SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination (1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012 Question Paper With Answer Key

Staff Selection Commission Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination

(1st Shift) Tier-I Held on 21 October, 2012

Part-I

General Intelligence

Directions-(Q. 1-6) select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.

1. Jewellery : Gold : : Furniture : ?

(A)  Table

(B)  Tree

(C)  Wood

(D)  Paint

Answer: (C)

2. Author : Novel : : Choreographer : ?

(A)  Music

(B)  Picture

(C)  Make-up

(D)  Dance

Answer: (D)

3. Rig : Ofd : : Met : ?

(A)  Jbq

(B)  Kcr

(C)  Jer

(D)  Kbq

Answer: (A)

4. BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO : ?

(A)  RQTS

(B)  QTRS

(C)  RTQS

(D)  TRQS

Answer: (C)

5. 49 : 64 : : 144 : ?

(A)  186

(B)  121

(C)  256

(D)  169

Answer: (D)

6. SHOE : NCJZ : : REWA : ?

(A)  WJBF

(B)  CITY

(C)  MZRV

(D)  CAAR

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 7 to 10) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.

(A)  Tongue

(B)  Teeth

(C)  Nose

(D)  Ear

Answer: (B)

8.

(A)  Petrol – Car

(B)  Electricity – Television

(C)  Ink – Pen

(D)  Dust – Vacuum cleaner

Answer: (D)

9.

(A)  Light – Heavy

(B)  Crime – Blame

(C)  Short – Long

(D)  Man – Woman

Answer: (B)

10.

(A)  343

(B)  512

(C)  729

(D)  144

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 11 and 12) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

11. (1) Destination (2) Booking

(3) Boarding      (4) Travel

(5) Planning

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B)  3, 4, 5, 1, 2

(C)  4, 3, 1, 2, 5

(D)  5, 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: (D)

12. (1) Diagnosis (2) Doctor

(3) Sick              (4) Treatment

(5) Recovery

(A)  1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(B)  3, 2, 1, 4, 5

(C)  2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(D)  4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Answer: (B)

13. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-

(1) Genuine        (2) Genesis

(3) Gender         (4) Gentle

(5) General

(A)  4, 5, 3, 2, 1

(B)  1, 5, 4, 3, 2

(C)  3, 5, 2, 4, 1

(D)  2, 5, 3, 1, 4

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 14 to 17) A series is given, with one term/number/letters missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. V, VIII, XI, XIV, ?, XX

(A)  IX

(B)  XXIII

(C)  XV

(D)  XVII

Answer: (D)

15.

3463       (2218)              1245

5324       ( ? )                  3626

(A)  2312

(B)  1142

(C)  1698

(D)  1592

Answer: (C)

16. XGH, WIJ, VKL, UMN, ?

(A)  HOW

(B)  UJI

(C)  TOP

(D)  SOP

Answer: (C)

17. SCD, TEF, UGH, ?, WKL

(A)  CMN

(B)  UJI

(C)  VIJ

(D)  VJI

Answer: (C)

18. K is more beautiful than B. B is not as beautiful as Y. J is not as beautiful as B or Y. Whose beauty is in the least degree?

(A)  Y

(B)  K

(C)  B

(D)  J

Answer: (D)

19. A person’s present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 He will be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?

(A)  32 years

(B)  36 years

(C)  40 years

(D)  48 years

Answer: (C)

20. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’s sister is Reema. Reema’s husband is Rajan. Raghu’s mother is Lakshmi. Lakshmi’s husband is Rajsh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan?

(A)  Uncle

(B)  Son-in-law

(C)  Father-in-law

(D)  Cousin

Answer: (C)

21. If – stands for ÷, + stands for ×, ÷ stands for – and × stands for +, find out which one is correct?

(A)  49 + 7 – 3 × 5 ÷ 8 = 20

(B)  49 – 7 + 3 ÷ 5 × 8 = 24

(C)  49 × 7 + 3 ÷ 5 – 8 = 16

(D)  49 ÷ 7 ×3 + 5 – 8 = 26

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 22 and 23) From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

22. ANNIVERSARY

(A)  SAVE

(B)  VIEW

(C)  YARN

(D)  VERY

Answer: (B)

23. REMEMBRANCE

(A)  REMEMBER

(B)  MEMBRANE

(C)  NUMBER

(D)  EMBRACE

Answer: (C)

24. If MADRAS is written as DAMSAR, how can MUMBAI be written in that code?

(A)  BAIUMM

(B)  MUMIAB

(C)  IABMUM

(D)  MBIAUM

Answer: (B)

25. If DREAM is coded as 78026 and CHILD is coded as 53417, how can LEADER be coded?

(A)  102078

(B)  102708

(C)  102087

(D)  102780

Answer: (B)

26. If Rat is called Dog, Dog is called Mongoose, Mongoose is called Lion, Lion is called Snake and Snake is called Elephant, which is reared as a pet?

(A)  Rat

(B)  Dog

(C)  Mongoose

(D)  Lion

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 27 to 31) Select the missing number from the given responses.

27. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(A)  23

(B)  20

(C)  22

(D)  21

Answer: (C)

28. 69, 72, 78, 87, ?, 114

(A)  93

(B)  96

(C)  111

(D)  99

Answer: (D)

29. 1 8  ?  2  7

(A)  41

(B)  64

(C)  35

(D)  61

Answer: (B)

30. 48, 82, 44, 77, 40, 72, ?

(A)  36

(B)  40

(C)  76

(D)  70

Answer: (A)

31. If 36   (146)  437

then        574   (?)     641

(A)  236

(B)  356

(C)  250

(D)  134

Answer: (D)

32. The number of students in a course increases every year in a college. Find out the number in 2010 from the following information-

(A)  55

(B)  65

(C)  70

(D)  75

Answer: (B)

33. Prakash travelled 6 km northward, then turned left and travelled 4 km, then turned left and travelled 6 km. How far was Prakash from the starting point?

(A)  10 km

(B)  8 km

(C)  6 km

(D)  4 km

Answer: (D)

34. Two cars leave the same place at the same time. One runs at 20 km/hr towards north and the other at 15 km/hr towards east. What will be the distance between them (in km) after 2 hours of travelling?

(A)  70

(B)  10

(C)  25

(D)  50

Answer: (D)

35. If Police is called Teacher, Teacher is called Politician, Politician is called Doctor, Doctor is called Surgeon, who will arrest the criminals?

(A)  Police

(B)  Lawyer

(C)  Teacher

(D)  Doctor

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 36 and 37) Two statements are given followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

36. Statements :

(1) Some buses are four wheelers.

(2) All four wheelers are vans.

Conclusions:

(I) Some vans are buses.

(II) Some buses are vans.

(A)  Only conclusion I follows

(B)  Only conclusion II follows

(C)  Either conclusion I or II follows

(D)  Both conclusions I and II follow

Answer: (D)

37. Statements:

(1) All peacocks are lions.

(2) Some tigers are peacocks.

Conclusions:

(I) Some lions are not tigers.

(II) All tigers are lions.

(III) Some tigers are lions.

(IV) All peacocks are tigers

(A)  Only conclusion I follows

(B)  Only conclusion II follows

(C)  Only conclusion III follows

(D)  Only conclusion IV follows

Answer: (A)

   Directions –(Q. 38 and 39) If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?

38. 

Answer: (B)

39. 

Answer: (C)

40. How many cubes are there in this diagram?

(A)  16

(B)  12

(C)  10

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

41. How many educated people are employed?

(A)  18

(B)  26

(C)  24

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

42. From the details, find out the number of people who do not read any newspaper-

(A)  195

(B)  135

(C)  175

(D)  75

Answer: (A)

43. Find out the number of people who do not play any game-

(A)  9

(B)  24

(C)  18

(D)  15

Answer: (A)

44. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 45 to 47) From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

45. 

Answer: (A)

46. 

Answer: (B)

47. 

Answer: (C)

48. If the following pattern is drawn on a transparent rectangular sheet and folded along the dotted line, how does it appear?

Answer: (D)

49. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the following series of figures. How will it appear when opened?

Answer: (D)

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., M can be represented by 14, 21, etc. and P can be represented by 59, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word MIST.

(A)  02, 58, 03, 86

(B)  40, 77, 34, 98

(C)  14, 89, 22, 88

(D)  40, 58, 03, 56

Answer: (D)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

Directions-(Q. 38 and 39) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

38. Peacock : India : : Bear : ?

(A)  Australia

(B)  Russia

(C)  America

(D)  England

Answer: (B)

39. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

(A)  Library

(B)  Newspaper

(C)  Rack

(D)  Books

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 40 and 41) Select the missing number/letters from the given responses.

40. 544, 509, 474, 439, ?

(A)  404

(B)  414

(C)  420

(D)  445

Answer: (A)

41. prt, ?, bdf, hjl, npr

(A)  vwc

(B)  vya

(C)  xzb

(D)  vxz

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 42 and 43) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.

42.

(A)  Scythe

(B)  Knife

(C)  Pillar

(D)  Saw

Answer: (C)

43.

(A)  Guitar

(B)  Violin

(C)  Veena

(D)  Keyboard

Answer: (D)

44. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary-

(1) Devious        (2) Devout

(3) Devolution   (4) Devotional

(5) Development

(A)  2, 5, 1, 3, 4

(B)  4, 2, 3, 5, 1

(C)  5, 2, 3, 1, 4

(D)  5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (D)

45. Which will appear third in the dictionary?

(A)  Serif

(B)  Sergeant

(C)  Serous

(D)  Serjeant

Answer: (D)

46. How is my brother’s grandfather’s only son’s only boy related to me?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Sister

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Mother

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 47 and 48) From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

47. MISCELLANEOUS

(A)  MISCHIEF

(B)  CELL

(C)  CANE

(D)  MISS

Answer: (A)

48. SUBORDINATE

(A)  NEAT

(B)  BORDER

(C)  EAT

(D)  SEAT

Answer: (B)

49. If STAMPEDE can be written as PESTAMDE, then TAMPERED can be written as-

(A)  ERTAMPED

(B)  RETAMPED

(C)  RETAMPDE

(D)  ERTAMPDE

Answer: (A)

50. In a certain code, RAINTREE is written as ARNIRTEE. How is DAHLIA written in that code?

(A)  DALHAI

(B)  HADLAI

(C)  ADLHAI

(D)  LADHAI

Answer: (C)

Part-II

English Language

   Directions-(Q. 51-56) Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval (•) corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

51. India has got (A)/ freedom (B)/in 1947. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

52. Every scientific invention (A)/ has proved (B)/ much harmful to society than beneficial. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (C)

53. She is preparing (A)/ for this examination (B)/ since 2004. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

54. I can depend upon (A)/ your help, (B)/ can I? (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (A)

55. I am tired (A)/ so I’ll lay down (B)/ and take rest. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

56. If her grandfather (A)/ would have lived three more days (B)/ he would have been 100 years old. (C)/ No error (D)

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 57-61) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

57. She thanked Vishal as she could reach the station on time ……. .his help.

(A)  since

(B)  for

(C)  with

(D)  in

Answer: (C)

58. My …….. brother is called Arhaan.

(A)  older

(B)  oldest

(C)  senior

(D)  elder

Answer: (D)

59. The lawyer has plenty of ……….

(A)  criminals

(B)  buyers

(C)  customers

(D)  clients

Answer: (D)

60. “I have brought the book. It’s ……. !” Ravi said assertively to all the boys present.

(A)  mine

(B)  my

(C)  me

(D)  myself

Answer: (A)

61. “The project is good, but there is ……… missing to make it an excellent work,” the engineer commented.

(A)  everything

(B)  anything

(C)  something

(D)  nothing

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 62-64) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

62. Fortitude

(A)  Prudence

(B)  Support

(C)  Courage

(D)  Sincerity

Answer: (C)

63. Imply

(A)  Conclude

(B)  Connote

(C)  Confirm

(D)  Comply

Answer: (B)

64. Vigilant

(A)  Intelligent

(B)  Ambitious

(C)  Smart

(D)  Watchful

Answer: (D)

   Directions-(Q. 65-67) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

65. Feeble

(A)  Rickety

(B)  Weak

(C)  Infirm

(D)  Robust

Answer: (D)

66. Adulterate

(A)  Contaminate

(B)  Purify

(C)  Wash

(D)  Stain

Answer: (B)

67. Vain

(A)  Conceited

(B)  Egotistic

(C)  Humble

(D)  Proud

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 68-72) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

68. A cry in wilderness

(A)  a cry in vain

(B)  an unpleasant situation

(C)  a cry in disgrace

(D)  a cry with a laughter

Answer: (A)

69. To rock the boat

(A)  to conspire against

(B)  to create difficulties

(C)  to agitate against

(D)  to upset the balance

Answer: (B)

70. To beat the air

(A)  to make a great effort

(B)  to act intelligently

(C)  to make efforts that are useless and/or vain

(D)  to make every possible effort

Answer: (C)

71. See through

(A)  to persist with something

(B)  to see off

(C)  to detect the true nature

(D)  to ignore something

Answer: (C)

72. To give airs

(A)  exhale

(B)  inhale

(C)  boast

(D)  humble

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 73-79) A part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D). Mark  your answer in the Answer Sheet.

73. She is my better half.

(A)  wife

(B)  Mrs.

(C)  partner

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

74. The Prime Minister has gone to Brazil, isn’t it?

(A)  has he ?

(B)  hasn’t he?

(C)  didn’t he?

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

75. They were congratulated him for his birthday.

(A)  congratulated him for

(B)  were congratulated him on

(C)  congratulated him on

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (C)

76. My cousin sister is a teacher.

(A)  cousin

(B)  cousin’s sister

(C)  cousin brother

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

77. The news is so good but it can’t be true.

(A)  too good to

(B)  very good to

(C)  rather good to

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

78. I had lived in this house since 2005.

(A)  am living

(B)  have been living

(C)  have lived

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (A)

79. Keeping away from controversy is best policy.

(A)  a better policy

(B)  the best policy

(C)  most best policy

(D)  No improvement

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 80-83) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

80. Impossible to decipher, make out or read-

(A)  eligible

(B)  intelligible

(C)  illegible

(D)  ambiguous

Answer: (D)

81. Careful not to harm or inconvenience others-

(A)  humble

(B)  considerate

(C)  obstinate

(D)  rash

Answer: (B)

82. One who finds it easy to produce new and original ideas and things.

(A)  impulsive

(B)  creative

(C)  hospitable

(D)  bright

Answer: (B)

83. Done with good judgement-

(A)  eminent

(B)  judicious

(C)  enviable

(D)  judicial

Answer: (B)

   Directions-(Q. 84 and 85) There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (•) in the Answer Sheet.

84. 

(A)  grammar

(B)  gramer

(C)  grammer

(D)  gramar

Answer: (A)

85.

(A)  imidate

(B)  imidiate

(C)  immediate

(D)  imidiat

Answer: (C)

   Directions-(Q. 86-100) You have following two brief passage with 10 questions in passage I and 5 questions in passage II. Read the passages carefully and fill in the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives given.

Passage I

(Q. 86-95)

   Beggars have found a new way of making money. They seek …(86)… via SMS, requesting to credit sums …(87)… from Rs 10 to Rs 100. They explain their …(88)… and end the message with a statement of …(89)…  “Those who are God fearing will definitely …(90)… to their request and will be heaped with …(91)… as a reward for their good …(92)…” Many also send heavenly pictures of …(93)… Quite a few people …(94)… and give away alms. They …(95)… that they are giving money in the name of God, irrespective of who the receiver is.

86.

(A)  donation

(B)  loan

(C)  alms

(D)  favour

Answer: (C)

87.

(A)  differing

(B)  ranging

(C)  fluctuating

(D)  producing

Answer: (B)

88.

(A)  problem

(B)  difficulty

(C)  task

(D)  duty

Answer: (A)

89.

(A)  dependence

(B)  morality

(C)  immorality

(D)  faith

Answer: (B)

90.

(A)  leap

(B)  heed

(C)  forward

(D)  think

Answer: (B)

91.

(A)  curse

(B)  cruelty

(C)  blessings

(D)  tensions

Answer: (C)

92.

(A)  deed

(B)  work

(C)  task

(D)  job

Answer: (A)

93.

(A)  river

(B)  hell

(C)  garden

(D)  paradise

Answer: (D)

94.

(A)  take action

(B)  respond

(C)  argue

(D)  quarrel

Answer: (B)

95.

(A)  argue

(B)  consider

(C)  believe

(D)  imagine

Answer: (C)

Passage II

(Q. 96-100)

   Left-handed persons can do certain things better than those who are right-handed. They generally find it more …(96)… to learn languages and mathematics, but have an advantage when it …(97)… to music or sports. Recent research shows that the reason for …(98)… or right-handedness, and the qualities …(99)… go with each of these, …(100)… lie in differences in the construction of the brain.

96.

(A)  easy

(B)  difficult

(C)  hard

(D)  rigid

Answer: (B)

97.

(A)  come

(B)  came

(C)  comes

(D)  coming

Answer: (C)

98.

(A)  left

(B)  right

(C)  lame

(D)  handicapped

Answer: (A)

99.

(A)  those

(B)  these

(C)  who

(D)  that

Answer: (D)

100.

(A)  might

(B)  must

(C)  may

(D)  need

Answer: (C)

Part-III

Quantitative Aptitude

101. The wrong number in the series is 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344

(A)  9

(B)  65

(C)  216

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

102. Eight consecutive numbers are given. If the average of the two numbers that appear in the middle is 6, then the sum of the eight given numbers is-

(A)  36

(B)  48

(C)  54

(D)  64

Answer: (B)

103. If  then  is equal to-

(A) 

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (A)

104. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B alone can finish it in 30 days. A alone can finish the work in-

(A)  15 days

(B)  18 days

(C)  20 days

(D)  25 days

Answer: (C)

105. A and B can do a job together in 12 days. A is 2 times as efficient as B. In how many days can B alone complete the work?

(A)  36

(B)  12

(C)  18

(D)  9

Answer: (A)

106. The marked price is 20% higher than cost price. A discount of 20% is given on the marked price. By this type of sale, there is-

(A)  no loss or gain

(B)  4% gain

(C)  4% loss

(D)  2% loss

Answer: (C)

107. A chair listed at Rs 350 is available at successive discounts of 25% and 10%. The selling price of the chair is-

(A)  Rs 240.25

(B)  Rs 242.25

(C)  Rs 236.25

(D)  Rs 230.25

Answer: (C)

108. A tradesman marks his goods at such a price that after allowing a discount of 15%, he makes a profit of 20%. What is the marked price of an article whose cost price is Rs 170?

(A)  Rs 220

(B)  Rs 200

(C)  Rs 240

(D)  Rs 260

Answer: (C)

109. In two types of stainless steel, the ratio of chromium and steel are 2 : 11 and 5 : 21 respectively. In what proportion should the two types be mixed so that the ratio of chromium to steel in the mixed type become 7 : 32?

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  1 : 3

(C)  2 : 3

(D)  3 : 4

Answer: (A)

110. A sum of Rs 7,000 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the shares of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3 and those of B and C are in the ratio 4 : 5. The share of B is-

(A)  Rs 1,600

(B)  Rs 2,000

(C)  Rs 2,400

(D)  Rs 3,000

Answer: (C)

111. Tea worth Rs 126 per kg and Rs 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be-

(A)  Rs 169.5

(B)  Rs 170.0

(C)  Rs 175.5

(D)  Rs 180.0

Answer: (C)

112. In the afternoon, a student read 100 pages at the rate of 60 pages per hour. In the evening, when she was tired, she read 100 more pages at the rate of 40 pages per hour. What was her average rate of reading, in pages per hour?

(A)  48

(B)  50

(C)  60

(D)  70

Answer: (A)

113. The mean weight of 34 students of a school is 42 kg. If the weight of the teacher be included, the mean rises by 400 gram. Find the weight of the teacher (in kg).

(A)  66

(B)  56

(C)  55

(D)  57

Answer: (B)

114. A cricketer has a mean score of 60 runs in 10 innings. Find out how many runs are to be scored in the eleventh innings to raise the mean score to 62?

(A)  80

(B)  81

(C)  83

(D)  82

Answer: (D)

115. A trader purchases a watch and a wall clock for Rs 390. He sells them making a profit of 10% on the watch and 15% on the wall clock. He earns a profit of Rs 51.50. The difference between the original prices of the wall clock and the watch is equal to-

(A)  Rs 110

(B)  Rs 100

(C)  Rs 80

(D)  Rs 120

Answer: (A)

116. A salesman expects a gain of 13% on his cost price. If in a month his sale was Rs 7,91,000, what was his profit?

(A)  Rs 91,000

(B)  Rs 97,786

(C)  Rs 85,659

(D)  Rs 88,300

Answer: (A)

117. A merchant fixed the selling price of his articles at Rs 700 after adding 40% profit to the cost price. As the sale was very low at this price level, he decided to fix the selling price at 10% profit. Find the new selling price.

(A)  Rs 450

(B)  Rs 490

(C)  Rs 500

(D)  Rs 550

Answer: (D)

118. A saves 20% of his monthly salary. If his monthly expenditure is Rs 6,000, then his monthly savings is-

(A)  Rs 1,200

(B)  Rs 4,800

(C)  Rs 1,500

(D)  Rs 1,800

Answer: (A)

119. From 2008 to 2009, the sales of a book decreased by 80%. If the sales in 2010 were the same in 2008, by what percent did it increase from 2009 to 2010?

(A)  80%

(B)  100%

(C)  120%

(D)  400%

Answer: (D)

120. The speed of a bus is 72 km/hr. The distance covered by the bus in 5 seconds is-

(A)  50 m

(B)  74.5 m

(C)  100 m

(D)  60 m

Answer: (C)

121. Two men start together to walk a certain distance, one at 4 km/h and another at 3 km/h. The former arrives half an hour before the latter. Find the distance-

(A)  6 km

(B)  9 km

(C)  8 km

(D)  7 km

Answer: (A)

122. A person invests Rs 12,000 as fixed deposit at a bank at the rate of 10% per annum simple interest. But due to some pressing needs he has to withdraw the entire money after 3 years, for which the bank allowed him a lower rate of interest. If he gets Rs 3,320 less than what he would have got at the end of 5 years, the rate of interest allowed by the bank is-

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

Answer: (D)

123. The compound interest on Rs 30,000 at 7% per annum for a certain time is Rs 4,347. The time is-

(A)  2 years

(B)  2.5 years

(C)  3 years

(D)  4  years

Answer: (A)

124. A prism has as the base a right-angled triangle whose sides adjacent to the right angles are 10 cm and 12 cm long. The height of the prism is 6 gm/cubic cm. The weight of the prism is-

(A)  3.4 kg

(B)  4.8 kg

(C)  6.4 kg

(D)  7.2 kg

Answer: (D)

125. Three circles of radii 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm touch each other pairwise externally. The area of the triangle formed by the line segments joining the centres of the three circles is-

(A)  6√6 sq. cm

(B)  24√6 sq. cm

(C)  144√13 sq. cm

(D)  12√105 sq. cm

Answer: (B)

126. The radius of the base of a right circular cone is doubled. To keep the volume fixed, the height of the cone will be-

(A)  half of the previous height

(B)  one-third of the previous height

(C)  one-fourth of the previous height

(D)  1/√2 times of the previous height

Answer: (C)

127. The base of a cone and a cylinder have the same radius 6 cm; they have also the same height 8 cm. The ratio of the curved surfaces of the cylinder to that of the cone is-

(A)  4 : 3

(B)  5 : 3

(C)  8 : 5

(D)  8 : 3

Answer: (C)

128. The ratio of length of each equal side and the third side of an isosceles triangle is 3 : 4. If the area of the triangle is 18√5 square unit, the third side is-

(A)  8√2 unit

(B)  12 unit

(C)  16 unit

(D)  5√10 unit

Answer: (B)

129. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 72° at the centre. The length of the arc is-

(A)  13.2 cm

(B)  19.8 cm

(C)  21.6 cm

(D)  26.4 cm

Answer: (D)

130. The x-intercept of the graph of 7x – 3y = 2 is-

(A)  2/5

(B)  2/7

(C)  3/4

(D)  3/7

Answer: (B)

131. If x = √3 + √2, then the value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  2√2

(D)  2√3

Answer: (D)

132. If p + q = 10 and pq = 5, then the numerical value of  will be-

(A)  22

(B)  18

(C)  16

(D)  20

Answer: (B)

133. If  then the value of  will be-

(A)  3√3

(B)  5

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

134. An equilateral triangle TQR is drawn inside a square PQRS. The value of the angle PTS, in degrees, is-

(A)  75

(B)  90

(C)  120

(D)  150

Answer: (D)

135. If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle and a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, then the triangle is-

(A)  equilateral

(B)  isosceles

(C)  right-angled

(D)  obtuse-angled

Answer: (A)

136. The distance between the centres of two equal circles, each of radius 3 cm, is 10 cm. The length of a transverse common tangent is-

(A)  4 cm

(B)  6 cm

(C)  8 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (C)

137. If the perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 56 cm and area of the triangle is 84 sq. cm, then the length of the hypotenuse is (in cm) –

(A)  7 cm

(B)  24 cm

(C)  25 cm

(D)  50 cm

Answer: (C)

138. In ∆ ABC, ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 60°. Find ∠C in circular measure-

(A)  πc/6

(B)  πc/2

(C)  2πc/3

(D)  3πc/4

Answer: (B)

139. If cos θ + sec θ = 2, the value cos6θ + sec6θ is-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

140. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30°. The man walks some distance towards the tower and then his angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 60°. If the height of the tower is 30 m, then the distance he moves is-

(A)  20 m

(B)  20√3 m

(C)  22 m

(D)  22√3 m

Answer: (B)

   Directions-The following pie-chart shows the performance in an examination in a particular year for 360 students. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions no. 141-145.

141. The number of students who passed in first division is-

(A)  45

(B)  54

(C)  64

(D)  74

Answer: (B)

142. The number of students who passed in second division is more than those in first division by-

(A)  111

(B)  112

(C)  109

(D)  108

Answer: (D)

143. The ratio of successful students to the failed students is-

(A)  9 : 1

(B)  5 : 1

(C)  1 : 9

(D)  2 : 7

Answer: (A)

144. The percentage of students who have failed in the examination is-

(A)  20%

(B)  36%

(C)  10%

(D)  30%

Answer: (C)

145. The total number of students who have passed in 2nd or 3rd division is-

(A)  162

(B)  270

(C)  108

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

   Directions: The following is a horizontal bar diagram showing the accidents in which two-wheelers are involved with other objects. Study the diagram and answer the questions no. 146-150.

146. The percentage of accidents in which pedestrians and cyclists are involved is-

(A)  60

(B)  20.4

(C)  24

(D)  6

Answer: (C)

147. The percentage by which the accidents involving buses is less than the accidents involving tanker lorry is-

(A)  40

(B)  28

(C)  6

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

148. The difference in percentage between the accidents involving two-wheelers and two-wheelers and two-wheelers and other objects is respectively.

(A)  54, more

(B)  54, less

(C)  77, more

(D)  77, less

Answer: (B)

149. 60% of the accidents are involved due to-

(A)  two-wheelers, cars, buses and stationary vehicles

(B)  two-wheelers, cars, buses and tanker lorry

(C)  cars, buses, tanker lorry and pedestrians

(D)  cars, tanker, lorry, bicycles and stationary vehicles

Answer: (A)

150. If the data of the bar diagram is represented by a pie-chart, and the angle of a sector of the pie-chart is 36°, then this sector represents the accidents involving-

(A)  buses

(B)  stationary vehicles

(C)  pedestrians

(D)  bicycles

Answer: (B)

For Visually Handicapped Candidates Only

141. A number on subtracting 12 from it, reduces to its 80%. 30% of that number is-

(A)  18

(B)  24

(C)  30

(D)  36

Answer: (A)

142. If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then the value of  is-

(A)  2

(B)  1/2

(C)  1

(D)  1/3

Answer: (C)

143. A shopkeeper sells all articles at a discount of 7.5% but increases the selling price of each article by 20%. His gain on each article is-

(A)  5%

(B)  9.5%

(C)  11%

(D)  12.5%

Answer: (C)

  1. A train 220 metres long is running at a speed of 60 km/hr. In how many seconds will it pass a man who is running at 6 km/hr in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

(A)  6 second

(B)  9 second

(C)  12 second

(D)  15 second

Answer: (C)

145. If x + y = √3 and x – y = √2, then the value of 8xy(x2 + y2) will be-

(A)  5/2

(B)  √6

(C)  5/9

(D)  5

Answer: (D)

146. The average of consecutive odd numbers up to 300 is-

(A)  300

(B)  100

(C)  150

(D)  250

Answer: (C)

147. If  is-

(A)  3/4

(B)  2/3

(C)  −2/3

(D)  −3/4

Answer: (A)

148. In the series 2 + 5 + 8 … + 152, what will be the middle term?

(A)  77

(B)  71

(C)  74

(D)  80

Answer: (C)

149. PT is a tangent at T of a circle with centre at O. TA is diameter. AP cuts the circle at B. If PT = 6 cm, PB = 3 c, then AB is-

(A)  3 cm

(B)  3√3 cm

(C)  9 cm

(D)  6 cm

Answer: (C)

150. The length of the minute hand of a wall clock is 7 cm. The area swept by it in 30 minutes is-

(A)  147 cm2

(B)  154 cm2

(C)  77 cm2

(D)  210 cm2

Answer: (C)

Part-IV

General Awareness

151. The basic characteristic off a capitalistic economy is-

(A)  Full employment

(B)  The private ownership of the means of production

(C)  Absence of monopoly

(D)  Large-scale production in primary industries

Answer: (B)

152. Which one of the following taxes is not a direct tax?

(A)  Gift tax

(B)  Wealth tax

(C)  Sales tax

(D)  Estate duty

Answer: (C)

153. UNDP prepares-

(A)  Index Number of Price Level

(B)  Physical Quality Index

(C)  Human Development index

(D)  Standard of living index

Answer: (C)

154. Fiscal policy refers to-

(A)  Sale and purchase of securities by RBI

(B)  Government taxes, expenditure and borrowings

(C)  Government borrowings from abroad

(D)  Sharing of its revenue by Central Government with States

Answer: (B)

155. Public opinion gets an authoritative expression in a democracy through-

(A)  Newspapers

(B)  Parliament

(C)  Pressure groups

(D)  Public meetings

Answer: (B)

156. Which one of the following is not a determining factor of a country’s foreign policy?

(A)  National interests

(B)  Interdependence

(C)  Cultural conditions

(D)  Religious conditions

Answer: (B)

157. Who will act as the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee?

(A)  The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha

(B)  The Leader of the House

(C)  The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D)  The Vice-President of India

Answer: (A)

158. Who was the chosen unanimously as the President of India?

(A)  Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(B)  Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(C)  K. R. Narayanan

(D)  Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (B)

159. The Constitution of India was passed by the Constituent Assembly on-

(A)  17th October, 1949

(B)  14th November, 1949

(C)  26th November, 1949

(D)  26th January, 1949

Answer: (C)

160. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the-

(A)  Parliament

(B)  Supreme Court

(C)  High Court

(D)  Election Commission

Answer: (C)

161. The 1857 Mutiny failed mainly because-

(A)  the British got French support

(B)  the British numbered more

(C)  of lack of planning and leadership

(D)  it was premature

Answer: (C)

162. The Story of ‘My Experiments with Truth’ is the autobiography of-

(A)  Lala Lajpat Rai

(B)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (D)

163. Who among the following made the Ganapati festival very popular in Maharashtra?

(A)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B)  Annie Besant

(C)  Mahadev Ranade

(D)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (D)

164. The Mughal ruler who built the Buland Darwaza was-

(A)  Akbar

(B)  Babur

(C)  Humayun

(D)  Bahadur Shah

Answer: (A)

165. Diarchy in the provinces was introduced through the-

(A)  Indian Councils Act, 1861

(B)  Indian Councils Act, 1892

(C)  Government of India Act, 1919

(D)  Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (C)

166. Which of the following is the world’s largest desert?

(A)  Gobi

(B)  Sahara

(C)  The Great Australian Desert

(D)  Arabian Desert

Answer: (B)

167. The rate of erosion in a stream is lowest where-

(A)  breadth is greater

(B)  velocity is more

(C)  the river joins  the sea

(D)  depth is greater

Answer: (B)

168. The name ‘Sahyadri’ is related to-

(A)  Western Ghats

(B)  Cyclone hazards

(C)  A rain-bearing wind

(D)  Himalayan Peak

Answer: (A)

169. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A)  Himachal Pradesh – Shillong

(B)  Andhra Pradesh – Hyderabad

(C)  Uttar Pradesh – Lucknow

(D)  Arunachal Pradesh – Itanagr

Answer: (A)

170. Tides in the sea have stored in them-

(A)  Hydraulic energy

(B)  Kinetic energy

(C)  Gravitational potential energy

(D)  A combination of all the three forms of energy

Answer: (D)

171. Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called as-

(A)  Parturition

(B)  Oviposition

(C)  Abortion

(D)  Ovulation

Answer: (A)

172. Thyroxine hormone is secreted by-

(A)  Pituitary gland

(B)  Thyroid gland

(C)  Adrenal gland

(D)  Testes

Answer: (B)

173. The digestive juice which has no enzyme is-

(A)  Bile

(B)  Saliva

(C)  Intestinal juice

(D)  Gastric juice

Answer: (A)

174. An essential feature of seed germination is the presence of-

(A)  Minerals

(B)  Water

(C)  Light

(D)  Temperature

Answer: (B)

175. Plants that grow on stones and rocks are-

(A)  Halophytes

(B)  Aerophytes

(C)  Psammophytes

(D)  Lithophytes

Answer: (D)

176. Tactile hair is found in the body of-

(A)  Insects

(B)  Mammals

(C)  Reptiles

(D)  Birds

Answer: (A)

177. The source of energy in the Sun is-

(A)  nuclear fission

(B)  nuclear fusion

(C)  radioactivity

(D)  electrical energy

Answer: (B)

178. Which one of the following materials is used as controller in a nuclear reactor power generator?

(A)  Cadmium

(B)  Beryllium

(C)  Graphite

(D)  Heavy water

Answer: (A)

179. Banking of curves on road or railway track is done to provide-

(A)  centripetal force

(B)  centrifugal force

(C)  gravitational force

(D)  angular velocity

Answer: (A)

180. ………. Is a type of application software used for communication.

(A)  FTP

(B)  Word processing

(C)  Database

(D)  Image editing

Answer: (A)

181. A floppy disk is-

(A)  a semiconductor random-access memory

(B)  an EPROM

(C)  used as the primary memory in computer systems

(D)  made up of magnetic material

Answer: (D)

182. MDI stands for-

(A)  Multiple Document Interface

(B)  Multiple Design Interface

(C)  Multiple Design Interaction

(D)  Multiple Document Interaction

Answer: (A)

183. People die in an atmosphere of carbon dioxide because-

(A)  it is a poisonous gas

(B)  it destroys tissues

(C)  of want of oxygen

(D)  of suffocation

Answer: (C)

184. Which of the following acts as photosensitizer during photosynthesis?

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Nitrogen

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Chlorine

Answer: (C)

185. What happens when bleaching powder is left exposed to air?

(A)  It turns dark brown in colour

(B)  It turns yellow in colour

(C)  It gradually loses its oxygen

(D)  It gradually loses its chlorine

Answer: (D)

186. Arsenic pollution leads to-

(A)  White foot disease

(B)  Black foot disease

(C)  Dyslexia

(D)  Allergy

Answer: (B)

187. Which one of the following does not contribute to pollution?

(A)  Thermal Power Plant

(B)  Nuclear Power Plant

(C)  Hydroelectric Power Plant

(D)  Atomic Power Plant

Answer: (B)

188. Which of the following are the two major components of dry air (by volume)?

(A)  Nitrogen and Oxygen

(B)  Oxygen and Argon

(C)  Nitrogen and Ammonia

(D)  Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

Answer: (A)

189. Which one of the following is not an example of Lotic ecosystem?

(A)  Stream

(B)  Lagoon

(C)  Pond

(D)  Estuary

Answer: (C)

190. Permissible noise level at industrial area during daytime is-

(A)  40 dB (A)

(B)  75 dB (A)

(C)  120 dB (A)

(D)  140 dB (A)

Answer: (B)

191. Benazir Bhutto, the former Pakistan Prime Minister was assassinated in-

(A)  Hyderabad

(B)  Karachi

(C)  Rawalpindi

(D)  Islamabad

Answer: (C)

192. Which of the following is correctly matched?

       Research Institutes      Headquarters

(A)  Leather Research Institute – Lucknow

(B)  Rice Research Institute – Cuttack

(C)  Silk Research Institute – Bangalore

(D)  Sugar Research Institute – Chennai

Answer: (B)

193. Who was affectionately known as the “Grand Old Man of India”?

(A)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B)  Mahatma Gandhi

(C)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D)  Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: (D)

194. India test fired successfully its Agni-V, surface-to-surface ICBM from Wheeler Island on-

(A)  7th March, 2012

(B)  7th April, 2012

(C)  17th March, 2012

(D)  19th April, 2012

Answer: (D)

195. Find the odd one out.

(A)  IDBI – Industrial Finance

(B)  SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

(C)  FCI – Financial assistance to commercial institutions

(D)  EXIM Bank – Financing of export import trade

Answer: (C)

196. The Twelfth Five Year Plan will be operative for the period-

(A)  2010-2015

(B)  2011-2016

(C)  2012-2017

(D)  2013-2018

Answer: (C)

197. The State with largest gap in male and female literacy is-

(A)  Uttar Pradesh

(B)  Madhya Pradesh

(C)  Rajasthan

(D)  Kerala

Answer: (C)

198. “Better to reign in hell than serve in heaven.” Who said these words?

(A)  William Shakespeare

(B)  Milton

(C)  William Wordsworth

(D)  Lord Tennyson

Answer: (B)

199. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) is associated with the ban on which of the following?

(A)  Ban on certain organizations under UN laws

(B)  Ban on money laundering activities

(C)  Ban on nuclear tests for developing arsenals

(D)  Ban on terrorism

Answer: (C)

200. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which of the following?

(A)  Environmental Protection

(B)  Civil Aviation

(C)  Journalism

(D)  Olympic Games

Answer: (C)

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