National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) POST Graduate 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2018

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each sentence given below, a word is underlined. From the given options choose the word/phrase closest in meaning to the underlined part.

1. Our visit proved to be a waste of time because fog reduced visibility.

(a)  look after

(b)  came to

(c)  turned down

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

2. He resembled his father in many ways.

(a)  took after

(b)  look after

(c)  set in

(d)  held on

Answer: (a)

3. He refused to tolerate laziness on the part of his students.

(a)  look up

(b)  make up

(c)  give up

(d)  put up

Answer: (d)

4. The man looked so respectable and honest that I was completely

(a)  give in

(b)  taken in

(c)  held in

(d)  kept in with

Answer: (b)

5. The railway strike was cancelled at the eleventh hour.

(a)  turned off

(b)  held off

(c)  called off

(d)  pept off

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word for the following questions.

6. Obstinate

(a)  Inflexible

(b)  Prominent

(c)  Pliable

(d)  Fashionable

Answer: (c)

7. Abdicate

(a)  Claim

(b)  Snatch

(c)  Plunder

(d)  Seize

Answer: (a)

8. Autonomy

(a)  Submissiveness

(b)  Dependence

(c)  Subordination

(d)  Slavery

Answer: (b)

9. Tragedy

(a)  Humorous

(b)  Comedy

(c)  Romance

(d)  Clamity

Answer: (b)

10. Paucity

(a)  Surplus

(b)  Scarcity

(c)  Presence

(d)  Meagreness

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Fill in the blanks to make her sentence grammatically correct.

11. Shalini was not deterred by the criticism and paid no …….. even when her best friend talked against her.

(a)  attention

(b)  mind

(c)  warning

(d)  heed

Answer: (d)

12. Hitler cast a …… and horrifying shadow upon world history.

(a)  herculean

(b)  gigantic

(c)  colossal

(d)  huge

Answer: (b)

13. Wars usually result from disagreement among the parties involved and failure to ………. them peacefully.

(a)  dispel

(b)  debate

(c)  understand

(d)  resolve

Answer: (d)

14. Although he is reputed for his technical expertise his books were sadly….. of the work of others as he lacked originality.

(a)  unconscious

(b)  independent

(c)  ignorant

(d)  derivative

Answer: (d)

15. It is paradoxical that those who expect ……. from others are seldem merciful themselves.

(a)  clemency

(b)  sympathy

(c)  sincerity

(d)  compassion

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

16. Passivity is not, of course, universal.

(A) In areas where there are no lords or laws, or in frontier zones where all men go armed, the attitude of the peasantry may well be different.

(B) So indeed it may be on the fringe of the un-submissive.

(C) However, for most of the soil-bound peasants the problem is not whether to be normally passive or active, but when to pass from one state to another.

(D) This depends on an assessment of the political situation.

(a)  EDACB

(b)  CDABE

(c)  EDBAC

(d)  ABCDE

Answer: (d)

17. Michael Hofman, a poet and translator, accepts this sorry fact without approval or complaint.

(A) But thanklessness and impossibility do not daunt him.

(B) He acknowledges too ‘in fact he returns to the point often’ that best translators of poetry always fail at some level.

(C) Hofman feels passionately about his work, and this is clear from his writings.

(D) In terms of the gap between worth and rewards, translators come somewhere near nurses and street-cleaners.

(a)  EACDB

(b)  ADEBC

(c)  EACBD

(d)  DCEAB

Answer: (b)

18. Although there are large regional variations, it is not infrequent to find a large number people sitting there and there and doing nothing.

(A) Once in office, they receive friends and relatives who feel free to calla any time without prior appointment.

(B) Quite often people visit ailing friends and relative or go out of their way to help them in their personal matters even during office hours.

(C) Even those who are employed often come late to the office and leave early unless they are forced to be punctual.

(D) Work is not intrinsically valued in India.

(a)  ABCDE

(b)  EBADC

(c)  EADBC

(d)  ABDCE

Answer: (c)

19. The Supreme Court in various judgements in the last 25 years has further emphasized this.

(A) The Right to Information is derived from Article 19 of the Constitution.

(B) The RTI Act was passed in May 2005 and came into force in October 2005.

(C) It is intended to give relevant information about the government and its institutions.

(D) This act enables citizens to obtain information without going to court each time.

(a)  BDACE

(b)  ABDCE

(c)  BDECA

(d)  CEBAD

Answer: (a)

20. For any scientists oceans are the cradle of life.

(A) But all over the world chemical products and nuclear waste continue to be dumped into them.

(B) Coral reefs, which are known to be the most beautiful places of the submarine world are fast disappearing.

(C) The result is that many species of fish die because of this pollution. Of course man is the root cause behind these problems.

(D) Man has long since ruined the places he visits continents and oceans alike.

(a)  ABCDE

(b)  ABDCE

(c)  BACDE

(d)  EDBCA

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Find the correctly spelt word.

21.

(a)  Abbreviate

(b)  Abreviate

(c)  Abrrviat

(d)  Abbreviat

Answer: (a)

22.

(a)  Accomodasion

(b)  Acommodation

(c)  Accomodation

(d)  Accommodation

Answer: (d)

23.

(a)  Cassettee

(b)  Cassette

(c)  Casatte

(d)  Cassete

Answer: (b)

24.

(a)  Centrigrede

(b)  Centegrade

(c)  Centigrade

(d)  Centigrate

Answer: (c)

25.

(a)  Idelism

(b)  Idaelism

(c)  Idealesm

(d)  Idealism

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Choose the correct plural forms of the given words.

26. Cactus

(a)  Cacti

(b)  Cactuses

(c)  Cactuss

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

27. Emblem

(a)  Emblem

(b)  Emblems

(c)  Embelems

(d)  Emblemes

Answer: (b)

28. Volcano

(a)  Volcanos

(b)  Volcanoes

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

29. Deer

(a)  Deers

(b)  Deeres

(c)  Deer

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

30. Sheep

(a)  Sheep

(b)  Sheeps

(c)  Sheepes

(d)  Ships

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-50) Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE I

 Organisations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for the resources of the organization for example, finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, groups are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of the political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced infavour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. May of the electronics firms in their study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well-paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of the technicalities and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show that their experience was now redundant.

31. The author makes out a case for

(a)  organic system

(b)  research and development in organizations.

(c)  an understanding between senior and middle level executives.

(d)  a refreshers course for senior managers.

Answer: (a)

32. The theme of the passage is

(a)  groupism in organizations.

(b)  individual ambitions in organizations.

(c)  frustration of senior managers.

(d)  emergence of sectional interests in organizations.

Answer: (d)

33. Policy decision in organization would involve

(a)  cooperation at all levels in the organization.

(b)  modernization of the organization.

(c)  attracting highly qualified personnel.

(d)  keeping in view the larger objectives of the organization.

Answer: (c)

34. The author tends to see the senior managers as

(a)  ignorant and incompetent.

(b)  a little out of step with their work environment.

(c)  jealous of their younger colleagues.

(d)  robbed of their rank, power and privilege.

Answer: (a)

35. ‘Organic system’ as related to the organization implies its

(a)  growth with the help of export knowledge.

(b)  growth with inputs from science and technology

(c)  steady all-round development.

(d)  natural and unimpeded.

Answer: (b)

PASSAGE II

Urbanization is a positive phenomenon provided the cities are able to the harness its potential. A recently public published UN-Habitat global report on human settlements shows that not many cities in developing countries such as India have managed to do this. Indian cities struggle to manage the swelling numbers. They tend to have inadequate infrastructure poor mobility and a lack of affordable housing. The challenge they face is two fold efforts to distribute growth across urban centres have been inadequate and the urban planning practices are outdated.

Much attention is paid to mega cities, leaving the smaller cities largely unattended. Of the 5161, urban centres, as the eleventh five year plan points out, only y1500 have some form of plan to mange their growth. With quality of life suffering in the smaller cities, more people tend to move to the metros, burdening them further. Although, the need for developing small and medium-size towns was highlighted as early as 1988, by the first National Commission on Urbanization, not much has happened on that front. As for the bigger cities, the additional attention and the presence of a master plan have not necessarily meant improvement, managing a city through a single unified master plan has failed to deliver. The reason for this, aside from poor implementation, is that the plans are conceptually flawed.

Indian cities are complex composites. Alongside the formal city exists a large and an equally important informal city inhabited by the poor. Even the formal city is composed of many parts such as the historical core. The colonial enclave and new areas of post-independence growth. Not withstanding these differences, the master plan tends to paint the city with a single brush, favouring the new formal areas and ignoring the informal. This has fragmented cities further and skewed development in favour of new areas. The recommendations in the UN-Habitat report do offer a way forward. The suggestion to implement the strategic spatial planning system should be immediately adopted. Unlike the master plan, such innovations recognize the intra-city difference better and help focus on priority aspects or areas. They should help eventually to mitigate spatial inequalities, integrate infrastructure and evolve compact city forms that will optimize travelling within the city. Simultaneously, the institutional framework for planning should be strengthened with an emphasis on people’s participation and regional networking. Earnest implementation and regular monitoring of the plans are equally vital for reaping the benefits of planning.

36. It is implied in the passage that

(a)  Cities in India have not been able to reap the real benefits of urbanization due to of proper planning.

(b)  Urbanization is not a desirable phenomenon.

(c)  Urbanization offers the solution for all the problems that smaller cities face.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

37. What according to the author are the main components of a ‘formal city’?

(a)  The historical core, the colonial enclave and the newly developed areas.

(b)  Pre-independence and post-independence areas.

(c)  New city and old city.

(d)  Planned city and the unplanned city.

Answer: (a)

38. Which one or more of the following factor is/are recommended by the UN-Habitat report as essential for planned urbanization and growth?

(1) The master plan proposed by the first National Commission on urbanization

(2) The strategic spatial planning system.

(3) A strong institutional framework for planning encouraging people’s participation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)  Only 1

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  1 and 3

Answer: (b)

39. The caption that suitably sums up the contents of this passage is

(a)  challenges of urbanization-the strategic way forward

(b)  the phenomenon of urbanization boon or bane 

(c)  urbanization – a monster out of control

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

40. Why has the master plan to manage a city failed?

(1) The officers concerned did not respond to the government’s directive.

(2) The plans were not acted upon in a proper manner.

(3) The plans did have mistakes in them.

(a)  Only 1

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  All 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

PASSAGE III

The simplest method of welding two pieces of metal together is known as pressure welding. The ends of metal are heated to a white heat – for iron, the welding temperature should be about 1300°C in a flame. At this temperature the metal becomes plastic. The ends are the pressed or hammered together, and the joint is smoothed off. Care must be taken to ensure that the surfaces are thoroughly clean first, for dirt will weaken the weld. Moreover, the heating of iron or steel to a high temperature cause oxidation, and a film of oxide is formed on the heated surfaces. For this reason, a flux is applied to the heated metal. At welding heat, the flux melts, and the oxide particles are dissolved in it together with any other impurities which may be present. The metal surfaces are pressed together, and the flux is squeezed out from the centre of the weld. A number of different types of weld may be used, but for fairly thick bars of metals, a vee-shaped weld should normally be employed. It is rather stronger than the ordinary but weld.

41. The simplest way of welding two pieces of metal together is

(a)  heating the metal

(b)  holding it in a flame

(c)  coating the metal with plastic

(d)  hammering heated pieces

Answer: (d)

42. Unless the surfaces are cleaned first

(a)  the metal will not take white heat

(b)  the resulting weld will be weak

(c)  the joint will be rough

(d)  the metal will be less plastic

Answer: (d)

43. When iron is heated to about 1300 degree centrigrade

(a)  flames turn from white to blue

(b)  chemical reaction starts

(c)  oxide film is found on its surfaces

(d)  it turns into steel

Answer: (b)

44. The flux is used to

(a)  make the metal plastic

(b)  cool the heated metal

(c)  cover up any dirt

(d)  dissolve oxide and other impurities

Answer: (a)

45. For fairly thick bars of metals

(a)  a vee-shaped wild would be used

(b)  ordinary butt weld should be used

(c)  a number of different types f weld may be used

(d)  a pressure weld may be used

Answer: (c)

PASSAGE IV

Gloria Steinem, in full Gloria Marie Steinem, (born 25th March, 1934, Toledo, Ohio, U.S.) American feminist, political activist, and editor who was an articulate advocate of the Women’s Liberation Movement during the late 20th and early 21st centuries.

Steinem spent her early years travelling with her parents in a house trailer. After their divorce in 1946, Gloria settled with her mother in Toledo, Ohio, and for the first time began attending school on a regular basis. Her childhood was marked by the added responsibility of taking care of her mother, who was chronically depressed. During her senior year of high school, Steinem moved to Washington, D.C., to live with her older sister.

After graduating from Smith College in 1956, Steinem went to India on a scholarship. There she participated n non-violent protests against Government policy. In 1960, she began working as a writer and journalist in New York City.

Steinem gained attention in 1963 with her article ‘I was a Playboy Bunny’, which recounted her experience as a scantily clad waitress at Hug Hefner’s Playboy Club. By 1968, Steinem’s work had become more overtly political. She began writing a column, ‘The City Politic,’ for New York magazine. Her involvement in feminism intensified in 1968, when she attended a meeting of a radical feminist group, the Redstockings. Proud of her feminist roots-her paternal grandmother had served as President of the Ohio Women’s Suffrage Association from 1908 to 1911-Steinem founded the National Women’s Political Caucus in July 1971 with Betty Friedan, Bella Abzug, and Shirley Chisholm. That same year, she began exploring the possibility of a new magazine for women, one that treated contemporary issues from a feminist perspective. The result was Ms Magazine, which first appeared as an insert in the December 1971, issue of New York. The following year the first stand-alone issue was published. Steinem gave much of her time to political organizations and became an articulate advocate for the Women’s Liberation Movement. She participated in the founding of the Coalition of Labour Union Women, Voters for Choice, Women Against Pronography, and the Women’s Media Center. In 2016, she hosted the television documentary series Woman with Gloria Steinem, which focused on issues that concerned females. Her publication include the essay collections Outrageous Acts and Everyday Rebellions (1983) and Moving Beyond Words: Age, Rage, Sex, Power, Money, Muscles. Breaking the Boundaries of Gender (1994), Revolution From Within (1992) a work on self-esteem for women, and Marilyn (1997), about Marilyn Monroe. Steinem also wrote the memoir ‘My Life on the Road’ (2015).

In 2013, Steinem was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom.

46. The column ‘The City Politic’ was written by Gloria for which magazine?

(a)  The New Yorker

(b)  The Week

(c)  New York

(d)  Playboy

Answer: (c)

47. How did Gloria spend her early years?

(a)  Playing football

(b)  Travelling with her parents in a car

(c)  Studying

(d)  Travelling with her parents in a house trailer

Answer: (d)

48. What is ‘The Redstockings’?

(a)  A rock band

(b)  Name of a magazine

(c)  A radical feminist group

(d)  A soccer club

Answer: (c)

49. Gloria Steinem was born in the state of

(a)  New York

(b)  Ohio

(c)  Kentucky

(d)  Michigan

Answer: (b)

50. Steinem founded the National Women’s Political Caucus with

(a)  Betty Friedan

(b)  Shirley Chisholm

(c)  Bella Abzug

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

51. A man is twice as fast as a woman and a woman is twice as fast as a boy in doing a work. If all the them a man, a woman and a boy can finish the work in 7 days, then how many days a boy will do it alone?

(a)  49

(b)  7

(c)  6

(d)  42

Answer: (a)

52. If the total cost of 73 articles having equal cost is Rs 5110 and the total selling price of 89 such article is Rs 5607, then in the transaction, there will be

(a)  a loss of 15%

(b)  a gain of 10%

(c)  a loss of 10%

(d)  a gain of 15%

Answer: (c)

53. In a class of 110 students x students take both Mathematics and Statistics, x + 20 students take Mathematics and x +30 students take Statistics, There are no students who take neither Mathematics nor Statistics. What is x equal to?

(a)  15

(b)  20

(c)  25

(d)  30

Answer: (b)

54. A man goes from Mysore to Bangalore at uniform speed of 40 km/h and comes back to Mysore at a uniform speed of 60 km/h. His average speed for the whole journey is

(a)  48 km/h

(b)  55 km/h

(c)  54 km/h

(d)  55 km/h

Answer: (a)

55. The compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 yr is Rs 246. The simple interest on the same sum for 3 yr at 6% per annum is

(a)  Rs 435

(b)  Rs 450

(c)  Rs 430

(d)  Rs 432

Answer: (d)

56. From a point on a circular track 5 km long, A, B and C started running in the same direction at the same time, with speeds of 2½ km/h, 3 km/h and 2 km/h, respectively.

Then, on the starting point all three will meet again after

(a)  30 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  10 h

(d)  15 h        

Answer: (c)

57. 1th and 5/8th of a bamboo are mud and water respectively and the rest of length 2.75 m is above water. What is the length of the bamboo?

(a)  10 m

(b)  30 m

(c)  27.5 m

(d)  20 m

Answer: (a)

58. There are two containers of equal capacity. The ratio of milk to water in the first container is 3 : 1, in the second container is 5 : 2. If they are mixed up, then the ratio of milk to water in the mixture will be

(a)  28 : 41

(b)  41 : 28

(c)  15 : 41

(d)  41 : 15

Answer: (d)

59. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5 : 2. If each of them saves Rs 300 per week, then the weekly income of the first person is

(a)  Rs 7500

(b)  Rs 4500

(c)  Rs 6300

(d)  Rs 5400

Answer: (c)

60. Average age of 6 sons of a family is 8 yr. Average age of son together with their parents is 22 yr. If the father is older than the mother by 8 yr, then the age of mother (in years) is

(a)  44

(b)  52

(c)  60

(d)  68

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 61-65) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In a public sector undertaking township, there are five executives-Ambrish, Amit, Rohit, Manu and Tarun. Two of them play Cricket while the other three play different games viz. Football, Tennis and Chess. One Cricket player and a Chess player stay in the 3rd flat, whereas the other three different flats i.e. 2nd, 4th and 5th.

Two of these five players are mechanical engineers while the other three are quality inspector, design engineer and power engineer, respectively. The Chess player is oldest in age while one of the Cricket players, who plays at the National level, is the youngest in age. The age of the other Cricket player, who plays at the Regional level lies between the Football player and the Chess player. Manu is a regional level player and stays in the 3rd flat while Tarun is a Quality inspector and stays in the 5th flat. The Football player is a Design engineer and stays in the ‘2nd flat. Amit is a power engineer and plays Chess while Ambrish is the mechanical engineer and plays Cricket at the National level.

61. Who stays in the 4th flat?

(a)  Ambrish

(b)  Amit

(c)  Rohit

(d)  Manu      

Answer: (a)

62. What does Tarun play?

(a)  Chess

(b)  Football

(c)  Cricket

(d)  Tennis

Answer: (d)

63. Who plays football?

(a)  Ambrish

(b)  Amit

(c)  Rohit

(d)  Manu

Answer: (c)

64. Agewise who among the following lies between Manu and Tarun?

(a)  Quality inspector

(b)  Mechanical engineer

(c)  Power engineer

(d)  Design engineer

Answer: (d)

65. Who stay in the same flat?

(a)  Ambrish and Amit

(b)  Manu and Tarun

(c)  Amit and Manu

(d)  Rohit and Tarun

Answer: (c)

66. A man said to a woman, “The son of your brother, is the brother of my wife”. How is that woman related to the wife of that man?

(a)  Aunt

(b)  Sister

(c)  Mother

(d)  Grandmother

Answer: (a)

67. Pointing towards a girl, Anurag says, “This girl is the daughter of the only child of my father”. What is the relation of Anurag’s wife with the girl?

(a)  Sister

(b)  Aunt

(c)  Daughter

(d)  Mother

Answer: (d)

68. A man drives his car 60 km towards Eastward direction. He turned right went for 30 km, then he turned West and drive for 20 km. How far is the from the starting point?

(a)  50 km

(b)  60 km

(c)  100 km

(d)  20 km

Answer: (a)

69. If each alphabet in the word “FRACTION’ is arranged in alphabetical order and then each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to previous letter in English alphabetical series. Then, which of the following will be 4th from the right side of the new arrangement thus formed?

(a)  M

(b)  T

(c)  P

(d)  E

Answer: (a)

70. In a certain code language ‘what I want’ is written as ‘su ma te.’ ‘they want food’ is written as ‘ro te ko’ and ‘food and what’ is written as ‘ko Ie su’.

What is the code for ‘I want food’?

(a)  te ko ro

(b)  Ie te SlJ

(c)  ma te ko

(d)  ko ma ro

Answer: (c)

71. In a queue Mohan is 10th from right side and Sohan is 25th from left side. When they interchange their place, then Mohan is at 22nd place from right. Find Sohan new position from left.

(a)  37th

(b)  38th

(c)  35th

(d)  36th

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 72-73) Each of these questions has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).

Give answer

(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true

72. Assertion(A) Gandhiji withdrew the Non-cooperation Movement against British rule in India, movement against British rule in India for sometime.

Reason (R) Gandhiji believed in non-violence but protestations by people against the British rule Chaura-Chauri turned violent. This event disappoint Gandhiji.

Answer: (c)

73. Assertion (A) A parachute enables a person to descend safely from a height in case of an accident.

Reason (R) A parachute is made of a fabric with limited permeability and has a very large frontal area.

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 74-75) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are important and directly related to the question. “Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

(a) If only Argument I is strong

(b) If only Argument II is strong

(c) If either Argument I or II is strong

(d) If both Argument I and II are strong

74. Statement Should be government sell major part of its stake in all the profit making public sector undertakings.

Arguments

(I) No, government should not give up its control of these undertaking as these are profit making organizations.

(II) Yes, this will help government to reduce the quantum of huge budgetary deficit.

Answer: (a)

75. Statement Should be private companies be allowed to operate passenger train services in India?

Arguments

(I) Yes, this will improve the quality of service in Indian Railways as it will have to face severe competition.

(II) No, the private companies may not agree to operate in the non-profitable sectors.

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 76-80) Find the missing term in each of the following series.

76. 6, 13, 32 ?, 130, 221

(a)  75

(b)  69

(c)  100

(d)  85

Answer: (b)

77. 2, 15, 41, 80, 132, ?

(a)  197

(b)  150

(c)  178

(d)  180

Answer: (a)

78. Y, ?, ?, M, I, E

(a)  Z, X

(b)  P, R

(c)  Q, T

(d)  U, Q

Answer: (d)

79. W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?

(a)  Z, V

(b)  X, V

(c)  Y, U

(d)  Y, V

Answer: (c)

80. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

(a)  MQORN

(b)  QMONR

(c)  MQNRO

(d)  NQMOR

Answer: (c)

81. Which of the following combinations of circles best represents Athletes, Sprinters and Marathon Runners?

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 82-83) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A Course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information give in the statement, you have assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

(a) If only I follows

(b) If only II follows

(c) If either I or II follows

(d) None of the above

82. Statement Large part of the low lying areas in the city are inundated due to the heavy downpour during the last few days.

Courses of action

(I) The local administration should immediately make necessary arrangements to move the affected people to safer places.

(II) The local administrations should deploy fire brigade personnel in these areas to save the affected people.

Answer: (a)

83. Statement Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming a growing need among college going teenage children of middle-income group.

Courses of action

(I) Colleges should introduce dress code.

(II) Children should be counseled emphasizing the importance of many other things.

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 84-85) In the following questions, two statements have been given, which bear a cause and effect relationship.

(a) It Statement I is the cause and the Statement II is its effect

(b) If Statement II is the cause and the Statement I is it effect

(c) If both the Statements I and II are effects of a common cause

(d) If both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes

84. (I) Many villages in the district are marooned as the river overflowed the banks and may people have manage to survive on the tree tops and whichever place they could find above water.

(II) The district administration has sent relief teams to the affected villages to rescue the stranded villagers and have sent supplies of food and water to the nearby villages.

Answer: (a)

85. (I) The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.

(II) The small banks in the private and cooperative sector in India are not in a position to withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

Answer: (b)

86. Which among the following is not a Fashion Designer?

(a)  Ritu Kumar

(b)  Shiv Kumar Sharma

(c)  Tarun Tahiliani

(d)  Rahul Khanna

Answer: (b)

87. Retail venture Big Basket’s headquarters is in which city?

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Hyderabad

(d)  Bengaluru

Answer: (d)

88. Which among the following is a dust coloured light weight cotton fabric used by Indian Army during the British rule?

(a)  Poplin

(b)  Khaki

(c)  Silk

(d)  Polyster

Answer: (b)

89. Who introduced Subsidiary Alliance System?

(a)  Lord Dalhousie

(b)  Lord William Bentic

(c)  Lord Wellesley

(d)  Lord Irwin

Answer: (c)

90. What are Fashion Designers modes of working?

(a)  As freelancer

(b)  Working in house

(c)  Setting up a company

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

91. Which among the following is the driest desert on the Earth?

(a)  Kalahari

(b)  Atacama

(c)  Mojave Desert

(d)  Tabernas Desert

Answer: (b)

92. Which among the following is an example of the leaf fibre?

(a)  Cotton

(b)  Palm       

(c)  Jute

(d)  Kapok

Answer: (b)

93. Who designed for the FENDI labels?

(a)  Nicolas Ghesquiere

(b)  Karl Lagerfeld

(c)  Marc Jacobs

(d)  Tom Ford

Answer: (b)

94. Mark the odd one out.

(a)  Bandhini

(b)  Kalamkari

(c)  Ikkat

(d)  Lycra

Answer: (d)

95. The selling price of a product is determined by

(a)  cost of material and design

(b)  profit margin

(c)  demand

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

96. ‘Home Centre’, the popular brand is from the house of

(a)  Tatas       

(b)  Bombay dyeing

(c)  Landmark Group

(d)  Raymonds

Answer: (c)

97. Lakme Fashion Week Summer Spring 2017 took place at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Bengaluru

(c)  Mumbai

(d)  Pune

Answer: (c)

98. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

Answer: (c)

99. Who designs for Bottega Veneta label?

(a)  Alexander McQueen

(b)  Bob Mackie

(c)  Barbara Bui

(d)  Tomas Maier

Answer: (d)

100. Which among the following silk is not produced in India?

(a)  Vanya

(b)  Eri

(c)  Mulberry

(d)  Anaphe

Answer: (d)

101. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?

(a)  France

(b)  Spain

(c)  Russia

(d)  England

Answer: (b)

102. Which among the following is an India brand?

(a)  Lulu and Sky

(b)  Fab India

(c)  Allen Solly

(d)  Bala

Answer: (c)

103. By which among the following articles, Finance Commission has been constituted?

(a)  Article 282

(b)  Article 250

(c)  Article 280

(d)  Article 148

Answer: (c)

104. What is the name of cloth made of flax?

(a)  Cotton

(b)  Polyster

(c)  Lycra

(d)  Linen

Answer: (d)

105. Other than Venezuela, which among the following from the South American countries is a member of OPEC?

(a)  Argentina

(b)  Brazil

(c)  Ecuador

(d)  Bolivia

Answer: (c)

106. Which city is known as the world of fashion?

(a)  New York

(b)  London

(c)  Paris

(d)  Denmark

Answer: (c)

107. Who has been appointed as the first Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of Reserve Bank of India in May 2018?

(a)  Sudha Balakrishnan

(b)  Nasirul Mulk

(c)  Nirbhay Sharma

(d)  CK Prasad

Answer: (a)

108. What is ‘Tonsure’?

(a)  A type of dress

(b)  A type of make up

(c)  A type of hair decoration seen in fashion competitions

(d)  A type of fashion boots

Answer: (c)

109. Which English Fashion Designer designed the wedding dress of Queen Elizabeth II ?

(a)  Paul Poiret

(b)  Norman Bishop Hartnell

(c)  Rosita Missoni

(d)  Jean Paul Gaultier

Answer: (b)

110. Which section of UN stands against the pollution?

(a)  UNESCO

(b)  UNEP

(c)  UNIDO

(d)  UPU

Answer: (b)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 111-130) Read the following Case Studies and answer the questions given at the end of each Case study on the basis of information provided.

CASE STUDY 1

Meera Sweets has been operating in Jalandhar for the last 50 years with a very small scale operation. All along they have been a small time set up with just five members of the family running the shop. All of a sudden, one of their dishes-Gajroula – clicked in the market. This gave instant recognition to Meera Sweets due to which they increased their scale of production. Now, Meera Sweets have become a household name in the state. They started expanding their operations and has a network of 10 outlets in major cities. Its turnover in the year 2016 was reported to be 120 Crore. It is no more limited to Gajroula. Actually, it stopped producing Gajroula. Now, it produces whole range of sweets in Bengali, Punjabi and Lucknavi tastes. The original five members of the family have retracted to just supervision and policy-making. Most of its operations today are handled by hired staff. Each outlet is controlled by a manager. Whereas the preparations are made by traditional halwais, the business is supervised by managers who have absolutely no idea about sweets and their process of production. Invariably, there is a conflict between the two interest groups i.e. the highly paid white collar managerial staff and the traditional halwais who are the actual workers. Last month more than half of the halwais have left Meera Sweets to join its almost insignificant competitor. There are rumours that the competitor has actually been bought out by a corporate house and it has been renamed as Mira Sweets. This group has taken up large scale advertising by giving ads.

111. Stopping the production of Gajroula by Meera Sweets regarded as a

(a)  Good decision from business point of view

(b)  Good decision for image makeover

(c)  A strategic mistake

(d)  A well thought strategy for business expansion

Answer: (c)

112. What is the cause of conflict within the Meera Sweets group?

(a)  Stopping production of Gajroula

(b)  Quick expansion into different variations of sweets

(c)  Core members restricting to supervision only

(d)  Different concerns of the two interest groups

Answer: (d)

113. The real cause of success of Meera Sweets is

(a)  Good advertisement campaigns

(b)  Lack of good sweets makers in that area

(c)  Gajroula, a tasty standard sweet

(d)  Timely action by five members to expand their business

Answer: (b)

114. Which is true in the context of this case?

(a)  Meera has more managerial experience

(b)  Meera’s growth is well managed

(c)  Meera’s managerial experience is useful

(d)  Nothing can be said.

Answer: (a)

CASE STUDY 2

On 21st September, 2003, the airport police caught a person Michael trying to smuggle 90dried bear gall bladders out of the country. They looked like shriveled black mangoes, and no one but an expert could say that the weird looking things came from an animal. Even experts could falter in identifying the species of the animal the gall bladders came from. Thus, if the gall bladders came from the Himalayan brown bear as the airport police suspected, then Michael should have been prosecuted under the law.

Actually, drugs made from bear gall bladder are used in Tibetan medicine as cures for various ailments including joint aches, rheumatism, cataracts, gall stones, cancer and even as aphrodisiacs. Since these drugs are highly reputed (despite their being actually useless), the intact gall bladders of bear sell in the international markets at phenomenal rates. This has caused poaching of bears and the consequent fall in bear population. Michael understood that he had been caught red-handed. The best way to circumvent the law as to deny that these were bear gall bladders. Consequently, he asserted that the gall bladders had been taken out from pigs and not from bears. Since pig is not protected species in the Act, Michael could go scot free.

He banked upon the fact that the gall bladders of large mammals look alike and extremely difficult to distinguish one from the other. In fact, the question belonged to pigs or to bears. It was at this state that the airport police asked for my help.

Despite common belief, forensic science doesn’t enter to solving murders, killings or assassinations. Forensic science is the application of scientific knowledge to solve any legal dispute. Since here the police did face a legal dilemma, forensic science could come to their rescue.

115. The confiscation of gall bladders turned up which type of investigation?

(a)  Investigation on whether those are gall bladders or shriveled up mangoes.

(b)  Police or doctor who is better in identifying the species to which those gall bladders belong to.

(c)  Distinguish between gall bladders of bears and pigs.

(d)  Experiences or medical expertise to identify the species to which those gall bladders belong to.

Answer: (b)

116. Why Micheal said the gall bladders belong to pigs?

(a)  Because he knew that pigs were not protected species.

(b)  There was nothing morally wrong in saying pigs instead of bears.

(c)  He knew that police thought it were pigs bladders.

(d)  He had bribed forensic experts.

Answer: (a)

117. Why Michael hoped to escape the authorities by saying that the bladders were of pigs?

(a)  The fact that pigs are not protected.

(b)  The fact that even forensic science could not trace it.

(c)  The fact that gall bladders of pigs and bears look quite similar.

(d)  The fact that police was also confused.

Answer: (c)

118. What legal dilemma was faced by the police?

(a)  To find out if the gall bladders are of pigs or bears.

(b)  To call forensic expert or doctor.

(c)  To decide if pig is an endangered species nor bear.

(d)  To prosecute Michael or let him to free.

Answer: (d)

119. Whom did the airport police approached to solve the mystery of gall bladders?

(a)  A legal expert to know which act is applicable in this case.

(b)  A forensic expert who is the writer of the report.

(c)  A journalist who printed this article and covered the story.

(d)  A medical practitioner to take expert opinion.

Answer: (b)

CASE STUDY III

We moved upto The Premier League. Repositioning resulted in 35% increase in rental rate. As leasing and management agents of this properly, we were not capturing the tenants we desired in a marketplace abundant with competitors. Our property was well-located and well-managed yet would require an upgraded lobby, common corridors and a restored façade in order to compete with assets commanding rentals of $ 100 per rentable square feet or better. At $ 60 per rentable square feet, we were at the top of the second tier of properties in the Plaza District. As the client was reluctant to make capital improvements, we devised a strategy. Rather than be at the top of the ‘B’ category, why not assert ourselves as the ‘value provider’ at the ‘A’ level? We raised our asking rate from $60 to $80/RSF and when highly-regarded, creditworthy tenants kicked the tires at Park and 57th Street, they were pleased that our location, quality of property and spaces met with such favour economically compared to the $100-$125/RSF offerings. We immediately signed up an international law firm and off-shore bank and from th at point forward, our property enjoyed a new position, image and brand. In addition, the increased rental stream made it possible for the owner to contemplate the capital improvements that would elevate the asset to the $100+/RSF stratum.

120. What did they do to compete better with the competitors in the market?

(a)  Repositioned the properly.

(b)  They created new position, image and brand

(c)  They upgraded the lobby, common corridors and resotred the façade.

(d)  Increased the rent.

Answer: (c)

121. Why was the client reluctant to make capital investment?

(A) Because the rent was low and property needed repositioning and upgradations.

(B) Because they were at the top of the ‘B’ category and not ‘value provider’ at the ‘A’ level.

(C) Because they increased the rent.

Select the correct reason

(a)  Both A and B

(b)  Only A

(c)  Only C

(d)  Both B and C

Answer: (a)

122. What happened when they signed up an international firm law and off-shore bank?

(a)  The property enjoyed a new position, image and brand.

(b)  The increased rental stream make it possible for the owner to contemplate the capital

(c)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

CASE STUDY IV

Over a period spanning six and a half decades, the Haldiram’s Group (Haldiram’s) had emerged as a household name for ready-to-eat snack foods in India. It had come a long way since it is relatively humble beginning in 1937 as a small time sweet, shop in Bikaner, in the Rajasthan state of India. In 2001, the turnover of the Haldiram’s was Rs 4 billion. The group had presence not only in India but in several countries all over the world. Till the early 1990s Haldiram’s comprised of three units, one each in Kolakata. Nagpur and New Delhi. The Agarwals family that owned Haldiram’s were always conscious of the need to satisfy customers in order to grow their business. Haldiram’s had many ‘first’ to its credit. It was the first company in India to brand ‘namkeens’. The group also pioneered new ways of packaging namkeens. Its packaging technique increased the shelf life of namkeens from less than a week to more than six months. It was also one of the first companies in India to open a restaurant in New Delhi offering traditional Indian snack food items such as “panipuri,” “chatpapri”, and so on, which catered to the needs of hygiene conscious non-resident Indians and other foreign customers. Since the very beginning, the brand Haldiram’s been renowned for its quality products. Given the increasing popularity of Haldiram’s products, the group planned to expand its operations. However, some analysts felt that Haldiram’s still had to overcome some hurdles. The company faced tough competition not only from sweets and snack food vendors in the unorganized market but also from domestic and international competitors like SM Foods, Bakeman’s Industries Ltd. Frito Lay India Ltd. (Frito Lay) and Britannia Industries Ltd, Moreover, the group had to overcome internal problems as well. In the early 1990s, because of the conflict within the Agarwals family, Haldiram’s witnessed an informal split between its three units as they started operating separately offering simila, product and sharing the same brande name. In 1999, after a court verdict these unit started operating as three different companies with clearly defined territories. This split had resulted in aggressive competition among themselves for a higher share or domestic and international markets.

123. Where were the three units of Haldiram’s located till the early 1900s?

(a)  Kolkata, Nagpur and New Delhi

(b)  Kolkata, Mumbai and New Delhi

(c)  Nagpur, Gujarat and Mumbai

(d)  Lucknow, Nagpur and New Delhi

Answer: (a)

124. Mention the many ‘firsts’ of Haldiram’s

(A) Branding ‘namkeen’s

(B) New ways of packaging ‘namkeens’

(C) Opening a new restaurant in New Delhi

(a)  A, B and C

(b)  A and B

(c)  B and C

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (a)

125. What are the benefits of new ways of packaging namkeens?

(a)  Improved the taste

(b)  No added benefit

(c)  Improved shelf life

(d)  Increased sale

Answer: (c)

126. Who give tough competition to Haldiram’s?

(a)  Sweets and snacks vendors in the unorganized market

(b)  Domestic and international competitors   

(c)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

CASE STUDY V

Presently, Apple and Samsung are seen as the largest manufactures of smartphones across the world.

Earlier, the mobile phone market was ruled by companies like Nokia and Motorola, Apple took over the market when it launched ‘iPhone’ in 2007. The product became actually popular among users, having large and multi-touch user interface.

Apple continued on dominating the Smartphone market within the years; however Samsung introducing Samsung Galaxy series in 2013 brought increased competition for it. It was Samsung’s massive advertising coupled with unique Android features that the Samsung Galaxy has overtaken the iPhone to become the most popular Smartphone brand in the world.

This aggressive competition between these two tech giants has resulted in endless court.

Apple has a strange strategy when it comes to brand promotion. It has a minimalist presence on social media. It promotes through TVCs.

Samsung, meanwhile, is present on an array of social media channels like YouTube, Twitter, and Facebook pages for Samsung Mobile, Samsung TV, and more.

Samsung has also connected with major apps and platforms to target audience with social campaigns.

Samsung India has launched a nationwide television and digital campaign showcasing its initiative to take customer service to the doorsteps of customers in the rural area. Conceptualised by Cheil India, the campaign film is called #SamsungCares.

127. What helped the Samsung Galaxy to overtake iPhone?

(a)  Android features

(b)  Massive advertising with unique Android features

(c)  Better quality

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

128. How does Apple promote its products?

(a)  Minimal adds on social media

(b)  Promotion through radio

(c)  Promotion through TVCs

(d)  No promotion at all

Answer: (c)

129. How does Samsung promote its products?

(a)  Present on array of social media channels.

(b)  Connected with major apps and platforms

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

130. What is the initiative taken by Samsung India?

(a)  Providing customer service to doorstep of customers.

(b)  Providing new Android features in phones.

(c)  Mass advertising

(d)  New models of its gadgets

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 131-150) Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding caselet. Evaluate each statement and mark answer.

(a) If the statement is a major objective in making the decision or one of the goals sought by the decision maker, then mark (a) as answer.

(b) If the statement is a major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the caselet, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.

(c) If the statement is a minor factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a major factor, rather than a major objective directly.

(d) If the statement is a major assumption in making the decision, a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.

CASEALET I

Ice-Fili is the oldest and the most successful ice cream producer. This company has been thriving in an increasingly challenging domestic market with aggravating international competition, Ice-Fili has held onto market leadership in Russia for a long time, surviving many tumultuous moments including the 1998 financial crisis and the transformation of the economy of Russia from closed to open economy.

However, there has been increasing competition from regional companies and foreign producers of ice cream, leading to erosion of the market share of Ice-Fili in the recent years. Nestle has emerged as the biggest threat among the foreign competitors and it seems to be well positioned to take market leadership in Russia in the future. There are other foreign companies such as Baskin & Robbins and Haagen-Dazs and small regional producers that have been gaining ground in the Russian market but are far weak compared to Nestle.

Ice-Fili has been distributing its products in the local market through several distribution channels including kiosks (50%), mini-marts (29%), restaurants (3%) and supermarkets (2%) Nestle distributes its products via almost all distribution channels used by Ice-Fili while Baskin & Robbins mainly use franchised restaurants and  café networks. The ice cream products of Ice-Fili are differentiable from those of foreign competitors due to the presence of high proportion of milk and fats and the absence of preservatives. Thus, customers are able to substitute Ice-Fili products to the brands of competitors or ice cream to other foods that compete with ice cream products such as chocolates, yoghurts, bear and soda.

Ice-Fili targets household and on-the-go consumption that takes place outdoors. The household consumption is less sensitive to fluctuations in seasonal demands unlike on-the-go consumption which usually decreases significantly during the winter. The consumers of Ice-Fili do not buy the ice cream products from the company directly. Rather, the buyers are the distribution channel members who then sell these products to the final consumers. The consumer of Ice-Fili products are price-sensitive and have a significant bargaining power.

Usually, Ice-Fili returns transfer to buyers in form of lower prices. The purchasing power of the consumers of Ice cream products are influenced by various factors such as the quality of the products, the relative volume of purchases, switching costs and the standardization of the products.

131. Active steps to control erosion of the market share of Ice-Fili in recent years.

Answer: (b)

132. The on-the-go consumption of ice-cream is more sensitive to fluctuations in seasonal demand.

Answer: (d)

133. Consumers of Ice-Fili products are price-sensitive and have a significant bargaining power.

Answer: (a)

134. Baskin and Robbins mainly use franchised restaurants and cafe networks.

Answer: (c)

135. Nestle has emerged as the major threat.

Answer: (a)

CASELET II

Flipkart is slashing its budget for unit Myntra as it reallocates resources in its fight against rival Amazon, which is closing in on it and ploughing billions of dollars into India, two people familiar with the matter said. “In the war between Flipkart and Amazon, most of the money will be poured into Flipkart and they have told Myntra that they will not get the same amount of money which they used to get earlier,” said one the people, asking to be identified. Myntra said no budget changes were planned. “There has been no budget cut for this fiscal and we do not expect any changes going forward,” a spokesperson said.

A Flipkart spokesperson said the matter was unfounded speculation. “Budgets are decided on the basis of annual operating plans and there are/has been no change/reduction in planned budgets for the  year,” he said. Another person said the Bengaluru-based firm, asked by the board to fix its financial situation, decided to reduce Myntr’s budget by 10% as part of the process. Flipkart was asked to bring down the amount spent on advertising and offering discounts, among other expenses-known as the burn rate – to one-fourth by March after the October sale, the person said. “While it has streamlined its own operations to achieve the target, the company also decided to trim down the supply to Myntra,” the person said. Newspaper reported earlier that Flipkart will slash its burn rate to save $150-200 million by December 2017 as the online marketplace looks to double its growth pace. India’s largest. Ecommerce marketplace will infuse minimum fresh capital into the business until a new investor comes on board, according to the people.

This will have a direct fallout on Myntra, the country’s largest fashion e-Commerce site that Flipkart acquired for about $ 300 million in 2014. Flipkart’s burn rate was at its highest two  years ago on account of aggressive spending on customer acquisition. Its current burn rate is said to be $40-50 million per month, according to industry estimates. Flipkart is said to be lowering its burn rate by 5-10% every quarter in 2016 and wants to sharply accelerate this pace.

136. Amazon is closing in on Flipkart and ploughing billions of dollars in India.

Answer: (b)

137. The Bengaluru based firm was asked by the board to fix its financial situation.

Answer: (c)

138. Flipkart wants to save $150-200 million by December 2017.

Answer: (a)

139. There will be a direct fallout on Myntra, the country’s largest fashion commercial site.

Answer: (d)

140. Flipkart had an aggressive spending on customer acquisition.

Answer: (b)

CASELET III

Government is implementing several schemes and programs under the Umbrella Integrated Child Development Services Scheme as direct targeted interventions to address the problem of malnutrition in the country. All these schemes address one or other aspects related to nutrition and have the potential to improve nutritional outcomes in the country.

Malnutrition is not a direct cause of death but contributes to mortality and morbidity by reducing resistance to infections. There is a number of causes of death of children such as prematurity, low birth weight, pneumonia, diarrhoeal diseases, non-communicable diseases, birth asphyxia & birth trauma, injuries, congential anomalies, acute bacterial sepsis and severe infections, etc.

The goals of National Nutrition Mission are to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time bound manner during the next three  years beginning 2017-18.

The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) has been set up with a three year budget of Rs 9046.17 crore commencing from 2017-18. The NNM is a comprehensive approach towards raising nutrition level in the country on a war footing.

It will comprise of mapping of various schemes contributing towards addressing malnutrition, including a very robust convergence mechanism, ICT based Real Time Monitoring system, incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets, incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for using IT based tools, eliminating registers used by AWWs, introducing measurement of height of children at the Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Social Audits, setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres, involving masses through Jan Andolan for their participation on nutrition through various activities, among others.

141. Direct targeted interventions to address the problem of malnutrition in the country.

Answer: (a)

142. Malnutrition is not a direct cause of death.

Answer: (d)

143. The goals of National Nutrition Mission are to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers.

Answer: (a)

144. The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) has been set up with a three year budget of Rs 9,046.17 crore commencing from 2017-18.

Answer: (c)

145. There are a number of causes of death of children such as prematurity, low birth weight, pneumonia.

Answer: (b)

CASELET IV

Indian food security system, established by the Government of India under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is to distribute subsidized food and non-food items to India’s poor. This scheme was first launched in February 1944, during the Second World War and was launched in the current form in June 1947. Major commodities distributed include staple food grains, such as wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene, through a network of fair price shops (also known as ration shops) established in several states across the country. Food Corporation of India, a Government-owned corporation, procures and maintains the PDS. It will reduce India’s dependence on buffer stock for price stabilization and in turn reduce the cost.

In coverage and public expenditure, it is considered to be the most important food security network. However, the food grains supplied by the ration shops are not enough to meet the consumption needs of the poor or are of inferior quality. The average level of consumption of PDS seeds in India is only one kg per person/month. The PDS has been criticized for its urban bias and its failure to serve the poorer sections of the population effectively. The targeted PDS is costly and gives rise to much corruption in the process of extricating the poor from those who are less needy. Today, India has the largest stock of grain in the world besides China, the government spends Rs 750 billion ($13.6 billion) per year, almost 1% of GDP, yet 21% remain undernourished. Distribution of food grains to poor people throughout the country is managed by state governments. As of date there are about 5,00,000 Fair Price Shops (FPS) across India.

146. Food and Public Distribution is to distribute subsidized food and non-food items to India’s poor.

Answer: (a)

147. The average level of consumption of PDS seeds in India is only I kg per person/month.

Answer: (d)

148. The targeted PDS is costly and gives rise to much corruption in the process of extricating the poor from those who are less needy.

Answer: (c)

149. It will reduce India’s dependence on buffer stock for price stabilization and in turn reduce the cost.

Answer: (d)

150. The food grains supplied by the ration shops are not enough to meet the consumption needs of the poor or are of inferior quality.

Answer: (b)

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