(C)  does not do

(D)  did not do

Answer: (A)

Directions(Q. 161 to 165) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the MEANING of the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

161. Clandestinely

(A)  secretly

(B)  openly

(C)  financially

(D)  systematically

Answer: (A)

162. Periphery

(A)  circle

(B)  boundary

(C)  edge

(D)  terminus

Answer: (B)

163. Exonerate

(A)  absolve

(B)  execute

(C)  negate

(D)  charge

Answer: (A)

164. Exquisite

(A)  exact

(B)  wonderful

(C)  quizzical

(D)  exciting

Answer: (B)

165. Comprehensive

(A)  adhesive

(B)  expensive

(C)  alternative

(D)  inclusive

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 166-170) Choose the word OPPOSITE in MEANING to the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

166. Precedence

(A)  subordination

(B)  seclusion

(C)  succession

(D)  supersession

Answer: (C)

167. Misdemeanour

(A)  adventure

(B)  cowardice

(C)  humility

(D)  courtesy

Answer: (D)

168. Nibble

(A)  swallow

(B)  munch

(C)  devour

(D)  consume

Answer: (A)

169. Jeopardy

(A)  pleasure

(B)  stability

(C)  safety

(D)  comfort

Answer: (C)

170. Hindrance

(A)  assistance

(B)  authorization

(C)  approval

(D)  approbation

Answer: (A)

Directions-(Q. 171-175) Four alternative are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best EXPRESSES the MEANING of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

171. Suman held court with the studio audience.

(A)  tried to please to gain support

(B)  entertained with interesting funny stories

(C)  took to the court of law

(D)  had a formal discussion with

Answer: (B)

172. Ravi wants to blaze a trail in his activities.

(A)  be supported

(B)  be the centre of attraction

(C)  initiate work and be a pioneer

(D)  blow the trumpet

Answer: (C)

173. Their friendship lasted without a cloud to the end of his life.

(A)  without concealment

(B)  without stigma

(C)  without trouble

(D)  without romance

Answer: (B)

174. She took a wrong decision by not marrying this gentleman. She doesn’t know that beauty is only skin deep.

(A)  physical charm is important

(B)  internal beauty is not important

(C)  physical touch is not important

(D)  physical beauty is not important

Answer: (D)

175. The officials played ducks and drakes with the public money.

(A)  spent

(B)  preserved

(C)  collected

(D)  squandered

Answer: (D)

Directions-(Q. 176-180) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,  your answer is letter (D)

176. He won’t hear you provided you shout.

(A)  in case

(B)  as long as

(C)  unless

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

177. The ship is at the anchor and the sailors are not at ease.

(A)  at an anchor

(B)  at its anchor

(C)  at anchor

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

178. The objected to the plan on the grounds that it was too expensive.

(A)  declined

(B)  disagreed

(C)  refused

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (D)

179. Very little rice was found in the pot after all the guests had eaten.

(A)  remained

(B)  was cooked

(C)  stored

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

180. The policeman captured the first car that approached and ordered the driver to take the injured child to the hospital.

(A)  commandeered

(B)  interrupted

(C)  caught

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 181-185) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

181. A study of words and the way words develop-

(A)  Phraseology

(B)  Phonography

(C)  Philology

(D)  Phonology

Answer: (A)

182. Something which is not in harmony-

(A)  Cacophonous

(B)  Noisy

(C)  Smooth

(D)  Quiet

Answer: (A)

183. A list of books-

(A)  Catalogue

(B)  Index

(C)  Anthology

(D)  Glossary

Answer: (A)

184. Man with womanly habits and manners-

(A)  Effeminate

(B)  Gay

(C)  Bovine

(D)  Suave

Answer: (A)

185. Something unusual or strange, having peculiar notions-

(A)  Whimsical

(B)  Aggressive

(C)  Dramatic

(D)  Reasonable

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 186-190) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

186. 

(A)  flabbergast

(B)  flabbergust

(C)  flabergast

(D)  flabergust

Answer: (A)

187.

(A)  holocost

(B)  halocaust

(C)  holocaust

(D)  holocast

Answer: (C)

188.

(A)  revarential

(B)  reverentiel

(C)  reverantial

(D)  reverential

Answer: (D)

189.

(A)  metikyulus

(B)  meticulus

(C)  meteculous

(D)  meticulous

Answer: (D)

190.

(A)  suvenir

(B)  souviener

(C)  souvenir

(D)  suvenire

Answer: (C)

Directions-(Q. 191-200) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

   The League of Nations was (191) in 1919. It became ineffective and the UNO began to (192) from October 24th, 1945. The Second World War (193) in 1939s. It caused great (194) to human lives and property. As a (195) of use of atom bombs, many people were (196) and many others became (197). The world leaders feared that another world war would (198) the entire world. It was a question of the (199) of mankind. To ensure peace and (200) the world leaders established a world organization, the UNO.

191. 

(A)  made

(B)  opened

(C)  created

(D)  formed

Answer: (D)

192.

(A)  function

(B)  commence

(C)  start

(D)  operate

Answer: (A)

193.

(A)  broke into

(B)  broke up

(C)  broke in

(D)  broke out

Answer: (A)

194.

(A)  loss

(B)  disturbance

(C)  wastage

(D)  calamity

Answer: (A)

195.

(A)  reason

(B)  matter

(C)  result

(D)  cause

Answer: (C)

196.

(A)  mutilated

(B)  disabled

(C)  destroyed

(D)  killed

Answer: (D)

197.

(A)  unfit

(B)  handicapped

(C)  disabled

(D)  disadvantaged

Answer: (C)

198.

(A)  jeopardize

(B)  destroy

(C)  perish

(D)  demolish

Answer: (A)

199.

(A)  presence

(B)  existence

(C)  continuity

(D)  survival

Answer: (B)

200.

(A)  safety

(B)  order

(C)  tranquility

(D)  security

Answer: (D)

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