SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2017 Paper-I Solved Papers
Part-A
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Directions-(Q. 1-6) Find the odd word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives
1.
(A) Yacht
(B) Submarine
(C) Boat
(D) Ship
2.
(A) Autobiography
(B) Trapezium
(C) Cylinder
(D) Parallelogram
3.
(A) Square
(B) Trapezium
(C) Cylinder
(D) Parallelogram
4.
(A) 42 : 4
(B) 48 : 6
(C) 32 : 2
(D) 15 : 5
5.
(A) Year 2012
(B) Year 1998
(C) Year 2005
(D) Year 1997
6.
(A) MIGE
(B) XTQO
(C) RNKI
(D) HDAY
7. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-
(1) Euphrasy (2) Eupepsy
(3) Euphonic (4) Eugenic
(5) Euphony
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(C) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
(D) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
8. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(1) Absorption (2) Digestion
(3) Nutrition (4) Excretion
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 2,1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
9. Four villages A, B, C and D lie in a straight line. D is 10 km from B. A is exactly between D and C and C from B is 2 km more than it is from D. How far is C from B?
(A) 4 km
(B) 6 km
(C) 8 km
(D) 2 km
10. Select the alternative inference which is most appropriate.
“All professors are learned; learned people are always gentle.”
Inference : All professors are gentle persons.
(A) The inference is true
(B) The inference is false
(C) The inference is probably true or probably false
(D) The inference is irrelevant
11. Statement is given followed by two inferences I and Ii. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statements: “Electric supply in Anand Colony will be tomorrow after 12 O’clock for three hours because repairing work will be carried out.”
Inferences : (I) Residents of Anand Colony may use their electrical appliances before 12 O’clock tomorrow.
(II) Residents of Anand Colony need training for using electricity economically.
(A) Only inference I follows
(B) Only inference II follows
(C) Both the inferences follow
(D) None of the inferences follows
12. Anand travels 10 km from his home to the east to reach his school. Then he travels 5 km to the south to reach his father’s shop, after school. He then travels 10 km to the west to help his uncle. How far and in which direction is he from his home?
(A) 10 km North
(B) 5 km South
(C) 5 km East
(D) 10 km West
13.
14.
15. Which of the following answer figures cannot occur when the question figure given below is rotated?
Directions-(Q. 16 and 17) Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relation between given classes?
16. Humans, Birds, Animals
17. Fruits, Apples, Oranges
18. In the diagram given below which letter(s) represents the students who play Cricket as well as Football and Hockey?
(A) S + T + U
(B) V
(C) S
(D) P + R + U
Directions (Q. 19 and 20) Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
19.
20.
21. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
22. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
23. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
24. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and 2 to 6 respectively and that of Matrix II are numbered from 2 to 6 and 7 to 0 respectively. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘H’ can be represented by 04, 25, 32 etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 21, 40, 59, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word given below :
(A) 23, 27, 15, 61
(B) 16, 38, 15, 32
(C) 34, 31, 32, 28
(D) 45, 50, 36, 29
Directions-(Q. 25 and 26) The given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
25. INSTITUTIONALISE
(A) NUTRITION
(B) INTUTION
(C) TUITION
(D) INSULATION
26. STIMULATION
(A) STATION
(B) NATION
(C) MOTION
(D) MOUTH
27. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then how ELEPHANT be coded in that code language?
(A) LEPEHATN
(B) LEPEAHTN
(C) LEEPAHTN
(D) LEPEAHNT
28. If MONKO is coded as 57637, then how KLJMN be coded in the same code?
(A) 32456
(B) 34256
(C) 35156
(D) 32546
29. In a certain code, TRIPLE is written as SQHOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
(A) CHRONRD
(B) DSOESPI
(C) ESJTPTF
(D) ESOPSID
30. Which letter in the word ‘Vertex’ should be changed to mean spiral movement?
(A) 1st
(B) 2nd
(C) 4th
(D) Last
31. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the equation correct?
8 × 6 + 2 = 22
(A) +, ×, 2 and 6
(B) +, ×, 2 and 8
(C) +, ×, 6 and 8
(D) +, ×, 2 and 22
Directions-(Q. 32-35) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
32. DHK, GKN, JNQ, ?
(A) MRU
(B) MQT
(C) LPS
(D) NRU
33. 1, 5, 25, 125, ?, ?, ?
(A) 245, 485, 965
(B) 225, 325, 425
(C) 625, 3225, 15605
(D) 625, 3125, 15625
34. 0, ?, 8, 27, 64, 125.
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
35. BMX, DNW, FOU, ?
(A) GHO
(B) GPS
(C) HPS
(D) HPT
36. If a number is greater than 5 but less than 9 and greater than 7 but less than 11, the number is-
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
37. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal distance from each other. The distance between 1st and 25th tree is 30 m. What is the distance between 3rd and 15th tree?
(A) 8 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 16 m
(D) 18 m
38. In a class composed of x girls y boys what part of the class is composed of girls?
(A) y(x + y)
(B) x/xy
(C) x/(x+y)
(D) y/xy
39. If ‘−’ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for division, then which one of the following equation is correct?
(A) 50 × 5 ÷ 2 – 30 + 25 = 25
(B) 50 – 30 + 5 ÷ 2 × 30 = 25
(C) 40 + 35 × 2 – 50 ÷ 30 = 95
(D) 30 × 2 – 25 + 50 ÷ 5 = 100
Directions – (Q. 40 and 41) Some questions are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.
40. 2 × 4 × 6 = 4; 9 × 3 × 7 = 13;
4 × 7 × 6 = 3; 9 × 7 × 8 = ?
(A) 10
(B) 09
(C) 08
(D) 07
41. 3 × 5 × 7 × 2 = 24, 2× 4 × 6 × 8 = 22, 4 × 4 × 8 × 9 = ?
(A) 33
(B) 25
(C) 144
(D) 1152
Directions-(Q. 42-44) Find the missing number from the given responses.
42.
7 8 5
6 9 ?
2 3 6
84 216 900
(A) 90
(B) 70
(C) 65
(D) 30
43.
2 3 4 ?
3 1 4 2
4 2 2 6
5 5 2 2
196 121 144 225
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3
44.
96 ? 168
32 48 56
16 24 28
(A) 52
(B) 144
(C) 64
(D) 38
Directions-(Q. 45-50) Select the related word/letter/numbers from the given alternatives.
45. Macabre : Lovely : : Baneful : ?
(A) Unharmful
(B) Churlish
(C) Filter
(D) Ugly
46. AYRRJC : CATTLE : NCPDCAR : ?
(A) SUBJECT
(B) NEGLECT
(C) PERFECT
(D) OPERATE
47. SOCIAL : OCIALS : DRIVEN : ?
(A) VENRID
(B) NEVIRD
(C) RIVEND
(D) VIREND
48. 
(A) 128
(B) 126
(C) 144
(D) 132
49. 29 : 71 : : 79 : ?
(A) 120
(B) 192
(C) 197
(D) 131
50. Embarrassed : Humiliated :: Frightened : ?
(A) Terrified
(B) Agitated
(C) Courageous
(D) Reckless
Part-B
General Awareness
51. When is International ‘Yoga Divas’ is celebrated ?
(A) 21st June
(B) 25th April
(C) 21st May
(D) 21 July
52. Cyanide poisoning causes death in seconds because-
(A) It breaks the electron transport chain
(B) It denatures enzymes of the heart/muscle
(C) It causes cardiac arrest
(D) It causes Lysis of red blood cells
53. Who Directed the film on the dacoit queen Phoolan Devi?
(A) Shashi Kapoor
(B) Shekhar Kapoor
(C) Abbas Mastan
(D) Anil Kapoor
54. In which year did Dad Saheb Phalke produce the first Feature film?
(A) 1911
(B) 1910
(C) 1912
(D) 1913
55. The earth completes one rotation on its axis in-
(A) 23 hrs. 56 min. 4.9 sec.
(B) 23 hrs. 10min. 2 sec
(C) 24 hrs.
(D) 23 hrs. 30 min.
56. The technology used in the electronic printer is called-
(A) Micro encapsulation
(B) Micro technology
(C) Micro array
(D) Micro millimetric
57. For a missile launched with a velocity less than the earth’s escape velocity, the total energy is-
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Either positive or negative
(D) Zero
58. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystem in the order of decreasing productivity-
(A) Mangroves, oceans, grassland, lakes
(B) Oceans, lakes, grassland, mangroves
(C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grassland
59. The classical Dance of Andhra Pradesh is-
(A) Kathakali
(B) Odissi
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Kuchipudi
60. The Mediterranean region are characterized by heavy rain in-
(A) Spring
(B) Autumn
(C) Winter
(D) Summer
61. Which was the first hydel power project in India?
(A) Siva Samudram in Karnataka
(B) Nizamnagar in Andhra Pradesh
(C) Paikara in Tamilnadu
(D) Palli vassal in Kerala
62. Molybdenum deficiency affects the activity of-
(A) Nitrogenase
(B) Chlorate reductase
(C) Nitrate reductase
(D) All of the given options
63. Autocracy means-
(A) Absolute rule by one
(B) Rule by few
(C) Rule by the representatives of the People
(D) Rule by King
64. Waksman go the Noble prize for the discovery of-
(A) Streptomycin
(B) Chloromycetin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Neomycin
65. Spring tides occur on-
(A) New moon day only
(B) Full moon day only
(C) The day when the moon’s position is in its first
(D) Full moon days as well as on new moon day
66. What is the fascist view of state?
(A) Nation state is unquestionably sovereign
(B) State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of few
(C) State is under the control of a king
(D) State enhances the ideal of individualism
67. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India-
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) Arsenic (2) Sorbitol (3) Fluoride (4) Formaldehyde (5) Uranium
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3 and 5
68. Who is considered founder of the Gupta Empire?
(A) Chandra Gupta
(B) Srigupta
(C) Samudra Gupta
(D) Chandra Gupta II
69. When one gene pair hides the effect of the other unit, the phenomenon is referred to as-
(A) Mutation
(B) Epistasis
(C) Dominance
(D) None of the options
70. State Bank of India was previously known as-
(A) Canara Bank
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Syndicate Bank
(D) Co-operative Bank of India
71. “Don’t Laugh : We are Police”, This book was compiled by-
(A) K.P.S. Gill D.G.P.
(B) Bishan Lal Vohra I.G.P.
(C) Shanti Swaroop I.G. Police
(D) None of the options
72. Indian first talkie film produced in 1931 was-
(A) Almara
(B) Indra Sabha
(C) Shakuntala
(D) Neel Kamal
73. The name of the upper house of the Indian Parliament is-
(A) Legislative assembly
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) House of Lords
(D) Senate
74. Microbial Type Culture Collection Centre is situated at-
(A) Chandigarh
(B) New Delhi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Bangalore
75. Who discovered the first antibiotic?
(A) Louis Pastour
(B) A Fleming
(C) W Fleming
(D) C Waksman
76. In the grass lands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of-
(A) Water limits and fire
(B) Limited sun light and paucity of nutrients
(C) Insect and fungi
(D) None of the above
77. The business in Stock Market and other securities markets is regulated by-
(A) Stock and Exchange Bank of India
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(C) Sole Trade and Exchange Bank of India
(D) State and exchange Bank of India
78. The Women’s Reservation Bill seeks how much reservation for women in the State assemblies and Lok Sabha?
(A) 30%
(B) 36%
(C) 25%
(D) 33%
79. The oldest form of composition of Hindustani vocal music is-
(A) Ghazal
(B) Thumri
(C) Dhrupad
(D) None of these
80. G E F, an international aid- giving agency has the full form-
(A) Global Environment Fund
(B) Global Energy Fund
(C) Global Economic Fund
(D) Global Educational Fund
81. On 2nd June 2015 a Conference on Make in India-Indigenisation of currency was organized by the department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, govt. of India. Who inaugurated the Conference?
(A) Finance Secretary
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Governor R.B.I.
82. A Fuse wire is characterized by-
(A) Low resistance and high melting point
(B) High resistance and low melting point
(C) Low resistance and low melting point
(D) High resistance and high melting point
83. The ore of Aluminium is-
(A) Hematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Fluorspar
(D) Chalco pyrites
84. Heavy metals got their name because compared to other atoms they have-
(A) Higher atomic masses
(B) Higher denisties
(C) Higher atomic numbers
(D) Higher atomic radii
85. Fascism believes in the application of the principle of-
(A) Dictatorship
(B) Utilitarianism
(C) Democracy
(D) Totalitarianism
86. Raga Kameshwari was composed by-
(A) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(B) Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) None of these
87. The Dynamo converts-
(A) Electrical energy into Mechanical Energy
(B) Mechanical energy into Electrical Energy
(C) Mechanical energy into Magnetic Energy
(D) None of these
88. What is ordinary Law?
(A) Laws made by the common people
(B) Laws made and enforced by the Government
(C) Laws made by the High Court
(D) Laws made by the Supreme Court
89. Photo chemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among-
(A) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
(B) NO2, O3 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight
(C) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(D) CO, O2 and peroxy acetyl nitrate in the presence of Sunlight
90. The father of computer is-
(A) Charles Babbage
(B) Oliver twist
(C) Love lice
(D) Charles Dickens
91. Which of the following costs is related to marginal cost?
(A) Fixed Cost
(B) Implicit Cost
(C) Prime Cost
(D) Variable Cost
92. Laberalism stands for-
(A) A movement & an attitude
(B) Self-emancipation
(C) Freedom in social, political and economic aspects
(D) Religious orthodoxy
93. Mahatma Gandhi began his political activities in India first from-
(A) Kheda
(B) Champaran
(C) Dandi
(D) Sabarmati
94. When a helium atom loses an electron it becomes-
(A) A proton
(B) A positive helium ion
(C) A negative helium ion
(D) An alpha particle
95. The Environment (Protection) Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in-
(A) 1986
(B) 1981
(C) 1984
(D) 1972
96. The Battle of Plassey was fought in year-
(A) 1775
(B) 1757
(C) 1576
(D) 1761
97. Xenobiotics which are inherently resistant to microbial attack are called as-
(A) Biodegradable
(B) Persistent
(C) Recalcitrant
(D) All of the given options
98. PSW stands for-
(A) Program status word
(B) Process status word
(C) Primitive status word
(D) Processor status word
99. Earthquakes are caused by-
(A) Denudation
(B) Earth revolution
(C) Tectonism
(D) Earth rotation
100. The Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest was propounded by-
(A) Adam Smith
(B) David Ricardo
(C) Alfred Marshall
(D) J.M. Keynes
Part-C
Quantitative Aptitude
101. If angle bisector of a triangle bisect the opposite side, then what type of triangle is-
(A) Right angled
(B) Scalene
(C) Similar
(D) Isosceles
102. If x[−2{−4(−a)}] + 5[−2{−2(−a)}] = 4a, then x =
(A) −2
(B) −3
(C) −4
(D) −5
103. A can complete a work in ‘m’ days and B can complete it in ‘n’ days. How many days will it take to complete the work if both A and B work together?
(A) (m + n)days
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
104. Pipe A is an inlet pipe filling the tank at 8000 litre/hr. Pipe B empties the tank in 3 hours. The capacity of the tank is-
(A) 12000 litres
(B) 8000 litres
(C) 6000 litres
(D) 4000 litres
105. A tap drips at a rate of one drop/ sec. 600 drops make 100 ml. The number of litres wasted in 300 days is-
(A) 4320000
(B) 432000
(C) 43200
(D) 4320
106. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being the right angle. Mid-points of BC and AC are respectively B’ and A’. Area of ∆A’B’C is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
107. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their HCF is 12. The numbers are-
(A) 12, 24, 36
(B) 5, 10, 15
(C) 4, 8, 12
(D) 10, 20, 30
108. The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are same and their areas are C, S and T respectively. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) C = S= T
(B) C > S > T
(C) C < S < T
(D) S < C < T
109. The list price of a shirt is Rs 440 and a customer pays, Rs 396 for it. The discount rate is-
(A) 10%
(B) 
(C) 20%
(D) 12%
110. A plate was sold for Rs 6,300 after giving two successive discounts of 
and 10%. Find the marked price-
(A) Rs 7,300
(B) Rs 7,700
(C) Rs 8,000
(D) Rs 7,250
111. To attract more visitors, Zoo authority announces 20% discount on every ticket which costs 25 p. For this reason, sale of ticket increases by 28%. Find the percentage of increase in the number of visitors.
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) No change
112. Which of the following represents a correct proportion?
(A) 12 : 9 = 16 : 12
(B) 13 : 11 = 5 : 4
(C) 30 : 45 = 13 : 24
(D) 3 : 5 = 2 : 5
113. A sphere is cut into two hemispheres. One of them is used as bowl. It takes 8 bowlfuls of this to fill a conical vessel of height 12 cm and radius 6 cm. The radius of the sphere (in centimeter) will be-
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
114. If sin θ = 3/5, then the value of 
is equal to-
(A) 29/60
(B) 31/60
(C) 34/60
(D) 37/60
115. If acos θ + b sin θ = p and asin θ – bcos θ = q, then the relation between a, b, p and q is-
(A) a2 – b2 = p2 q2
(B) a2 + b2 = p2 + q2
(C) a + b = p + q
(D) a – b = p – q
116. From a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a 10 m tall building is 30°, A flag is hoisted at the top of the building and the angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from P is 45°. Find the length of the flagstaff from P is 45°. Find the length of the flagstaff. (Take √3 = 1.732)
(A) 10(√3 + 2) m
(B) 10(√3 + 1) m
(C) 10√3
(D) 7.32 m
117. The value of 
is equal to-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3/2
118. 60 students were asked to choose their favourite sport. Their distribution is as follows-
Football – 15
Cricket – 12
Basketball – 11
Athletics – 10
The data is illustrated in a Pie Chart. What angle should be used for football?
(A) 15°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 180°
119. If in a triangle ABC as drawn in the figure, AB = AC and ∠A is equal to-
(A) 50°
(B) 60°
(C) 70°
(D) 80°
Directions-(Q. 120-125) Study the graph and answer.
120. In which year the sale of cool-sip is minimum?
(A) 1990
(B) 1992
(C) 1993
(D) None of these
121. In case of which soft drink was the average annual sale maximum during the period 1988-1993?
(A) Pep-up only
(B) Pep-up and Dew-drop
(C) Cool-sip only
(D) Cool-sip and Pep-up
122. What was the approximate per cent drop in the sale of Pep-up in 1990 over its sale in 1989?
(A) 5
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 20
123. What was the approximate per cent increase in sales of Cool-sip in 1990 over its sales in 1989?
(A) 100
(B) 50
(C) 171
(D) 150
124. In which year sale of Dew-drop is maximum?
(A) 1988
(B) 1992
(C) 1989
(D) 1993
125. In case of which soft drink was the average annual sale minimum during the period 1988-1993?
(A) Pep-up only
(B) Cool-sip only
(C) Dew-drop only
(D) Dew-drop and Cool-sip
126. In a Mathematics examination the numbers scored by 5 candidates are 5 successive odd integers. If their total marks is 185, the highest score is-
(A) 39
(B) 43
(C) 41
(D) 37
127. In two successive years, 80 and 60 students of a school appeared at the final examination of which 60% and 80% passed respectively. The average rate of students passed (in per cent) is-
(A) 68%
(B) 
(C) 70%
(D) 
128. Nisha bought a number of oranges at 2 for a rupee and an equal number at 3 for a rupee. To make a profit of 20% she should sell a dozen for-
(A) Rs 6
(B) Rs 8
(C) Rs 10
(D) Rs 12
129. If A’s salary is 50% more than that of B, then B’s salary is less than A’s by-
(A) 33%
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
130. A and B are 20 km apart. A can walk at an average speed of 4 km/hour and B at 6 km/hr. If they start walking towards each other at 7 a.m., when they will meet?
(A) 8.00 a.m.
(B) 8.30 a.m.
(C) 9.00 a.m.
(D) 10.00 a.m.
131. A policeman starts to chase a thief. When the thief goes 10 steps the policeman moves 8 steps. 5 steps of the policeman is equal to 7 steps of the thief. The ratio of the speeds of the policeman and the thief is-
(A) 25 : 28
(B) 25 : 56
(C) 28 : 25
(D) 56 : 25
132. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs 410. The simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same time is-
(A) Rs 400
(B) Rs 300
(C) Rs 350
(D) Rs 405
133. The graphs of x = a and y = b intersect at-
(A) (a, b)
(B) (b, a)
(C) (−a, b)
(D) (a, −b)
134. What is the value of 
(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 100
135. If 
is-
(A) 12098
(B) 12048
(C) 14062
(D) 12092
136. If 5√5 + 53 ÷ 5−3/2 = 5a+2, then value of a is-
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
137. If x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of 
will be-
(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 30
138. A boat goes 24 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 6 hours. It goes 30 km upstream and 21 km downstream in 6 hours and 30 minutes. The speed of the boat in still water is
(A) 8 km/hr
(B) 9 km/hr
(C) 12 km/hr
(D) 10 km/hr
139. If 
and x > 1, then find the positive value of 
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 36
(D) 49
140. The value of (3 + 2√2)−3 + (3 – 2√2)−3 is-
(A) 198
(B) 180
(C) 108
(D) 189
141. ‘O’ is the centre of the circle, AB is a chord of the circle, OM ⊥ If AB = 20 cm, OM = 2√11 cm, then radius of the circle is-
(A) 15 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 11 cm
142. If the angles of a triangle ABC are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1, then the angles ∠A, ∠B, ∠C is-
(A) ∠A = 60°, ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 30°
(B) ∠A = 40°, ∠B = 120°, ∠C = 20°
(C) ∠A = 20°, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 60°
(D) ∠A = 45°, ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 45°
143. In ∆ABC, ∠ABC = 70°, ∠BCA = 40°. O is the point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides, then the angle ∠BOC is-
(A) 100°
(B) 120°
(C) 130°
(D) 140°
144. If the measures of the sides of triangle are (x2 – 1). (x2 + 1) and 2x cm, then the triangle would be-
(A) equilateral
(B) acute-angled
(C) isosceles
(D) right-angled
145. 2x = 4y = 8z and xyz = 288, then value of 
is-
(A) 11/12
(B) 11/96
(C) 29/96
(D) 27/96
146. If each angle of a triangle is less than the sum of the other two, then the triangle is-
(A) obtuse angled
(B) right angled
(C) acute angled
(D) equilateral
147. A, B, C are three points on the circumference of a circle and if 
and ∠BAC = 90°, find the radius-
(A) 10 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 15 cm
148. The value of 
is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
149. If 
then the value of cos4 θ + sin4 θ is-
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/9
(D) 2/9
150. If 
then the value of 
is-
(A) 3/4
(B) 4/5
(C) 5/6
(D) 6/7
Part-D
English Comprehension
Directions-(Q. 151-155) You have a passage with 5 questions following. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate circle in t he Answer Sheet.
PASSAGE
The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is a subject of vital concern. There is a growing realization that though India has enough food to feed its masses two square meals a day, the monster of starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country.
Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to rising income, and thus good standard of living is the ultimate objective of public policy. However, till then there is a need to provide assured supply of food through a restructured, more efficient and decentralized public distribution system (PDS). Although the PDS is extensive it is one of the largest such systems in the world- it hasn’t reached the rural poor and the remote places. It remains an urban phenomenon, with the majority of the rural poor still out of its each due to lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently needs to be streamlined. Also, considering the large foodgrain production combined with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty of rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target-group oriented. By making PDS target-group oriented, not only the poorest and the neediest would be reached without additional cost but we can also reduce the overall costs incurred.
151. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?
(A) To reduce administrative cost
(B) To decrease the allotment of food grains
(C) To make it target-group oriented
(D) To increase the amount of foodgrain per ration card
152. The full form of PDS is-
(A) Public distribution system
(B) Party distribution system
(C) Private distribution system
(D) Partial distribution system
153. Which of the following is true of public distribution system?
(A) It has improved its effectiveness over the year.
(B) It has reached the remotest corner of the country.
(C) It is unique in the world because of its effectiveness.
(D) It has remained effective only in the cities.
154. The public distribution system, which provides food at ……. is a subject of vital concern.
(A) fair prices
(B) high prices
(C) low prices
(D) as per capital income
155. What according to the passage, would be the rationale of making the PDS target-group oriented?
(A) It will abolish the imbalance of urban and rural sectors.
(B) It will remove poverty.
(C) It will give food to the poorest section without additional cost.
(D) It will motivate the target-group population to work more.
Directions-(Q. 156-158) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the answer sheet.
156. BOLD
(A) Nervous
(B) Fearful
(C) Timid
(D) Coy
157. AUTHENTIC
(A) Genuine
(B) False
(C) Factual
(D) Real
158. URBANE
(A) Crude
(B) Rural
(C) Native
(D) Loud
Directions-(Q. 159-161) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the answer sheet.
159. FRUGAL
(A) Economical
(B) Plain
(C) Miserly
(D) Simple
160. DIMINISH
(A) Prohibit
(B) Worsen
(C) Shorten
(D) Reduce
161. PLEBISCITE
(A) Renunciation
(B) Reservation
(C) Representation
(D) Referendum
Directions-(Q. 162 and 163) Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
162.
(A) aneurysm
(B) disipate
(C) carcas
(D) annonymous
163.
(A) tommorow
(B) commendation
(C) coherant
(D) advicable
Directions-(Q. 164-168) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
164. By morning, the fury of the floods……..
(A) retired
(B) ebbed
(C) receded
(D) abated
165. She pipped her rival ……… the gold medal.
(A) for
(B) with
(C) to
(D) near
166. Ships are ………… by giant engines.
(A) dragged
(B) sailed
(C) driven
(D) pulled
167. Work should be guided by some ……….. desire of altruism and …………
(A) shallow; ability
(B) false; honesty
(C) genuine; philanthropy
(D) good; liberty
168. Krisda’s stories…………..me very strangely.
(A) afflicted
(B) effected
(C) changed
(D) affected
Directions-(Q. 169-173) You have a passage with 5 questions following. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer Sheet.
PASSAGE
The desert floras shame us with their cheerful adaptations to the seasonal limitations. Their whole duty is to flower and fruit, and they do it hardly, or with tropical luxuriance, as the rain admits. It is recorded in the report of the Death Valley expedition that after a year of abundant rains, on the Colorado desert was found a specimen of Amaranthus ten feet high. A year later the same species in the same place matured in the drought at four inches. Seldom does the desert herb attain the full stature of the type. Extreme aridity and extreme altitude have the same dwarfing effect, so that we find in the high Sierras and in Death Valley related species in miniature that reach a comely growth in mean temperatures. Very fertile are the desert plants in expedients to prevent evaporation, turning their foliage edge-wise toward the sun, growing silky hairs, exuding thick gum. The wind, which has a long sweep, harries and helps them. It rolls up dunes about the stocky stems, encompassing and protective, and above the dunes, which may be, as with the mesquite, three times as high as a man, the blossoming twigs flourish and bear fruit.
169. The mesquite is a-
(A) a sand dune
(B) a tribe of people
(C) a type of desert animal
(D) a desert flora
170. What stops the desert floras from performing their duty well?
(A) The rain
(B) The desert animals
(C) The desert sand
(D) The people who pluck them
171. What lesson do the desert floras have to teach us?
(A) The rain
(B) The desert animals
(C) The desert sand
(D) The people who pluck them
172. How does the wind keep the desert floras to grow?
(A) By rolling up protective sand dunes
(B) By blowing gently
(C) By blowing the clouds away
(D) By blowing the heat away
173. The desert plants face the danger of……….from extreme aridity and extreme altitude.
(A) early death
(B) loss of reproduction
(C) dwarfism
(D) painful growth
Directions-(Q. 174-178) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the circle corresponding to the appropriate correct option. If a sentence is free from error, blacken the circle corresponding to ‘No error’ option in the Answer Sheet.
174. The ruins of the spillway are a vital clue to the epic struggle that unfold as generations of Khmer engineers coped with a water system that grew complex and unruly.
(A) To the epic struggle that unfold as generations of Khmer engineers
(B) Coped with a water system that grew complex and unruly
(C) No error
(D) The ruins of the spillways are a vital clue
175. The sum and substance of this poem is as follows-
(A) No error
(B) The sum and substance
(C) Is as follows
(D) Of this poem
176. I watched how the pianoist used her left hand-
(A) No error
(B) Used her left hand
(C) I watched how
(D) The pianoist
177. Bobby leant the alphabets at the age of two-
(A) Age of two
(B) No error
(C) Alphabets at the
(D) Bobby learnt the
178. You are required to give an explanation for your conduct within two days of the receipt of this letter-
(A) You are required to give an explanation
(B) For your conduct
(C) No error
(D) Within two days of the receipt of this letter
Directions-(Q. 179-183) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the answer sheet.
179. I shall always remember my alma mater with gratitude.
(A) Kindergarten days
(B) Teacher who inspired me
(C) Institution where I got education
(D) Mother’s loving care
180. He’s as daft as a brush. Don’t believe a word of what he says.
(A) Unreliable
(B) Very funny
(C) Really silly
(D) A liar
181. I hope you will back me at the meeting.
(A) Support
(B) Follow
(C) Criticise
(D) Speak after I do
182. I and my fried always god Dutch when we eat out.
(A) Drive together
(B) Divide the costs
(C) Pay for each other’s meal
(D) Go together
183. A closefisted man does not know the significance of human life.
(A) A miser
(B) An ill-mannered man
(C) A poor man
(D) A rich man
Directions-(Q. 184-193) A sentence/a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed choose ‘No Improvement’. Mark your answer in the answer sheet.
184. The notorious criminal went to the police to go to prison.
(A) No improvement
(B) surrendered himself before the police
(C) gave himself up for the police
(D) submitted to the police
185. The glass figurine that was being shown in the store window appealed to me.
(A) that was advertised
(B) that was on display
(C) that was exhibited
(D) No improvement
186. He is shomehow tall for his age.
(A) many
(B) much
(C) No improvement
(D) rather
187. The practice of starving the children in order to cure diarrhea also aggravates the situation.
(A) No improvement
(B) Starving children
(C) Satrve children
(D) Starving child
188. We do not believe in a dual policy of the company.
(A) in these dual
(B) No improvement
(C) on these dual
(D) in this dual
189. She said that she was glad to be here that evening.
(A) No improvement
(B) to be there
(C) to come here
(D) to have been here
190. This news is too good to be true.
(A) so good that it should be true
(B) cannot be true
(C) so good that it cannot be true
(D) No improvement
191. I did not see you for a long time.
(A) have not been seeing
(B) saw
(C) have not seen
(D) No improvement
192. If he has time he will
(A) would
(B) might
(C) No improvement
(D) could
193. He met European lady at the conference who works for an NGO-
(A) European lady who works for an NGO at the conference
(B) An European lady at the conference who works for an NGO
(C) No improvement
(D) A European lady who works for an NGO, at the conference
Directions-(Q. 194-200) Out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it b y blackening the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
194. A person who deliberately sets fire to a building-
(A) Assassin
(B) Hijacker
(C) Arsonist
(D) Extortionist
195. That which cannot be effaced-
(A) Invincible
(B) Indelible
(C) Illegible
(D) Affable
196. The burial of a corpse-
(A) Interment
(B) Internment
(C) Interrogate
(D) Interpose
197. Conferred as an honor-
(A) Honorary
(B) Honorific
(C) Honorable
(D) Honorarium
198. One who makes an official examination of accounts-
(A) Registrar
(B) Creditor
(C) Auditor
(D) Chartered Accountant
199. One who does not believe in the existence of God-
(A) Atheist
(B) Theist
(C) Mystic
(D) Cynic
200. To free someone from all blames-
(A) Consolidate
(B) Exonerate
(C) Forbid
(D) Fling