Competitive Exams

SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2012 Paper-I Solved Papers

Part-A

General Intelligence & Reasoning

   Directions-(Q. 1 to 9) Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives-

1. SKIT : TIKS : : ? : FLAP

(A)  PLFA

(B)  PFAL

(C)  PLAF

(D)  PALF

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2. 6 : 72 :: 8 : ?

(A)  94

(B)  96

(C)  74

(D)  92

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3. 6 : 36 : : 9 : ?

(A)  81

(B)  98

(C)  42

(D)  56

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4. 384 : ? : : 216 : 63

(A)  128

(B)  124

(C)  112

(D)  192

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5. Asthma : Lungs : : Conjunctivitis : ?

(A)  Bones

(B)  Teeth

(C)  Eyes

(D)  Blood

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6. Communicable disease : Malaria : : Non-communicable disease : ?

(A)  Tuberculosis

(B)  Hepatitis

(C)  AIDS

(D)  Cancer

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7. Thermometer : Temperature : : Glucometer : ?

(A)  Body sugar

(B)  Body resistance

(C)  Blood

(D)  Blood sugar

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8. Dismay : Joy : : Tend : ?

(A)  Regret

(B)  Ignore

(C)  Negligible

(D)  Spoil

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9. DCBA : WXYZ : : ? : ZYXW

(A)  ABCD

(B)  ABDC

(C)  CBAD

(D)  BCDA

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Directions-(Q. 10 to 14) Find the odd word/number/letters from the given alternatives-

10.

(A)  4249

(B)  7586

(C)  4623

(D)  9781

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11.

(A)  ee gg ii kk

(B)  pp rr tt uu

(C)  bb dd ff hh

(D)  kk mm oo qq

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12.

(A)  X

(B)  P

(C)  D

(D)  I

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13.

(A)  Pen

(B)  Letter-head

(C)  Paper

(D)  Envelope

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14.

(A)  Reed

(B)  Pit

(C)  Tab

(D)  Hold

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Directions-(Q. 15 to 23) A series are given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series-

15. CDF, DEG, EFH ….

(A)  FHG

(B)  EFI

(C)  FGH

(D)  FGI

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16. ZA, VC, RE, NG, ……., FK

(A)  OH

(B)  KI

(C)  IJ

(D)  JI

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17. 4, 16, 36, …., 100

(A)  56

(B)  64

(C)  48

(D)  52

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18. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, …..

(A)  30

(B)  52

(C)  35

(D)  24

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19. 12, 23, 34, 45, ….., 67, 78, 89

(A)  76

(B)  69

(C)  56

(D)  54

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20. EAB, GCD, MIJ, ….

(A)  ROP

(B)  QOP

(C)  OKL

(D)  FOP

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21. ACE, BDF, GIK, ….

(A)  JHM

(B)  HJI

(C)  HJL

(D)  MJH

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22. WBP, SGM, OLJ, …

(A)  NPH

(B)  KQG

(C)  LPG

(D)  MQG

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23. DEF, HIJ, MNO, …

(A)  RTV

(B)  SRQ

(C)  RST

(D)  STU

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24. If 20 + 15 = 24 and 64 + 13 = 42, then 11 + 28 = ?

(A)  33

(B)  36

(C)  31

(D)  34

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25. In the diagram alongside, AD = 2AB = What is the area of the shaded portion ?

(A)  2d²

(B)  d/2

(C)  d²/2

(D)  d²/4

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26. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.

Given set : (9, 27, 108)

(A)  (15, 45, 90)

(B)  (8, 32, 96)

(C)  (5, 15, 75)

(D)  (11, 33, 132)

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27. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two. Which one of the following alternatives observes this rule?

(A)  UROLIF

(B)  WTQNKJ

(C)  SPMLI

(D)  TSPNKH

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28. Choose the synonym for the given word from the given options.

‘Exposition’

(A)  Examination

(B)  Expression

(C)  Elucidation

(D)  Revelation

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29. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain principle. On the same basis, find the correct answer from among the alternatives given.

27(18)3; 216(180)6; 729(?)9

(A)  810

(B)  700

(C)  81

(D)  648

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30. Karan facing towards South moved straight 2 km and from there, turned to his right 90° and travelled 2 km. Then, he took a 45° turn to his left and travelled 1 km. Where would he be now with respect to the starting point?

(A)  North West region

(B)  South West region

(C)  South region

(D)  South East region

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31. Reena walks 4 km East and then cycles 10 km North, turns to the left and covers 4 km and once again turns to the North and moves 2 km. How far is she from the starting point?

(A)  10 km

(B)  14 km

(C)  8 km

(D)  12 km

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32. Laxmi started walking Southwards and after covering a distance of 30 m, she turned left. She walked 25 meters, and turned to the left and again walked 30 meters. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?

(A)  20 m West

(B)  25 m West

(C)  25 m East

(D)  30 m East

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33. In a certain code, ‘CAPITAL’ is written as ‘CPATILA’. How is ‘PERSONS’ written in that code?

(A)  PSONRES

(B)  PONSRES

(C)  PESONRS

(D)  PREOSSN

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34. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you encode ACCEPT?

(A)  455978

(B)  735961

(C)  554978

(D)  547978

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35. In the following problem :-

= Stand for ÷

+ stands for –

× stands for =

− stands for >

> stands for +

< stands for ×

÷ stands for <

When these new symbols are substituted, only one will be correct. Identify the correct equation-

(A)  24 = 4 > 5 × 17 + 13

(B)  24 = 4 + 2 × 17 + 13

(C)  24 = 4 > 5 × 17 > 13

(D)  24 + 4 = 5 × 17 + 13

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Directions-(Q. 36) Two statements are followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, definitely follows from the given statements.

36. Statements:

(1) Parental role in the education of their children is very significant.

(2) All parents must realize this.

Conclusions:

(I) Parentless children cannot develop to their maximum potential.

(II) Parents can help their children in their education.

(A)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(B)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Only conclusion I follows

(D)  Only conclusion II follows

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37. Find out the number which does not belong to the group of ABCD-

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Directions-(Q. 38 to 40) Select the missing number from the given responses-

38.

5            7          4          39

6             9          5          59

7             11        ?          83

(A)  6

(B)  7

(C)  4

(D)  8

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39.

8             16        10

2             8          5

4             ?          9

8             5          9

(A)  2

(B)  5

(C)  4

(D)  3

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40.

8             (14)      15

13           (18)      22

25           (?)        41

(A)  33

(B)  42

(C)  14

(D)  36

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Directions0(Q. 41) Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

41. 

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42. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given figures, when the mirror is held as shown?

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43. A word is represented by only one set of numbers is given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the 2 matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next column number. e.g., ‘F’ can be represented by 14, 21 etc. ‘S’ can be represented by 58, 96 etc. similarly, identify the word TRIP.

(A)  78, 76, 21, 76

(B)  59, 57, 41, 56

(C)  85, 88, 33, 89

(D)  66, 69, 40, 69

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44. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden-

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45. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the figure. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?

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46. If a person has intelligence, character and position, which figure represents all of these?

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47. How many squares are there in a given figure?

(A)  12

(B)  13

(C)  10

(D)  11

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48. Which figure represents the relationship among Hockey players, Rubber balls, Poets?

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  2

(D)  5

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49. In the question, one part of the problem figure is subtracted. Select the option that shows the correct shape after subtraction-

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50. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in question figure have been cut-

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Part-B

General Knowledge & General Awareness

51. There is no selling cost under-

(A)  Oligopoly

(B)  Duopoly

(C)  Perfect competition

(D)  Monopolistic competition

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52. Which of the following is not a function of the Exim Bank of India?

(A)  Financing of joint venture in foreign countries

(B)  Loans to Indian parties for contributing to share capital of joint ventures abroad

(C)  Financing of export and import of goods and services

(D)  Inspection of exported goods for quality assurance

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53. Which of the following systems in independent India goes against the very basis of democracy?

(A)  Party system

(B)  Parliamentary system

(C)  Caste system

(D)  Economic system

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54. According to Karl Marx, the change in economic system results in inevitable changes in-

(A)  the entire systems

(B)  religious system only

(C)  political system only

(D)  social system only

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55. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A)  The value of commodity depends upon its price.

(B)  The value of commodity is entirely dependent upon the substitutes.

(C)  A commodity will have value if it is wanted by somebody

(D)  A commodity will have value only if it is scarce relative to demand.

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56. Which of the following formulae could be used for calculating the per capital income of a country?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

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57. For controlling inflation, the Central Bank should-

(A)  purchase Government securities in the open market

(B)  lower the reserve ratio of the banks

(C)  sell Government securities in the open market

(D)  lower the bank rate

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58. Match the medieval travellers with their countries:

List-I

(a) Marco Polo

(b) Ibnbattuta

(c) Antonio Monserrate

(d) Mahmud Wali Balkhi

List-II

(1) Spain

(2) Balkh

(3) Italy

(4) Morocco

(A)  (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-2

(B)  (a)-1; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-4

(C)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-1; (d)-2

(D)  (a)-3; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-2

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59. Rana Kumbha constructed the Tower of Victory at Chittor to mark his victory over-

(A)  The Khan of Nagaur

(B)  Rao Jodha of Marwar

(C)  Ahmad Shah of Gujarat

(D)  Mahmud Khalji of Malwa

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60. Match the following

List-I

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) M.A. Jinnah

(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

(d) V.D. Savarkar

List-II

(1) Muslim League

(2) Indian National Congress

(3) Hindu Mahasabha

(4) Liberal Party

(A)  (a)-2; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-3

(B)  (a)-4; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-2

(C)  (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-4; (d)-3

(D)  (a)-2; (b)-1; (c)-3; (d)-4

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61. The Social Forestry Scheme was introduced during-

(A)  Second Five Year Plan

(B)  Sixth Five Year Plan

(C)  Fourth Five Year Plan

(D)  Eighth Five Year Plan

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62. The model code of conduct for political parties and candidates to be followed during the election is-

(A)  enjoined by the Supreme Court

(B)  agreed through a voluntary agreement among the recognized political parties

(C)  laid down in the Constitution of India

(D)  specified in The Representation of the People Act. 1951

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63. A citizen can directly move the Supreme Court for any violation of Fundamental Rights under-

(A)  Article 33

(B)  Article 34

(C)  Article 31

(D)  Article 32

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64. Which one of the following sitting Vice-Presidents of India contested for the post of President and lost the election?

(A)  S. Radhakrishnan

(B)  V. V. Giri

(C)  Bhairon Singh Shekhawat

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

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65. The French challenges to British in India came to an end with-

(A)  Battle of Plassey

(B)  Battle of Buxar

(C)  Battle of Wandiwash

(D)  Battle of Srirangapattnam

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66. Identify the medical trio of ancient India from the following names-

(A)  Charaka, Susruta and Bharata

(B)  Charaka, Susruta and Patanjali

(C)  Charaka Susruta and Vagbhata

(D)  Charaka, Vatsyayana and Vagbhata

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67. Vegetation is effective in absorbing-

(A)  High frequency sound

(B)  Pollutant metals

(C)  Pollutant gases

(D)  Polluted water

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68. When a person cries, there is a watery discharge from the nose due to activation of-

(A)  Thyroid gland

(B)  Endocrine gland

(C)  Salivary gland

(D)  Lachrymal gland

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69. The fundamental role of root hairs in plants is-

(A)  to absorb water and mineral salts from the soil

(B)  to bind soil particles to the root for firm fixation of the plant

(C)  to protect the  young root from damage by coarse soil particles

(D)  to protect the root from soil microbes

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70. Catch crops are-

(A)  crops to be cut and fed green to the cattle

(B)  substitute crops planted after the regular crop has failed

(C)  crops planted to attract certain insect pests to be destroyed

(D)  crops planted to attract certain useful insects to be used for biological control of pests

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71. Which one of the following acts as a mediator between the user’s program and the hardware-

(A)  Operating System

(B)  Browser

(C)  Compiler

(D)  Editor

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72. The project similar to T.V.A. (Tennessee Valley Authority) of U.S.A. in India is-

(A)  Ramganga Multipurpose Project

(B)  Idukki Project

(C)  Damodar Valley Project

(D)  Mahanadi Delta Project

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73. Petrology is the study of-

(A)  earth

(B)  minerals

(C)  rocks

(D)  soils

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74. Match the Following:

List-I                                          List-II

(a) Rosewood                             1. Mangrove forests

(b) Bushes                                  2. Alpine Forests

(c) Birch                                     3. Deciduous forests

(d) Sundari tree                         4. Dry forests

(A)  (a)-1; (b)-2; (c)-3; (d)-4

(B)  (a)-2; (b)-3; (c)-4; (d)-1

(C)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-1

(D)  (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-2; (d)-1

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75. During the period of South-West monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains dry because-

(A)  it lies in the rain-shadow area

(B)  the temperature is too  high to let the winds cool down

(C)  the winds do not reach this area

(D)  there are no mountains in this area

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76. The red colour of ripe tomatoes is due to the presence of-

(A)  Chlorophyll

(B)  Carotenoids

(C)  Hormones

(D)  Vitamins

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77. Anticoagulants are not present in-

(A)  Leech

(B)  Wasp

(C)  Mosquito

(D)  Bed bug

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78. To eliminate the glare of headlights in motor cars-

(A)  thin films are used

(B)  filters are used

(C)  polaroids are used

(D)  glass prisms are used

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79. The substances which have infinite electrical resistance are called-

(A)  conductors

(B)  resistors

(C)  insulators

(D)  condensers

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80. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is located at-

(A)  Vienna

(B)  Sydney

(C)  Geneva

(D)  Washington

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81. If you use a font that is not supported by a browser, then the text-

(A)  will be displayed using ‘ARIAL’ font only

(B)  will be displayed with a particular background

(C)  will be displayed in the default font

(D)  will not be displayed

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82. The pigment that protects plants from UV damage is-

(A)  Phycocyanin

(B)  Carotenoids

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Xanthophyll

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83. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development is called-

(A)  Air Summit

(B)  Resource Summit

(C)  Earth Summit

(D)  Water Summit

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84. A bio-energy source obtained by fermentation to supplement fossil fuel petrol is-

(A)  Diesel

(B)  Methane

(C)  Kerosene

(D)  Ethanol

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85. The substance that causes the worst air pollution is-

(A)  Carbon dioxide

(B)  Carbon monoxide

(C)  Smoke

(D)  Sulphur dioxide

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86. A liquid is aid to boil when its-

(A)  vapor pressure is greater than the surrounding pressure

(B)  vapour pressure is less than the surrounding pressure

(C)  vapour pressure equal the surrounding pressure

(D)  vapour pressure vanishes to zero

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87. Which is not correct regarding covalent compounds?

(A)  Compounds are usually liquids and gases

(B)  Boiling points and melting points are low

(C)  The reaction is slow

(D)  The reaction is fast

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88. Choose the correct statement-

(A)  Mixtures are homogeneous

(B)  In a mixture the components are present in a fixed ratio

(C)  The components of a mixture cannot be separated

(D)  Chemical properties of a mixture are the same as those of its components

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89. PVC is obtained from-

(A)  Styrene

(B)  Acetylene

(C)  Propene

(D)  Polyvinyl Chloride

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90. What is the name of the first research station established by India in the Antarctica?

(A)  Agnihotri

(B)  Aryabhatta

(C)  Dakshin Gangotri

(D)  Maitri

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91. Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2011 for his exceptional and distinguished service in the field of trade and industry?

(A)  S. Gopalakrishnan

(B)  Mecca Rafeeque Ahmed

(C)  Azim Premji

(D)  Ratan  Tata

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92. The five permanent members of the U.N. Security Council are-

(A)  China, Germany, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.

(B)  China, Germany, U.S.A. U.K. and Canada

(C)  China, France, Russia, U.K. and U.S.A.

(D)  China, Canada, France, U.S.A. and Germany

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93. Which of the following is not correctly paired?

(A)  Harbhajan Singh – Kabaddi

(B)  Saina Nehwal – Badminton

(C)  Jwala Gutta – Tennis

(D)  Virat Kohli – Cricket

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94. Which of the following States has the largest gap in the male and female literacy as per 2011 Census (provisional data)?

(A)  Rajasthan

(B)  Kerala

(C)  Uttar Pradesh

(D)  Madhya Pradesh

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95. Stainless steel is an alloy of-

(A)  iron, carbon and zinc

(B)  iron, zinc and manganese

(C)  iron, chromium and nickel

(D)  iron, chromium and carbon

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96. Enriched uranium used in a nuclear reactor is-

(A)  uranium alloyed with aluminium

(B)  uranium with a high percentage of a particular isotope

(C)  uranium free of all impurities

(D)  235_U

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97. In a refrigerator, cooling is produced by-

(A)  the sudden expansion of a compressed gas

(B)  the evaporation of a volatile liquid

(C)  the ice which deposite in the freezer

(D)  None of these

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98. The first woman to conquer Mount Everest twice is-

(A)  Santosh Yadav

(B)  Suma Shirur

(C)  Surja Lata Devi

(D)  Jyoti Randhawa

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99. Which one of the following iron and steel works in India is not under public sector?

(A)  Bhilai

(B)  Durgapur

(C)  Bokaro

(D)  Jamshedpur

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100. Which Indian hockey player has a road named after him in Germany?

(A)  Roop Singh

(B)  Dhanraj Pillai

(C)  Dhyan Chand

(D)  Zafar Iqbal

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Part-C

Quantitative Aptitude

101. In a fort, there was sufficient food for 200 soldiers for 31 days. After 27 days, 120 soldiers left the fort. For how many extra days will the rest of the food last for the remaining soldiers?

(A)  4 days

(B)  12 days

(C)  10 days

(D)  6 days

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102. Equal amounts of water were poured into two empty jars of different capacities, which made one jar 1/4 full and the other jar 1/3 full. If the water in the jar with lesser capacity is then poured into the jar with greater capacity, then the part of the larger jar filled with water is-

(A)  1/4

(B)  1/3

(C)  1/2

(D)  7/12

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103. A bookseller makes 8% profit after selling the book at 10% discount. The ratio of the cost price to the marked price is-

(A)  5 : 6

(B)  6 : 5

(C)  4 : 5

(D)  5 : 4

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104. A certain sum of money is distributed to A and B in the ratio 2:5. If A received Rs 100, then the money received by B is-

(A)  Rs 250

(B)  Rs 300

(C)  Rs 200

(D)  Rs 150

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105. Last year my age was a perfect square number. Next year it will be a cubic number. What is my present age?

(A)  26 years

(B)  24 years

(C)  25 years

(D)  27 years

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106. What is the value of 

(A)  92.51

(B)  0.9251

(C)  0.9261

(D)  92.61

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107. The greatest number that can divide 140, 176, 264 leaving remainders of 4, 6 and 9 respectively is-

(A)  17

(B)  2

(C)  85

(D)  34

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108. There are 4 terms in an A.P. such that the sum of two means is 110 and product of their extremes is 2125. The 3^rd term is-

(A)  55

(B)  45

(C)  65

(D)  75

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109. The value of  is-

(A)  106

(B)  136

(C)  116

(D)  126

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110. If 10 men or 18 boys can do a work in 15 days, then the number of days required by 15 men and 33 boys to do twice the work is-

(A)  9

(B)  36

(C) 

(D)  8

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111. A man walks a certain distance and rides back taking a total time of 37 minutes. He could walk both ways in 55 minutes. How long would he take to ride both ways?

(A)  19 minutes

(B)  20 minutes

(C)  9.5 minutes

(D)  18 minutes

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112. Mahesh starts work as a sales representative on an annual salary of Rs 1,60,000. If he receives a 15% pay-rise each year, the number of years he has worked for the company, ,when his annual salary became Rs 2,79,841 is-

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  3

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113. The base of a triangle is 2 cm more than twice its altitude. If the area is 12 sq. cm, its altitude will be-

(A)  4 cm

(B)  3 cm

(C)  6 cm

(D)  5 cm

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114. A man leaves Rs 12,600 to be divided among 7 sons, 3 daughters and 5 nephews. If each daughter receives there times as much as each nephew and each son seven times as much as each nephew, then each daughter’s share is-

(A)  Rs 600

(B)  Rs 750

(C)  Rs 700

(D)  Rs 650

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115. The average of three numbers 70, *7 and 5* is 57. If * represents the same digit, then it must be-

(A)  4

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  6

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116. Three years ago, the average of a family of 8 members was 30 years. If one child is also included in the family, the present average age of the family remained the same. Then the present age of the child is-

(A)  6 years

(B)  1 year

(C)  3 years

(D)  4 years

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117. By selling an article for Rs 21,000, a man gains 5%. To get a profit of 15%, he has to sell it for-

(A)  Rs 23,000

(B)  Rs 25,000

(C)  Rs 19,800

(D)  Rs 20,700

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118. Rahul bought two cycles for a total sum of Rs 1,500. He sold one cycle at 20% loss and the other cycle at 20% gain. If the selling price of both the cycles is the same, find the cost piece of the two cycles.

(A)  Rs 750 each

(B)  Rs 550, Rs 950

(C)  Rs 500, Rs 1,000

(D)  Rs 600, Rs 900

Show Answer

119. The salary of an employee increases every year in the month of July by 10%. If his salary in May 2000 was Rs 15,000, his salary in October 2001 was-

(A)  Rs 18,150

(B)  Rs 19,965

(C)  Rs 16,500

(D)  Rs 18,000

Show Answer

120. 72% of the students of a certain class took Biology and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Biology or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class was-

(A)  250

(B)  320

(C)  200

(D)  230

Show Answer

121. If the volume and the surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the numerical value of the radius of the sphere is-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Show Answer

122. If   then the value of   is-

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  15

(D)  3

Show Answer

123. Minimum value of  is-

(A)  0

(B)  −1

(C)  −3

(D)  −2

Show Answer

124. If a + b = 5, a² + b² = 13, the value of a – b (where a > b) is-

(A)  1

(B)  −2

(C)  2

(D)  −1

Show Answer

125. If (3x – y) : (x + 5y) = 5 : 7, then the value of (x + y) : (x – y) is-

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  3 : 2

(C)  3 : 1

(D)  1 : 3

Show Answer

126. The line passing through the points (−2, 8) and (5, 7)-

(A)  Cuts y-axis only

(B)  Cuts both the axes

(C)  Does not cut any axes

(D)  Cut x-axis only

Show Answer

127. In ∆ ABC, ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 40°, If AD bisects ∠BAC and AE ⊥ BC, then ∠EAD is-

(A)  10°

(B)  20°

(C)  40°

(D)  80°

Show Answer

128. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 64 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 13.2 cm and CM = 16.8 cm. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD in square centimeter is-

(A)  422.4

(B)  690.0

(C)  537.6

(D)  960.0

Show Answer

129. The area of a semi-circular field is 308 sq. m; taken taking π = 22/7, the length of the railing to surround it has to be-

(A)  88 m

(B)  80 m

(C)  44 m

(D)  72 m

Show Answer

130. Volume of a right circular cone is numerically equal to its slant surface area. Then value of  where h and r are height and radius of the cone respectively, is-

(A)  4 units

(B)  1/4 unit

(C)  9 units

(D)  1/9 unit

Show Answer

131. If the numerical value of volume of a right circular cylinder and its curved surface area are equal, then its radius is-

(A)  3 units

(B)  6 units

(C)  2 units

(D)  4 units

Show Answer

132. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side 2 feet. The area, in square feet, of the rectangle BCEF is-

(A)  8

(B)  4 + 4√3

(C)  4

(D)  4√3

Show Answer

133. If in ∆ ABC, ∠A = 90°, BC = a, AC = b and AB = c, then the value of tan B + tan C is-

(A)  a²/ab

(B) 

(C)  b²/ac

(D)  a²/bc

Show Answer

134. A ladder is resting against a wall at a height of 10 m. If the ladder is inclined with the ground at an angle of 30°, then the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall is-

(A)  10/√3 m

(B)  20/√3 m

(C)  10√3 m

(D)  20√3 m

Show Answer

135. tan 7° tan 23° tan 60° tan 67° tan 83° is equal to-

(A)  0

(B)  √3

(C)  1/√3

(D)  1

Show Answer

136. The value of (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) is-

(A)  1

(B)  3/2

(C)  2

(D)  0

Show Answer

137. In the figure below, if AB || CD and CE ⊥ ED, then the value of x is-

(A)  53

(B)  63

(C)  37

(D)  45

Show Answer

138. PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre O where the points A and B are the points of contact. The quadrilateral OAPB must be-

(A)  A rectangle

(B)  A rhombus

(C)  A square

(D)  Cyclic

Show Answer

139. G is the centroid of ∆ If AG = BC, then ∠BGC is-

(A)  90°

(B)  30°

(C)  60°

(D)  120°

Show Answer

140. In the following figure, if OA = 10 and AC = 16, then OB must be-

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  3

(D)  4

Show Answer

141. The graph f y = x + |x| is given by-

(A)  3

(B)  4

(C)  1

(D)  2

Show Answer

142. The equation of this graph is-

(A)  y = x

(B)  y = 3x

(C)  y = −x

(D)  y = −3x

Show Answer

143. If tan(θ₁ + θ₂) = √3, and sec(θ₁ – θ₂) = 2/√3, then the value of sin 2θ₁ + tan 3θ₂ is equal to-

(assume that 0 < θ₁ – θ₂ < θ₁ + θ₂ < 90°)

(A)  0

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  2

Show Answer

144. The area of the shaded region in the following graph is-

(A)  6 units

(B)  8 units

(C)  2 units

(D)  4 units

Show Answer

145. The shaded region represents-

(A)  y ≥ x

(B)  y ≤ −x

(C)  y ≤ x

(D)  y ≥ −x

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 146-150) The pie-chart given below shows the distribution of workforce by occupational category for country X in 1981 and 1995. Study the chart and answer the questions.

146. The increase in the number of Clerical workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 (in millions) is-

(A)  0.5

(B)  1.25

(C)  0.75

(D)  1.5

Show Answer

147. The percentage decrease in the number of Blue-Collar workers in the workforce of country X from 1981 to 1995 is-

(A)  20

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  35

Show Answer

148. In 1981, the number of Service workers in the workforce, in millions, was-

(A)  22.5

(B)  28.0

(C)  15.0

(D)  20.5

Show Answer

149. In 1981, the number of categories which comprised of more than 25 million workers each, is-

(A)  Four

(B)  Five

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

Show Answer

150. The ratio of the number of workers in the Professional category in 1981 to the number of such workers in 1995 is-

(A)  9 : 14

(B)  14 : 9

(C)  4 : 9

(D)  5 : 14

Show Answer

Part-D

English Comprehension

   Directions-(Q. 151-155) Some parts of the sentence have errors and some have none, Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to letter (D) in the Answer Sheet.

151. The concentration of human and material resources at a few centres (A)/ have resulted in (B)/ large scale migration of rural population to urban areas. (C)/ No Error (D)

Show Answer

152. Who wouldn’t be triumphant (A)/ in their success (B)/ at the examination ? (C)/ No Error (D)

Show Answer

153. I dared (A)/ Mohan fights (B)/ a duel. (C)/ No Error (D)

Show Answer

154. All of you except Sheena (A)/ have done the homework (B)/ properly. (C)/ No Error (D)

Show Answer

155. The summit began (A)/ on a much voiced (B)/ optimism note. (C)/ No Error (D)

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 156 to 160) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

156. Many modern methods of agriculture ……… thousands of years ago.

(A)  sprang

(B)  started

(C)  began

(D)  originated

Show Answer

157. He is utterly ……… at the end of the day.

(A)  worn away

(B)  worn on

(C)  worn through

(D)  worn out

Show Answer

158. People should refrain ………. Evil deeds.

(A)  from doing

(B)  doing

(C)  to do

(D)  in doing

Show Answer

159. A rare audio tape released by the court at the end of the hearing showed many judges asking ………… they should intervene at all.

(A)  in only

(B)  only if

(C)  weather

(D)  whether

Show Answer

160. Rita ……….. her home work yet.

(A)  has not done

(B)  will not do

(C)  does not do

(D)  did not do

Show Answer

Directions(Q. 161 to 165) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the MEANING of the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

161. Clandestinely

(A)  secretly

(B)  openly

(C)  financially

(D)  systematically

Show Answer

162. Periphery

(A)  circle

(B)  boundary

(C)  edge

(D)  terminus

Show Answer

163. Exonerate

(A)  absolve

(B)  execute

(C)  negate

(D)  charge

Show Answer

164. Exquisite

(A)  exact

(B)  wonderful

(C)  quizzical

(D)  exciting

Show Answer

165. Comprehensive

(A)  adhesive

(B)  expensive

(C)  alternative

(D)  inclusive

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 166-170) Choose the word OPPOSITE in MEANING to the given bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

166. Precedence

(A)  subordination

(B)  seclusion

(C)  succession

(D)  supersession

Show Answer

167. Misdemeanour

(A)  adventure

(B)  cowardice

(C)  humility

(D)  courtesy

Show Answer

168. Nibble

(A)  swallow

(B)  munch

(C)  devour

(D)  consume

Show Answer

169. Jeopardy

(A)  pleasure

(B)  stability

(C)  safety

(D)  comfort

Show Answer

170. Hindrance

(A)  assistance

(B)  authorization

(C)  approval

(D)  approbation

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 171-175) Four alternative are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best EXPRESSES the MEANING of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

171. Suman held court with the studio audience.

(A)  tried to please to gain support

(B)  entertained with interesting funny stories

(C)  took to the court of law

(D)  had a formal discussion with

Show Answer

172. Ravi wants to blaze a trail in his activities.

(A)  be supported

(B)  be the centre of attraction

(C)  initiate work and be a pioneer

(D)  blow the trumpet

Show Answer

173. Their friendship lasted without a cloud to the end of his life.

(A)  without concealment

(B)  without stigma

(C)  without trouble

(D)  without romance

Show Answer

174. She took a wrong decision by not marrying this gentleman. She doesn’t know that beauty is only skin deep.

(A)  physical charm is important

(B)  internal beauty is not important

(C)  physical touch is not important

(D)  physical beauty is not important

Show Answer

175. The officials played ducks and drakes with the public money.

(A)  spent

(B)  preserved

(C)  collected

(D)  squandered

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 176-180) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,  your answer is letter (D)

176. He won’t hear you provided you shout.

(A)  in case

(B)  as long as

(C)  unless

(D)  No improvement

Show Answer

177. The ship is at the anchor and the sailors are not at ease.

(A)  at an anchor

(B)  at its anchor

(C)  at anchor

(D)  No improvement

Show Answer

178. The objected to the plan on the grounds that it was too expensive.

(A)  declined

(B)  disagreed

(C)  refused

(D)  No improvement

Show Answer

179. Very little rice was found in the pot after all the guests had eaten.

(A)  remained

(B)  was cooked

(C)  stored

(D)  No improvement

Show Answer

180. The policeman captured the first car that approached and ordered the driver to take the injured child to the hospital.

(A)  commandeered

(B)  interrupted

(C)  caught

(D)  No improvement

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 181-185) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

181. A study of words and the way words develop-

(A)  Phraseology

(B)  Phonography

(C)  Philology

(D)  Phonology

Show Answer

182. Something which is not in harmony-

(A)  Cacophonous

(B)  Noisy

(C)  Smooth

(D)  Quiet

Show Answer

183. A list of books-

(A)  Catalogue

(B)  Index

(C)  Anthology

(D)  Glossary

Show Answer

184. Man with womanly habits and manners-

(A)  Effeminate

(B)  Gay

(C)  Bovine

(D)  Suave

Show Answer

185. Something unusual or strange, having peculiar notions-

(A)  Whimsical

(B)  Aggressive

(C)  Dramatic

(D)  Reasonable

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 186-190) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

186. 

(A)  flabbergast

(B)  flabbergust

(C)  flabergast

(D)  flabergust

Show Answer

187.

(A)  holocost

(B)  halocaust

(C)  holocaust

(D)  holocast

Show Answer

188.

(A)  revarential

(B)  reverentiel

(C)  reverantial

(D)  reverential

Show Answer

189.

(A)  metikyulus

(B)  meticulus

(C)  meteculous

(D)  meticulous

Show Answer

190.

(A)  suvenir

(B)  souviener

(C)  souvenir

(D)  suvenire

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 191-200) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.

   The League of Nations was (191) in 1919. It became ineffective and the UNO began to (192) from October 24^th, 1945. The Second World War (193) in 1939s. It caused great (194) to human lives and property. As a (195) of use of atom bombs, many people were (196) and many others became (197). The world leaders feared that another world war would (198) the entire world. It was a question of the (199) of mankind. To ensure peace and (200) the world leaders established a world organization, the UNO.

191. 

(A)  made

(B)  opened

(C)  created

(D)  formed

Show Answer

192.

(A)  function

(B)  commence

(C)  start

(D)  operate

Show Answer

193.

(A)  broke into

(B)  broke up

(C)  broke in

(D)  broke out

Show Answer

194.

(A)  loss

(B)  disturbance

(C)  wastage

(D)  calamity

Show Answer

195.

(A)  reason

(B)  matter

(C)  result

(D)  cause

Show Answer

196.

(A)  mutilated

(B)  disabled

(C)  destroyed

(D)  killed

Show Answer

197.

(A)  unfit

(B)  handicapped

(C)  disabled

(D)  disadvantaged

Show Answer

198.

(A)  jeopardize

(B)  destroy

(C)  perish

(D)  demolish

Show Answer

199.

(A)  presence

(B)  existence

(C)  continuity

(D)  survival

Show Answer

200.

(A)  safety

(B)  order

(C)  tranquility

(D)  security

Show Answer

SSC CAPFs/Delhi Sub-Inspectors Examination-2013 Paper-I

Solved Papers

Part-A

General Intelligence & Reasoning

   Directions-(Q. 1 to 6) Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

1. ADHM : ZUQN : : GIKM : ?

(A)  NOQS

(B)  TQRN

(C)  TRPN

(D)  TNRP

Show Answer

2. 7 : 133 : : 9 : ?

(A)  147

(B)  99

(C)  171

(D)  158

Show Answer

3. 36 : 216 : 81 : ?

(A)  729

(B)  629

(C)  319

(D)  826

Show Answer

4. Victory : Joy : : ? : Sorrow

(A)  Defeat

(B)  Depression

(C)  Melancholy

(D)  Cry

Show Answer

5. Body : Stomach : : Library : ?

(A)  Cash

(B)  Book

(C)  Headmaster

(D)  School

Show Answer

6. Hand : JBPE : : PALM : ?

(A)  RBNM

(B)  RBMN

(C)  QBNN

(D)  RBNN

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 7 to 12) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.

(A)  Teaching

(B)  Counselling

(C)  Instruction

(D)  Guidancce

Show Answer

8.

(A)  (25, 49)

(B)  (121, 169)

(C)  (7, 169)

(D)  (9, 25)

Show Answer

9.

(A)  HEAT

(B)  MEAT

(C)  MEET

(D)  BEAT

Show Answer

10.

(A)  8465

(B)  2643

(C)  4867

(D)  6243

Show Answer

11.

(A)  FhjL

(B)  PrtV

(C)  KnpR

(D)  CegI

Show Answer

12.

(A)  Sitar

(B)  Violin

(C)  Tanpura

(D)  Veena

Show Answer

13. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary?

(1) Forge            (2) Forget

(3) Forgo            (4) Forgive

(5) Format

(A)  (5), (2), (4), (3), (1)

(B)  (1), (4), (3), (2), (5)

(C)  (3), (4), (5), (2), (1)

(D)  (1), (2), (4), (3), (5)

Show Answer

14. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?

(1) Police

(2) Punishment

(3) Crime

(4) Judge

(5) Judgement

(A)  (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)

(B)  (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)

(C)  (3), (1), (4), (5), (2)

(D)  (3), (1), (2), (4), (5)

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 15 to 18) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

15. KJL, ONP, SRT, ….?…..

(A)  WVX

(B)  VWX

(C)  WXV

(D)  VUW

Show Answer

16. 198, 202, 211, 227 …?….

(A)  236

(B)  252

(C)  275

(D)  245

Show Answer

17. AN, BO, CP, DQ, ….?…

(A)  EG

(B)  ER

(C)  EH

(D)  EF

Show Answer

18. 7, 25, 61, 121 …?…

(A)  210

(B)  211

(C)  212

(D)  209

Show Answer

19. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.

(A)  (5), (4), (6), (1), (2), (3)

(B)  (6), (5), (4), (2), (3), (1)

(C)  (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (1)

(D)  (5), (6), (4), (3), (1), (2)

Show Answer

20. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Mammals, Cows and Crows ?

Show Answer

21. Which of the following figure best represents the relationship amongst the Human being Girl, Boy?

Show Answer

22. In a row at a bus stop, ‘A’ is 7th from the left and ‘B’ is 9th from the right. They both interchange their positions. Now A becomes 11th from the left. How many people are there in the row?

(A)  10

(B)  20

(C)  19

(D)  18

Show Answer

23. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun’s age will be 20 years. What is the age of Deepak at present?

(A)  15 years

(B)  19 years

(C)  24 years

(D)  12 years

Show Answer

24. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word-

Encouragement

(A)  game

(B)  tear

(C)  neck

(D)  meat

Show Answer

25. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, then how could CALICUT be coded in that code?

(A)  5978213

(B)  8251896

(C)  8543691

(D)  5279431

Show Answer

26. If ‘JUNE’ is written as ‘PQRS’ and ‘AUGUST’ is written as ‘WQFQMN’. How can ‘GUEST’ be written in this same coding language?

(A)  5978213

(B)  8251896

(C)  8543691

(D)  5279431

Show Answer

27. In the given figure, circles represents students studying three different subjects. How many students study all the three subjects?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  1

Show Answer

28. Arun said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” Who is Arun to the girl?

(A)  Grandfather

(B)  Husband

(C)  Father-in-law

(D)  Father

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 29 and 30) Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

29. If 235 = 38 and 452 = 45, then 345 = ?

(A)  49

(B)  66

(C)  72

(D)  50

Show Answer

30. 2 × 3 = 49, 5 × 6 = 2536, 1 × 9 = 181, 4 × 7 = ?

(A)  1628

(B)  1649

(C)  2549

(D)  1219

Show Answer

31. If ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘−’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’ and ‘−’ means ‘×’ then what should be the value of the given equation?

14 × 4 ÷ 70 + 10 – 2 = ?

(A)  33

(B)  15

(C)  30

(D)  4

Show Answer

32. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation.

5 * 5 * 5 * 3 * 10

(A)  × + = ×

(B)  + − × =

(C)  + ÷ = ×

(D)  + ÷ × =

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 33 and 34) Select the missing number from the given responses.

33.

(A)  330

(B)  336

(C)  428

(D)  420

Show Answer

34.

12            15        16

03           04        05

04           06        04

40           66        ?

(A)  104

(B)  320

(C)  25

(D)  84

Show Answer

35. Seema walks 30 m North. Then she turns right and walks 30 m then she turns right and walks 55 m. Then she turns left and walks 20 m. Then she again turns left and walks 25 m. How many matres away is she from her original position?

(A)  45 m

(B)  50 m

(C)  60 m

(D)  55 m

Show Answer

36. Four different positions of dice are as shown below. What number is opposite to face 3?

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  2

(D)  6

Show Answer

37. After walking 10 m, Shankar turned left and covered a distance of 6 m, then turned right and covered a distance of 20 m. In the end, he was moving towards the south. From which direction did Shankar start his journey?

(A)  West

(B)  North

(C)  South

(D)  East

Show Answer

38. Six persons are sitting in a circle. A is facing B, B is to the right of E and left of C. C is to the left of D. F is to the right of A. Now D exchanges his seat with F and E with B. Who will be sitting to the left of D?

(A)  D

(B)  E

(C)  A

(D)  B

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 39 and 40) One/two statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance form commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

39. Statement : Songs always have singers to sing them.

Conclusions : I. Singers make a song.

(II) There is no un-sun song.

(A)  Only conclusion II follows

(B)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(C)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(D)  Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer

40. Statement : Some cats are dogs.

(II) No dog is a Toy.

Conclusions : I. Some dogs are cats.

(II) Some Toys are cats.

(III) Some cats are not Toys.

(IV) All Toys are cats.

(A)  Only Conclusions I and III follow

(B)  Only Conclusions II and III follow

(C)  Only Conclusion I and II follow

(D)  Only Conclusion I follows

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 41 and 42) Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

41.

Show Answer

42.

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 43 and 44) Select the answer figure is which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

43.

Show Answer

44.

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 45 and 46) A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

45.

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46.

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Directions-(Q. 47 and 48) If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

47.

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48.

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49. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘C’ can be represented by 00, 12, 23, etc. and ‘M’ can be represented by 56, 67, 77, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word-GOD.

(A)  10, 11, 65

(B)  95, 79, 12

(C)  30, 65, 40

(D)  00, 10, 75

Show Answer

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers are given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘B’ can be represented by 01, 10, 22, etc. and ‘F’ can be represented by 55, 76, 86, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word-CAGE.

(A)  95, 82, 31, 14

(B)  20, 00, 65, 40

(C)  14, 20, 41, 86

(D)  00, 21, 41, 95

Show Answer

Part-B

General Knowledge & General Awareness

51. If a firm is operating at loss in the short-period in perfect competition, it should-

(A)  decrease the production and the price

(B)  increase the production and the price

(C)  continue to operate as long as it covers even the variable costs

(D)  Shut-down and leave the industry

Show Answer

52. For which one of the following commissions, there is no provision in the Indian Constitution ?

(A)  Election Commission

(B)  Finance Commission

(C)  Planning Commission

(D)  Union Public Service Commission

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53. Which one of the following statements about PYROLYSIS, which is a process for solid waste treatment is incorrect?

(A)  It converts the waste into solid, liquid and gas of which the resultant liquid and gas can be used to produce energy

(B)  The process occurs at a temperature above 430°C at atmospheric pressure

(C)  The process occurs  under high pressure at temperature above 430°C

(D)  It is a thermo-chemical decomposition of organic waste

Show Answer

54. Which Sultan received a robe of honour from the caliph?

(A)  Ala-ud-din Khilji

(B)  Iltutmish

(C)  Balban

(D)  Qutub-ud-din Aibak

Show Answer

55. Sugatha Kumari chosen for the award of the Saraswati Samman 2012 is an eminent poetess in-

(A)  Kannada

(B)  Tamil

(C)  Telugu

(D)  Malayalam

Show Answer

56. Which one of the following is not a line of demarcation between two countries?

(A)  International Date Line

(B)  MacMahon Line

(C)  Radcliffe Line

(D)  Durand Line

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57. Which of the following supports particle nature of photons?

(A)  Diffraction

(B)  Polarization

(C)  Photoelectric effect

(D)  Interference

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58. Which country won the Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey tournament in Malaysia in March 2013?

(A)  Malaysia

(B)  Newzealand

(C)  India

(D)  Australia

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59. The heaviest naturally occurring element is-

(A)  Mercury

(B)  Polonium

(C)  Thorium

(D)  Uranium

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60. Which of the following is not an operating system?

(A)  Multi user-Single tasking

(B)  Single user-Single tasking

(C)  Single user-Multitasking

(D)  Multi user-Multitasking

Show Answer

61. Which one of the following language is not specified in the English schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A)  Urdu

(B)  English

(C)  Sindhi

(D)  Sanskrit

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62. Haptens are-

(A)  Pseudoantigens

(B)  Incomplete antigens

(C)  Antibodies

(D)  Isoantigens

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63. Which state in India occupies the same ranking position in respect of area and population?

(A)  Manipur

(B)  Meghalaya

(C)  Nagaland

(D)  Gujarat

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64. Sulphur dioxide bleaches colouring matter by-

(A)  Reduction

(B)  Dehydration

(C)  Decomposition

(D)  Oxidation

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65. Which of the following elements is not radioactive?

(A)  Radium

(B)  Plutonium

(C)  Zirconium

(D)  Uranium

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66. Wilting of plants occurs due to excessive-

(A)  Respiration

(B)  Guttation

(C)  Absorption

(D)  Transpiration

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67. Gypsum is used for improvement of-

(A)  Alkaline soils

(B)  Saline soils

(C)  Podsols

(D)  Acidic soils

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68. Which of the following is an indirect Tax?

(A)  Capital Gains Tax

(B)  Excise Duty

(C)  Wealth tax

(D)  Estate Duty

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69. Indicate the correct arrangement for electromagnetic radiation in order of their increasing wavelength-

(A)  Microwave, infrared, visible, X-rays

(B)  X-rays, visible, infrared, microwave

(C)  Visible, infrared, microwave, X-rays

(D)  X-rays, infrared, visible, microwave

Show Answer

70. Where was the Fifth BRICS Summit hosted by South Africa in March 2013?

(A)  Durban

(B)  Johannesburg

(C)  Pretoria

(D)  Cape Town

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71. Lake formed in a cut off river meander is called-

(A)  Playa Lake

(B)  Meteoric Lake

(C)  Ox-Bow Lake

(D)  Crater Lake

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72. The rapidly growing mass of phytoplankton covering the surface water of a lake or pond is known as-

(A)  Eutrophication

(B)  Water bloom

(C)  Water pollution

(D)  Water hyacinth

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73. Which is the leading state in India in ‘Ship Breaking’ industry?

(A)  Tamil Nadu

(B)  Maharashtra

(C)  Gujarat

(D)  West Bengal

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74. The telephone line is connected through the ……….. on the computer.

(A)  USB

(B)  Modem

(C)  Ethernet

(D)  PS2

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75. In the nuclear reactors, moderators are used to-

(A)  Accelerate neutrons

(B)  Absorb the neutrons

(C)  Slow down the neutrons

(D)  Generate neutrons

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76. When Margaret Thatcher was P.M. with which country Britain waged a war to regain control of Falkland Islands?

(A)  Chile

(B)  Argentina

(C)  Brazil

(D)  None of these

Show Answer

77. Match the following-

(a) Chalukyas     1. Mlakhed

(b) Hoysalas       2. Vatapi

(c) Rashtrakutas 3. Warangal

(d) Kakatiyas      4. Dwarasamudra

(A)  (a)-2; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-3

(B)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-1; (d)-2

(C)  (a)-1; (b)-2; (c)-3; (d)-4

(D)  (a)-3; (b)-2; (c)-4; (d)-1

Show Answer

78. Wings of birds are-

(A)  Modified hind limbs

(B)  New structure

(C)  Integumentary outgrowth

(D)  Modified for limbs

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79. The world’s tallest statue of Mahatma Gandhi is in ……….. .

(A)  Champaran

(B)  Patna

(C)  Lucknow

(D)  Rajkot

Show Answer

80. Which one of the following is the principal source of information on Asoka’s campaign against Kalinga?

(A)  Pillar Edict VII

(B)  Mahavamsa

(C)  Divyavadana

(D)  Rock Edit XIII

Show Answer

81. Gandhi’s concept of Trusteeship-

(A)  Recognises right of private ownership of property

(B)  Transforms the capitalistic society into an egalitarian one

(C)  Excludes legislative regulation of the ownership and use of wealth

(D)  Does not fix minimum or maximum income

Show Answer

82. Colortrum is very good as it is rich in protein and-

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Anti bodies

(C)  Minerals

(D)  Vitamins

Show Answer

83. Among the following states, which one has adopted the ‘Neem’ tree as the state tree?

(A)  Maharashtra

(B)  Tamil Nadu

(C)  Kerala

(D)  Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer

84. Contous line is the imaginary line joining places of equal-

(A)  Rainfall

(B)  Humidity

(C)  Elevation

(D)  Temperature

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85. Who is the Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal ?

(A)  Justice J.S. Verma

(B)  Justice Swatantra Kumar

(C)  Justice K.G. Balakrishnan

(D)  Justice Markandey Singh

Show Answer

86. Which is the first state in India to enact the Food Security Act?

(A)  Chhattisgarh

(B)  Gujarat

(C)  Tamil Nadu

(D)  Bihar

Show Answer

87. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunities for all citizen in Public employment?

(A)  Article-22

(B)  Article-16

(C)  Article-20

(D)  Article-25

Show Answer

88. Sandstone is metamorphosed to-

(A)  Shale

(B)  Slate

(C)  Quartzite

(D)  Marble

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89. ‘Taxes on professions’ can be levied by-

(A)  State government only

(B)  both by state and union government

(C)  by panchayats only

(D)  Union government only

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90. Which one of the following is opposite to democratic state?

(A)  Despotism

(B)  Republic

(C)  Socialism

(D)  Monarchy

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91. Which one is not a function of money?

(A)  Transfer of value

(B)  Store of value

(C)  Price stabilisation

(D)  Value measurement

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92. Instrument used to study the behaviour of a vibrating string is-

(A)  Barometer

(B)  Hydrometer

(C)  Hygrometer

(D)  Sonometer

Show Answer

93. Match the following-

(a) Hunter’s Commission                    1. 1948

(b) Wardha Scheme                              2. 1904

(c) University’s Act                               3. 1937

(d) Radhakrishnan Commission       4. 1882

(A)  (a)-3; (b)-2; (c)-4; (d)-1

(B)  (a)-4; (b)-2; (c)-3; (d)-1

(C)  (a)-3; (b)-4; (c)-1; (d)-2

(D)  (a)-4; (b)-3; (c)-2; (d)-1

Show Answer

94. The casual organism of Polio is-

(A)  A fungi

(B)  A virus

(C)  A worm

(D)  A bacteria

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95. Panda belongs to the same family as that-

(A)  Kangaroo

(B)  Porcupine

(C)  Whale

(D)  Bear

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96. ‘Closed Economy’ means-

(A)  no provision for public sector

(B)  no provision for private sector

(C)  economic policy not well defined

(D)  a country having no imports and exports

Show Answer

97. The Gandhara are flourished under-

(A)  The Kushans

(B)  The Satavahanas

(C)  The Guptas

(D)  The Mauryas

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98. At ‘Break-even point’-

(A)  the industry is in equilibrium in the long-run

(B)  the producers suffers the minimum losses

(C)  the seller earn maximum profit

(D)  the firm is at zero-profit point

Show Answer

99. Who said : “Where there is no law, there is not freedom”?

(A)  Bentham

(B)  Lenin

(C)  Marx

(D)  Locke

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100. Which one of the following statements about the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not correct?

(A)  He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts

(B)  The CJI administers the oath of office to the President

(C)  When both the offices of the President and Vice-President fall vacant simultaneously, the CJI discharges the duties of the President

(D)  The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65 years.

Show Answer

Part-C

Quantitative Aptitude

101. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their HCF is 5. Then LCM is-

(A)  20

(B)  60

(C)  15

(D)  12

Show Answer

102. The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° …… tan 89° is-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  Undefined

(D)  0

Show Answer

103. A man sold 250 chairs and had a gain equal to selling price of 50 chairs. His profit per cent is-

(A)  20%

(B)  25%

(C)  50%

(D)  15%

Show Answer

104. A can do as much work as B and C together can do. A and B can together do a piece of work in 9 hours 36 minutes and C can do it in 48 hours. The time (in hours) that B needs to do the work alone, is-

(A)  18

(B)  24

(C)  30

(D)  12

Show Answer

105. A solid right circular cylinder and a solid hemisphere stands on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their whole surface areas is-

(A)  3 : 2

(B)  3 : 4

(C)  4 : 3

(D)  2 : 3

Show Answer

106. If area of an equilateral triangle is a and height b, then value of b²/a is-

(A)  3

(B)  1/3

(C)  √3

(D)  1/√3

Show Answer

107. The batting average for 30 innings of a cricket player is 40 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 100 runs. If these two innings are not included, the average of the remaining 28 innings is 38 runs. The lowest score of the player is-

(A)  15

(B)  18

(C)  20

(D)  12

Show Answer

108. An article was sold at 16% gain. Had it been sold for Rs 200 more, the gain would have been 20%. Then the cost price of the article is-

(A)  Rs 5000

(B)  Rs 4800

(C)  Rs 4500

(D)  Rs 5200

Show Answer

109. From the top of a hill 200 m high, the angle of depression of the top and the bottom of a tower are observed to 30° and 60°. The height of the tower is (in m)-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  200√3

Show Answer

110. A copper sphere of diameter 18 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4 mm. The length of the wire, in metre is-

(A)  2.43

(B)  243

(C)  2430

(D)  24.3

Show Answer

111. Triangle PQR circumscribes a circle with centre O and radius r cm such that ∠PQR = 90°. If PQ = 3 cm, QR = 4 cm, then the value of r is-

(A)  2

(B)  1.5

(C)  2.5

(D)  1

Show Answer

112. The value of 

(A)  12/29

(B)  8/19

(C)  48/29

(D)  2/19

Show Answer

113. Water flows at the rate of 10 metres per minute from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long it take to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the base is 30 cm and dept 24 cm?

(A)  28 minutes 48 seconds

(B)  51 minutes 12 seconds

(C)  51 minutes 24 seconds

(D)  28 minutes 36 seconds

Show Answer

114. Three circles of equal radius ‘a’ cm touch each other. The area of the shaded region is-

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Show Answer

115. If x = a – b, y – b = c, z = c – a, then the numerical value of the algebraic expression x³+y³ + z³ – 3xyz will be-

(A)  a + b + c

(B)  0

(C)  4(a + b + c)

(D)  3abc

Show Answer

116. The linear equation such that each point on its graph has an ordinate four times its abscissa is-

(A)  y + 4x = 0

(B)  y = dx

(C)  x = 4y

(D)  x + 4y = 0

Show Answer

117. A godown is 15m long and 12 m broad. The sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of areas of the four walls. The volume (in m³) of the godown is-

(A)  900

(B)  1200

(C)  1800

(D)  720

Show Answer

118. 3 men and 7 women can do a job in 5 days, while 4 men and 6 women can do it in 4 days. The number of days required for a group of 10 women working together, at the same rate as before, to finish the same job is-

(A)  30

(B)  36

(C)  40

(D)  20

Show Answer

119. The value of  is

(A)  4.8484

(B)  4.8694

(C)  4.8884

(D)  4.8234

Show Answer

120. A shopkeeper marks the selling price of h is goods in such a way that after giving a discount of 10%, he gains 17%. How much per cent above the cost price is the marked price?

(A)  36%

(B)  27%

(C)  30%

(D)  40%

Show Answer

121. One of the factors of the expression 4√3x² + 5x − 2√3 is-

(A)  4x + √3

(B)  4x + 3

(C)  4x – 3

(D)  4x – √3

Show Answer

122. On a journey across Kolkata, a taxi averages 50 km per hour for 50% of the distance, 40 km per hour for 40% of it and 20 km per hour for the remaining. The average speed, in km/hour, for the whole journey is-

(A)  32

(B)  40

(C)  35

(D)  45

Show Answer

123. A man ordered 4 Paris of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number f black and brown pair of socks in the original order was-

(A)  2 : 1

(B)  1 : 4

(C)  1 : 2

(D)  4 : 1

Show Answer

124. In the following figure, AB be diameter of a circle whose centre is O. If ∠AOE = 150°, ∠DAO = 51°, then the measure of ∠CBE is-

(A)  115°

(B)  110°

(C)  105°

(D)  120°

Show Answer

125. If the square of the sum of two numbers is equal to 4 times of their product, then the ratio of these numbers is-

(A)  2 : 1

(B)  1 : 3

(C)  1 : 1

(D)  1 : 2

Show Answer

126. If a² + b² = 5ab, then the value of  is-

(A)  32

(B)  16

(C)  23

(D)  −23

Show Answer

127. In a big garden 60% of the trees are coconut trees, 25% of the number f coconut trees are mango trees and 20% of the number of mango trees are apple trees. If the number of apple trees are 1500, then the number of trees in the garden in-

(A)  48,000

(B)  50,000

(C)  51,000

(D)  45,000

Show Answer

128. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 5 years. It will amount to eight times itself in-

(A)  15 years

(B)  12 years

(C)  10 years

(D)  20 years

Show Answer

129. Minimum value of 4tan²θ + 9cot²θ is-

(A)  12

(B)  1

(C)  6

(D)  13

Show Answer

130. If 50% of (P-Q) = 30% of (P + Q) and Q = x% of P, then the value of x is-

(A)  30

(B)  25

(C)  20

(D)  50

Show Answer

131. If sin θ – cos θ = 1/2, the value of sin θ + cos θ is-

(A)  −2

(B)  ±2

(C)  √7/2

(D)  2

Show Answer

132. If cosec θ – cot θ = 7/2, the value of cosec θ is

(A)  47/28

(B)  51/28

(C)  53/28

(D)  49/28

Show Answer

133. If  and  then the value of x³ + y³ is-

(A)  950

(B)  730

(C)  650

(D)  970

Show Answer

134. A single discount equivalent to the following three successive discounts of 30%, 20% and 10% is given by-

(A)  49.6%

(B)  50.60%

(C)  49.40%

(D)  50.40%

Show Answer

135. The greatest among the following numbers of 3^1/3, 2^1/2, 1, 6¹⁶ is

(A)  2^1/2

(B)  1

(C)  6^1/6

(D)  3^1/3

Show Answer

136. The areas of two similar triangles ABC and DEF are 20 cm² and 45 cm² If AB = 5 cm, then DE is equal to-

(A)  6.5 cm

(B)  7.5 cm

(C)  8.5 cm

(D)  5.5 cm

Show Answer

137. In a triangle ABC, BC is produced to D so that CD = AC. If ∠BAD = 111° and ∠ACB = 80°, then the measure of ∠ABC is-

(A)  31°

(B)  33°

(C)  35°

(D)  29°

Show Answer

138. In ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B = 145° and ∠C + 2∠B = 180°. State which one of the following relation is true-

(A)  CA = AB

(B)  CA < AB

(C)  BC > AB

(D)  CA > AB

Show Answer

139. If the volumes of two right circular cones are in the ratio 4 : 1 and their diameters are in the ratio 5 : 4, then the ratio of their heights is-

(A)  25 : 16

(B)  25 : 64

(C)  64 : 25

(D)  16 : 25

Show Answer

140. The proportion of acid and water in 3 samples is 2 : 1, 3 : 2 and 5 : 3. A mixture containing equal quantities of all 3 samples is made. The ratio of water and acid in the mixture is-

(A)  120 : 133

(B)  227 : 133

(C)  227 : 120

(D)  133 : 227

Show Answer

141. A train 270 metres long is running at a speed of 36 km per hour; then it will cross a bridge of length 180 metres in-

(A)  40 sec.

(B)  45 sec.

(C)  50 sec.

(D)  35 sec.

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 142 and 145) The following table shows the productions of food-grain (In million tons) in a state for the period 1999-2000 to 2003-04. Read the table and answer the questions.

142. In 2002-03, the percentage increase in the production of barley as compared to the previous year was-

(A)  14.20

(B)  17.85

(C)  18.75

(D)  7.90

Show Answer

143. During the period 1999-2000 to 2003-2004 x per cent of the total production is production of wheat. The value of x is about-

(A)  12.6

(B)  37.4

(C)  37.8

(D)  20.2

Show Answer

144. In the year 2003-04, the increase in production was maximum over the previous year for-

(A)  Rice

(B)  Barley

(C)  Other cereals

(D)  Wheat

Show Answer

145. The difference of average production of rice and the average production of barley over the year is-

(A)  50

(B)  60

(C)  80

(D)  40

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 146-150) Production of three different flavours soft drinks X, Y and Z over a period of six  years has been expressed in the following graph. Study the graph and answer the questions.

146. The approximate decline in the production of flavor Z in 2010 as compared to the production in 2008 is-

(A)  33%

(B)  22.5%

(C)  42%

(D)  25%

Show Answer

147. The average annual production was maximum in the given period for the flavor-

(A)  Y only

(B)  Z only

(C)  X and Z

(D)  X only

Show Answer

148. What per cent of the total production of flavor X in 2005 and 2006 combined is the total production of flavor Z in 2007 and 2008 combined?

(A)  102.25

(B)  115.57

(C)  133.33

(D)  96.67

Show Answer

149. The percentage of rise/fall in production from the previous year is maximum for the flavour Y in this year-

(A)  2007

(B)  2008

(C)  2009

(D)  2006

Show Answer

150. The difference (in lakh bottles) between the average production of flavour X in 2005, 2006, 2007 and the average production of flavour Y in 2008, 2009 and 2010 is-

(A)  2.4

(B)  0.5

(C)  1.5

(D)  5

Show Answer

Part-D

English Comprehension

   Directions-(Q. 151 to 155) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find our which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B), (C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

151. When one hears of the incident (A)/ about the plane crash (B)/ he feels very sorry. (C)/ No error (D)

Show Answer

152. I went there (A)/ with a view to survey (B)/ the entire procedure. (C)/ No error (D)

Show Answer

153. It had laid (A)/ in the closet (B)/ for a week before we found it. (C)/ No error (D)

Show Answer

154. He was present (A)/ in the court (B)/ to give witness. (C)/ No error (D)

Show Answer

155. He laughed (A)/ on her (B)/ as she fell off the tree. (C)/ No error (D)

Show Answer

Directions-(Q. 156 to 160) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.

156. There are not solitary, free-living creatures; every form of life is ……….. other forms

(A)  dependent on

(B)  parallel to

(C)  overshadowed by

(D)  segregated from

Show Answer

157. I’ll take …….. now as I have anothers appointment somewhere else.

(A)  departure

(B)  my leave

(C)  permission

(D)  leave from work

Show Answer

158. A garden knife is …… used for pruning.

(A)  generally

(B)  compulsorily

(C)  systematically

(D)  daily

Show Answer

159. Serious threat to our ecology and environment can be ……….. with organic cultivation.

(A)  hastened

(B)  impeded

(C)  aggravated

(D)  combated

Show Answer

160. ‘My India’ by Corbett deals ………. the author’s familiarity with and loved of India.

(A)  in

(B)  of

(C)  at

(D)  with

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Directions-(Q. 161 to 165) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

161. Abnormal

(A)  Unnatural

(B)  Aggressive

(C)  Unique

(D)  Informal

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162. Venal

(A)  Corrupt

(B)  Comprehensible

(C)  Legible

(D)  Forgivable

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163. Conjurer

(A)  Magician

(B)  Jester

(C)  Performer

(D)  Trickster

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164. Invoice

(A)  Word

(B)  Sound

(C)  Statement

(D)  Lanaguage

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165. Ameliorate

(A)  Improve

(B)  Degrade

(C)  Motivate

(D)  Agree

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Directions-(Q. 166 to 170) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

166. Debacle

(A)  Success

(B)  Response

(C)  Acceptance

(D)  Agreement

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167. Abusive

(A)  Laudatory

(B)  Profuse

(C)  Effusive

(D)  Noble

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168. Amorphous

(A)  Amoral

(B)  Definite

(C)  Perfect

(D)  Irregular

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169. Unitary

(A)  Single

(B)  Triple

(C)  Multiple

(D)  Double

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170. Adulteration

(A)  Purification

(B)  Normalization

(C)  Rejuvenation

(D)  Consternation

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Directions-(Q. 171 to 175) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

171. I tried to feel his pulse on the issue, but in vain.

(A)  find his views

(B)  enlighten him

(C)  argue with him

(D)  guide him

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172. For this act of a indifference he will be taken to task by the authority.

(A)  he will get on official reprimand from the authority

(B)  he will be rewarded by the authority

(C)  he will tender his resignation to the authority

(D)  he will be entrusted with an official job

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173. You need to have something up your sleeve if the present plan does not work.

(A)  have some honest means

(B)  have some hidden sources of money

(C)  have a secret pocket in the sleeve

(D)  have an alternative plan

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174. The new manager ruled the roost over every one.

(A)  exercised authority

(B)  rushed through work

(C)  got paid very handsomely

(D)  created good impression

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175. Despite his initial arrogance he had to eat humble pie.

(A)  he had to yield under pressure

(B)  he maintained composure

(C)  he failed to protest eventually

(D)  he accepted the food offered

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Directions-(Q. 176 to 180) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).

176. The gentry of the town was invited.

(A)  A invited

(B)  has been unvited

(C)  were invited

(D)  No improvement

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177. After the written exam, you will also have an oral exam,

(A)  practical

(B)  viva voce

(C)  vocal

(D)  No improvement

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178. The regular use of alcohol, only in small quantities, tends to cause mischief in many ways to various organs of the body.

(A)  though in small quantities

(B)  even in a little quantity

(C)  even in small quantities

(D)  No improvement

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179. If you were the Prime Minister of India what steps would you have taken to end unemployment?

(A)  will you take

(B)  will you be taking

(C)  would be take

(D)  No improvement

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180. A high school student is not even understanding the basics of Chemistry and Physics.

(A)  does not understand even

(B)  was not even understanding

(C)  has even not understood

(D)  No improvement

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Directions-(Q. 181 to 185) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

181. A person who attends to the diseases of the eye is an-

(A)  oculist

(B)  optimist

(C)  obsterician

(D)  optician

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182. The study of worms and insects-

(A)  taxidermy

(B)  entomology

(C)  ornithology

(D)  paleontology

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183. A person who devotes his/her life for the welfare of others-

(A)  altruist

(B)  hermit

(C)  volunteer

(D)  martyr

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184. A person who shows off his learning-

(A)  pedant

(B)  educationist

(C)  exhibitor

(D)  researcher

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185. Written law of a legislative body-

(A)  statute

(B)  stature

(C)  static

(D)  statue

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Directions-(Q. 186 to 190) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

186.

(A)  rhythym

(B)  rhithim

(C)  rhythim

(D)  rhythm

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187.

(A)  indeganeous

(B)  indigenous

(C)  indegenous

(D)  indigeneous

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188.

(A)  saccarine

(B)  sacarine

(C)  sachharine

(D)  saccharine

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189.

(A)  revolutionize

(B)  revoulutionize

(C)  revvolutinoize

(D)  revollutionize

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190.

(A)  disentry

(B)  dysentry

(C)  diesentry

(D)  dysentery

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Directions-(Q. 191 to 195) There are two passages with 5 questions in each passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval in the Answer Sheet.

Passage-I

(Q. 191-195)

   It is not luck but labour that makes the luck, says an American author, is ever waiting for something to turn up; labour with keen eyes and strong will turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would bring him news of a legacy, labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies upon chance, labour upon character. Luck slips downwards to selff0indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending the diligence is the mother of food luck. In other words, a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to his industry, to his attention to small things.

191. Which one of the following words in the passage indicates that the writer does not ultimately reject the element of luck?

(A)  ‘Luck whines’

(B)  ‘Diligence is the mother of good luck’

(C)  ‘Luck …… wishes the postman would bring him news’

(D)  ‘Luck …… is ever waiting’

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192. Which pair of words means the same thing?

(A)  Labour and industry

(B)  Industry and legacy

(C)  Diligence and legacy

(D)  Legacy and labour

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193. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning of the Luck?

(A)  Luck waits and complains without working while labour achieves success although it complains

(B)  Luck is self indulgent but labour is selfless

(C)  Luck often end in defeat but labour produces luck

(D)  Luck waits without exertion, but labour exerts without waiting

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194. “……. labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hummer lays the foundation of competence”. What does this statement mean?

(A)  Labour lays the foundation of the building

(B)  The writer and the labourer are the true eyes of the society

(C)  There is no worker who works so hard as the labourer who begins his day at six in the morning

(D)  Hardwork of all kinds makes people different

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195. Which one of the statement is true about the passage?

(A)  Success depends only on hardluck

(B)  Expectation of good luck always meets with disappointment

(C)  Success is exactly proportionate to hard work

(D)  Luck is necessary for success

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Passage-II

(Q. 196-200)

Violence has played a great part in the world’s history. It is today playing an equally important part and probably it will continue to so for a considerable time. It is impossible to ignore the importance of violence in the past and present. To do so is to ignore life. Yet violence is undoubtedly bad and brings an unending trail of evil consequences with it. And worse even than violence are the motives of hatred, cruetly, revenge and punishment which very often accompany violence. Indeed, violence is bad, not intrinsically, but because of these motives that go with it. There can be violence without these motives, there can be violence for a good object as well as for an evil object. But it is extremely difficult to separate violence from these motives, and therefore, it is desirable to avoid violence as far as possible. In avoiding it, however one cannot accept a negative attitude of submitting to and far greater evils, Submission to violence or the avoidance of an unjust regime based on violence is the very deceptive of the spirit of non-violence. The non-violent method in order justify itself, must be dynamic and capable of changing such a regime of social order.

196. The word ‘dynamic’ in the concluding line of the passage means-

(A)  active

(B)  energetic

(C)  capable of change and progress

(D)  all of the above

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197. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)  Only violence can be used against violence

(B)  Violence is not inherently evil

(C)  Violence is a historically accepted fact

(D)  Violence cannot be ignored

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198. ‘Violence without these motives’ is possible only in-

(A)  practice

(B)  reality

(C)  dream

(D)  theory

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199. ‘Indeed, violence is bad, not intrinsically but because of these motives that go with it’. This suggests-

(A)  Violence is basically good

(B)  Violence is bad only when it is associated with certain motives

(C)  Violence is bad because the people who exercise it are bad

(D)  Violence is basically bad

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200. Non-violence, according to the writer, means-

(A)  Violence without the evil motives

(B)  Giving in to the tyranny of the powerful

(C)  Accepting violence as a fact of life

(D)  None of the above

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