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IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Test 2014
PART-A
SECTION-I: GENERAL ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions (Qs. 1 to 10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:
Among the most important themes in the Disney movie The Little Mermaid are those of questioning conventional thinking, and pursuing a dream. Not only is Ariel, the little mermaid, demonstrating original thought (something that many seem to think she is lacking), but also she is rebelling against her speciesist father. When Ariel expresses her love for the human prince, King Trident is furious. When Ariel points out angrily that the does not understand her, or even know the man whom she loves, Trident retorts, “Know him? I don’t need to know him! He’s a human!” In a very real way Disney is encouraging children to question preconceived ideas that we may have against a certain group.
Disney also teaches children to pursue what they love. We see that Ariel’s love for Prince Eric is more important than all else. In turning to the sea Witch, Ursula, for help, Ariel makes a mistake, but no true hero or heroine is flawless. Ariel puts herself, her family, and all merfolk in danger, but we see that with the help of her prince, she is able to put everything right.
At the end of the film, when Ursula has forced King Trident to sacrifice his kingdom for his daughter’s soul, the Sea Witch rises out of the water, gigantic and terrifying, wearing the king’s crown and holding h is magic trident. She laughs evilly and declares that she is the ruler of all mermen and women. “So much for true love!” she screams victoriously. Eric, however, succeeds in piloting the prow of his ship straight through her belly, vanquishing her. The moral here is that while we all make mistakes, what is truly important is how we right the wrongs we m ay do to others.
1. The author’s main point in the passage is that
(A) Ariel should not have been allowed to marry Prince Eric
(B) Only Prince Eric truly understood Ariel
(C) Ariel demonstrated original thought
(D) The Little Mermaid teaches children to follow their hearts
2. Why does the author use parentheses around the comment (Something that many seem to think she is lacking)
(A) To indicate a side comment to the reader
(B) To indicate that it is unimportant
(C) To indicate a humorous tone
(D) To indicate a shift in meaning
3. Ariel’s father is called a ‘speciesist’ because he
(A) Does not know Eric
(B) Oppose Ariel’s love based only on Eric being human
(C) Does not understand Ariel
(D) Is furious
4. Which of the following would best illustrate the assertion made in lines “Disney is encouraging children to question preconceived ideas that we may have against a certain group”?
(A) A movie about the development of the iPod
(B) A movie that details the horrors of war
(C) A movie about a girl who overcomes her fear of snakes
(D) A movie that documents the travels of a rock band
5. Ursula’s quote “So much for true love” primarily suggests that
(A) The marriage was unacceptable to her
(B) She is mocking true love
(C) She is speciesist
(D) Trident was her true love
6. “Vanquishing” most nearly means
(A) Loving
(B) Succeeding
(C) Vanishing
(D) Defeating
7. The author’s attitude towards “The Little Mermaid” is primarily one of
(A) Appreciation
(B) Frustration
(C) Stoicism
(D) Ambivalence
8. Among the most important themes in the Disney movie The Little Mermaid are those of questioning conventional thinking, and pursuing a dream. In this sentence, what part of speech is ‘thinking’?
(A) Verb
(B) Noun
(C) Adjective
(D) Adverb
9. In the sentence in Q. No. 8, what part of speech is ‘questioning’?
(A) Verb
(B) Noun
(C) Adjective
(D) Adverb
10. When Ariel expresses her love for the human prince, King Trident is furious. This is a
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Complex-Compound sentence
SECTION-II: LOGICAL AND ANALYTICAL REASONING
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15): Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F participated in a debate. Out of the six persons two were ladies; E and his unmarried sister were new entrants this year in the debate; husband of D was winner of last year and participated in this year’s debate; A and C were runner-up last year; this y ear’s winner was neither a new entrant nor winner of last year; B left the debate in the middle for some unavoidable reason; at the end of the debate, C secured more points than A but less than E and F.
On the basis of above information answer the following questions:
11. Who is the husband of D?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) E
(D) C
12. Who was the winner last year?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E
13. Who is the sister of E?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) F
(D) A
14. Who was the winner in the debate this year?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) A
15. Find the missing number.
(A) 34
(B) 38
(C) 48
(D) 52
Directions (Qs. 16 to 19): In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers with one blank is given. Identify the missing number from the given alternatives.
16. 1, 8, 27, 64, ?, 216
(A) 85
(B) 125
(C) 155
(D) 205
17. 2, 11, 38, 119, ?
(A) 357
(B) 380
(C) 362
(D) 418
18. 4, 15, 37, 70, ?, 169
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 117
(D) 114
19. 29, 54, 103, 200, 393, ?
(A) 586
(B) 490
(C) 678
(D) 778
20. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following?
(A) Milk – Butter
(B) Inkpot – Ink
(C) Sugarcane – Sugar
(D) Coconut – Oil
21. If ‘Family’ is coded as 316459 and ‘Sister’ is coded as 747820, then ‘Mystery’ will be coded as
(A) 6987209
(B) 6789209
(C) 6978209
(D) 6972809
22. If GIRL is coded as HHJJQQNN, then FOND will be coded as
(A) GGPPMMEE
(B) GGPPMMFF
(C) GGNNMMFF
(D) GGPPNNFF
Directions (Qs. 23 to 27): Read the following paragraph to answer questions that follow :
A and B play Football and Hockey. C and E play Tennis and Cricket. A and D play Tennis and Volleyball. B and E play Cricket. C and E play Volleyball. C and D play Hockey. D and E play Football and Cricket.
23. Who does not play Cricket?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
24. Who plays Football, Hockey and Tennis?
(A) D
(B) C
(C) B
(D) E
25. Who plays only Tennis, Cricket, Volleyball and Hockey?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
26. Who plays only Football, Hockey and Cricket?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
27. Who plays all these games except Hockey?
(A) B
(B) E
(C) D
(D) C
Directions (Qs. 28 to 30): Read the following paragraph to answer the questions that follow:
A, B, C, D, E all have six balls. B gives two balls to E who gives one ball to D.. A gives four balls to C who gives two balls to B. B gives three balls to D, who gives one ball to A.
28. How many balls does B have?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 3
29. How many balls does C have?
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
30. Now, who has got the maximum number of
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
SECTION-III: EDUCATIONAL AND GENERAL AWARENESS
31. RTE Act 2009 grants Right to Free and Compulsory Education to the children between
(A) 3-11 years
(B) 6-14 years
(C) 6-11 years
(D) 3-14 years
32. The members of Rajya Sabha in India are elected by the members of
(A) Municipal Committee and Corporations
(B) District Councils
(C) State Legislative Assemblies
(D) Panchayats
33. School Education is presently included in which of the following lists in our Constitution specifying functions of various governments?
(A) State List
(B) Union List
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of these
34. To create a new State in India, a bill is to be passed by
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
35. District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETs) have been set up for improving the quality of
(A) Elementary Education
(B) Secondary Education
(C) Primary Education
(D) Pre-School Education
36. Who presided over the Constituent Assembly that framed the Constitution of independent India?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sarojini Naidu
37. The 10 + 2 + 3 pattern of education was recommended by
(A) Education Commission 1964-1966
(B) Secondary Education Commission 1952-1953
(C) University Education Commission 1948-1949
(D) National Commission on Teachers 1983-1984
38. Which organization prepares National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for School Education?
(A) NCERT
(B) CBSE
(C) NUEPA
(D) NCTE
39. In our Constitution, Right to Free and Compulsory Elementary Education is included in the Section on
(A) Fundamental Rights of Citizens
(B) Directive Principles of States Policy
(C) Human Rights
(D) Rights of Children
40. Who was the Prime Minister of India at the time of the creation of independent Bangladesh?
(A) V. P. Singh
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Moraji Desai
(D) I. K. Gujral
41. What was the major objective of the Quit India Movement?
(A) To gain complete independence
(B) To win dominion status
(C) To get more representation in the central legislative assembly
(D) To ensure employment of more Indians in the Government
42. Article 51 of the Constitution of India lists
(A) Fundamental Rights of Citizens
(B) Duties of Citizens
(C) Rights of Children
(D) Human Rights
43. Who have the slogan ‘Back to the Vedas’?
(A) Swami Vivekanand
(B) Swami Dayanand
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) Sri Aurobindo
44. Which of the following organization does not deal with school education?
(A) CBSE
(B) SCERT
(C) AICTE
(D) DIET
15. Why have Navodaya Vidyalayas been set up?
(A) To provide residential facilities to children
(B) To provide quality education to ST students
(C) To provide quality education to minorities
(D) To provide quality education to talented students in residential settings
46. Which one of the following is the highest civilian award given to eminent persons?
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Param Vir Chakra
(C) Bharat Ratna
(D) Maha Vir Chakra
47. Which organization is responsible for granting recognition to Teacher Education Institutes?
(A) NCTE
(B) NCERT
(C) SCERT
(D) UGC
48. The film ‘Guide’ was based on the novel of the same title written by
(A) R. K. Narayan
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Mulk Raj Anand
(D) Jhumpa Lahiri
49. According to Mahatma Gandhi, what should be the medium of instruction at the primary stage?
(A) Regional Language of the state
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Child’s mother-tongue
50. Which one of the following is not a part of North-Eastern India?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Tripura
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Nagaland
51. Which one of the following was passed in the last session of the 15th Lok Sabha?
(A) Right to Information Bill
(B) Right of Education Bill
(C) Street Vendors Bill
(D) Right to Employment Bill
52. Teacher’s Day in India is celebrated on the occasion of the birthday of
(A) Dr. Zakir Husain
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sri Aurobindo
53. Which country is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Nepal
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bhutan
(D) China
54. India is Republic because
(A) Head of the State is elected by the people
(B) Prime Minister is elected by the people
(C) Prime Minister is appointed by the Head of the State
(D) Prime Minister is supported by the majority of Parliamentarians
55. Which of the following States in India did not become independent in 1947?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Goa
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
SECTION-IV: TEACHING-LEARNING AND THE SCHOOL
56. The function of a teacher in a democratic classroom is to
(A) allow students completely free choice without any interference or suggestions
(B) tell students what are intelligent choices among various alternatives
(C) help students become more capable of making intelligent choices among increasingly significant alternatives
(D) make the choices for the student himself/herself.
57. For learning to be effective a goal must be meaningful in terms of
(A) curricular objectives
(B) intellectual ideas involved
(C) learners needs and purposes
(D) the standard of the school
58. The key to motivation in the classroom is
(A) an interest inherent in the subject-matter
(B) the teacher’s personality
(C) the emotional climate of the classroom
(D) the suitability of the curricular experiences
59. The chief function of work experience programme in schools is to provide
(A) youth with work experience
(B) business and industry with better workers
(C) freedom for teachers to handle more students
(D) a better basis for giving vocational guidance
60. A student has a problem. He/She asks the teacher “What shall I do?” The teacher should
(A) tell the student the course of action to take after considering his/her abilities
(B) tell the students what he/she would o is he/she were in the student’s place
(C) ask the student questions which will develop the information needed for an intelligent decision
(D) tell the student to figure out for himself/herself, since he/she would develop the ability to find solutions to problems
61. The best informed opinion of ability grouping is that
(A) it encourages individual initiative and leadership
(B) it eliminates the problem of individual differences
(C) it encourages students to make maximum use of their potential
(D) it needs to be explored further before it is accepted or rejected
62. According to modern educators, discipline refers to
(A) rules affecting conduct of action
(B) a way of promoting constructive and positive behaviour
(C) controlling the class by enforcing obedience and conformity
(D) curbing of students’ misbehaviour
63. Social development is essentially a matter of
(A) conformity to the demands of social order
(B) achievement of social security and acceptance
(C) the integration of one’s purposes with those of social order
(D) the development of social skills
64. Two boys have and I.Q. of 120 each. It can be concluded that
(A) both will be successful in high school and college
(B) the parents of both are above average in intelligence
(C) both would have the same aptitude to the same degree
(D) none of the above is necessarily true
65. Which of the following is not a product of learning?
(A) Attitudes
(B) Concepts
(C) Growth
(D) Skills
66. It can be safely assumed that a student understands a principle when he/she can
(A) answer specific objective type questions
(B) give appropriate examples of it
(C) repeat it verbally
(D) use it in solving unfamiliar problems to which to applies
67. A dominated over-protected child is likely to be
(A) aggressive
(B) delinquent
(C) quarrelsome
(D) withdrawn
68. Perhaps the greatest satisfaction in teaching is
(A) sense of service to the society
(B) sense of contribution to the pupil’s growth
(C) a feeling of love for and by children
(D) a sense of status and power as a teacher
69. Awarding ‘grades’ in place of marks is recommended because
(A) it will improve the overall quality of education
(B) teaching and learning will be facilitated
(C) differentiation among students based on marks will be eliminated
(D) ‘grades’ are easier to give than marks
70. Which of the following is not true about teaching?
(A) As a result of teaching a student must learn
(B) Teaching involves intention that someone must learn something
(C) Teaching is characterized by a special relationship between the teacher and the taught
(D) Teaching is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of learning
71. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Regarding acquisition of knowledge, people say that
(A) sense perception is the only valid sources of knowledge
(B) it is reason alone which can provide use true knowledge
(C) it is through reason and perception that we can get the true knowledge of the world
(D) we never get knowledge because it does not lie out there; we construct knowledge on our own
72. Child-centred education means
(A) designing curriculum by consulting the child
(B) planning educational experiences as the child wants them
(C) organizing teaching with maximum involvement of student(s)
(D) leaving the child free to plan his/her learning without the aid of the teacher
73. Which of the following is the most important single factor underlying the success of a beginning teacher?
(A) His/Her attitude or outlook
(B) His/her personality and ability to relate to the class
(C) His/Her communication and organizational ability
(D) His/Her scholarship and intellectual
74. Teacher’s main responsibility lies in
(A) planning educational experiences
(B) promoting human relations with parents
(C) experimenting with teaching techniques
(D) implementing administrative policies
75. When school children become mischievous, explosive, rebellious or apathetic, the teacher should first look into
(A) the atmosphere of the home from which they come
(B) the appropriateness of the work assigned and the demands made upon them
(C) the undermining influences of the home and the community
(D) the sociometric structure of the class
76. Generally the most effective approach to dealing with the child’s aggressive behaviour is
(A) to give him/her due punishment when he/she shows aggressive tendencies
(B) to channel his/her aggression into legitimate areas of competition
(C) to reward him/her for friendly behaviour and to ignore his/her aggressive behaviour
(D) to insist that he/she apologises for his/her undesirable behaviour
77. Which of the following describes the extent of the effect of heredity upon development?
(A) Heredity determines how far we will go
(B) Heredity determines how far we can go
(C) Heredity is the primary determinant of how far we will go
(D) Heredity is the primary determinant of how far we can go
78. The greatest deterrent to creativity on the part of the child is
(A) the adult insists on perfection and conformity to adult standards
(B) the failure on the part of adults to provide the needed inspiration
(C) his/her unwillingness to put in the effort required for perfection
(D) his/her easy discouragement and his short span of attention
79. A child who uses a wheelchair
(A) should not be in a regular school
(B) should study only in a special school meant for physically challenged
(C) should be given education along with non-disabled students in a regular school
(D) should be given education in a regular school but in a separate section
80. The chief point of distinction between a teacher-made test and standardized test lies in the area of
(A) objectivity
(B) norms
(C) marketability
(D) overall quality
PART-B
SECTION-V(i): SCIENCE
81. Which of the following is not a physical change?
(A) Boiling of water to give water vapour
(B) Melting of ice to give liquid water
(C) Dissolution of salt in water
(D) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
82. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order or acidic strength?
(A) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(B) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(C) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(D) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
83. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is known as
(A) ductility
(B) malleability
(C) sonorosity
(D) conductivity
84. Gunmetal contains
(A) Cu = 60%, Sn = 40%
(B) Cu = 80%, Sn = 20%
(C) Cu = 70%, Sn = 30%
(D) Cu = 90%, Sn = 10%
85. MRI stands for
(A) Magnets Resonant Imaging
(B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(C) Magnetic Radar Imaging
(D) Magnet Radial Imaging
86. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 
(A) 
(B) 10 Ω
(C) 5 Ω
(D) 1 Ω
87. Which of the following is not associated with growth of plants?
(A) Auxins
(B) Gibberellins
(C) Cytokinins
(D) Abscisic acid
88. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in
(A) cell body
(B) axonal end
(C) dendritic end
(D) axon
89. Drinking alcohol is very harmful and it ruins the health. ‘Drinking alcohol’ stands for
(A) drinking methyl alcohol
(B) drinking ethyl alcohol
(C) drinking propyl alcohol
(D) drinking isopropyl alcohol
90. Which of the following elements does not lose an electron easily?
(A) Mg
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) Ca
91. Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between
(A) pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(B) pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(C) pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(D) upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
92. Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium called
(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(B) Treponema pallidum
(C) Lactobacillus
(D) Streptococcus
93. Which of the following is not a natural resource?
(A) Soil
(B) Water
(C) Electricity
(D) Air
94. Which of the following is a ‘biodiversity hot spot’?
(A) Rivers
(B) Forests
(C) Deserts
(D) Oceans
95. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to
(A) chlorofluorocarbon
(B) carbon monoxide
(C) methane
(D) pesticides
96. Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?
(A) Grass, lion, rabbit
(B) Plankton, man, fish grasshopper
(C) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(D) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper
97. Red light is used for danger signal aas
(A) it has higher wavelength
(B) it can travel large distance
(C) it scatters the least
(D) it scatters the longest
98. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(A) dispersion of light by water droplets
(B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(C) scattering of light by dust particles
(D) internal reflection of light by clouds
99. The chief function of lymph nodes in the body is to
(A) produce red blood cells
(B) collect and destroy pathogens
(C) produce a hormone
(D) destroy the old and worn out red blood cells
100. Which is the first enzyme to mix food in the digestive tract?
(A) Pepsin
(B) Cellulase
(C) Amylase
(D) Trypsin
(ii): MATHEMATICS
101. 
(A) 83
(B) 81
(C) 79
(D) 72
102. The value of 
is
(A) 2
(B) √2
(C) 4
(D) 8
103. A 15 m high, vertical straight tree gets broken by the wind in such a way that its top touches the ground making an angle of 60° from the ground. At what height did the tree break?
(A) 5.96 m
(B) 5.19 m
(C) 6.96 m
(D) 6.19 m
104. The value of sect A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is
(A) −1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1/2
105. The value of 
is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
106. Second and third terms of an A.P. are 14 and 18 respectively. The sum of its first 51 terms is
(A) 5610
(B) 5614
(C) 5606
(D) 5618
107. The mean of first 8 prime numbers is
(A) 7.425
(B) 8.625
(C) 9.625
(D) 10.425
108. A fair coin is tossed 100 times and head occurs 58 times and tail occurs 42 times. The experimental probability of getting a head is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
109. The sides of a triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm. The area is
(A) 42 cm2
(B) 21 cm2
(C) 63 cm2
(D) 84 cm2
110. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of same radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Total surface area of the toy is
(A) 214.5 cm2
(B) 146.5 cm2
(C) 324.5 cm2
(D) 114.5 cm2
111. Three metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively, are melted and recast to form a solid sphere. The radius of this sphere
(A) 8 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 14 cm
112. Area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
113. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. By increasing its speed by 5 km/hr it takes one hour less for the same journey. The original speed of the train is
(A) 45 km/hr
(B) 40 km/hr
(C) 50 km/hr
(D) 60 km/hr
114. Ratio of the ages of a father and son at present 2 : 1. Fifteen years back it was 3 : 1. The present age of the father is
(A) 70 years
(B) 65 years
(C) 55 years
(D) 60 years
115. Passing marks in an examination are 40%. A student obtains 200 marks and fails by 40 marks. The total marks for the examination are
(A) 600
(B) 550
(C) 500
(D) 450
116. In a mixture of 60 kg, the ratio of cement and sand is 3 : 1. Another 15 kg of cement is added to the mixture. The ratio of cement and sand now is
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 2 : 3
117. There are 400 children in children’s home. If each one is given 200 gm of ration daily, it is enough for 30 days. 100 more children join the home and ration intake is reduced to 150 gm per day. The ratio will be sufficient for
(A) 30 days
(B) 32 days
(C) 35 days
(D) 40 days
118. Abdul has purchased a cycle for Rs. 4,176. The manufacture earns a profit of 16 per cent and both wholesaler and retailer earn profit at the rate of 20 per cent each. The manufacturer’s cost price is
(A) Rs. 3,200
(B) Rs. 3,000
(C) Rs. 2,700
(D) Rs. 2,500
119. Given three distinct non-collinear points. The maximum number of lines that can be drawn through them is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5.
120. The number of diameters of a circle is
(A) one
(B) two
(C) ten
(D) infinite
(iii): SOCIAL SCIENCE
121. Which unit of valuation is known as ‘Paper Gold’?
(A) Petrodollar
(B) SDR
(C) Eurodollar
(D) GDR
122. The coastline that borders the state of Kerala, is known as
(A) Konkan Coast
(B) Malabar Coast
(C) Coromandel Coast
(D) Canara Coast
123. Who is the founder of World Economic Forum?
(A) Klaus Schwab
(B) John Kenneth Galbraith
(C) Robert Zoellick
(D) Paul Krugman
124. The concept of sustainable development relates to
(A) Consumption levels
(B) Exhaustible levels
(C) Social equity
(D) None of these
125. Article-17 of the Constitution provides for
(A) Equality before law
(B) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(C) Abolition of titles
(D) Abolition of untouchability
126. Where did the practice of ‘Shadow Cabinet’ originate?
(A) USA
(B) Great Britain
(C) Italy
(D) France
127. The Indian Citizenship Act was passed in
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1955
(D) 1960
128. Saka Era which starts from 78 AD represents
(A) Kanishka’s reign
(B) Prosperity of Harsha
(C) Shivaji’s reign
(D) Chandragupta’s reign
129. The foundation stone of the Gateway of India was laid in
(A) 1911
(B) 1927
(C) 1857
(D) 1947
130. Almatti Dam is located on which of the following rivers?
(A) Godavari
(B) Kaveri
(C) Krishna
(D) Mahanadi
131. Which of the following are the youngest mountains of India?
(A) Aravallis
(B) Himalayas
(C) Nilgiris
(D) Vindhyachal
132. Gresham’s law in Economics relates to
(A) Supply and demand
(B) Circulation of currency
(C) Consumption of supply
(D) Distribution of goods and services
133. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P.A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
134. The Indian Independence League was set up by
(A) Rash Behari Bose
(B) S.M. Joshi
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
135. The description of Caste System is found in
(A) Rig Veda
(B) Sam Veda
(C) Yajur Veda
(D) None of these
136. The capital of Pallavas was
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banaras
137. In early medieval India, what did the term ‘Jital’ refer to?
(A) Weight
(B) Diet
(C) Coin
(D) Game
138. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
(A) Rice
(B) Groundnut
(C) Maize
(D) Barley
139. Which one of the following is a landlocked sea?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
140. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?
(A) Bering
(B) Dover
(C) Gibraltar
(D) Malacca
(iv) : ENGLISH
Directions (Qs. 141 to 142): In each of the following questions some alternatives have been suggested for the idioms/phrase. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning.
141. “Pay through the nose”
(A) Pay huge loans
(B) Pay a reasonable price
(C) Pay an extremely high price
(D) Make a quick buck
142. “Rest on one’s laurels”
(A) To be unhappy
(B) To be motivated
(C) To be impatient
(D) To be complacent
143. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for “To talk much without coming to the point”.
(A) Verbosity
(B) Garrulousness
(C) Loquacity
(D) Circumlocution
144. Choose the correctly spelt word
(A) Ancestry
(B) Ancastry
(C) Encestry
(D) Encastry
145. Choose the correctly spelt word
(A) Haritage
(B) Heritage
(C) Heritege
(D) Haritege
146. Choose the indirect form of the following sentence:
Mary said to Robert, “Let him come, then we shall see him.”
(A) Mary said to Robert that if he came, then we would see him.
(B) Mary asked Robert if he come, we will see him
(C) Mary told Robert if he comes, we will see him.
(D) Mary said to Robert if he comes,, we would see him.
147. Choose the indirect form of the following sentence:
He said, “I have often told you not to waste your time.”
(A) He said that he had often told him not to waste your time.
(B) He said that he had often told him not to waste his time.
(C) He said that he had often suggested to him not to waste my time.
(D) He told that he had often told him not to waste my time.
148. The passive voice of “One should keep one’s promise” is
(A) One’s promise should be kept by us.
(B) One’s promise should be kept.
(C) A promise should be keeping.
(D) A promise should be kept by us.
149. The active voice of “A lion may be helped even by a little mouse” is
(A) A little mouse may even help a lion.
(B) Even a little mouse may help a lion.
(C) A little mouse can even help a lion.
(D) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion.
Directions (Qs. 150 to 152): Choose the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
150. If I had worked hard, I …………. very high marks in the examination.
(A) scored
(B) would score
(C) could score
(D) would have scored
151. Suitable steps are taken to bring ……….. the cost of living.
(A) in
(B) over
(C) on
(D) down
152. When I saw her after many years ……………. thoughts filled my mind.
(A) galaxy
(B) feeling
(C) numerous
(D) multitude
153. Who said “If winter comes, can spring be far behind”?
(A) Frost
(B) Shelley
(C) Keats
(D) Coleridge
154. Which one of the following considered the last tragedy of Shakespeare?
(A) Othello
(B) Macbeth
(C) Hamlet
(D) Coriolanus
155. Which one of the following poems is composed by William Wordsworth?
(A) Ode to Duty
(B) Ode to the West Wind
(C) Ode to a Nightingale
(D) Ode on Solitude
156. Who is known as “The Prince of English Essayists”?
(A) Lamb
(B) Addison
(C) Eliot
(D) Steele
157. At the end of the play “Measure for Measure” who was married to Angelo?
(A) Julietta
(B) Isabella
(C) A whore
(D) Mariana
158. Who said that “Child is the father of the man”?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Pope
(C) Milton
(D) Shakespeare
159. In the sentence “Indira Gandhi, who was killed in 1984, was the first woman Prime Minister in India.”
who was killed in 1984 is a :
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of these
160. In the sentence “This is the town where that great man was born.”
where that great man was born is a:
(A) Noun clause
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) None of these
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