Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2)
Examination (Second Shift) Tier-I Held on 2 November, 2014
Part-I
General Intelligence
Directions – (Q. 1 to 9) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
1.
(A) Square
(B) Equilateral Triangle
(C) Rhombus
(D) Right Angle Triangle
2.
(A) Aptitude
(B) Altitude
(C) Attitude
(D) Behaviour
3.
(A) SSA
(B) RMSA
(C) RUSA
(D) NASA
4.
(A) 63
(B) 69
(C) 65
(D) 66
5.
(A) 108
(B) 91
(C) 144
(D) 225
6.
(A) 187 : 11
(B) 194 : 12
(C) 195 : 13
(D) 224 : 14
7.
(A) D
(B) G
(C) H
(D) J
8.
(A) SRT
(B) PON
(C) KJL
(D) VUW
9.
(A) KVFU
(B) CXDW
(C) AZBX
(D) GTHS
10. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
(1) Earth (2) Jupiter
(3) Venus (4) Mars
(5) Mercury
(A) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
11. Find the odd one out-
(A) January, May
(B) April, June
(C) July, August
(D) January, December
Directions-(Q. 12 to 18) A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
12. CBA, ABC, ABCD, DCBA, ABCDE, ?
(A) EDCBA
(B) DBAC
(C) CABD
(D) BACD
13. AD, EI, JN, PS, ?
(A) WY
(B) XX
(C) WX
(D) WW
14. PON, RQP, TSR, VUT, ?
(A) WUY
(B) YXZ
(C) XWV
(D) UVW
15. ar, cs, et, ?
(A) wy
(B) gv
(C) vb
(D) gu
16. 9, 15, 23, 33, ?
(A) 44
(B) 36
(C) 38
(D) 45
17. 4, 7, 14, 24, 41, ?
(A) 71
(B) 68
(C) 72
(D) 51
18. 5, 16, 51, 158, ?
(A) 481
(B) 465
(C) 441
(D) 478
19. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many sheep are left?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 10
20. Present ages of father & son are in the ratio of 5 : 1 respectively. Seven years later this ratio becomes 3 : 1. What is the son’s present age in years?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
21. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word-
TRADITIONAL
(A) NATION
(B) RADIO
(C) ANIMAL
(D) DIRTY
22. If ‘NEWS’ is written as ‘WENS’, then how ‘MATE’ will be written in this code?
(A) TAME
(B) META
(C) EATM
(D) AMET
23. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
24. Select the missing number from the given responses-
1 4 2 3 2 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
25. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the give equation correct?
(6 + 3) + (4 × 7) = 29
(A) + and −
(B) ÷ and +
(C) × and +
(D) ÷ and ×
26. Change the sign to find the equation :
28 – 7 + 2 × 2 = 0
(A) Change + into ×
(B) Change × into,
(C) Change – into +
(D) Change + into −
27. The price of onions is shown below for every fortnight. Find the price in Feb. 3rd week.
(A) 140
(B) 300
(C) 180
(D) 320
28. The population of a village in Madurai is increasing year after year. Find out the population (in lakhs) in 2013 from the following information-
(A) 49
(B) 46
(C) 45
(D) 43
29. Ram walk 12 kms to the North, then 10 kms to West, 12 kms South. How far is Ram from the starting point?
(A) 9 kms
(B) 13 kms
(C) 8 kms
(D) 10 kms
30. Town A and town B were 60 km apart. Joshua left town A for town B and travelled at an average speed of 65 km/h. At the same time, Menon left town B for town A. The two of them met 5 hours later. Find Menon’s average speed.
(A) 55 km/h
(B) 60 km/h
(C) 65 km/h
(D) 120 km/h
31. There are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Dyslexia is a psychological disorder.
Reason (R) : Vitamin deficiency causes the disease.
Codes :
(A) If both (A) and (R) are true
(B) If both (A) and (R) are false
(C) If (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) If (A) is true, but (R) is false
32. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions. If any, follow from the given statements. Indicate your answer.
Statements:
All Americans are English-speaking.
No Eskimos are English-Speaking.
Conclusions:
(I) No Eskimos are Americans.
(II) No English-speakers are Eskimos.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Neither I nor II follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Both I and II follows
Directions –(Q. 33 to 41) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
33. River : Tributary :: Tree : ?
(A) Stem
(B) Root
(C) Branch
(D) Flower
34. Lion : Forest :: Fish : ?
(A) Cage
(B) Nest
(C) Sky
(D) Water
35. Polio : Virus :: Anthrax : ?
(A) Fungus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Insect
36. MONEY : YENOM :: RIGHT : ?
(A) HTIRG
(B) THGIR
(C) GIRHT
(D) IRGHT
37. NIIOLUSL : ILLUSION : TBERVARE : ?
(A) STRANGE
(B) VERTEBRA
(C) VABTERE
(D) ERAVEBT
38. RUST : 9687 :: TSUR : ?
(A) 7896
(B) 7869
(C) 7689
(D) 6789
39. 13 : 169 :: ?
(A) 12 : 140
(B) 3 : 6
(C) 11 : 111
(D) 9 : 81
40. 23 : 29 :: 41 : ?
(A) 43
(B) 45
(C) 47
(D) 49
41. 6 : 10 :: 9 : ?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 18
42. The sides of a cube show the colours of rainbow. Two positions of the cube are shown below. Which of the colours of rainbow is left out?
(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Violet
(D) Indigo
43. Based on the diagrams what is the letter which is opposite to A?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
Directions-(Q. 44 ad 45) Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below-
44. Singers, Boys, Dancers.
45. Ornaments, Gold, Silver.
46. Identify the answer figure from which the piece given in question figure has been cut.
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
48. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.
49. Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror-image of the given combination.
DANIEL
50. A words is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns are rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘I’ can be represented by 13, 21 etc. and ‘B’ can be represented by 57, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in question.
‘FADE’
(A) 76, 02, 75, 32
(B) 68, 20, 57, 14
(C) 55, 33, 65, 23
(D) 89, 10, 96, 41
For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only
Directions-(Q. 42 to 45) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
42. Pen : ink :: ………
(A) Doctor : coat
(B) Tank : petrol
(C) Police : gun
(D) Fisherman : net
43. Coconut : Shell :: Letter : ?
(A) Letter-box
(B) Stamp
(C) Mail
(D) Envelope
44. AJT : CMW :: EJO : ?
(A) GMR
(B) GLR
(C) GLQ
(D) GKS
45. 393 : 857 :: 467 : ?
(A) 468
(B) 526
(C) 483
(D) 589
Directions-(Q. 46 to 49) Find the odd number/letters/pair from the given alternatives.
46.
(A) Snake
(B) Whale
(C) Crocodile
(D) Lizard
47.
(A) Hurricane
(B) Explosion
(C) Earthquake
(D) Tsunami
48.
(A) 631
(B) 862
(C) 530
(D) 357
49.
(A) Dholak
(B) Madal
(C) Mridanga
(D) Tabla
50. Find the odd one in the series-
4, 9, 19, 34, 79
(A) 34
(B) 79
(C) 9
(D) 19
Part-II
English Language
Directions-(Q. 1-5) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). For alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate square (∎) in the answer sheet.
1. The priest was innocent ………. he could not prove it.
(A) and
(B) but
(C) for
(D) so
2. Many people who …… practicing photography as a hobby turn it eventually into a livelihood.
(A) resume
(B) prefer
(C) imply
(D) start
3. She is ……… of lizards.
(A) fearful
(B) frightened
(C) afraid
(D) terrified
4. His path was beset ……. difficulties.
(A) by
(B) with
(C) of
(D) from
5. The plan is worth considering, think it ……… carefully.
(A) of
(B) on
(C) off
(D) over
Directions- (Q. 6-10) In these question choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
6. Reluctant
(A) Hesitant
(B) Reserved
(C) Anxious
(D) Willing
7. Novel
(A) Naughty
(B) Novelist
(C) Banal
(D) Nasty
8. Eloquent
(A) Elegant
(B) Lucid
(C) Articulate
(D) Inarticulate
9. Fluent
(A) Inappropriate
(B) Halting
(C) Degrading
(D) Insensitive
10. Adversity
(A) Prosperity
(B) Curiosity
(C) Animosity
(D) Sincerity
Directions-(Q. 11-15) In these question out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
11. Amiable
(A) Rude
(B) Curt
(C) Friendly
(D) Annoyed
12. Curious
(A) Doubtful
(B) Inquisitive
(C) Sad
(D) Suspicious
13. Candid
(A) Honest
(B) Greedy
(C) Dishonest
(D) Secretive
14. Forsaken
(A) Nurtured
(B) Neglected
(C) Pardoned
(D) Abandoned
15. Vivacious
(A) Lonely
(B) Lively
(C) Beautiful
(D) Bravely
Directions-(Q. 16-20) In these question four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
16. The detective went abroad in search of a culprit but his journey proved to be a wild goose chase.
(A) expensive
(B) full of difficulties
(C) unprofitable adventure
(D) ill advised
17. A close shave.
(A) A narrow escape from danger.
(B) Stubble
(C) Very short hair
(D) Hairless skin
18. Please be as brief as you, can, I have other fish to fry.
(A) to cook the food
(B) to take rest
(C) some important work to attend to
(D) to attend the friends
19. His argument does not hold water.
(A) to have effect
(B) to influence
(C) to check the flow of water
(D) sound logical fact
20. It was her maiden speech on the stage and she performed well.
(A) unprepared speech
(B) sudden speech
(C) primary speech
(D) first speech
Directions-(Q. 21-25) In these question a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Your answer in the Answer Sheet.
21. When the little girl losses her doll, she began to cry.
(A) losing her doll
(B) loss her doll
(C) lost her doll
(D) No improvement
22. I brushed my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning.
(A) I brushes my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning.
(B) I brush my teeth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning.
(C) I brush my tooth every day at 7 O’clock in the morning.
(D) No improvement
23. More than 60% of India’s population live under the poverty line.
(A) live by the poverty line
(B) live below poverty line
(C) live beside the poverty line
(D) No improvement
24. Only me I can solve the problem.
(A) Only me can
(B) Only I can
(C) I can only
(D) No improvement
25. They congratulated me for my victory in the debate competition.
(A) about
(B) at
(C) on
(D) No improvement
Directions-(Q. 26-30) In these question out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
26. Beyond Correction
(A) Inverterate
(B) Glib
(C) Incorrigible
(D) Incongruous
27. Widespread scarcity of food-
(A) Hunger
(B) Drought
(C) Poverty
(D) Famine
28. Inflammation of gums-
(A) Gangerene
(B) Gingivitis
(C) Conjunctivitis
(D) Orchitis
29. A book written by an unknown author-
(A) Anonymous
(B) Acrimonious
(C) Audacious
(D) Assiduous
30. An event that causes great harm or dams-
(A) Problem
(B) Disaster
(C) Pain
(D) Relief
Directions- (Q. 31-35) In these question four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
31.
(A) nuisense
(B) nuisanse
(C) nuissance
(D) nuisance
32.
(A) saimultaneous
(B) simultaenous
(C) simultaneous
(D) simultanious
33.
(A) honourarium
(B) honorarium
(C) honourerium
(D) honourrarium
34.
(A) fortuneate
(B) fortuneit
(C) forchunate
(D) fortunate
35.
(A) misfourtune
(B) miscelaneous
(C) misdemenour
(D) misspell
Directions- (Q. 36-45) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.
Rajan is a salesman. He goes from door to door …(36)… vacuum cleaners. On his first day of work, he …(37)… to sell his goods by …(38)… on the doors of a private housing estate. “My first …(39)…,” he thought as he …(40)… the doorbell of the first house. A middle-aged woman with curlers in her hair opened the door. Rajan began to …(41)… who he was and the …(42)… he was selling. The …(43)… minute, the door was …(44)… shut. “Not interested !” John heard her shout …(45)… the closed door.
36.
(A) purchasing
(B) buying
(C) gifting
(D) selling
37.
(A) decided
(B) undecided
(C) finalized
(D) cancelled
38.
(A) hacking
(B) knocking
(C) breaking
(D) shaking
39.
(A) consumer
(B) customer
(C) supplier
(D) manufacturer
40.
(A) pressed
(B) impressed
(C) depressed
(D) suppressed
41.
(A) complain
(B) explain
(C) refrain
(D) plain
42.
(A) produce
(B) material
(C) product
(D) ingredients
43.
(A) after
(B) before
(C) next
(D) subsequent
44.
(A) slammed
(B) damned
(C) tamed
(D) crammed
45.
(A) before
(B) on
(C) aside
(D) behind
Directions-(Q. 46-50) In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval () corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.
46. No sooner did the rabbit (A)/ come out of the bush (B)/ when the hunter killed it. (C)/ No error (D)
47. ‘The Arabian Nights’ (A)/ (B)/ (C)/ No error (D)
48. She has not completed (A)/ her course. (B)/Isn’t it ? (C)/ No error (D)
49. Every citizen is (A)/ entitled to (B)/ the voting. (C)/ No error (D)
50. The collector (A)/ visits the office regularly (B)/Isn’t it? (C)/ No error (D)
Part-III
Quantitative Aptitude
1. 40 men can complete a work in 18 days. Eight days after they started working together, 10 more men joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
2. 16 women take 12 days to complete a work which can be completed by 12 men in 8 days. 16 men started working and after 3 days 10 men left and 4 women joined them. How many days will it take them to complete the remaining work?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
3. The area of an equailateral triangle is 48 sq. cm. The length of the side is-
(A) √8 × 4 cm
(B) 4√3 cm
(C) 8(3)1/4
(D) 16 cm
4. An elephant of length 4 m is at one corner of a rectangular cage of size (16 m × 30 m) and faces towards the diagonally opposite corner. If the elephant starts moving towards the diagonally opposite corner it taken 15 seconds to reach this corner. Find the speed of the elephant-
(A) 1 m/sec
(B) 2 m/sec
(C) 1.87 m/sec
(D) 1.5 m/sec
5. A shopkeeper allows a rebate 12% on the marked price of an article such that the selling price is Rs 440. Then the marked price of the article is-
(A) Rs 490
(B) Rs 500
(C) Rs 600
(D) Rs 550
6. A tradesman marks his goods at 25 p.c. above the cost price. If he reduces the marked price by 
then his profit will be-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
7. If A : B = 7 : 9 and B : C = 3 : 5, then A : B : C is equal to-
(A) 7 : 9 : 5
(B) 21 : 35 : 45
(C) 7 : 9 : 15
(D) 7 : 3 : 15
8. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their H.C.F. is 12. The numbers are-
(A) 4, 8, 12
(B) 5, 10, 15
(C) 10, 20, 30
(D) 12, 24, 36
9. A cricketer whose bowling average is 12.4 runs per wicket, takes 5 wickets for 26 runs and thereby decreases his average by 0.4. The number of wickets taken by him till the last match was-
(A) 64
(B) 72
(C) 80
(D) 85
10. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs 5,050. The average monthly income of Q and R is Rs 6,250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs 5,200. The monthly income of P is-
(A) Rs 3,500
(B) Rs 4,000
(C) Rs 4,050
(D) Rs 5,000
11. Y purchased a flat for Rs 9,25,000 and spent Rs 35,000 for its renovation. If he sold the flat for Rs 10,80,000, then this profit per cent is-
(A) 15.0
(B) 17.5
(C) 20.5
(D) 12.5
12. A table is sold at a profit of 13%. If it is sold for Rs 25 more, profit is 18%. Cost price of table is-
(A) Rs 100
(B) Rs 500
(C) Rs 200
(D) Rs 1,000
13. In an examination, 19% students fail in Mathematics and 10% students fail in English. If 7% of all students fail in both subjects, then the number of students passed in both subjects is-
(A) 36% of all students
(B) 64% of all students
(C) 71% of all students
(D) 78% of all students
14. X spends 35% of his salary on food and 5% of his salary on children education. In January 2011, he spent Rs 17,600 on these two items. His salary for that month is-
(A) Rs 40,000
(B) Rs 44,000
(C) Rs 48,000
(D) Rs 46,000
15. A motorist travels along the boundary of a square field of area 1476225 m2, at 36 km/hr. He returns to starting point in-
(A) 8 min., 8 sec.
(B) 6 min., 8 sec.
(C) 8 min., 6 sec.
(D) 6 min., 6 sec.
16. A sum of Rs 800 amounts to Rs 920 in 3 years at the simple interest rate. If the rate is increased by 3% p.a. what will be the sum amount to in the same period?
(A) Rs 992
(B) Rs 962
(C) Rs 942
(D) Rs 982
17. Each Edge of a regular tetrahedron is 4 cm. Its volume (in cubic cm) is-
(A) 16√3/2
(B) 16√3
(C) 16√2/3
(D) 16√2
18. If the numerical value of circumference and area of a circle is same, then the area is-
(A) 6 π sq. unit
(B) 4 π sq. unit
(C) 8 π sq. unit
(D) 12 π sq. unit
19. The median of an equilateral triangle is 6√3 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle is-
(A) 72
(B) 108
(C) 72√3
(D) 36√3
20. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle be 18 cm, then the length of each median is-
(A) 3√2 cm
(B) 2√3 cm
(C) 3√3 cm
(D) 2√2 cm
21. If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 50% and the height is increased by 50%, then the change in volume is-
(A) 52.5%
(B) 67.5%
(C) 57.5%
(D) 62.5%
22. The simplified value of-
is
(A) √2
(B) 1/√2
(C) √3 − √2
(D) 0
23. If 
then the value of 
is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 6
24. If 
then the value of a18 + a12 + a6 + 1 is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) −1
(D) 4
25. If x = 997, y = 998 and z = 999, then the value of x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – zx is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) −1
(D) 3
26. If 
then two values of x are-
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, −1/2
(C) 0, 1
(D) ½, 1
27. In a ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B = 70° and ∠B + ∠C = 130°, value of ∠A is-
(A) 20°
(B) 50°
(C) 110°
(D) 30°
28. In a ∆ ABC, ∠A + ∠B = 70° and ∠B + ∠C = 130°, value of ∠A is-
(A) 20°
(B) 50°
(C) 110°
(D) 30°
29. If sec θ + tan θ = 4, (θ ≠ 90°), then the value of cos θ is-
(A) 0
(B) 8/17
(C) 17/8
(D) 4/5
30. Two circles touches externally at P. QR is a common tangent of the circles touching the circles at Q and R. Then measure of ∠QPR is-
(A) 60°
(B) 30°
(C) 90°
(D) 45°
31. If in a triangle ABC, D and E are on the sides AB and AC, such that, DE is parallel to BC and 
If AC = 4 cm, then AE is-
(A) 1.5 cm
(B) 2.0 cm
(C) 1.8 cm
(D) 2.4 cm
32. A person has three iron bars whose lengths are 10, 15 and 20 metres respectively. He wants to cut pieces of same length from each of the three bars. What is the least number of total pieces if he is to cut without any wastage?
(A) 45
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 30
33. The 12th term of the series 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
34. The value of 
is close to-
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.4
35. If 
equal to
(A) .0025
(B) .025
(C) .25
(D) .00025
36. If X is 20% less than Y, then find 
(A) 1/5, −4
(B) 5, −1/4
(C) 2/5, −5/2
(D) 3/5, −5/3
37. If θ is a positive acute angle and cosec θ = √3, then the value of cot θ – cosec θ is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
38. If 0° < A < 90°, then the value of tan2 A + cot2A – sec2 A cosec2 A is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) −2
39. If α and β are positive acute angles, sin (4α – β) = 1 and cos (2α + β) = 1/2, then the value of sin (α + 2β) is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) √3/2
(D) 1/√2
40. The angle of elevation of sun changes from 30° to 45°, the length of the shadow of a pole decreases by 4 metres, the height of the pole is- (Assume √3 = 1.732)
(A) 1.464 m
(B) 9.464 m
(C) 3.648 m
(D) 5.464 m
41. From an aeroplane just over a river, the angle of depression of two palm tree on the opposite bank of the river are found to be 60° and 30° If the breadth of the river is 400 metres, then the height of the aeroplane above the river at that instant is- (Assume √3 = 1.732)
(A) 173.2 metres
(B) 346.4 metres
(C) 519.6 metres
(D) 692.8 metres
Directions-(Q. 42 to 45) Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it-
42. The production of state D in 1993-94 is how many times it production in 1994-95?
(A) 1.33
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.56
(D) 1.77
43. Which of the following statement is false?
(A) State A and E showed the same production in 1993-94.
(B) There was no improvement in the production of cotton in state B during 1994.95.
(C) State A has produced maximum cotton during the given period.
(D) Production of state C and D together is equal to that of state B during 1993-94.
44. How many states showing below average production in 1992-93 showed above average production in 1993-94?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
45. What is the average production of the five states in the year 1994-95 taken together?
(A) 12.3
(B) 14.6
(C) 15.6
(D) 16.3
Directions-(Q. 46 to 50) The subjectwise no. of applicants for the year 2008 and 2009 in a college is given in the following chart. Study the graph and answer.
46. The subject for which growing of demand is maximum is-
(A) Chemistry
(B) Mathematics
(C) Computer
(D) Biotechnology
47. The subject for which growing of demand is minimum is-
(A) Statistics
(B) Zoology
(C) Botany
(D) Microbiology
48. The number of Chemistry seeking applicants increased by-
(A) 17.26%
(B) 18.89%
(C) 19.25%
(D) 21.08%
49. The number of Physics seeking applicants increased by-
(A) 17.26%
(B) 18.89%
(C) 19.25%
(D) 21.08%
50. The number of Mathematics seeking applicants increased by-
(A) 17.26%
(B) 18.89%
(C) 19.25%
(D) 21.08%
For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only
42. 70 cattle can graze a piece of land for 28 days. How many cattle can graze a field three times as large in 70 days?
(A) 168
(B) 84
(C) 64
(D) 252
43. Five years ago, the ratio of A’s age and B’s age was 5 : 6. The ratio of their ages will be 7 : 8 after five years. The ratio of their present age is-
(A) 6 : 7
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 7 : 6
(D) 3 : 4
44. If 10% of x = 20% of y, then x : y is equal to-
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 4
45. A farmer borrowed Rs 2,400 at 12% interest per annum. At the end of 
he cleared his account by paying Rs 1,200 and a cow. Then the cost of cos is-
(A) Rs 720
(B) Rs 3120
(C) Rs 1920
(D) Rs 2120
46. When the Sun’s altitude increases from 45° to 60°, the shadow of the vertical post is diminished by 6 metres. The height (in metres) of the post is- (Take √3 = 1.732)
(A) 7.608
(B) 9.464
(C) 14.196
(D) 28.392
47. The value of 
is-
(A) 3/2
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 0
48. If a2 + b2 + c2 –ab – bc – ca = 0, then a relation between a, b and c is-
(A) a + b = c
(B) a + b + c = 0
(C) b + c = a
(D) a = b = c
49. If 10% of x = 15% of y = 20% of z, then x : y : z is-
(A) 2 : 3 : 4
(B) 3 : 4 : 6
(C) 6 : 4 : 3
(D) 4 : 3 : 2
50. A road which is 7 metre wide surrounds a circular park whose circumference is 352 metre. The area of the road in square metre is – (taking π = 22/7)
(A) 2518
(B) 2581
(C) 2618
(D) 2681
Part-IV
General Awareness
1. Who was the contemporary South Indian ruler of Harshavardhana?
(A) Krishnadevaraya
(B) Pulakeshin II
(C) Mayuravarma
(D) Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar
2. Nappe is a kind of-
(A) fluvial feature
(B) folded structure
(C) erosional plain
(D) delta region
3. The Panama Canal is different from the Suez Canal as it has-
(A) Lock system
(B) Shorter route
(C) Busy route
(D) Less busy route
4. The area which is resistant to any massive structural transformation is called-
(A) rigid mass
(B) ancient landmass
(C) tectonic plate
(D) shield
5. Llanos are the grasslands of-
(A) Guyana Highlands
(B) Brazilian Highlands
(C) Argentina
(D) Chile
6. The areas marked by internal drainage-
(A) Plateau
(B) Plains
(C) Deserts
(D) Mountains
7. The space retaining life in any form is called-
(A) Biomass
(B) Biosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) Hydrosphere
8. Rhizobium is a kind of
(A) Photosynthetic bacteria
(B) Symbiotic bacteria
(C) Parasitic bacteria
(D) Saprophytic bacteria
9. A Parenchyma cell which stores ergastic substance is known as-
(A) Phragmoblast
(B) Idioblast
(C) Conidioplast
(D) Chloroplast
10. Root Hairs arise from-
(A) Cortex
(B) Pericycle
(C) Epidermis
(D) Endodermis
11. The gametophyte is called pro-thallus in-
(A) Pteridophyta
(B) Bryophyta
(C) Spermatophyta
(D) Thallophyta
12. The best example of Polyembryony is-
(A) Cocoa
(B) Capsicum
(C) Citrus
(D) Cycas
13. A moving neutron collides with a stationary α-particle. The fraction of the kinetic energy lost by the neutron is-
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/16
(C) 9/25
(D) 16/25
14. Which of these waves can be polarized?
(A) Sound waves in air
(B) Longitudinal waves on a string
(C) Transverse waves on a string
(D) Light waves
15. The unit of Planck’s constant is-
(A) Js
(B) Js−2
(C) J/s
(D) Js2
16. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast to half of its length then the new resistance of the wire will be-
(A) R/4
(B) R/2
(C) R
(D) 2R
17. Hard copies can be obtained from-
(A) Scanner
(B) Speaker
(C) Printer
(D) Recorder
18. In an E-R diagram, ellipse represents-
(A) relation
(B) entity
(C) fields
(D) key
19. Chemical name of common salt is-
(A) Sodium Chloride
(B) Sodium Bicarbonate
(C) Sodium
(D) Sodium Oxide
20. Which one of the following mineral does not contain oxygen?
(A) Haematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Cryolite
(D) Calcite
21. Non-conductor of electricity is-
(A) Iron
(B) Gas Carbon
(C) Copper Sulphate
(D) Mercury
22. Which of the following will replace hydrogen from acids to form salts?
(A) S
(B) Na
(C) Ag
(D) P
23. Which type of lake is formed by volcanic activities?
(A) Lagoon
(B) Fresh water lake
(C) Cladera lake
(D) Karst lake
24. Green manure is obtained from-
(A) Domestic vegetable waste
(B) Oil seed husk cakes
(C) Fresh animal excreta
(D) Decomposing green legume plants
25. The environment includes-
(A) Abiotic factors
(B) Biotic factors
(C) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(D) Abiotic and Biotic factors
26. The temperate grasslands of North America are known as-
(A) Pampas
(B) Downs
(C) Steppes
(D) Prairies
27. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port is located at-
(A) Paradip
(B) Cochin
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
28. How many islands are there in Lakshadweep?
(A) 17
(B) 27
(C) 36
(D) 47
29. Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony 2013 has been given to-
(A) Zubin Mehta
(B) Narendra Kohli
(C) Shalini Singh
(D) Arvind Aadiga
30. Winner of the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize 2013-
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Angela Merkel
(C) Lydia Davis
(D) Christina Legarde
31. Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma is an exponent of-
(A) Mandolin
(B) Santoor
(C) Sitar
(D) Veena
32. Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields?
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Journalism
(D) Music
33. Nobel Prizes are distributed annually at-
(A) Manila
(B) Stockholm
(C) Geneva
(D) New York
34. ‘Freedom From Fear’ is a book written by-
(A) Benazir Bhutto
(B) Corazon Aquino
(C) Aung San Suu Kyi
(D) Nayantara Sehgal
35. Who is the author of the book ‘Nineteen Eighty Four’?
(A) J. M. Barrie
(B) Walter Scott
(C) George Orwell
(D) Thomas Hardy
36. The 28th Annual Lata Mangeshkar Samman Alankaran 2013 was conferred to-
(A) Sonu Nigam
(B) Kailash Kher
(C) Hariharan
(D) A. R. Rahman
37. The internal rate of return-
(A) must be less than the interest rate if the firm is to invest
(B) makes the present value of profits equal to the present value of costs
(C) falls as the annual yield of an investment rises
(D) is equal to the market interest rate of all the firm’s investment
38. As the number of investments made by a firm increases, its internal rate of return-
(A) declines due to diminishing marginal productivity
(B) declines because the market rate of interest will fall, ceteris paribus
(C) increases to compensate the firm for the current consumption foregone
(D) increase because the level of savings will fall
39. Capacity utilization-
(A) is usually near 100 per cent
(B) represents the per cent of the labour force that is employed
(C) is a measure of the proportional of the existing capital stock used for current production
(D) rises as the economy moves into a recession, since firms must replace unemployed workers with some other resources to maintain production
40. The theory of ‘Maximum Social Advantage’ in Public Finance was given by-
(A) Robbins
(B) Musgrave
(C) Findley
(D) Dalton
41. The value of investment multiplier relates to-
(A) change in income due to change in autonomous investment
(B) change in autonomous investment due to change is income
(C) change in income due to change in consumption
(D) change in the income due to change in induced investment
42. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem?
(A) 25th January, 1950
(B) 26th January, 1950
(C) 24th January, 1950
(D) 29th January, 1950
43. The President of India is an integral part of the-
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Council of Ministers
44. Union Public Service Commission has to submit the report to the-
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
45. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?
(A) Three times
(B) Two times
(C) Once
(D) Not amended
46. An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval by-
(A) The President
(B) The State Legislature
(C) The State Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
47. Which rebellion in Bengal was highlighted by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel ‘Anand Math’?
(A) Chaur Uprising
(B) Sanyasi Rebellion
(C) Kol Uprising
(D) Santhal Uprising
48. Name the Greek Ambassador at the Mauryan Court-
(A) Alexander
(B) Megasthanese
(C) Plato
(D) Aristotle
49. When the rule of the Delhi Sultan began?
(A) 1106 A.D.
(B) 1206 A.D.
(C) 1306 A.D.
(D) 1406 A.D.
50. Who introduced leather token currency in India?
(A) Akbar
(B) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq
(C) Babur
(D) Humayun
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