SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical previous paper

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 23 January, 2018, Time-3.15 pm Question Paper with Answer Key

January 30, 2021December 11, 2020 by suresh84

SSC Junior Engineer Mechanical Online Exam 2018

CPWD/CWC/MES

Mechanical Engineering

Time : 03.15 pm Exam Date : 23 January, 2018

REASONING

1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Heart : Organ :: ? : ?

(a) Bus : Vehicle

(b) Car : Road

(d) Train : Rail

Answer: (a)

2. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Big : Small : Solid : ?

(a) Metal

(b) Liquid

(d) Cold

Answer: (b)

3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Calculator : Calculations :: Scale : ?

(a) Inches

(b) Centimeters

(d) Steel

Answer: (c)

4. In the following question, selects the related letter from the given alternatives.

MUFT : PXIW :: GONE : ?

MUFT : PXIW : : GONE : ?

(a) HMRL

(b) JSPA

(d) HQRF

Answer: (c)

5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

MUFT : PXIW :: GONE : ?

PINK : TMRO :: SOLD : ?

(a) HQTX

(b) WSPH

(d) AQBH

Answer: (b)

6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SW : VA :: LT : ?

(a) NY

(b) LA

(d) OL

Answer: (c)

7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

19: 363 :: ? :

(a) 16 : 259

(b) 13 : 171

(d) 14 : 195

Answer: (b)

8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

42 : 105 :: 38 : ?

(a) 111

(b) 135

(d) 83

Answer: (c)

9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

24 : 39 :: 49 : ?

(a) 68

(b) 64

(d) 79

Answer: (b)

10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Liver

(b) Intestine

(d) Lungs

Answer: (c)

11. In the following question select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Black

(b) Yellow

(d) Pink

Answer: (c)

12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Arteries

(b) Veins

(d) Bones

Answer: (c)

13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) RLF

(b) MGA

(d) HBV

Answer: (c)

14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) IR

(b) KP

(d) OV

Answer: (d)

15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) XTQMJ

(b) FBYUR

(d) TPMIE

Answer: (d)

16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 4-21

(b) 7-54

(d) 3-16

Answer: (d)

17. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 11-17

(b) 23-31

(d) 41-47

Answer: (c)

18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 12-156

(b) 13-182

(d) 15-230

Answer: (d)

19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Shocking (2) Shiver

(3) Shelter (4) Shorten

(5) Shudder

(a) 23145

(b) 32145

(d) 41523

Answer: (b)

20. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at LAST position?

(1) Operation (2) Orderly

(3) Openly (4) Opulent

(5) Oral

(a) Oral

(b) Orderly

(d) Operation

Answer: (b)

21. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at THIRD position?

(a) Passage

(b) Pastime

(d) Pathetic

Answer: (d)

22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AGM, FLR, KQW, PVB, ?

(a) UAG

(b) VLC

(d) PNO

Answer: (a)

23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

FROM, CNLI, ZJIE, WFFA, ?

(a) ACNG

(b) TCCX

(d) FRIP

Answer: (c)

24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

TRO, PNK, LJG, ?, DBY

(a) FBC

(b) FNB

(d) HFC

Answer: (d)

25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

11, 16, 21, 13, 19, 25, 15, 22, 29, ? 25

(a) 18

(b) 17

(d) 21

Answer: (b)

26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2112, 2328, 2671, 3183, ?, 4912

(a) 3826

(b) 3742

(d) 3992

Answer: (c)

27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 22, 34, 5, 71, 180, 543, ?

(a) 1864

(b) 2234

(d) 1904

Answer: (d)

28. M is 2 year older than P, L is 2 years older than O, O’s age is the average of the ages of L and N, P’s age is the average of the ages of L and M and L’s age is the average of P and O. Who is the youngest?

(a) L

(b) M

(d) O

Answer: (c)

29. X said to Y that mother’s father-in-law’s wife is mother-in-law of my father. How are X and y related?

(a) X is sister’s husband of Y

(b) X is child of Y’s father’s sister

(d) Y is sister’s husband of X

Answer: (b)

30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

GEOGRAPHIC

(a) Cheap

(b) rogue

(d) graph

Answer: (b)

31. If BANQUET is coded as ZYLOSCR, then how will NEW be coded as?

(a) MVD

(b) MDV

(d) OFX

Answer: (c)

32. In a certain code language, 9124 means ‘run around the block’, 2548 means ‘don’t block the path’ and 4763 means ‘chock a block full’. Find the code for ‘the’.

(a) 1

(b) 9

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

33. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘−’, ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.

90 × 10 ÷ 25 – 5 + 50 = ?

(a) 81

(b) 84

(d) 48

Answer: (b)

34. If 11 @ 7 = 2, 18 @ 0 = 9 and 22 @ 20 = 1, then find the value of 16 @ 10 = ?

(a) 6

(b) 160

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

35. If A * B means A is father of B, A + B means A is sister of B and If A% B means A is daughter of B, then what does C * D % E + F mean?

(a) C is F’s husband

(b) C is F’s wife’s brother

(d) C is F’s sister’s husband

Answer: (d)

36. Select the missing the number from the given responses.

(a) 1

(b) 9

(d) −9

Answer: (b)

37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

CABABABAB, ACBABABAB, ABCABABAB, ABACBABAB, ABABCABAB, ………

(a) ABABABACB

(b) ABABABCAB

(d) ABABABABC

Answer: (c)

38. A ship starts from the port and sails 43 miles East, then it turns South and sails 17 miles, then it turns West and sails 25 miles, then it turns to its right and sails 17 miles. Where is it with respect to the port from where it started?

(a) 18 miles West

(b) 68 miles East

(d) 68 miles West

Answer: (c)

39. Two planes start from the same strip. Plane P files 15 miles West, then turns left flies 22 miles and lands. In the meanwhile plane Q flies 7 miles South, then flies 11 miles East, then turns to its right, flies 15 miles and lands. Where is plane Q with respect to plane P?

(a) 26 miles East

(b) 26 miles West

(d) 4 miles West

Answer: (a)

40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, from the given statements.

Statements I: All officers are mothers

Statements II: Some doctors are mothers

Conclusion I: All doctors are mothers

Conclusion II: Some mothers are officers

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Answer: (b)

41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All deserts is jungle

Statement II: All sand is desert

Statement III: No tree are jungle

Conclusion I: No trees are desert

Conclusion II: No sand is trees

Conclusion III: All jungle is sand

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) None of the conclusions follow

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Answer: (c)

43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Answer: (a)

44. In the following figure, square represents Artists, triangle represents Military officers, circle represents collectors and rectangle represents Fathers. Which set of letters represents collectors who are either military officers or fathers?

(a) H

(b) B

(d) F

Answer: (d)

45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Women, Mothers and Teachers?

Answer: (d)

46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (d)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Answer: (c)

48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (a)

49. If mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (a)

50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘H’ can be represented by 21, 43 etc and ‘R’ can be represented by 96, 87 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘POEM’.

(a) 76, 69, 01, 33

(b) 56, 88, 23, 41

(d) 75, 68, 44, 33

Answer: (d)

General Knowledge

51. Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of……….

(a) deferred revenue expenditure

(b) capital expenditure

(d) revenue expenditure

Answer: (b)

52. Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition?

(a) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market

(b) Differentiated products constitute the market

(d) Selling costs are used for sale promotion

Answer: (c)

53. What is the maximum loan amount permissible under the MUDRA Yojana?

(a) Rs. 50,000

(b) Rs. 1 lakh

(d) Rs. 10 lakh

Answer: (d)

54. As per a latest classification of countries by the World Bank India now belongs to which of the following category?

(a) Upper-lower income country

(b) Lower-middle income country

(d) Lower-upper income country

Answer: (b)

55. As per census 2011, which state had the lowest sex ratio?

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(d) Bihar

Answer: (b)

56. Pluralist Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of which of the followings?

(a) Association

(b) Monarch

(d) Government

Answer: (a)

57. In which of the following countries the system of judicial review was originated?

(a) France

(b) Germany

(d) Britain

Answer: (c)

58. Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the District Planning Commission constituted?

(a) Article 243 ZD

(b) Article 244 ZD

(d) Article 243 ZE

Answer: (a)

59. Which kind of majority is required for constitutional amendment in forming a new state?

(a) Simple

(b) Two-third

(d) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states

Answer: (a)

60. Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member?

(a) Vice-President

(b) Attorney General of India

(d) Election Commission

Answer: (b)

61. The term ‘Stupa’ is associated with which of the following event of Gautam Buddha’s life?

(a) Death

(b) First Sermon

(d) Renunciation

Answer: (a)

62. Who was the last ruler of the Gupta Dynasty?

(a) Puru Gupta

(b) Vishnu Gupta

(d) Kumar Gupta

Answer: (b)

63. Where was Guru Govind Singh educated and learnt Persian?

(a) Lahore

(b) Amritsar

(d) Anandpur Sahib

Answer: (d)

64. Which of the following was the precursor of Indian National Congress?

(a) Servants of India Society

(b) Indian Association

(d) Indian League

Answer: (b)

65. During which governor general’s time was the annexation of Sindh in British State done?

(a) Lord Dalhousie

(b) Lord Chelmesford

(d) Lord Hastings

Answer: (c)

66. What is the second most abundant element on Earth’s crust?

(a) Carbon

(b) Silicon

(d) Hydrogen

Answer: (b)

67. What is called a shallow stratch of river that may be crossed on feet?

(a) Fiord

(b) Atoll

(d) Lagoon

Answer: (a)

68. Which among the following is a cold-dry wind?

(a) Hurricane

(b) Tornado

(d) Cyclone

Answer: (c)

69. The man-made reservoir Gobind Sagar located in Bilaspur is situated in which of the following states?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer: (d)

70. Which among the following rivers does not flow from East to West?

(a) Narmada

(b) Tapti

(d) Mahi

Answer: (c)

71. Which of the following historical monument has been choosen as a “Swachh Bharat Icon” by the Union Government on November 21, 2017.

(a) Haveli Dharampur

(b) Charminar

(d) Vishwa Bharati

Answer: (b)

72. As per a recent announcement, where will India’s first Electronic Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) come up?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Maharashtra

(d) West Bengal

Answer: (a)

73. Which of the following is multilevel global campaign to spread awareness about importance of girls’ education?

(a) Girl Rising

(b) Most Important Part of our Life: Girls

(d) Education of Girls

Answer: (a)

74. Which country will host the Summer Olympics 2020?

(a) Qatar

(b) Tokyo

(d) Jakarta

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following sportsperson is not correctly matched with their respective discipline?

(a) Jitu Rai : Shooting

(b) P. V. Sindhu : Badminton

(d) Deepa Karmakar: Gymnastic

Answer: (c)

76. “A Better India: A Better World” is written by……..

(a) Arun Jaitley

(b) Aamer Hussein

(d) C. Raja Mohan

Answer: (c)

77. Which among the following has won the Nobel Prize for Chemistry in October 2017?

(a) Jacques Dubochet

(b) Joachim Frank

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

78. On birth anniversary of social reformer Basavana how many volumes of Vachana were released by Narendra Modi in April, 2017?

(a) 21

(b) 20

(d) 25

Answer: (c)

79. In May 2017, with which country India has signed an agreement on Maritime Security?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Bangladesh

(d) China

Answer: (c)

80. Which neighbouring country of India measures prosperity by gauging its citizens’ happiness level?

(a) Pakistan

(b) Nepal

(d) Bhutan

Answer: (d)

81. In which communication mode, data can be transmitted in both directions at same time?

(a) Simplex

(b) Full duplex

(d) Multiplex

Answer: (b)

82. The computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is called ……….

(a) Complier

(b) Interpreter

(d) Comparator

Answer: (c)

83. Which is a base metal of amalgam alloy?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Mercury

(d) Zinc

Answer: (b)

84. Which of the following is the structure of graphite?

(a) Rigid three-dimensional

(b) Hexagonal

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (b)

85. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end will ……….

(a) become cold by the process of conduction

(b) become cold by the process of convection

(d) not become cold

Answer: (d)

86. Which acid is the most abundant acid found in grapes?

(a) Oxalic acid

(b) Ascorbic acid

(d) Formic acid

Answer: (c)

87. The splitting of white light into its component colours is called………..

(a) diffraction

(b) refraction

(d) scattering

Answer: (c)

88. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

(I) Change in magnetic filed produces induced current.

(II) Flow of current in a conductor produces magnetic filed.

(III) Magnetic filed related to coil can be produced by motion between conductor and coil.

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(d) All statements are correct.

Answer: (d)

89. Which gas is used as a fuel in a rocket?

(a) Radon

(b) Hydrogen

(d) Nitrogen

Answer: (b)

90. Which of the following is good insulator?

(a) Mercury

(b) Cadmium

(d) Glass

Answer: (d)

91. Which is the most abundant Vitamin found in carrot?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(d) Vitamin D

Answer: (a)

92. How the rate of absorption of water through roots can be increased?

(a) Keeping the plants in the shade

(b) Keeping the plants in the dim light

(d) Covering the plants with a polythene bag

Answer: (c)

93. A spore producing plant is ……..

(a) rose

(b) bread mould

(d) ginger

Answer: (b)

94. Which chromosome is responsible for manliness in man?

(a) XO

(b) YO

(d) XY

Answer: (d)

95. The human eye forms the image of an object at its……….

(a) cornea

(b) iris

(d) retina

Answer: (d)

96. Which of the following is NOT a multicellular organism?

(a) Fungi

(b) Spirogyra

(d) Paramecium

Answer: (d)

97. Which disease is caused by cadmium metal pollution?

(a) Minamata

(b) Itai-Itai

(d) Dermatitis

Answer: (b)

98. Which of the following is an organic gas?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Carbon monoxide

(d) Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: (c)

99. Basel Protocol is related to which of the following?

(a) Ozone layer

(b) Burning of forests

(d) Trans-boundary hazardous dumping

Answer: (d)

100. Which of the following is parasitic food chain?

(a) Tees → Fruits eating birds → Lice and bugs

(b) Grass → Rabbit → Fox → Tiger

(d) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish → Hawk

Answer: (a)

TECHNICAL : Mechanical

101. The number of joints (j) which constitutes a kinematic chain can be expressed in terms of number of links (l) as ______.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

102. Which of the following will lead to the formation of higher pair?

(a) Sliding pair

(b) Turning pair

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

103. What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (a)

104. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding work done per cycle?

(a) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque

(b) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution

(d) Both work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and work done per cycle is directly proportional the angle turned in one revolution.

Answer: (d)

105. The angular acceleration and the moment of inertia of the flywheel is 0.6 rad/s² and 2500 kg-m² What is the kinetic energy (in kN-m) of the flywheel after 10 seconds from the start?

(a) 45

(b) 450

(d) 4500

Answer: (a)

106. The power transmission takes place from a pulley of diameter 1 m running at the speed of 250 rpm to a pulley of 2.50 m diameter by means of a belt. Determine the speed (in rpm) of the driven pulley?

(a) 110

(b) 150

(d) 625

Answer: (c)

107. The scotch yoke mechanism is the inversion of___

(a) four bar link chain

(b) double slider crank chain

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following is NOT the inversion of single slider crank chain?

(a) Pendulum pump

(b) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism

(d) Elliptical trammel

Answer: (d)

109. Which of the following theory is used in the design of clutches, when the friction linings get worn out?

(a) Uniform pressure theory

(b) Uniform wear theory

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

110. The equation for the calculation of torque transmitting capacity in the conical clutch as per uniform wear theory is ________.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

111. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the length of are of contact?

(a) Inversely proportional to the module

(b) varies directly to the length of the path of contact

(d) All option are correct

Answer: (b)

112. The profile of gears having module of 12 mm and length of arc of contact is 60 mm. What is the contact ratio of the gear profile?

(a) 2

(b) 1.2

(d) 5

Answer: (c)

113. Which of the following is NOT the type of loaded type governor?

(a) Dead weight governor

(b) Spring controller governor

(d) Porter governor

Answer: (c)

114. The type of failure involved in the analysis of the riveted joints are?

(1) Shear failure of rivet

(2) Tensile failure of the plate

(3) Crushing failure of the plate

Which of the following statements are is correct for the analysis of the riveted joints?

(a) (1) and (2) only

(b) (2) and (3) only

(d) (1) and (3) only

Answer: (c)

115. Which of the following options is correct about the motion of the follower?

(a) Uniform velocity

(b) Simple harmonic motion

(d) All option are correct

Answer: (d)

116. When a body is said to be in dynamic equilibrium?

(a) When the body is moving with non uniform accelerations

(b) When the body is in uniform motion along a circular path

(d) When the body is moving with instantaneous velocity

Answer: (c)

117. Which of the following term can also be used to state the dynamic equilibrium?

(a) Translatory equilibrium

(b) Static equilibrium

(d) Rotational equilibrium

Answer: (c)

118. What is the direction of application of friction force with respect to the direction of motion of an object?

(a) Same

(b) Perpendicular

(d) Downward

Answer: (c)

119. What is the S.I. unit of Poisson’s ratio?

(a) kN/mm²

(b) N/mm²

(d) Unitless

Answer: (d)

120. Maximum principal stress theory was postulated by_____

(a) ST Venant

(b) Mohr

(d) Tresca

Answer: (c)

121. The equivalent length of the column, when both the ends are hinged as_____.

(a) l

(b) l/2

(d) 2l

Answer: (a)

122. The expression for the slenderness Ratio of the columns is given as____

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

123. The expression for the Rankine’s crippling load is given as_______.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

124. What is the ratio of the Euler’s Bucking loads of column having (i) both end fixed and (ii) one end fixed and other end free is?

(a) 4 : 1

(b) 16 : 1

(d) 2 : 1

Answer: (b)

125. The thin walled cylindrical vessel has the wall thickness t and diameter d is subjected to the gauge pressure of p. If the diameter of the vessel is doubled, then what is the ratio of hoop stress as compared to initial value?

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 2 : 1

(d) 1 : 4

Answer: (b)

126. A metal pipe is subjected to internal pressure of 10 kgf/cm², If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 200 kgf/cm² and the thickness of the pipe is 2.5 cm. What is the diameter of the metal pipe?

(a) 10

(b) 100

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

127. A power transmission shaft of diameter d rotating at the speed of N rpm. The power P is related to diameter d and N as______.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

128. Which is the correct option for the stress experienced by the shaft when the power transmission in shaft place through the gears?

(a) Varying bending and constant torsional stresses

(b) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses

(d) Bending stress only

Answer: (a)

129. A beam of diameter 75 mm has a span length of 10 m is subjected to uniform distributed load of w kN/m. The maximum value of bending moment produced is 6.75 kN-m. What is the value of distributed load, if the beam is simply supported?

(a) 1.5

(b) 0.54

(d) 5.4

Answer: (b)

130. A steel bar of dimension 10 mm × 1 mm × 1 mm is free to expand is heated from 15°C to 25°C What stress shall be developed?

(a) Tensile stress

(b) No stress

(d) Compressive stress

Answer: (b)

131. For a pure substance in gaseous phase to be liquefied, the gas has to undergo initial cooling below the ______

(a) critical state

(b) saturated liquid line

(d) triple point line

Answer: (a)

132. What is the CORRECT order of decrease in entropy?

(a) solid phase (b) liquid phase (c) Gaseous phase

(a) (a) > (b) > (c)

(b) (c) > (b) > (a)

(d) (a) > (c) > (b)

Answer: (b)

133. The entropy always increases for an isolated system and when the equilibrium is reached, it is_____

(a) maximum

(b) same as the initial starting state

(d) zero

Answer: (a)

134. A Carnot engine operates between T₁ and T₂. If there is an increase in source temperature by t and a decrease in sink temperature by t. How is the efficiency in both cases is related?

(a) η₁ > η₂

(b) η₁ < η₂

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

135. In a surrounding, the amount of irreversibility of a process undergone by a system is determined by____

(a) entropy change of the system

(b) entropy change of the surrounding

(d) entropy decrease of the universe

Answer: (c)

136. In an Otto cycle, r is the compression ratio and γ is the adiabatic index. Which relation defines the air standard efficiency?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

137. For the same operating maximum pressure and temperature, which cycle will have the highest efficiency?

(a) Diesel cycle

(b) Dual cycle

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

138. The mean of effective pressure of Otto cycle is given by _____

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

139. What is the state at which phase change occurs without a change in pressure and temperature is known as?

(a) Critical state

(b) Saturation state

(d) none of these

Answer: (a)

140. What value of the dryness fraction (in%) represents the dry saturated state of vapour?

(a) 0

(b) 25

(d) 100

Answer: (d)

141. Which factor contributes to the efficiency of the Otto cycle?

(a) Compression ratio

(b) Operating pressure

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

142. If a Carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6. What is the ratio of the lower to the higher absolute temperature?

(a) 1/6

(b) 7/8

(d) 1/7

Answer: (c)

143. Which of the below stated are properties of a PMM-2?

(1) When network is equal to the heat absorbed and work efficiency is 100%

(2) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only

(3) It violates Kelvin-Planck statement

(4) It is a hypothetical machine

(a) (1), (2) and (4)

(b) (1), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Answer: (d)

144. Tonnes of refrigeration mean____

(a) the weight of the machine is one tonne.

(b) the weight of the refrigerant is one tonne.

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

145. What is the ratio W/Q (W= work transfer from cycle, Q = heat transfer to the cycle) known as?

(a) Air standard efficiency

(b) Specific consumption

(d) Work ratio

Answer: (a)

146. What process does Carnot cycle consist of?

(a) Two isothermal and two adiabatic process

(b) Two isothermal and two constant volume process

(d) Two constant pressure and two constant volume process

Answer: (a)

147. What is the temperature at which a system goes under a reversible isothermal process without heat transfer?

(a) Absolute zero temperature

(b) Critical temperature

(d) Boiling temperature

Answer: (a)

148. How is the thermal efficiency of an IC engine related to compression ratio?

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(d) Remains same

Answer: (a)

149. All the processes in an air standard cycle are assumed to be_____

(a) adiabatic

(b) irreversible

(d) reversible

Answer: (d)

150. Water flows through a turbine in which due to friction there is a temperature from 30°C to 35° If there is no heat transfer taking place during the process. What is the change in the entropy of water?

(a) 0.077

(b) 0.079

(d) 0.496

Answer: (b)

151. In 18-4-1 HSS (high speed steel) the percentage of chromium is

(a) 1%

(b) 4%

(d) 20%

Answer: (b)

152. The pH value of neutral solution is

(a) Equal to 7

(b) Less than 7

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

153. ______ is better suited for lighter duty bearings?

(a) Phosphorus Bronze

(b) Plastic

(d) Monel metal

Answer: (a)

154. ______ is not the neutral refractory material.

(a) Graphite

(b) Karnetile

(d) Dolomite

Answer: (b)

155. ______ structure has maximum hardness.

(a) Troostite

(b) Pearlite

(d) Sorbite

Answer: (c)

156. ______ has least coefficient of expansion

(a) Manganin

(b) Invar

(d) Duralumin

Answer: (b)

157. _____ is the essential gradient of any hardened steel.

(a) Carbon

(b) Pearlite

(d) Martensite

Answer: (a)

158. ______ structure can be studied by naked eye.

(a) Atomic

(b) Grain

(d) Macro

Answer: (d)

159. _______ is used for bearing liner.

(a) Brass

(b) Bronze

(d) Babbitt metal

Answer: (d)

160. _______is the most important element which controls the physical properties of steel.

(a) Carbon

(b) Chromium

(d) Tungsten

Answer: (a)

161. Practical fluids

(a) are viscous

(b) possess surface tension

(d) possess all the above properties

Answer: (d)

162. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called.

(a) adhesion

(b) cohesion

(d) compressibility

Answer: (b)

163. For very great pressure, viscosity of most gases and liquids.

(a) remains same

(b) increases

(d) show erratic behavior

Answer: (*)

164. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure

(b) increases with pressure

(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity

Answer: (b)

165. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) fluids are capable of flowing

(b) fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels

(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces

Answer: (d)

166. The conditions of the stable equilibrium of a floating body are

(a) the meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity

(b) the centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

167. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?

(a) the meal piece will simply float over the mercury

(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half

(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom

Answer: (c)

168. If the surface of the liquid is convex, then

(a) cohesion pressure is negligible

(b) cohesion pressure is decreased

(d) none of these

Answer: (c)

169. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to

(a) Boyle’s law

(b) Archimedes law

(d) Newton’s formula

Answer: (c)

170. Mercury is often used in barometer because

(A) It is the best liquid

(B) The height of barometer will be less

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Neither A nor B

Answer: (c)

171. The losses due to sudden contraction are expressed by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(a) A Only

(b) B Only

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

172. Cipolletti notch is designed as trapezoid with its sides sloping at 1 horizontal and

(a) 1 verticle

(b) 2 verticle

(d) 4 verticle

Answer: (d)

173. The flow in venture flume takes place at

(a) atmospheric pressure

(b) at pressure greater than atmospheric pressure

(d) high pressure

Answer: (a)

174. A hydraulic ram acts like

(a) a centrifugal pump

(b) a rotary pump

(d) an impulse pump

Answer: (d)

175. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder as compared to depression at the centre with respect to initial level is

(a) same

(b) more

(d) more or less depending on speed

Answer: (a)

176. The most economical section of a rectangular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when its depth is equal to

(a) half the breadth

(b) twice the breadth

(d) three-fourth of the breadth

Answer: (a)

177. In case of a two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by. the point where no motion occurs, is known as

(a) critical point

(b) neutral point

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

178. The head loss in case of hot water flow through a pipe compared to cold water flow will be

(a) same

(b) more

(d) more or less depending on range of tempertures

Answer: (c)

179. Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe is

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.333

(d) 0.6667

Answer: (d)

180. In the case of turbulent flow

(a) It occurs in open channel

(b) Losses are proportional to square of velocity

(d) shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow

Answer: (d)

181. Hydraulic grade line for any flow system is compared to energy line is

(a) above

(b) below

(d) may be below or above depending upon velocity of flow

Answer: (b)

182. For maximum discharge through a circular open channel, the ratio of depth of flow to diameter of channel should be

(a) 0.7

(b) 0.5

(d) none of these

Answer: (d)

183. A triangular section in open channel flow will be most economical when the vertex angle at the triangle base point is

(a) 30 degree

(b) 50 degree

(d) none of these

Answer: (d)

184. The value of coefficient of velocity depends upon

(a) slope of orifice

(b) size of orifice

(d) friction at the orifice surface

Answer: (d)

185. The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be increased by

(a) fitting a short length of pipe to the outside

(b) sharpening the edges of orifice

(d) fitting a long length of pipe to the inside

Answer: (a)

186. Total pressure on the top of closed cylindrical vessel completely filled with liquid, is directly proportional to

(a) radius

(b) square of radius

(d) none of these

Answer: (d)

187. If flow in an open channel is gradually varied, then the flow will be

(a) steady uniform flow

(b) unsteady uniform flow

(d) unsteady non-uniform flow

Answer: (c)

188. The energy loss in flow through nozzle as compared to venturimeter is

(a) same

(b) more

(d) unpredictable

Answer: (b)

189. Orifice is an opening

(a) with closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows

(b) with prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameter of opening in thick wall

(d) in hydraulic structure with regulation provision

Answer: (a)

190. The value of coefficient of discharged in comparison to coefficient of velocity is

(a) more

(b) less

(d) unpredictable

Answer: (b)

191. Heating of dry stem above saturation temperature is known as

(a) enthalpy

(b) superheating

(d) latent heat

Answer: (b)

192. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.3

(d) 0.8

Answer: (c)

193. Adiabatic process is

(a) essentially as isentropic process

(b) non-heat transfer process

(d) constant temperature process

Answer: (b)

194. The diameter (in meter) of Cornish boiler is of the order of

(a) 1 to 2

(b) 1.5 to 2.5

(d) 2.5 to 3.5

Answer: (a)

195. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands?

(a) Babock and wilcox

(b) Locomotive

(d) Cochran

Answer: (b)

196. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

(a) speed

(b) temperature

(d) none of these

Answer: (d)

197. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

(a) less difficult to ignite

(b) just about the same difficult to ignite

(d) highly ignitable

Answer: (c)

198. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be

(a) higher

(b) lower

(d) unpredictable

Answer: (a)

199. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?

(A) 6 : 1 (B) 9 : 1

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

Answer: (a)

200. Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

(a) octane number

(b) cetane number

(d) self-ignition temperature

Answer: (a)

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 23 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am Question Paper with Answer Key

January 30, 2021December 11, 2020 by suresh84

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 23 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am

CPWD/CWC/MES

Mechanical Engineering

REASONING

1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Red : Colour :: ? : ?

(a) Sun : Heat

(b) Earth : Planet

(d) Water : Drink

Answer: (b)

2. In the following question, select the related word pair from given alternatives.

Square : Four :: ? : ?

(a) Rectangle : Five

(b) Hexagon : Seven

(d) Triangle : Three

Answer: (d)

3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Forest : Trees :: Book : ?

(a) Pages

(b) Bind

(d) Pen

Answer: (a)

4. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternative.

TRAP : YWFU :: FROG : ?

(a) KHLG

(b) KWTL

(d) FGHL

Answer: (b)

5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

FAN : MZU :: LIP : ?

(a) FGA

(b) KRO

(d) TSQ

Answer: (b)

6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AM : FR :: LQ : ?

(a) HQ

(b) NP

(d) LS

Answer: (c)

7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

46 : 24 :: 54 : ?

(a) 30

(b) 24

(d) 36

Answer: (c)

8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

11 : 24 :: 23 : ?

(a) 42

(b) 36

(d) 58

Answer: (b)

9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

5 : 15 :: 7 : ?

(a) 28

(b) 21

(d) 25

Answer: (b)

10. In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

(a) Pen – Write

(b) Ball – Play

(d) Pencil – Stationery

Answer: (d)

11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Road

(b) Truck

(d) Scooter

Answer: (a)

12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(d) Crop

Answer: (d)

13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) GJM

(b) HKN

(d) NQU

Answer: (d)

14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) LQVA

(b) AFKQ

(d) MRWB

Answer: (b)

15. In the following question select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) VRNJ

(b) CYUQ

(d) SOKG

Answer: (c)

16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 2 – 12

(b) 5 – 28

(d) 3 – 18

Answer: (b)

17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 11 – 13

(b) 13 – 17

(d) 11 – 15

Answer: (d)

18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 4 – 12

(b) 5 – 15

(d) 9 – 29

Answer: (d)

19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Series (2) Singing

(3) Secure (4) Sickle

(5) Secured

(a) 35142

(b) 53142

(d) 53124

Answer: (a)

20. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Drive (2) Drown

(3) Drain (4) Drink

(5) Drama

(a) 35421

(b) 35412

(d) 35241

Answer: (b)

21. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Price (2) Prize

(3) Police (4) Paint

(5) Prawn

(a) 45123

(b) 45213

(d) 43512

Answer: (d)

22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AG, FM, KS, PY, ?

(a) RM

(b) UE

(d) YA

Answer: (b)

23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ALK, VGF, QBA, ?, GRQ

(a) KST

(b) ARP

(d) LWV

Answer: (d)

24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

KPD, QVJ, WBP, CHV, ?

(a) INB

(b) GXF

(d) ZDQ

Answer: (a)

25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

3, 7, 11, 63, 27, 215, ?, ?

(a) 47, 513

(b) 51, 511

(d) 47, 511

Answer: (b)

26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

18, 45, 112.5, ?, 703.125

(a) 217.5

(b) 262.25

(d) 273.75

Answer: (c)

27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

30, 68, 130, 222, 350, ?

(a) 504

(b) 520

(d) 448

Answer: (b)

28. Seg CD is shorter than Seg MN, Seg MN is shorter than Seg TR, Seg AB is shorter than Seg CD and Seg CD and Seg MN is shorter than Seg. PQ. Which segment is the shortest?

(a) CD

(b) MN

(d) AB

Answer: (d)

29. A is B’s father’s father’s daughter-in-law’s daughter. If B’s father has no brother the now is A related to B?

(a) grand-daughter

(b) daughter

(d) sister

Answer: (d)

30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

RECUPERATE

(a) acute

(b) trace

(d) erupt

Answer: (c)

31. If TUESDAY is coded as VWGUFCA, then how will COW be coded as?

(a) EQY

(b) XLD

(d) DPX

Answer: (a)

32. In a certain code language, 2369 means’s master class is fun’, 9527 means ‘act is class part’ and 1349 means ‘we have fun class’. Find the code for ‘fun’.

(a) 2

(b) 6

(d) 9

Answer: (c)

33. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.

16 – 25 × 40 ÷ 60 + 15 = ?

(a) 14

(b) 72

(d) 63

Answer: (c)

34. If 72 $ 20 = 46 and 1 $ 27 = 14 then find the value of

(a) 34

(b) 54

(d) 17

Answer: (c)

35. If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does Q # Q $ R * S mean?

(a) P is father of S

(b) P is father’s father of S

(d) P is son of S

Answer: (c)

36. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 2

(b) 11

(d) 10

Answer: (d)

37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

AAAAABA, AAAAAAAB, BAAAAAAA, ABAAAAAA, AABAAAA, ………..

(a) AAAAAABA

(b) AAABAAAA

(d) AAAAABAA

Answer: (b)

38. A Shopping mall worker loads his trolley and walks 50 m through an alley which is going North, then he turns to his left and walks 15 m, then he turns South and walks, another 15 m, then he turns East and walks 25 m and then he turns south and walks 35 m. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?

(a) 10 m West

(b) 10 m East

(d) 40 m West

Answer: (b)

39. Two battle tanks start from the same point. Tank A travels 12 km South, then turns to its left and travels 7 km. Tank B travels 7 km South, then turns West and travels 9 km, then turns to its left and travels 5 km. Where is tank A with respect to tank B?

(a) 16 km West

(b) 2 km East

(d) 16 km East

Answer: (d)

40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at a variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statements I : No cats are dogs

Statement II: Some cats are carnivores

Conclusions I: All dogs are carnivores

Conclusion II: All carnivores are dogs

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Answer: (d)

41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statement I: No bronze is copper

Statement II: Some alloy is bronze

Statements III: Some zinc is alloy

Conclusion I: Some zinc is bronze

Conclusion II: Some copper is zinc

Conclusion III: Some alloy is copper

(a) Only conclusions I and II follow

(b) Only conclusions II and III follow

(d) None of the conclusions follow

Answer: (d)

42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Answer: (b)

43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Answer: (b)

44. In the following figure, square represents astronauts, triangle represents swimmers, circle represents women and rectangle represents Indians. Which set of letters represents women who are either astronauts or swimmers?

(a) FHGI

(b) DEIA

(d) FHI

Answer: (d)

45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Pencils, Pen and Writing instruments?

Answer: (c)

46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (b)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Answer: (b)

48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (d)

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (a)

50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column for example ‘C’ can be represented by 31, 43 etc and ‘W’ can be represented by 76, 89 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SODA’.

(a) 65, 85, 21, 40

(b) 78, 87, 12, 03

(d) 98, 69, 22, 14

Answer: (b)

General Knowledge

51. By what name is the BRICS banks presently known?

(a) BRICS Development Bank

(b) Afro-Asia Development Bank

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (c)

52. What does parallel economy mean?

(a) Black Money

(b) Parallel Business

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (a)

53. Who implements monetary policy in India?

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) RBI

(d) Parliament

Answer: (b)

54. The ARDC is a branch of the NABARD. What is the full form of ARDC?

(a) Agricultural Research and Development Corporation

(b) Agriculture and River Development Cooperation

(d) Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following is a part of machinery that settles industrial disputes?

(a) Labour court

(b) Industrial Tribunal

(d) All options are correct.

Answer: (d)

56. In which year Nagaland was created separate state?

(a) 1961

(b) 1962

(d) 1964

Answer: (c)

57. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget?

(a) Department of Economic Affairs

(b) Department of Revenue

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (a)

58. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?

(a) Dr Rajenra Prasad

(b) Dr Sachchidanand Sinha

(d) Sardar Patel

Answer: (b)

59. Which of the following was not adopted from the Maurya Dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

(a) Satyameva Jayate

(b) Bull

(d) Four Lions

Answer: (a)

60. The first session of Constituent Assembly of India was held in which of the following cities?

(a) Bombay

(b) Madras

(d) Delhi

Answer: (d)

61. Which of the following is the best example of Vijaynager Art?

(a) Ajanta

(b) Hampi

(d) Sanchi

Answer: (b)

62. Taxila was capital of which among the 16 Mahajanpadas?

(a) Kosala

(b) Kuru

(d) Gandhara

Answer: (d)

63. Who was founder of Mughal Empire in India?

(a) Babur

(b) Humayun

(d) Jahangir

Answer: (a)

64. Where did Vasco da Gama arrive in India in 1498?

(a) Madras

(b) Calcutta

(d) Bombay

Answer: (c)

65. According to the treaty of Srirangapattanam, which of the following was ceded to the British?

(a) Mysore

(b) Hampi

(d) Malabar

Answer: (d)

66. By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?

(a) Padma

(b) Ganga

(d) Meghna

Answer: (a)

67. Which of the following are not kharif crops?

(a) Maize and Rice

(b) Arhar and Soyabean

(d) Ragi and Groundnut

Answer: (c)

68. How many seismic stations are required to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 6

Answer: (a)

69. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States?

(a) 5

(b) 4

(d) 3

Answer: (a)

70. Palghat joins which of the following states?

(a) Goa and Maharashtra

(b) Kerala and Karnataka

(d) Mizoram and Manipur

Answer: (c)

71. Which of the following authorities regulates NPS?

(a) IRDA

(b) PFRDA

(d) SEBI

Answer: (b)

72. Which of the following is a centrally sponsored scheme to empower adolescent girls?

(a) SAKSHAM

(b) ABLA

(d) BBBPS

Answer: (c)

73. Which among the following has inscribed Kumbh Mela on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?

(a) WHO

(b) UNCTAD

(d) UNESCO

Answer: (d)

74. Who has been appointed as the General Manager of Board of Control for Cricket in India?

(a) MV Sridhar

(b) Saba Karim

(d) Anurag Thakur

Answer: (b)

75. FIFA World Cup 2002 will be held in which country?

(a) Russia

(b) Spain

(d) Qatar

Answer: (d)

76. “The Idea of Justice” is written by……..

(a) Ravindra Singh

(b) Mamta Banerjee

(d) Abhinav Bindra

Answer: (c)

77. Which author has been made Companion of Honour on December 12, 2017?

(a) J. K. Rowling

(b) Roald Dalh

(d) Jane Austen

Answer: (a)

78. 31^st Surjkund International Crafts Mela has begun at which of the following city?

(a) Faridabad

(b) Jaipur

(d) Jaisalmer

Answer: (a)

79. ONGC Videsh has got a two year extension to explore which country’s Oil block-128 in the south China sea?

(a) Cambodia

(b) Vietnam

(d) Philippines

Answer: (b)

80. The 5^th India-Sri Lanka joint training exercise “Mitra Shakti 2017” was held in which state of India?

(a) New Delhi

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) West Bengal

Answer: (c)

81. BIOS is a……….

(I) non-volatile firmware

(II) Volatile firmware

(III) Software stored on a small memory chip on motherboard

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(d) Only II and III

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following is TRUE?

(a) Primary memory is non-volatile

(b) Secondary memory is volatile

(d) RAM is non-volatile memory

Answer: (c)

83. Which of the following metal remains in liquid form at room temperature?

(a) Cadmium

(b) Mercury

(d) Tin

Answer: (b)

84. Aqua regia is a mixture of………..

(a) dilute hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid.

(b) dilute sulfuric acid and dilute hydrochloric acidic.

(d) concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid

Answer: (d)

85. In a concave mirror if object is placed at centre of curvature, then image will be……….

(a) virtual

(b) erect

(d) at the centre of curvature

Answer: (d)

86. What is the mass of 4 mole of aluminium atoms?

(a) 120 grams

(b) 108 grams

(d) 140 grams

Answer: (b)

87. Which of the following particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil by Ernest Rutherford?

(a) Gamma

(b) Beta

(d) Alpha

Answer: (d)

88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

(I) Fuse is generally placed in series with the device.

(II) Fuse is generally placed in parallel with the device.

(III) Fuse wire has high melting point.

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(d) Only II and III

Answer: (a)

89. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotating in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current changes once in each?

(a) Two revolutions

(b) One revolutions

(d) One fourth revolution

Answer: (c)

90. Noise is measured in which unit?

(a) Watt

(b) Faraday

(d) Decibel

Answer: (d)

91. Which of the following vitamin helps in clotting of blood?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(d) Vitamin K

Answer: (d)

92. During heavy exercise, breathing rate in an average adult person can increase upto …….. per minute.

(a) 15

(b) 20

(d) 30

Answer: (c)

93. Why is the colour of human blood red?

(a) Because of myoglobin

(b) Because of haemoglobin

(d) Because of heptoglobin

Answer: (b)

94. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(a) Oviparous animal does not give birth to young ones.

(b) Each sperm is a single cell.

(d) Fertilization is necessary even in asexual reproduction.

Answer: (d)

95. What is the cause of arise of myopia?

(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.

(b) Eye ball becomes too small

(d) Lack of sleep

Answer: (a)

96. Which of following multiplies very slowly in comparison to others?

(a) Bacteria

(b) Virus

(d) Worms

Answer: (d)

97. The accumulation of non-degradable chemicals progressively at each trophic level is called …………

(a) biological magnification

(b) chemical magnification

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (a)

98. Why Taj Mahal is suffering from “Marble Cancer”?

(a) Because of sulphur dioxide

(b) Because of nitrogen dioxide

(d) Because of carbon dioxide

Answer: (a)

99. Cancer treatment is done by which of the following noble gas?

(a) Helium

(b) Radon

(d) Neon

Answer: (b)

100. How many types of ecological pyramids are present in ecosystem?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(d) Five

Answer: (b)

TECHNICAL: Mechanical

101. Choose the option which does NOT belong to the category of simple machine?

(a) Spring

(b) Screw

(d) Pulley

Answer: (a)

102. What are the numbers of binary and ternary links in the following kinematic chain?

(a) 3 binary and 4 ternary joints

(b) 3 binary and 3 ternary joints

(d) 4 binary and 2 ternary joints

Answer: (*)

103. How many degrees of freedom does the below mechanism have?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

104. Which of the following is TRUE for four bar mechanism?

(a) All sliding pairs

(b) One is sliding pair and other is turning pair

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

105. Which of the following is the CORRECT method for the conversion of spring controlled governor from unstable to stable?

(a) Increasing the ball weight

(b) Decreasing the spring stiffness

(d) Increasing the spring stiffness

Answer: (d)

106. The power transmission takes place in shaft rotating at 400 rpm and this rotating shaft drives another shaft at 600 rpm. The smaller pulley has the diameter of 0.5 m. The centre distance between pulleys is 4m. If the angle of contact on the smaller pulley for the pen belt drive is 1.8° then calculate the diameter of larger pulley (in m) and angle of contact (in rad)?

(a) 0.5 and 2.00

(b) 0.75 and 2.00

(d) 0.75 and 3.08

Answer: (d)

107. Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the bull engine?

(a) Obtained by fixing the cylinder or sliding pair

(b) Obtaining by fixing the crank

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

108. Which of the following condition is CORRECT about the inversion of a mechanism?

(a) Conversion of higher pair to lower pair

(b) Turning is upside down

(d) Obtained by reversing the input and output motion of the mechanism

Answer: (c)

109. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about the dry clutch and wet clutch?

(a) Heat dissipation is more difficult in dry clutch

(b) Rate of wear is very less in wet clutches as compare to dry clutches

(d) Engagement in wet clutch is smoother than dry clutch

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following theory is/are used for the determination of torque quantities in one clutch?

(a) Uniform pressure theory

(b) Uniform strain theory

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

111. Which of the following toothed wheels does not come under the classification according to the type of gearing?

(a) External gearing

(b) Internal gearing

(d) Parallel gearing

Answer: (d)

112. The profile of the gears is involutes with 20°. If the length of path of approach and length of path of recess are 28 mm and 25 mm respectively. What is the length of arch of contact? (cos 20° = 0.94)

(a) 54

(b) 54.4

(d) 56.4

Answer: (d)

113. The governor in which the displacement of the sleeve is high for the small change of speed is known as________

(a) hunting

(b) sensitive

(d) isochronous

Answer: (b)

114. The point of contact which is common between the two pitch circles is known as______

(a) base line

(b) addendum

(d) pitch point

Answer: (d)

115. The tensile strength for the plate per pitch length of the outer row of the rivet is _______

(a) P_t=(pdtσ_t/2)

(b) P_t = 2(pdtσ_t)

(d) P_t = (pdt²σ_t)

Answer: (c)

116. Choose the option which is INCORRECT about the term friction.

(a) Friction produces heat

(b) It leads to the decrease in the velocity of object

(d) It can stop the moving object

Answer: (c)

117. Which of the following formula is CORRECT for calculating the angle of static friction ϕ_s?

(a) tan⁻¹μ_s

(b) sin⁻¹μ_s

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

118. Which of the following statement is CORRECT for the modulus of resilience?

(a) It is the ratio of maximum stress energy and unit volume

(b) It is the ratio of maximum strain energy and unit volume

(d) It is the ratio of proof resilience and unit area

Answer: (c)

119. Calculate the value of modulus of elasticity (N/mm²), if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and modulus of rigidity of the material is 80 N/mm².

(a) 100

(b) 200

(d) 300

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following is CORRECT option for validation of Hooke’s law in simple tension test?

(a) Ultimate stress

(b) Breaking point

(d) Limit of proportionally

Answer: (d)

121. A steel rod whose diameter is 2 cm and is 2 m long, experience heating from 30°C to 150° The coefficient of thermal expansion is α = 12 × 10⁻⁶/°C and the rod has been restricted in its original position. The thermal stress developed in 288 MPa. What is the value of Young’s modulus (GPa)

(a) 50

(b) 100

(d) 200

Answer: (d)

122. Choose the INCORRECT conditions for the thermal stress in a body.

(a) It is the function of coefficient of thermal expansion.

(b) It is the function of temperature rise

(d) It is the function of modulus of rigidity.

Answer: (d)

123. The formula for the Euler’s buckling load is given as This is TRUE for which of the following columns?

(a) Column with one end fixed and other end free

(b) Column with one end fixed and other end hinged

(d) Column with both hinged ends

Answer: (a)

124. Determine the shape of the elastic curve between the supports B and C for the beam is shown in the figure below.

(a) A straight line

(b) Elliptical

(d) Circular

Answer: (d)

125. The elongation (mm) in a steel bar having a square cross section of dimension 40 mm × 40 mm is 2.5 mm and is subjected to an axial compressible load of P (kN). If the length of the bar is 4 m and modulus of elasticity is E = 250 GPa. What is the value of P(kN)?

(a) 100

(b) 150

(d) 250

Answer: (d)

126. The property of a material states that it is rigid. The value of Poisson’s ratio for this particle is_____

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

127. Consider the loaded beam as shown in the figure below

Choose the CORRECT option for the bending moment diagram of the beam above.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

128. Calculate the total angle of twist for a stepped shaft which is subjected to the torque (T) as shown in the figure below.

(a) T/πGd⁴

(b) 66T/πGd⁴

(d) 36T/πGd⁴

Answer: (b)

129. A cross sectional bar of area 700 mm² is subjected to an axial load as shown in the figure below. What is the value of stress (MPa) in the section QR?

(a) 30

(b) 40

(d) 60

Answer: (b)

130. Choose the CORRECT equation which defines the relationship between the Young’s Modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Poisson’s ratio (u).

(a) E = 3K(1 – 2μ)

(b) E = 3K(1 – μ)

(d) K = 3E(1 – μ)

Answer: (a)

131. In a P-V diagram for pure substance, the constant temperature line in superheated region is _______.

(a) converging

(b) diverging

(d) parallel

Answer: (b)

132. Which equation clearly defines the entropy change during the isothermal process for a system with m kg of gas at pressure P₁, volume V₁, temperature T₁ and entropy S₁ is heated to state points of pressure P₂, volume V₂, temperature T₂ and entropy S₂?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

133. The entropy change of the system and the surrounding during a process between two equilibrium states is_______.

(a) equal to zero

(b) greater than zero

(d) greater than or equal to zero

Answer: (d)

134. A Carnot heat pump is used to maintain a room at a temperature of 30° If the power requirements to of the pump is 20 kW. What is the heat pumped (in kW) to the room?

(a) 3

(b) 17

(d) 174

Answer: (*)

135. Which equation best represents the net entropy change(s) for an irreversible process?

(a) s = 0

(b) s = 1

(d) s > 0

Answer: (d)

136. Which of the engine has a spark plug used for igniting the fuel?

(a) Petrol engine

(b) Diesel engine

(d) Gas engine

Answer: (a)

137. What happens to the efficiency. When the temperature of intake air is lowered in an I.C. engine?

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(d) Increases to a certain limit, then decreases

Answer: (a)

138. For a process which is non-flow (U is the internal energy, Q is the heat and W is the work done) the first law of thermodynamics : states _______.

(a) dU Q W

(b)

(d) du Q

Answer: (a)

139. Which equation represents the steady flow system?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

140. In a P-T diagram for pure substance, the melting line has highest inclination with respect to the positive horizontal axis representing temperature for which type of substance?

(a) Substance that contract on freezing

(b) Substance that expands on freezing

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

141. Which of the following graphs represents working of an ideal Diesel cycle on P-V scale?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

142. The work done by a system is 45 kJ. If the internal energy of the system is decreased by 15 kJ. What is the heat received (in kJ) by the system?

(a) −60

(b) −30

(d) 60

Answer: (c)

143. A reversible adiabatic process in a T-S diagram is a____.

(a) point

(b) vertical line

(d) parabolic curve

Answer: (b)

144. Specific enthalpy is an _____ on a system and its unit is____.

(a) extensive property, kJ

(b) extensive property, kJ/kg

(d) Intensive property, kJ/kg

Answer: (d)

145. The internal energy of the system is a function of temperature only U = 30 + 0.5t kJ. If the system does the work of 0.5 kJ/K, What is the increase interaction per degree/temperature?

(a) -1

(b) 0

(d) cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

146. 2500 kJ/min heat is supplied to heat engine at 727° It rejects heat at 900 kJ/min at 223°C. This type of engine is______.

(a) Ideal

(b) Irreversible

(d) practical

Answer: (c)

147. What happens to the COP of a heat pump, when the temperature difference between source and sink is decreased?

(a) Decreases

(b) First decreases, then increases

(d) Increases

Answer: (d)

148. If two Carnot engine CE1 and CE2 are connected in a series such that the heat rejected by CE1 is used as the input as the input for the CE2 cycle with the intermediate temperature being the geometric mean of the extreme temperature. Which of the following statement is TRUE for this efficient of the Carnot engine?

(a) η_CE1 > η_CE2

(b) η_CE1 > η_CE2

(d) Insufficient data

Answer: (c)

149. What type of sloes does constant pressure line have in the superheated region of the Mollier diagram?

(a) Positive slope

(b) Negative slope

(d) First positive than negative slope

Answer: (a)

150. For a gas with n degree of freedom, what will be the value of C_p/C_v?

(a) n+1

(b) n – 1

(d) 1+2/n

Answer: (d)

151. With which of the following age hardening is related?

(a) Cast iron

(b) Gun metal

(d) German silver

Answer: (c)

152. Monel metal is an alloy of

(a) Cu and Cr

(b) Ni and Cu

(d) Cu, Ni and Cr

Answer: (b)

153. _______ iron is the magnetic allotrope of iron.

(a) α

(b) β

(d) δ

Answer: (a)

154. The bonding of rubber sheet with a metal is done by

(a) Welding

(b) High frequency dielectric heating

(d) Adhesive bonding

Answer: (d)

155. Plain and butt welds may be used on material upto approximately.

(a) 25 mm thick

(b) 40 mm thick

(d) 75 mm thick

Answer: (c)

156. An optical gauge works on the principle of

(a) reflection of light rays

(b) polarization of light rays

(d) refraction of light rays

Answer: (c)

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157. Generally, the strongest form in which metals can be used as

(a) hot rolling

(b) cold rolling

(d) forging

Answer: (b)

158. Thermite is a mixture of

(a) Aluminium and iron oxide in the ratio of 1:3

(b) Iron and aluminium oxide in the ratio of 3:1

(d) molten iron and aluminium, with the ratio depending upon the type of the surface to be welded

Answer: (a)

159. The process of enlarging a hole is known as

(a) counter boarding

(b) counter sinking

(d) drilling

Answer: (c)

160. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Crater wear is predominant in ceramic tools

(b) Crater wear is predominant in carbon tool steel

(d) Crater wear is predominant in high speed steel tools

Answer: (c)

161. The bomb calorimeter is an apparatus to measure the

(a) calorific value of a gaseous fuel

(b) calorific value of solid and gaseous fuels

(d) calorific value of a solid or liquid fuel

Answer: (d)

162. In metric system the unit of heat is given as

(a) CHU

(b) BTU

(d) Kelvin

Answer: (c)

163. Centrifugal pump is an example of

(a) isolated system

(b) closed system

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

164. A refrigeration system works on

(a) second law of thermodynamics

(b) first law of thermodynamics

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

165. Liquids have

(a) No specific heat

(b) different values of specific heat at same temperature

(d) two distinct value of specific heat

Answer: (c)

166. The volume of the universal gas constant (R_μ) is equal to

(a) 848 m kgf.kg-mol/K

(b) 8.48 m kgf.kg-mol/K

(d) 0.848 m kgf.kg-mol/K

Answer: (a)

167. The solid fuel having the highest calorific value is

(a) wood

(b) ignite

(d) anthracite

Answer: (d)

168. The heat transfer Q, the work done W and the change in internal energy U are all zero in the case of

(a) a rigid vessel containing steam at 150°C left in the atmosphere which is at 25°C/150°C

(b) 1 kg of gas contained in an insulted cylinder expanding as the piston moves slowly outwards

(c) a rigid vessel containing ammonia gas connected through a valve to an evacuated rigid vessel, the vessel, the valve and the connecting pipes being well insulated and the valve being opened and after a time, condition through the two vessels becoming uniform

(d) 1 kg of air flowing adiabatically from the atmosphere a previously evacuated bottle

Answer: (c)

169. A reversible engine operates between temperatures T₁ and T₂. The energy rejected by this engine is received by a second reversible engine at temperature T₂ and rejected to a reservoir at temperature T₃. If the efficiencies of the engines are same then, the relationship between T₁, T₂ and T₃ is given by

(a) T₂ = (T₁ + T₃)/3

(b) T₂ = sqrt {(T₁)² + (T₃)²}

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

170. Efficiency of aCarnot engine is 75%. If the cycle direction is reversed, COP of the reversed Carnot cycle is

(a) 1.33

(b) 0.75

(d) 1.75

Answer: (a)

171. The channel section considered to have the highest efficiency is

(a) Quadrant

(b) Square

(d) Triangular

Answer: (c)

172. Any liquid flow, obeys the following

(a) Capillary, action

(b) Bernoulli’s equation

(d) Newton’s law of viscosity

Answer: (c)

173. According to principle of floatation, the weight of liquid displaced as compared to the weight of the body is

(a) more

(b) less

(d) depending upon the shape of the body

Answer: (c)

174. The wetted perimeter for a pipe running full of water is equal to : Where d is the diameter of the pipe.

(a) πd/2

(b) 2πd

(d) δ

Answer: (c)

175. Metacentric height is the distance between

(a) CG of body and centre of pressure

(b) CG of body and the metacentre

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

176. Surface tension is caused by the force of………… at the free surface.

(a) Cohesion

(b) adhesion

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

177. The intensity of pressure in a liquid due its depth will, vary with depth:

(a) directly

(b) indirectly

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

178. The metacentric height of sailing ships is

(a) 0.45 m to 1.25 m/0.45 m to 1.25 m

(b) 1.5 m to 3.5 m/1.5 m to 3.5 m

(d) 5 m to 7.5 m/5 m to 7.5 m

Answer: (a)

179. The discharge through a pipe measured with

(a) a venturimeter

(b) an orificemeter

(d) All option are correct

Answer: ()

180. According to Nikuradse’s the boundary behaves hydrodynamically smooth when

(a) (k/δ) > 10

(b) (k/δ) > 0.25

(d) (k/δ) < 8

Answer: (c)

181. The coefficient of friction in term or Reynold’s number is

(a) 16/Re

(b) 32/Re

(d) 10/Re

Answer: (a)

182. The maximum velocity of an airplane in steady level flight will occur at an angle of attack of

(a) 20.5°

(b) 18.5°

(d) 26.5°

Answer: (a)

183. The wave produced due to surface tension in a shallow channel is known as

(a) gravity wave

(b) capillary wave

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

184. Which one of the following is an axial flow turbine?

(a) Pelton wheel

(b) Francis turbine

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

185. The unit power of a turbine is equal to

(a) P/H^5/2

(b) P/H^1/2

(d) P/H^{2/5 – 1/2}

Answer: (c)

186. Pseudo plastic is a fluid for which

(a) dynamic viscosity decreases as the rate of shear increases

(b) Newton’s law of viscosity holds good

(d) dynamic viscosity increases with the time for which shearing forces are applied

Answer: (a)

187. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists.

(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

(b) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-4

(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

Answer: (d)

188. Centrifugal pumps have which of the following advantages?

(1) Low initial cost
(2) Compact, occupying less floor space

(3) Easy handling of highly viscous fluids

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

189. What is the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid termed ‘poise’ equivalent to?

(a) dyne/cm²

(b) gs/cm

(d) g-cm/sec

Answer: (c)

190. Which one of the following conditions will linearize the Navier-Stokes equations to make it amenable for analytical solutions?

(a) Low Reynolds number (Re < < 1)

(b) High Reynolds number (Re >> 1)

(d) High Mach number (M >> 1)

Answer: (a)

191. Which of the following advantages is/are possessed by a Kaplan turbine over a Francis turbine?

(1) Low frictional losses

(2) Part load efficiency is considerably high

(3) More compact and smaller in size

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

192. The stream function Ψ = x³ – y³ is observed for a two dimensional flow field. What is the magnitude of the velocity at point (1, −1)?

(a) 4.24

(b) 2.83

(d) −2.83

Answer: (a)

193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical

(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time

(d) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow

Answer: (d)

194. The length of divergent portion of venturimeter in comparison to convergent portion is

(a) same

(b) more

(d) more or less depending on capacity

Answer: (b)

195. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between these points must be more then

(a) frictional force

(b) viscosity

(d) all option are correct

Answer: (d)

196. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on …………

(a) impeller diameter

(b) speed

(d) Both impeller and speed

Answer: (d)

197. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

(a) propeller turbine

(b) Francis turbine

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

198. The figure below shows the relationship between power (P) and discharge (Q) for different vane exit angles of centrifugal pump. In the figure given below, curve B holds good for :

(a) vane exit angle of 90°

(b) vane exit angle of less than 90°

(d) any vane exit angle

Answer: (a)

199. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of such a turbine, identical with a given turbine which

(a) develops unit power under unit head

(b) develops unit power under unit discharge

(d) delivers unit discharge under unit head

Answer: (a)

200. In reaction turbine

(a) Kinetic energy is appreciable as the fluid leaves the runner and enters draft tube

(b) the vanes are partly filled

(d) it is not exposed to atmosphere

Answer: (a)

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 22 January, 2018, Time-3.15 pm Question Paper with Answer Key

January 30, 2021December 11, 2020 by suresh84

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 22 January, 2018, Time-3.15 pm

CPWD/CWC/MES

Mechanical Engineering

REASONING

1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Car : Tyre :: ? : ?

(a) House : Room

(b) Labour : Salary

(d) House : People

Answer: (a)

2. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Triangle : Figure :: Car : ?

(a) Vehicle

(b) Seat

(d) White

Answer: (a)

3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Hour : Minute :: Kilometer : ?

(a) Meter

(b) Gram

(d) Weight

Answer: (a)

4. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

FRIL : OLUI :: TRAM : ?

(a) PKUW

(b) BDFW

(d) PDUW

Answer: (d)

5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ROCK : VSGO : BELT : ?

(a) AKLM

(b) FIPX

(d) ERPX

Answer: (b)

6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

LS : HO :: TQ : ?

(a) FM

(b) JG

(d) TF

Answer: (b)

7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

12 : 50 :: 18 : ?

(a) 40

(b) 70

(d) 60

Answer: (c)

8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

11 : 121 :: 15 : ?

(a) 289

(b) 343

(d) 217

Answer: (c)

9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

49 : 56 :: 81 : ?

(a) 92

(b) 88

(d) 84

Answer: (b)

10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Hand

(b) Legs

(d) Ear

Answer: (c)

11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Lizard

(b) Rabbit

(d) Crocodile

Answer: (b)

12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Car

(b) Bus

(d) Transport

Answer: (d)

13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) IFC

(b) LIF

(d) GDZ

Answer: (d)

14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) LO

(b) HS

(d) CY

Answer: (d)

15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) XSNI

(b) OJEY

(d) EZUP

Answer: (b)

16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 10 – 101

(b) 12 – 145

(d) 26 – 675

Answer: (d)

17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 23

(b) 37

(d) 51

Answer: (d)

18. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 11 – 26

(b) 16 – 33

(d) 18 – 33

Answer: (b)

19. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at second position?

(1) Easily (2) Earmark

(3) Ear (4) Ease

(5) Earthy

(a) 3 2 5 4 1

(b) 2 3 4 5 1

(d) 4 3 5 2 1

Answer: (a)

20. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?

(a) Opaque

(b) Ointment

(d) Ordinary

Answer: (d)

21. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(1) Outlook (2) Outlet

(3) Outbrust (4) Ornament

(5) Outrageous

(a) 43215

(b) 34215

(d) 52341

Answer: (a)

22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the give ones that will complete the series.

LMK, FGE, ZAY, TUS, ?

(a) BMQ

(b) SRB

(d) NOM

Answer: (d)

23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

RSK, TVM, VYO, XBQ, ?

(a) RGT

(b) YFA

(d) ZES

Answer: (d)

24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

KPM, PVR, UBW, ZHB, ?

(a) LQU

(b) NGT

(d) HIR

Answer: (c)

25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

35, 39, 48, 64, 89, ?

(a) 169

(b) 120

(d) 134

Answer: (c)

26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

41, 13, 54, 67, 11, ?

(a) 143

(b) 188

(d) 168

Answer: (b)

27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

9, 23, 50, 103, 208, ?

(a) 323

(b) 411

(d) 431

Answer: (c)

28. Five people are standing in a ticket booking line. A, C and D are standing together, D is between A and C. A is immediately behind B and E is immediately behind C. Who is standing second last in the line?

(a) C

(b) E

(d) A

Answer: (a)

29. At a family gathering C explained her relation with D by saying that D is the grand daughter of C’s mother’s mother. If C’s mother has no siblings, then how is D related to C?

(a) Daughter

(b) Wife

(d) Mother

Answer: (c)

30. From the given alternatives words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CHAUVINIST

(a) chain

(b) acute

(d) china

Answer: (b)

31. If CHATEAU is coded as DIBUFBV, then how will FOX be coded as?

(a) ULC

(b) ENW

(d) GPZ

Answer: (c)

32. In the certain code language, 2579 means ‘nice bow and arrow’, 3457 means ‘healthy and nice fruit’ and ‘8721’ means ‘bow to nice king’. Find the code for ‘bow’.

(a) 5

(b) 2

(d) 9

Answer: (b)

33. In a certain code language ‘+’ represent, ‘−’, ‘−’ represent ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’, represents ‘÷’. Find out the answer to the following question.

100 × 5 + 15 – 12 ÷ 6 = ?

(a) 513

(b) 71

(d) −154

Answer: (d)

34. If 74% 36 = 2, 29% 61 = 4 and 19% 26 = 2 then find the value of 48% 25 = ?

(a) 23

(b) 73

(d) 2

Answer: (c)

35. If A $ B means A is daughter of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does P $ Q * R # S mean?

(a) P is mother of S

(b) P is daughter of S

(d) P is mother’s mother of S

Answer: (c)

36. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 6

(b) 14

(d) 17

Answer: (b)

37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

AABAAAAA, ABAAAAAA, BAAAAAAA, AAAAAAAB, AAAAAABA, …….

(a) AAAAABAA

(b) AAAABAAA

(d) AABAAAAA

Answer: (a)

38. A plane takes off and flies 30 km South. Then it turns East and flies 10 km, then it turns to its left and flies 25 km, then it turns and flies 10 km towards West. Where is the plane now with respect to its starting position?

(a) 5 km South

(b) 5 km North

(d) 55 km North

Answer: (a)

39. Two motorcycle riders start from the same point. Rider A goes 15 km North then turns to his right and rides for another 8 km. Rider B goes 9 km West, then turns North and rides for 4 km and then turns to his right and rides 17 km. Where is rider A with respect to rider B?

(a) 11 km South

(b) 11 km North

(d) 19 km South

Answer: (b)

40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follows from the given statements.

Statement I : No students are scholars

Statement II : No students are teachers

Conclusion I : Some teachers are scholars

Conclusion II : All scholars are teachers

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Answer: (d)

41. In the question three statements are given, followed three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All cotton is cloth

Statement II : All cotton is shirts

Statement III : Some cotton is woven

Conclusion I : Some woven is shirts

Conclusion II : Some cloth is woven

Conclusion III : All cloth is shirts

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) All conclusions, I, II and III follow

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Answer: (a)

43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Answer: (a)

44. In the following figure, square represents lawyers, triangle represents cyclists, circle represents men and rectangle represents post-graduates. Which set of letters represents men who are not cyclists?

(a) FGBK

(b) CDIJ

(d) JIHG

Answer: (b)

45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Mothers, Nurses and Engineers?

Answer: (d)

46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (c)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Answer: (a)

48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (b)

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (b)

50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 32, 01 etc and ‘R’ can be represented by 79, 99 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘GLUE’.

(a) 30, 33, 78, 43

(b) 1, 67, 98, 32

(d) 33, 87, 12, 67

Answer: (c)

General Knowledge

51. Income and Expenditure Account is …………

(a) Property Account

(b) Personal Account

(d) Capital Account

Answer: (c)

52. Commodity or product differentiation is found in which market?

(a) Perfect competition Market

(b) Monopoly Market

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (c)

53. The economist who for the first time scientifically determined National Income in India is ……….

(a) Jagdish Bhagwati

(b) V. K. R. V. Rao

(d) Manmohan Singh

Answer: (b)

54. Which of the following is not a part of the non-plan expenditure of central government?

(a) Interest payment

(b) Grants to states

(d) subsidy

Answer: (c)

55. The percentage of decadal growth of population of India during 2001-2011 as per census 2011 is …………

(a) 15.89

(b) 17.64

(d) 21.54

Answer: (b)

56. The concept of Constitution first originated in which of the following countries?

(a) Italy

(b) China

(d) France

Answer: (c)

57. The Parliament has been given power to make laws regarding citizenship under which article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 5

(b) Article 7

(d) Article 11

Answer: (d)

58. Which one of the following cannot be the ground for proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of India?

(a) War

(b) Armed rebellion

(d) Internal disturbance

Answer: (d)

59. The 100^th amendment in Indian Constitution provides …………..

(a) Protection of livelihood and regulation of street vending

(b) Acquiring of territories by India and transfer of certain territories to Bangladesh

(d) Reorganization of state of Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (b)

60. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

(a) The Election Commission of India

(b) The Finance Commission

(d) The National Commission for Women

Answer: (d)

61. Which Buddhist scripture describes about 16 Mahajanapadas?

(a) Digha Nikaya

(b) Sutta Pitaka

(d) Vinaya Pitaka

Answer: (c)

62. The Chinese Pilgrim who visited India in the early 6^th century was………….

(a) Hiuen Tsang

(b) Fa-hien

(d) I-tsing

Answer: (c)

63. Which one of the following was the capital of the sultanate during the reign of Iltutmish?

(a) Agra

(b) Lahore

(d) Delhi

Answer: (d)

64. The ideas of non-coperation movement during freedom struggle did not envisage on ………..

(a) the bycott of civil services

(b) the bycott of foreign goods

(d) the surrender of British titles

Answer: (c)

65. Who among the following participated in the Salt Satyagarha of Gandhiji?

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

66. Which among the following is not the result of underground water action?

(a) Fiords

(b) Sink holes

(d) Stalagmite

Answer: (a)

67. In which of the following countries the Great Victorian Desert is located?

(a) South Africa

(b) South America

(d) China

Answer: (c)

68. Which of the following is a typical feature of river erosion in youthful stage?

(a) George

(b) Cut-bank

(d) Natural Levee

Answer: (a)

69. Which of the following Indian state does not share boundary with Myanmar?

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (a)

70. Bhavanisagar Dam or Lower Bhavani Dam, is located in which state?

(a) Tripura

(b) Bihar

(d) Telangana

Answer: (c)

71. Which of the following is a scheme of Government of India for providing online connection of LPG?

(a) SAHAJ

(b) SARAL

(d) DIGI DHAN

Answer: (a)

72. Which one of the following schemes is aimed at all-round development of adolescent girls in the age group of 11-18 y ears and making them self-reliant?

(a) RGSEAG

(b) IGMSY

(d) RMK

Answer: (a)

73. Bharatnet Project is related to which of the following?

(a) free wifi to students in rural area

(b) High speed internet to farmers

(d) A project connecting rural area with urban area

Answer: (c)

74. Which of the following countries will host the Commonwealth Games in 2018?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Indonesia

(d) Britain

Answer: (c)

75. In December 2017, who won the World Rapid Chess Championship Title 2017 held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia?

(a) Magnus Carlsen

(b) Viswanathan Anand

(d) Ian Nepomniachtchi

Answer: (b)

76. “Gandhi in champaran” is written by ………

(a) Arundhati Roy

(b) Fatima Bhutto

(d) Harper Lee

Answer: (c)

77. Who among the following has received Arjuna Award in August 2017?

(a) Harmanpreet Kaur

(b) Sardar Singh

(d) P.A. Raphel

Answer: (a)

78. Which of the following is the 14^th Intangible Cultural Heritage from India to be listed in UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?

(a) Ramlila

(b) Mudiyett

(d) Sankirtana

Answer: (c)

79. The Union Finance Ministry’s Revenue Department has imposed a five year antidumping duty on Sodium nitrite imports from which of the following country?

(a) Japan

(b) China

(d) Russia

Answer: (b)

80. Which neighbouring country of India celebrates its Independence Day on March 26?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Pakistan

(d) Sri Lanka

Answer: (a)

81. Which of the following is NOT an operating system?

(a) Unix

(b) Ubuntu

(d) MS-Excel

Answer: (d)

82. Instructions to computer are given through……….

(a) Input unit

(b) ALU

(d) Pen drive

Answer: (a)

83. Which of the following is slaked lime?

(a) Ca(OH)₂

(b) CaO

(d) CaCl₂

Answer: (a)

84. Among the following respiration is which type of process?

(a) Exothermic process only

(b) Endothermic process only

(d) Neither exothermic nor endothermic

Answer: (a)

85. In Modern Periodic Table, while moving left to right across a period, the metallic character……….

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(d) first increases then decreases

Answer: (b)

86. How many moles are present in 36 gm of water?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 8

Answer: (b)

87. In which mirror, image formed is virtual, erect and point sized?

(a) Plane

(b) Convex

(d) No option is correct

Answer: (b)

88. Which of the following affects the resistance of the wire?

(a) Resistivity

(b) Length of wire

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

89. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

(I) Force applied on the conductor depends on magnitude of current.

(II) Force applied on the conductor depends on magnitude of magnetic field strength.

(III) Force applied on the conductor depends on the direction of current.

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(d) All are correct

Answer: (a)

90. The direction of heat flow between two body depends on which of the following?

(a) Their specific heat

(b) Their latent heat

(d) Their area of contact

Answer: (c)

91. Which disease is caused by deficiency of Vitamin A?

(a) Beri-Beri

(b) Night blindness

(d) Pellagra

Answer: (b)

92. Air enters the body of cockroaches through …………..

(a) lungs

(b) gills

(d) skin

Answer: (c)

93. Which of the following carry the blood from all parts of body back to heart?

(a) Arteries

(b) Veins

(d) Platelets

Answer: (b)

94. Which of the following is an example of unicellular organism?

(I) Euglena

(II) Amoeba

(III) Paramecium

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(d) All option are correct

Answer: (d)

95. Which of the following controls the size of pupil in human eye?

(a) Cornea

(b) Iris

(d) Retina

Answer: (b)

96. Which of the following disease is generally caused by viruses?

(a) Dengue fever

(b) Typhoid

(d) Tuberculosis

Answer: (a)

97. Which of the following diseases are NOT caused by smog?

(a) Rickets

(b) Throat cancer

(d) Breathing problem

Answer: (a)

98. Which of the following gas is the second most abundant gas by volume in atmosphere?

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Ozone

(d) Carbon dioxide

Answer: (c)

99. With respect to humans, why is carbon monoxide a pollutant?

(a) It reacts with nitrogen dixide

(b) It reacts with sulphur dixide

(d) It makes nervous system inactive

Answer: (c)

100. Oil spills seen in which ecosystem?

(a) Desert ecosystem

(b) Grassland ecosystem

(d) Marine ecosystem

Answer: (d)

TECHNICAL : Mechanical

101. What kind of contact can be established for a higher pair?

(a) Point contact

(b) Surface contact

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

102. How many degrees of freedom exist in a free body in space?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(d) 6

Answer: (d)

103. A mechanism can be classified into a structure when the degree of freedom is______.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) 3

Answer: (a)

104. Which of the following is used for controlling fluctuations in an engine?

(a) Control valve

(b) Flywheel

(d) flywheel and Governor both

Answer: (d)

105. Which term defines the fluctuation of speed of a flywheel in terms of angular speeds?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

106. What is the velocity ratio for a slip in the belt drive system?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

107. Which of the following is NOT classified as types of link?

(a) Rigid link

(b) Flexible link

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

108. Which of the following can be said to be equivalent with the frictional torque transmitted by a disc or plate clutch?

(a) Flat pivot bearing

(b) Flat collar bearing

(d) Trapezoidal pivot bearing

Answer: (b)

109. What should be the incremental factor for the number of shoes, if the engagement speed for the centrifugal clutch needs to be doubled?

(a) 0.5

(b) 1

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

110. Two gears are said to have a conjugate motion if _______.

(a) they have a very small fluctuating angular velocity

(b) they have variable angular velocity

(d) they have very high fluctuating angular velocity

Answer: ()

111. Which of the following is CORRECT for the speed ratio of a gear train?

(a) Speed of driver/speed of driven

(b) Speed of driven/speed of driver

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

112. When the relation F_C = a.r + b is satisfied for a spring controlled governor as the relation between controlling force (F_C) and radius of rotation (r). This type of governor is known as ________.

(a) stable

(b) unstable

(d) hunt

Answer: (b)

113. Which of the following equation holds TRUE for height (in decameter) of the watt governor?

(a) 8.95/N²

(b) 89.5/N²

(d) 8950/N²

Answer: (b)

114. Which ratio defines the height of a porter governor to that of the watt governor for equal arm and link lengths, where m is the mass of the ball and M is the mass of the sleeve?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

115. What offset is provided for a cam follower mechanism?

(a) To avoid jerk

(b) To accelerate

(d) To minimize side thrust

Answer: (d)

116. Which of the following is NOT considered as a basic type of strain?

(a) Compressive strain

(b) Shear strain

(d) Volume strain

Answer: (c)

117. Which type of support has a reaction and a bending moment components?

(a) Hinge support

(b) Roller support

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

118. A rod with a length of 100 cm and diameter of 4 cm undergoes an axial pull of 50 kN. What is the stress (in N/mm²)?

(a) 0.04

(b) 0.4

(d) 40

Answer: (d)

119. Which of the following is True for factor of safety?

(a) Tensile stress/Permissible stress

(b) Compressive stress/Ultimate stress

(d) Ultimate stress/Shear stress

Answer: (c)

120. If one end of the hinged column is made fixed and the other is free, then by how much the critical load is compared to the original value?

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.5

(d) 4

Answer: (a)

121. For which type of column the buckling load will be maximum?

(a) One end clamped and other free.

(b) Both ends clamped

(d) One end hinged other is free

Answer: (b)

122. What will be the effect on Euler’s crippling load for a column with both ends hinged, if the length of the column is halved?

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.5

(d) 4

Answer: (d)

123. Which is the CORRECT reason for the 5%−10% of error in Euler’s crippling load, when estimated theoretically?

(a) Effect of direct stress is neglected.

(b) Presence of friction in pin joints.

(d) Material does not behave as an ideal elastically

Answer: (a)

124. If a load of 40 KN is applied in a compressive manner of rod whose cross section is 10 mm × 20 mm. Then what will be the compressive stress (MPa) on the rod?

(a) 0.2

(b) 2

(d) 200

Answer: (d)

125. What will be the thermal stress developed in a rod having a diameter of 4 cm and length of 2 m. It experiences heating from temperature 50°C to 20° The coefficient of thermal expansion is α = 10 × 10⁻⁶/°C and young’s modulus is 250 GPa?

(a) 300

(b) 325

(d) 375

Answer: (d)

126. Which of the following is a dimensions quantity?

(a) Shear stress

(b) Poisson’s ratio

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

127. Which of the curve is best suited for linear elastic-hardening plastic material?

Answer: (c)

128. Which formula CORRECTLY depicts the elongation in a composite body?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

129. What is the formula for elongation of a conical bar (with length L and self weight W) due to its self weight?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

130. What will be the value of Poisson’s ratio, if the elasticity and rigidity of the material is 200 GPa and 66.67 GPa?

(a) 0

(b) 0.25

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

131. What will be the dryness fraction for liquid (m₁) and vapour (m₂) mixture?

(a) x = (m₁ + m₂)/m₁

(b) x = (m₁+m₂)/m₂

(d) x = m₂/ (m₁ + m₂)

Answer: (d)

132. What is the amount of maximum work that can be extracted from a Carnot engine working between temperature 100 K and 1000 K?

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.5

(d) 0.99

Answer: (c)

133. When the degree of randomness increases, what is the change in entropy?

(a) Decreases

(b) Increases

(d) Remains constant

Answer: (b)

134. For a heat pump, the second law of efficiency can be written in the form_______.

(a) (First law efficiency)×(1-T_a/T₀)

(b) (First law efficiency) ×(1+T₀/T₀)

(d) (First law efficiency) ×(1+T_a/T₀)

Answer: (c)

135. Which entropy value best defines the state of water at triple point?

(a) Zero

(b) More than zero

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

136. Which of the following cycle is used in compression ignition (C.I) engine?

(a) Carnot cycle

(b) Diesel cycle

(d) Otto cycle

Answer: (b)

137. The self ignition temperature of diesel is ________ as compared to that of petrol.

(a) is higher

(b) is lower

(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (b)

138. What happens when supercharging is done for spark ignition engines?

(a) Increase knocking

(b) Decrease Knocking

(d) May increase or decrease

Answer: (a)

139. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute towards detonation in an engine?

(a) Engine overheating

(b) High compression ratio

(d) Wrong spark plug

Answer: (c)

140. Which of the following substance cannot be classified as pure substance?

(a) Chemical compounds

(b) Humid air

(d) Water

Answer: (b)

141. Which of the following statement is TRUE for work output of an ideal Otto cycle?

(a) Increases with an increase in adiabatic index.

(b) Increases with an increase in compression ratio.

(d) All option are correct

Answer: (d)

142. Which below stated statement is True about a reservoir of heat?

(a) It has a variable temperature

(b) The heat exchange is reversible

(d) There exist no real heat reservoirs.

Answer: (b)

143. If a heat engine produces work without the consumption of energy, then what kind of machine is this?

(a) Perpetual motion machine of first kind (PMM1)

(b) Perpetual motion machine of second kind (PMM2)

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

144. In a P-T phase diagram of a pure substance, which of the following lines separates solid and liquid region?

(a) Sublimation lines

(b) Vaporization line

(d) Triple point

Answer: (c)

145. What is the dryness fraction (X) of a saturated liquid-vapour mixture?

(a) 0

(b) 2

(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

146. A gas is compressed frictionless from an initial state of 0.4 m³ and 0.1 MPa to a final state of 0.2 m³ and 0.1 MPa. There is a transfer of 35 kJ heat from the gas. What is the change in internal energy (in kJ)?

(a) −55

(b) −15

(d) 55

Answer: (b)

147. What is the velocity of s team (in m/sec) at exit across a steam whistle which is perfectly insulated and does not perform any work and undergoes a drop of 0.2 kJ/Kg in enthalpy from entry to exit?

(a) 10

(b) 20

(d) 40

Answer: (b)

148. A heat engine performs a work of 100 kJ per cycle. The efficiency of the engine is 50%. What will be the amount of heat rejected (in kJ) per cycle?

(a) 0

(b) 50

(d) 200

Answer: (c)

149. What the region (2) in the p-V diagram given below is called?

(a) Compressed liquid region

(b) Saturated liquid vapour region

(d) Unsaturated solid region

Answer: (b)

150. What happens during a throttling process?

(a) Steam temperature remains constant

(b) Steam pressure remains constant

(d) Steam enthalpy remains constant

Answer: (d)

151. Steel can be hardened quickly by _______ process

(a) caburizing

(b) cyaniding

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

152. ______ has excellent resistance to acids.

(a) Permalloy

(b) Constantan

(d) Monel metal

Answer: (c)

153. Which of the following properties pertain to cast iron?

(a) Resistance

(b) Ductility

(d) Toughness

Answer: (c)

154. Ball bearing races are

(a) turned

(b) ground

(d) lapped

Answer: (d)

155. A very shoft whisper may have noise level of

(a) about 10 db

(b) about 30 db

(d) about 100 db

Answer: (b)

156. during the machining operation

(a) the chips experience stresses

(b) the chips experience strains

(d) the chips experience stresses and strains

Answer: (d)

157. The grinding wheel is considered better, if the grinding ratio is

(a) maximum

(b) very low

(d) minimum

Answer: (a)

158. Jig bushes are

(a) the parts of a drill jig through which the cutting tools are operated and located

(b) the locating devices used in jigs along with the fixture

(d) the locating and clamping parts of a jig and fixture arrangement

Answer: (a)

159. The following type of gauge has gauging sections combined on one end

(a) Progressive gauge

(b) fixed gauge

(d) combination gauge

Answer: (a)

160. Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have

(a) positive rake

(b) zero rake

(d) negative rake

Answer: (b)

161. The maximum heat content at 100°C in cal/m³ is possessed by the following gas.

(a) CH₄

(b) SO₂

(d) CO₂

Answer: (b)

162. The ratio of the specific heat at constant pressure to specific heat at constant volume for air is equal to

(a) 1.4

(b) 0.14

(d) 140

Answer: (a)

163. Heat pump is a device which

(a) Convert mechanical energy into heat energy

(b) Convert heat energy into mechanical energy

(d) delivers the heat from high temperature to a low temperature in a cyclic process

Answer: (c)

164. Total heat supplied at constant volume is

(a) Q = m×Cp × (T₂ – T₁)

(b) Q = m × R × (T₂ – T₁)

(d) Q = mC_v × (T₂ – T₁)

Answer: (d)

165. The efficiency of the diesel cycle increases

(a) with increase in cut-off ratio

(b) with decrease in cut-off ratio

(d) unpredictable

Answer: (b)

166. In a polytropic process

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(a) Only (A)

(b) Only (B)

(d) Only (D)

Answer: (*)

167. The volumetric analysis of dry products of combustion

(a) bomb calorimeter

(b) viscosity meter

(d) calorimeter

Answer: (c)

168. A carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed heat at a sink at 30° The temperature of the heat source is

(a) 100°C

(b) 433°C

(d) 1010°C

Answer: (c)

169. Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas a piston-in-cylinder assembly expands reversibly at constant pressure?

(a) Heat is added to the gas

(b) Heat is removed from the gas

(d) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion

Answer: (a)

170. A carnot heat pump works between temperature limits of 277°C and 27° Its COP is

(a) 1.108

(b) 1.2

(d) 9.26

Answer: (c)

171. For an open channel at critical depth the flow becomes

(a) Constant

(b) Zero

(d) maximum

Answer: (d)

172. In case of pump the specific speed is given by

(a) (1)

(b) (2)

(d) (4)

Answer: (d)

173. The units of kinematic viscosity are

(a) m²/s

(b) kg-s/m²

(d) N-s²/m

Answer: (a)

174. The hydraulic mean depth for a pipe water is equal to, where d is the diameter of the pipe

(a) d/2

(b) d/4

(d) 2nd

Answer: (b)

175. Vertical distribution of velocity in an open channel of laminar flow can be assumed as

(a) logrithimic

(b) parabolic

(d) hyperbolic

Answer: (d)

176. Which of the following is an example of phenomenon surface tension?

(a) Rain drops

(b) Rise of sap in a tree

(d) All option are correct

Answer: (d)

177. The height of the free surface above any point is known as

(a) static head

(b) intensity of pressure

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

178. The metacentric height of battle ships is

(a) 0.3 to 0.8 m/0.3 m to 0.8 m

(b) 1.0 m to 1.5 m/1.0 m to 1.5 m

(d) 5.0 m to 6.0 m/5.0 m to 6.0

Answer: (b)

179. The loss of head due to sudden contraction is equal to

(a) 0.75v²/2g

(b) 0.75V²/4g

(d) 0.25v³/2g

Answer: (*)

180. The value of critical velocity is governed by the

(a) inertia force

(b) viscous force

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

181. If a thin plate is held parallel to a fluid stream the pressure drag on it is:

(a) maximum

(b) minimum

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

182. The weir with thick crest is known as

(a) drowned weir

(b) broad crested weir

(d) cippoletti weir

Answer: (b)

183. In case of depressed nappe the pressure of air below the nappe is

(a) less than atmospheric

(b) more than atmospheric

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

184. The type of turbine recommended for a head of 10 m is

(a) Francis turbine

(b) Kaplan

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

185. The head of water required for Pelton wheel is

(a) low

(b) medium

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

186. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

(a) A-1; B-2; C-3

(b) A-2; B-3; C-1

(d) A-2; B-1; C-3

Answer: (a)

187. Consider the following equations

(a) Only I

(b) I and II

(d) III and IV

Which of the above equations are forms of continuity equations? (Where u, v are velocities and V is volume)

Answer: (b)

188. Two pumps can operate independently at heads H₁, H₂ and discharges Q₁, Q₂, respectively. If the pumps are connected in parallel, then what are the resulting discharge (Q) and head (H)?

(a) Q = Q₁+Q₂, H = H₁+H₂

(b) Q= Q₁ – Q₂, H = H₁ – H₂

(d) Q = Q₁ + Q₂, H = H₁ = H₂

Answer: (d)

189. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3

(b) A-3; B-5; C-1; D-2

(d) A-1; B-4; C-1; D-2

Answer: (*)

190. What are the dimensions of kinematic viscosity of a fluid?

(a) LT²

(b) L²T⁻¹

(d) ML⁻²T²

Answer: (b)

191. When can a piezometer not be used for pressure measurement in pipes?

(a) The pressure difference is low

(b) The velocity is high

(d) The fluid in the pipe is highly viscous

Answer: (c)

192. Match List-I (Measuring devices) with List-II (Measured parameter) and select the correct answer using the cods given below the lists.

(a) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4

(b) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

(d) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1

Answer: (b)

193. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(a) steady

(b) unsteady

(d) laminar

Answer: (b)

194. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is

(a) steady

(b) unsteady

(d) vortex

Answer: (b)

195. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal to

(a) 1 Pa

(b) 98.1 Pa

(d) 9810 Pa

Answer: (d)

196. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are

(a) straight

(b) bent forward

(d) bent forward first, and then backward

Answer: (c)

197. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

(a) flow vs swept volume

(b) pressure in cylinder vs swept volume

(d) pressure vs speed

Answer: (b)

198. The figure given below shows the relationship between power (P) and discharge (Q) for different vane exit angles of centrifugal pump. In the figure given below, curve C holds good for.

(a) vane exit angle of 90°

(b) vane exit angle of less than 90°

(d) any vane exit angle

Answer: (c)

199. An impulse turbine

(a) operates submerged

(b) requires draft tube

(d) operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

Answer: (d)

200. If a is the angle subtended by two adjacent buckets in a Pelton wheel when the number of buckets is equal to

(a) 40°/a

(b) 180°/a

(d) 360°/a

Answer: (d)

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 22 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am

January 30, 2021December 9, 2020 by suresh84

SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 22 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am

CPWD/CWC/MES

Mechanical Engineering

REASONING

1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Rain : Clouds : : ? : ?

(a) Rice : Food

(b) Grey : Colour

(d) Snow : Mountains

Answer: (c)

2. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Cactus : Plant :: Rice : ?

(a) Basmati

(b) Crop

(d) Rabi

Answer: (b)

3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Pink : Colour :: Eagle : ?

(a) Black

(b) Symbol

(d) Sky

Answer: (c)

4. In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

TOM : NIG :: ? : ?

(a) EAT : Y UN

(b) EAT : XXM

(d) EAT : ZXC

Answer: (a)

5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

LERI : PJVN :: MONT : ?

(a) WRTY

(b) QTRY

(d) RQYB

Answer: (b)

6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SAT : WEX :: MET : ?

(a) AQI

(b) IYX

(d) QIX

Answer: (d)

7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

43 : 7 :: 23 : ?

(a) 6

(b) 4

(d) 5

Answer: (d)

8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

38 : 53 :: 53 : ?

(a) 72

(b) 68

(d) 87

Answer: (b)

9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

9 : 81 :: 11 : ?

(a) 78

(b) 93

(d) 146

Answer: (c)

10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Goggle

(b) Purse

(d) Belt

Answer: (c)

11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Grapes

(b) Guava

(d) Orange

Answer: ()

12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

(a) Sparrow

(b) Rat

(d) Parrot

Answer: (b)

13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) GCXTO

(b) KGBXS

(d) QMHDY

Answer: (c)

14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) SOKG

(b) AWSO

(d) CYTP

Answer: (d)

15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(a) KNQ

(b) DGJ

(d) TWZ

Answer: (c)

16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

(a) 7-11

(b) 12-16

(d) 9-15

Answer: (d)

17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternative.

(a) 2-4

(b) 3-9

(d) 5-25

Answer: (c)

18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

(a) 76-42

(b) 92-20

(d) 93-27

Answer: (b)

19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

(a) Flagrant

(b) Flavour

(d) Flick

Answer: (a)

20. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at THIRD position?

(1) Heritage (2) Helpful

(3) Hectic (4) Heroic

(5) Heroism

(a) Hectic

(b) Heritage

(d) Helpful

Answer: (b)

21. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?

(a) Juvenile

(b) Justify

(d) Justice

Answer: (a)

22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

F, M, T, ?, H, O

(a) B

(b) C

(d) D

Answer: (c)

23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given that will complete the series.

ROK, LIE, FCY, ZWS, ?

(a) LAQ

(b) SRV

(d) FMQ

Answer: (c)

24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones th at will complete the series.

FAQ, LGW, RMC, ?, DYO

(a) VIR

(b) XSI

(d) MIS

Answer: (b)

25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

14, 22, 49, 113, 238, ?

(a) 386

(b) 532

(d) 576

Answer: (c)

26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

42, 21, 21, 31.5, 63, ?

(a) 169.75

(b) 157.5

(d) 126.75

Answer: (b)

27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

14, 44, 135, 409, 1232, ?

(a) 2962

(b) 3340

(d) 3406

Answer: (c)

28. E is sitting between and A, B is to the right of A, C is at one of the ends and C and D are sitting next to each other. Who is sitting third?

(a) D

(b) A

(d) E

Answer: (d)

29. Showing a photograph of a married couple B said that the gentleman in it was his father’s father and A said that the lady in it was her mother. How is A related to B?

(a) A is B’s mother’s sister

(b) A is B’s sister

(d) A is B’s mother

Answer: (c)

30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

MERCANTILE

(a) truce

(b) learn

(d) claim

Answer: (a)

31. If OLYMPUS is coded as MJWKNSQ, then how will TEN be coded as?

(a) RCL

(b) GVM

(d) UFO

Answer: (a)

32. In a certain code language, 1875 mean ‘wound the round watch’, 1643 means ‘a cake is round’ and 7321 means ‘watch a round wheel’. Find the code for ‘wathc’.

(a) 1

(b) 8

(d) 7

Answer: (d)

33. In a certain code language ‘+’ represents ‘−’, ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.

96 × 4 ÷ 125 +25 – 5 = ?

(a) 23

(b) 24

(d) 8

Answer: (b)

34. If 17 $ 22 = 4 and 56 $ 13 = 7, then find the value of 71 $ 25 = ?

(a) 56

(b) 96

(d)

Answer: (c)

35. If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does X # Y * Z $ W mean?

(a) W is X’s brother’s wife

(b) W is X’s wife

(d) W is X’s sister

Answer: (a)

36. Select the missing number from the given responses :

(a) 3

(b) 9

(d) 11

Answer: (d)

37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

OOXXXXX, OXOXXXX, OXXOXXX, OXXXOXX, OXXXXOX, ………..

(a) XOXXXXO

(b) XOXXXOX

(d) OXXXXXO

Answer: (d)

38. scientist is studying the behavior of an ant. The ant picks food and walks 5 cm North, then it turns to its right and walks for another 11 cm. Then it turns right and walks 3 cm, then it turns West and walks 15 cm, then finally it turns to its left and walks 2 cm. Where is the ant now with respect to its starting point?

(a) 4 cm East

(b) 26 cm West

(d) 26 cm East

Answer: (c)

39. Two football players start running from the same point on the ground. Player A runs 10 km East, then turns to his left and runs 13 km. In the meanwhile Player B runs 6 km South, then he runs 3 km East, the he turns to his left and runs 19 km. Where is Player A with respect to Player B?

(a) 7 km West

(b) 7 km East

(d) 13 km West

Answer: (b)

40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I : Some chapters are physics.

Statement II : All science is physics.

Conclusion I : All science is chapters

Conclusion II : Some physics is science

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Answer: (b)

41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I : All success is victory

Statement II : All luck is success

Statement III : Some hard work is luck

Conclusion I : Some success is hard work

Conclusion II : Some hard work is victory

Conclusion III : No victory is luck

(a) Only conclusions I and II follows

(b) Only conclusions II and III follows

(d) All conclusions I, II and III follow

Answer: (a)

42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Answer: (a)

43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Answer: (b)

44. In the following figure, square represents professors, triangle represents Social Workers, circle represents Dieticians and rectangle represents Men. Which set of letters represents Dieticians who are not men?

(a) EFGI

(b) BDKHJ

(d) DEJI

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Butterflies, Animals and Insects?

Answer: (a)

46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (c)

47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Answer: (c)

48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Answer: (c)

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Answer: (d)

50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘C’ can be represented by 97, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word ‘SPAN’.

(a) 66, 87, 33, 56

(b) 59, 78, 42, 31

(d) 78, 43, 22, 98

Answer: (c)

General Knowledge

51. Preliminary expenses are the examples of ……………

(a) Capital expenditure

(b) Capital gain

(d) deferred revenue expenditure

Answer: (a)

52. Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?

(a) Working in a call-centre

(b) Tuition occupation

(d) Banking

Answer: (c)

53. Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?

(a) Most of assets is owned by a group of people

(b) Most of assets is owned by big companies

(d) Most of assets is owned by an individual

Answer: (c)

54. The percentage of India’s population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is : …………..

(a) 17.5%

(b) 18.01%

(d) 20.25%

Answer: (a)

55. Which of the following five y ear plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?

(a) Eighth five year plan

(b) Ninth five year plan

(d) Eleventh five year plan

Answer: (a)

56. Which of the following thinker is associated with “the concept of political sovereignty?

(a) Maclver

(b) Socrates

(d) Plato

Answer: (c)

57. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state”?

(a) Plato

(b) Aristotle

(d) Rousseau

Answer: (b)

58. Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an………….

(a) Advisory Body

(b) Coordinating Authority only

(d) Administrative Authority

Answer: (d)

59. According to Indian Constitution, who decides the Salary of members of Parliament?

(a) Unions Council of Ministers

(b) Parliament

(d) President of India

Answer: (b)

60. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Eighth Schedule : Languages

(b) Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office

(d) Tenth Schedule : Defection related provisions

Answer: (b)

61. When did the Chinese traveler ‘Sung Yun’ come to India?

(a) 510 AD

(b) 518 AD

(d) 528 AD

Answer: (b)

62. Which among the following state ‘Odantpuri’ education center was situated?

(a) Bengal

(b) Gujarat

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c)

63. Who was the founder of Bahmani Kingdom?

(a) Hasan Gangu

(b) Firoz Shah

(d) Asaf Khan

Answer: (a)

64. During whose rule in India did the Khilafat movement begin?

(a) Lord Mountbatten

(b) Lord Dalhousie

(d) Lord Curzon

Answer: (c)

65. Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s?

(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati

(b) Swami Vivekananda

(d) Pandita Ramabai

Answer: (d)

66. Dasht-e Kavir Desert is located in which country?

(a) Iran

(b) Saudi Arab

(d) Sudan

Answer: (a)

67. Which of the following layers is called “Barysphere”?

(a) Earth’s most internal layer

(b) Earth’s intermediate layer

(d) Lowest part of the atmosphere where climate changes occur

Answer: (a)

68. The Blue Nile river originasts from which of the following lakes?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Tana

(d) Lake Albert

Answer: (b)

69. Which of the following states of India has the largest percentage of geographical area under forest as per the report of the Forest survey of India?

(a) Manipur

(b) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Answer: (c)

70. At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi combines to form River Ganga?

(a) Haridwar

(b) Rishikesh

(d) Devprayag

Answer: (d)

71. ‘Nirvana Fund’ was set up by NSDC for financial help to………….

(a) Entrepreneurs from the bottom rungs of society

(b) Displaced Kashmiri Pandits

(d) Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY but did not get any job

Answer: (d)

72. ‘Nakul Swasthya Patra’ is a scheme by the Government for which among the following purposes?

(a) Wellness of animals

(b) Wellness of animal owners

(d) Taking care of newborn babies in the rural areas

Answer: (a)

73. Which mine of India was the news recently for becoming the country’s first iron-ore mine to have a solar plant for reducing carbon footpring?

(a) Talchar mine

(b) Koraput mine

(d) Ratnagiri mine

Answer: (c)

74. Where will the Summer Olympics be held in 2028?

(a) Sydney

(b) Paris

(d) Copenhagen

Answer: (c)

75. Which country has won the 2017 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament?

(a) Switzerland

(b) Serbia

(d) Belarus

Answer: (c)

76. “You are Unique” is written by……….

(a) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(b) Khushwant Singh

(d) Arvid Adiga

Answer: (a)

77. The third Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) Distinguished Indologist Award for the year 2017 was awarded to Japanese professor…………

(a) Hiroshi Marui

(b) Shimamaru Marui

(d) Toyota Marui

Answer: (a)

78. Which of the following city has became first Indian city to get UNESCO’s world heritage city tag?

(a) Jaipur

(b) Ahmedabad

(d) Allahabad

Answer: (b)

79. In June 2017, which of the following countries have signed a protocol of co-operation in the field of archive?

(a) India and Israel

(b) India and Portugal

(d) India and Iran

Answer: (b)

80. India has signed an agreement to provide USD 318 million as line of credit for developing railway sector of which of the following country?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Nepal

(d) Sri Lanka

Answer: (d)

81. Dot Matrix is a type of …………..

(a) Tape

(b) Disk

(d) Bus

Answer: (c)

82. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform……….

(a) Arithmetic operations

(b) Logic operations

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

83. In the modern periodic table metals, metalloids and non metals are found in which block?

(a) s-Block

(b) p-block

(d) f-block

Answer: (b)

84. Cinnabar is ore of which of the following?

(a) Magnesium

(b) Aluminium

(d) Iron

Answer: (c)

85. In which of the following mirror size of image for med is always equal to the size of object?

(a) Convex mirror

(b) Concave mirror

(d) Both convex and concave mirror

Answer: (c)

86. Mass of a hydrogen atom is how many time the mass of an electron?

(a) 1000

(b) 8000

(d) 5000

Answer: (c)

87. Which of the following are Fabrics that may contain polyester?

(I) Polycot

(II) Polywool

(III) Terrycot

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(d) All I, II and III

Answer: (d)

88. Which of the following term does NOT represent electrical power in circuit?

(a) I²R

(b) IR²

(d) V²/R

Answer: (b)

89. A positively charged particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic field?

(a) toward south

(b) toward east

(d) upward

Answer: (d)

90. Which of the following is NOT positively charged?

(a) Alpha particle

(b) Proton

(d) Electron

Answer: (d)

91. Which is a water soluble Vitamin?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin K

Answer: (b)

92. Match the items given in column (A) with those in column (B).

Column-A Column-B

(I) Frog 1. Skiin

(II) Leaves 2.Stomata

(III) Earthworm 3. Lungs and skin

(a) I-3, II-2, III-1

(b) I-1, II-2, III-3

(d) I-2, II-1, III-3

Answer: (a)

93. How many number of chambers are there in human heart?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(d) Five

Answer: (c)

94. Which of the following is NOT present in a matured stomata?

(a) Plasmodesma

(b) Chloroplast

(d) Vacuole

Answer: (a)

95. What is/are the cause(s) of arise hypermetropia?

(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.

(b) Elongation of the eye ball.

(d) No option is correct.

Answer: (c)

96. Antibiotics are useful for which type of infections?

(a) Only bacteria

(b) Only virus

(d) Neither bacteria nor virus

Answer: (a)

97. Which one of the following is NOT responsible for water shortage?

(a) Rapid growth of industries

(b) Increasing population

(d) Mismanagement of water resources

Answer: (c)

98. Which gas is major contributor to greenhouse effect?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Chloroflurocarbon

(d) Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: (a)

99. Which of the following is NOT a major problem in development of resources?

(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.

(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands.

(d) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources.

Answer: (c)

100. Which of the following is NOT man made ecosystem?

(a) Orchards

(b) Home aquarium

(d) Grassland

Answer: (d)

TECHNICAL : Mechanical

101. The number of links (l) which is required to form a kinematic chain can be expressed in term of the number of pairs(p) as______

(a) l= 2p – 4

(b) l = 2p – 3

(d) l = 2p – 5

Answer: (a)

102. What is the total number of links and joints in the mechanism as shown in the figure?

(a) 3 and 3

(b) 3 and 2

(d) 4 and 4

Answer: (d)

103. What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

104. The graph of turning moment diagram is drawn between-

(a) crank angle and crank radius

(b) crank angle and crank effort

(d) crank radius and crank angle

Answer: (c)

105. The mass of flywheel of a steam engine is 3250 kg with the radius of gyration of 1 m. The starting torque of the engine is 4500 N-m, what is the angular acceleration (rad/s²) of the flywheel?

(a) 3.4

(b) 2

(d) 1.38

Answer: (d)

106. A pulley is driven by a flat belt and the maximum tension produced in the belt is of 1400N. The belt has the density of 1000 kg/m³, 100 mm wide and 5 mm thick. What is the speed (m/sec) of the belt for the maximum power?

(a) 32

(b) 31

(d) 3.05

Answer: (c)

107. The rotary internal combustion engine is the inversion of_____

(a) four bar link chain

(b) double slider crank chain

(d) Rocker crank mechanism

Answer: (c)

108. The pressure distribution in the uniform wear theory is______

(a) directly proportional to radius

(b) directly proportional to the square of radius

(d) inversely proportional to the square of radius

Answer: (c)

109. When the friction lining is new, the wear varies_______

(a) directly to radius

(b) inversely to radius

(d) inversely to the square of radius

Answer: (a)

110. What is the radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth known as?

(a) Dedendum

(b) Addendum

(d) Module

Answer: (b)

111. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the contact ratio?

(a) Varies directly to the length of the arc of contact

(b) Inversely proportional to the module

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

112. Which of the following is the type of pendulum governor?

(a) Hartnell governor

(b) Proell governor

(d) Watt governor

Answer: (d)

113. Which of the following governors does not have central load attached to their sleeves?

(a) Porter governor

(b) Watt governor

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

114. What will be the vertical height (m) of a watt governor, if the speed of rotation is 80 rpm?

(a) 1.4

(b) 1.14

(d) 0.11

Answer: (c)

115. Which of the following term defines the size of the cam?

(a) Base circle

(b) Prime circle

(d) Pitch curve

Answer: (a)

116. What term is used for the combined effect of all the forces on a body?

(a) Load

(b) Stress

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

117. Which of the following load does not act on the considerable length of the beam?

(a) Uniformly distributed

(b) Triangular

(d) Uniformly varying

Answer: (c)

118. Which term states the S.I. unit of stress?

(a) kN/mm

(b) N/mm²

(d) m³/sec

Answer: (b)

119. Maximum shear stress theory was postulated by___

(a) ST Venant

(b) Mohr

(d) Tresca

Answer: (d)

120. The equivalent length of the column when both the ends are fixed is_____

(a) l

(b) l/2

(d) 2l

Answer: (b)

121. The slenderness ratio of the column is____.

(a) directly proportional to the effective length

(b) directly proportional to the least radius of gyration

(d) directly proportional to the square of least radius of gyration

Answer: (a)

122. Rankine theory is applicable to the______

(a) Short strut/column

(b) Long column

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

123. Which of the following assumptions is INCORRECT about the long column?

(a) The column behaves elastically

(b) The load acts perfectly axial and passes through the centroid of the column section.

(d) The material is non-homogenous and anisotropic.

Answer: (d)

124. What is the maximum shear stress on the wall of a thin cylinder, if it has a diameter of d, thickness of t and the gauge pressure in the cylinder is p?

(a) pd/t

(b) pd/4t

(d) pd/8t

Answer: (d)

125. What is the volumetric strain in the thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure having hoop stress of 200 MPa, modulus of elasticity, E = 200 GPa and poisons ratio = 0.25?

(a) 20/1000

(b) 2/1000

(d) 0.02/1000

Answer: (b)

126. The property of the material to regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed is_______

(a) plasticity

(b) elasticity

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

127. The correct shear force diagram for the cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load over the whole length of the beam is.

Answer: (a)

128. Which of the following is the CORRECT bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam carrying uniformly varying load from zero at free and m/unit length at the fixed end?

Answer: (b)

129. A rod of dimension 20 mm × 20 mm is carrying an axial tensile load of 10 kN. The tensile stress developed is______

(a) 0.025 MPa

(b) 0.25 MPa

(d) 250 MPa

Answer: (c)

130. Which is the CORRECT option for the polar moment of inertia of the solid shaft?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

131. The triple point on a P-V diagram is_____

(a) a line

(b) a point

(d) not present

Answer: (a)

132. Which of the following statement related to entropy is true.

(a) Minimum entropy is observed when the system is in equilibrium with the surrounding

(b) At absolute zero temperature, the solid solutions have non-zero entropy

(d) Entropy conservation takes place in all irreversible processes.

Answer: (c)

133. If the COP of Carnot refrigerator is 4, then the thermal efficiency of the Carnot engine would be_______

(a) 0.33

(b) 0.25

(d) 0.18

Answer: (c)

134. While working between temperatures 150 K and 300 K, the entropy change experienced by the Carnot engine during the heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced (kJ) by the engine is______.

(a) 100

(b) 150

(d) 600

Answer: (b)

135. A heat engine working between the source at 200°C and rejects heat at 25°C receives 5 kW of heat. Work done for this engine is equal to 0 kW. Does this satisfy the inequality of Clausius?

(a) Yes

(b) No

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

136. An ideal gas with heat capacity ratio of 2 is used in an ideal Otto-cycle which operates between minimum and maximum temperatures of 200K and 1800 K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle for maximum work output?

(a) 1.5

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

137. In an Otto cycle, air is compressed from 3 liters to 2.4 liters from a starting pressure of 1.5 kg/cm². The net output per cycle is 400 kJ. What is the mean of effective pressure (MPa) of the cycle?

(a) 500

(b) 567

(d) 700

Answer: (c)

138. The combustion in a compression ignition engine is_____

(a) heterogeneous

(b) homogeneous

(d) turbulent

Answer: (a)

139. Which relation is the basis of Mollier Diagram?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (d)

140. Which of the following formula holds TRUE for dryness fraction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

141. Which gas will produce the highest efficiency in an ideal Otto cycle for same compression ratio?

(a) Air

(b) Carbon dioxide

(d) Oxygen

Answer: (c)

142. A Mollier diagram, the isotherm in the superheated region at low pressure becomes_____

(a) diverge from one another

(b) horizontal

(d) vertical

Answer: (b)

143. If the heat rejected from the system is zero, then which of the following statements will hold TRUE?

(a) When net work is equal to the heat absorbed, work efficiency is 100%

(b) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only.

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

144. Clausius’ statement and Kelvin-Planck’s statement are_____

(a) not connected

(b) two parallel statements of the second law

(d) false statements

Answer: (b)

145. For the same heat added and the same compression ratio,____

(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle.

(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.

(d) Cannot be determined.

Answer: (a)

146. A reversible engine operates between temperature T₁ and T₂. The energy rejected by this engine acts as an input for another reversible engine at temperature T₂, which rejects to a reservoir at temperature T₃. What is relation between T₁, T₂ and T₃?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

147. Which equation defines the enthalpy (h) of a system?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) U Jpv

Answer: (a)

148. Which gas can attain be highest efficiency for the same compression ratio?

(a) Any of the gases

(b) Diatomic gases

(d) Tri-atomic gases

Answer: (c)

149. In Clausius theorem the reversible path is substituted by_____

(a) reversible isobars

(b) reversible isotherms

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

150. Which of the relation represents an irreversible and possible process?

Answer: (c)

151. _______ does not certain tin as alloying element.

(a) Babbitt metal

(b) White metal

(d) All options are correct

Answer: (d)

152. Under microscope ferrite appears as

(a) White

(b) Light

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

153. ______ structure is obtained by austempering process of heat treatment.

(a) Sorbite

(b) Bainite

(d) Troostite

Answer: (b)

154. Preheating is essential in welding

(a) high speed steel

(b) cast iron

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

155. The melting point is the lowest for

(a) low carbon steel

(b) high carbon steel

(d) wrought iron

Answer: (c)

156. ______ is commonly used for making household utensils.

(a) Duralumin

(b) Hindalium

(d) Magnalium

Answer: (b)

157. Ball bearing are generally made up of

(a) carbons teel

(b) carbon chrome steel

(d) grey cast iron

Answer: (b)

158. _______ has high tendency to get work hardened.

(a) Lead

(b) Aluminium

(d) Silver

Answer: (c)

159. _______ is the hardest known material.

(a) Cemented carbide

(b) Ceramic

(d) Alloy steel

Answer: (c)

160. ______ is obtained by isothermal hardening operation.

(a) Cementite

(b) Sorbite

(d) Bainite

Answer: (d)

161. Fluid is substance which offers no resistance to change of

(a) pressure

(b) flow

(d) volume

Answer: (c)

162. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C

(b) 0°K

(d) 100°C

Answer: (c)

163. A perfect gas

(a) has constant viscosity

(b) has zero viscosity

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

164. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain

(a) tensile stress

(b) compressive stress

(d) bending stress

Answer: (c)

165. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having.

(a) higher surface tension

(b) lower surface tension

(d) high density and viscosity

Answer: (b)

166. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called.

(a) upthrust

(b) buoyancy

(d) none of these

Answer: (b)

167. is the equation to determine kinematic viscosity of liquids by.

(a) Redwood viscometer

(b) Engler Viscometer

(d) Newton viscometer

Answer: (c)

168. The capillary rise at 20 degree Celsius in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately

(a) 3 mm

(b) 5 mm

(d) 30 mm

Answer: (d)

169. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension with increase in size of tube will

(a) increase

(b) remain unaffected

(d) decrease

Answer: (d)

170. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation

(b) remains constant

(d) increases exponentially with elevation

Answer: (c)

171. The magnitude of rise of pressure due to water hammer in a rigid and non-elastic pipe carrying water of density ρ and bulk modules (k) will be equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) −

Answer: (b)

172. The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfill the following.

(a) Newton’s law of viscosity

(b) Newton’s second law of viscosity

(d) the continuity equation

Answer: (d)

173. The most economical section of circular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when (where, d, is the diameter of circular section)

(a) depth of water = 0.95d

(b) water perimeter = 2.6d

(d) Any one of these

Answer: (d)

174. Borda’s mouthpiece is

(a) a short cylindrical tube projecting inward, having length of ½ diameter

(b) a convergent tube having length of 2-3 diameters

(d) rarely used

Answer: (a)

175. The critical velocity is

(a) maximum attainable velocity

(b) terminal velocity

(d) velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined

Answer: (d)

176. Reynolds numbers for non-circular cross section is :

[V = mean velocity

ν = kinematics viscosity

P = Ratio of cross section area to the water perimeter]

(a) a only

(b) b only

(d) d only

Answer: (a)

177. In case of two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by, the streamlines will consist of a series of

(a) circular arcs

(b) parabolic arcs

(d) elliptical arcs

Answer: (c)

178. Friction factor of pipes depends on

(a) rate of flow

(b) fluid density

(d) all options are correct

Answer: (d)

179. Time of flow from one tank in which water level is h₁ to another tank having level h₂ will be proportional to

(a) A only

(b) B only

(d) D only

Answer: (c)

180. Which of the following represents steady uniform flow?

(a) flow through an expanding tube at an increasing rate

(b) flow through an expanding tube at constant rate

(d) flow through a long pipe at constant rate

Answer: (d)

181. Chezy’s equation is sued to determine

(a) velocity of flow in open channel

(b) velocity of flow in pipe

(d) discharge through notch

Answer: (a)

182. Bluff body is the body of such a shape that pressure drag as compared to friction drag is

(a) same

(b) more

(d) zero

Answer: (b)

183. For best hydraulic rectangular cross-section of an open channel, its depth should be equal to

(a) width

(b) two times the width

(d) three-eight of the width

Answer: (c)

184. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice is of the order of

(a) 0.45

(b) 0.5

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

185. The discharge over a sharp-edged rectangular notch of width w depth h is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

186. When a liquid rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure

(a) increases linearly as its radial distance

(b) varies inversely as the altitude along any vertical line

(d) decreases as the square of the radial distance

Answer: (c)

187. The discharge through a semi-circular weir is proportional

(a) H⁽⁻^1/2)

(b) H^(1/2)

(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

188. The rate of change of moment of momentum represents the

(a) force exerted by fluid

(b) torque applied by the fluid

(d) power developed by the fluid

Answer: (b)

189. Separation of flow occurs when pressure gradient

(a) tends to approach zero

(b) becomes negative

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

190. The ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge through an orifice is

(A) C_c/C_d (B) C_d/C_v

(a) A only

(b) B only

(d) D only

Answer: (d)

191. Coke is produced by

(a) pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere

(b) heating wood in limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C

(d) binding the pulverized coal into briquetts

Answer: (c)

192. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it’s dryness fraction is

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.8

(d) 0.5

Answer: (b)

193. At which pressure (in kg/cm²) the properties of water and steam become identical

(a) 0.1

(b) 1

(d) 225.6

Answer: (d)

194. Cochran boiler is a

(a) horizontal fire-tube boiler

(b) horizontal water-tube boiler

(d) vertical fire tube boiler

Answer: (d)

195. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is

(a) more

(b) less

(d) could be more or less depending on other factors

Answer: (a)

196. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supply the intake of an engine with air at density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere

(b) providing forced colling air

(d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

Answer: (a)

197. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

(a) clearance volume

(b) volumetric efficiency

(d) effective compression ratio

Answer: (d)

198. Which of the following is a false statement? Excess quantities of Sulphur in diesel fuel are objectionable because it may cause the following?

(a) piston ring and cylinder wear

(b) formation of hard coating on piston skirts

(d) detonation

Answer: (d)

199. Installation of supercharger on a four-stroke cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in power

(a) upto 25%

(b) upto 35%

(d) none of these

Answer: (d)

200. In order to prevent formation of carbon on the injector, the temperature (in°C) of nozzle tip should be

(a) less than 100

(b) between 100-250

(d) between 400-500

Answer: (c)