Associate Banks of SBI Clerical Cadre Recruitment 2014-15 Online Examination Held on February 15, 2015
Part A Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the given information and answer the given questions.
In a certain code language
‘dress code for meeting’ is written as ‘dk pd jn te’
‘ wear black formal dress’ is written as ‘pd ro ld le’
‘formal meeting this weekend’ is written as ‘yi te le vr’
‘black code this weekend’ is written as ‘jn vr ld yi’
(All the codes are two-letter codes)
1. In t he given code language, what does ‘le’ stand for?
(a) this
(b) formal
(c) dress
(d) black
(e) meeting
2. In the given code language, what s the code for ‘dress’?
(a) jn
(b) ro
(c) ld
(d) pd
(e) td
3. What does ‘ld’ stand for in the given code language?
(a) meeting
(b) weekend
(c) formal
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) for
4. Which of the following possibly means ‘security code’ in the given code language?
(a) ux vr
(b) vr tc
(c) pd ux
(d) jn pd
(e) jn ux
5. What is the code for ‘weekend’ in the given code language?
(a) Either yi or vr
(b) le
(c) te
(d) jn
(e) ld
6. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, sixth and eighth letters of the word SENTENCE, which could be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed given ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed given ‘Z’ as your answer.
(a) N
(b) T
(c) Z
(d) X
(e) S
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) In the following questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seems to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
7. Statements All drums are flutes.
All guitars are drums.
Conclusions
I. All guitars are flutes. II. All drums are guitars.
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only conclusion I is true.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true.
8. Statements Some speakers are guests.
No guest is a dignitary.
Conclusions
I. No dignitary is a speaker.
II. Some guests are definitely not speakers.
(a) Only conclusion II is true
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Only conclusion I is true.
9. Statements All spades are tool.
No spade is a vessel.
Conclusions
I. At least some tools are vessel.
II. No tool is a vessel.
(a) Either conclusion I or II true.
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Only conclusion I is true.
(d) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(e) Only conclusion II is true.
10. Statements All users are senders.
Some users are machines.
Conclusions
I. Some senders are machines.
II. All senders are machines.
(a) Only conclusion I is true.
(b) Only conclusion II is true.
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements Some cooks are employees.
Some employees are workers.
Conclusions
I. All cooks are workers. II. No cook is a worker.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Only conclusion I is true.
(d) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(e) Only conclusion II is true.
12. The positions of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 297345618 are rearranged in the descending order within the number, from left to right?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) One
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
13. Statement S = A ≤ P > R ≤ T < U
Conclusion I. U > A II. S ≤ T
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only conclusion I is true.
(c) Only conclusion II is true.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true.
14. Statements P ≥Q < R = M, R ≥ F
Conclusion I. M ≥ F II. F > P
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only conclusion I is true.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Only conclusion II is true.
15. Statements P ≥ Q < R = M, R ≥ F
Conclusions I. F < Q II. P ≥ M
(a) Only conclusion I is true.
(b) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) Either conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Only conclusion II is true.
16. Statement T ≥ O = I ≥ L = D
Conclusions I. D < T II. D = T
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Only conclusion I is true.
(d) Only conclusion II is true.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true.
17. Statement J < C = T ≥ U ≥ R = N
Conclusions I. N < C II. U > J
(a) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Only conclusion I is true.
(d) Only conclusion II is true.
(e) Either conclusion I or II is true.
18. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CLAYED, each of which has as many letters, between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) More than three
(e) Three
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-24) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are seated in the straight line facing North, but not necessarily in the same order. H sits fifth to the left of D. D does not sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between H and I. E sits third to the right of J. J is not an immediate neighbour of H. C is an immediate neighbour of G. G is not an immediate neighbour of I.
19. Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
(a) H, E
(b) I, F
(c) C, E
(d) G, J
(e) F, G
20. Which of the following is true with respect to F as per the given arrangement?
(a) Only one person sits between F and J.
(b) Both I and D are immediate neighbours of F.
(c) None of the given options is true.
(d) Only two people sit to the right of F.
(e) F sits second to the left of E.
21. If all the given people are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many of them will remain unchanged?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None
(e) One
22. What is the position of J with respect to H?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Third to the right
(c) Second to the right
(d) Second to the left
(e) Fifth to the right
23. How many persons are seated between G and F?
(a) One
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) Two
24. Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the person who sits fourth from the left and third from the right?
(a) D
(b) G
(c) F
(d) I
(e) J
Directions (Q. Nos. 25-27)The following questions are based on the given five three-letter words :
ACT SHY EON ACE WEB
25. If the letter ‘F’ is added before each of the given words, how many of them will form meaningful English words?
(a) One
(b) More than three
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) Three
26. If the first and second letters of each of the given words are interchanged, then which of the following will become a meaningful English word?
(a) EON
(b) ACE
(c) SHY
(d) ACT
(e) WEB
27. If the first and third letters of each of the given words is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series, how many of them will have at least two vowels (same or different vowels)?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) Four
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-33) Study the given information and answer the given questions.
Eight people (M, N, O, P, W, X, Y and Z) are sitting around a circular table facing the Centre, with equal distances between each other but not necessarily in the same order. M sits second to the left of O. P is an immediate neighbour of O. Only three people sits between O and Y. X sits to the immediate right of W. W is not an immediate neighbour of O. Z is neither an immediate neighbour of W nor Y.
28. What will come in the place of question mark in the following series based on the given arrangement?
MZ PW YN ZO ?
(a) WP
(b) XN
(c) WX
(d) XY
(e) WY
29. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of M ?
(a) X, W
(b) P, Y
(c) Y, Z
(d) Z, W
(e) Z, N
30. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(a) X is an immediate neighbour of Y.
(b) Z sits second to the right of W.
(c) Y sits to the immediate left of M.
(d) P sits second to the right of X.
(e) None of the given options is true.
31. How many people sit between M and W as per the given arrangement?
(a) None
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) One
32. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of P?
(a) Y
(b) N
(c) O
(d) Z
(e) M
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) O, M
(b) W, O
(c) Y, X
(d) Z, N
(e) N, X
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-38) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions :
3 9 2 4 7 5 9 2 8 1 4 9 5 3 1 6 5 7 3 4 2 9 8 1 3 6 2 8 1 7 5 4 5
34. How many such 2s are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square?
(a) More than three
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) None
35. If all the even digits are deleted from the given arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 7
(e) 9
36. How many such 4s are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a digit which has a numerical value of more than four?
(a) More than three
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) Three
37. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the seventeenth digit from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 4
(d) 8
(e) 1
38. How many such 3s there in the given arrangement, each of which immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
(a) Three
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) Two
(e) One
39. In a certain code, the word DOUBT is written as ‘$#35&’ and the word BONES is written as 5#@67’. How is the word STONE written in this code?
(a) 7&#@6
(b) 7@53#
(c) 7&53#
(d) $673@
(e) &753#
40. Among five friends A, B, C, D and E each running at a different speed in a race. E ran faster than only two friends. A ran faster than D but slower than B. B did not run the fastest. Who ran the second slowest?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) D
Part B English
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) The sentences have a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that bests suits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
41. Ideally you should set aside funds to help you …. over situations such as a sudden medical emergency or unexpected expenses.
(a) come
(b) turn
(c) reach
(d) pass
(e) tide
42. Organizations should implement some practices that t he army follows …… younger staff with important conclusions.
(a) experiencing
(b) nominating
(c) responsible
(d) entrusting
(e) supportive
43. …… from teaching young students about entrepreneurship, we also provide funds to start and sustain their business for the short time.
(a) While
(b) Whether
(c) Apart
(d) Further
(e) Perhaps
44. Cost of fuel is the second most crucial ……… in a person’s decision to buy a car.
(a) event
(b) advice
(c) factor
(d) opportunity
(e) aspects
45. The green revolution which started in the 1960s helps to reduce food scarcity and ………. improved the health of the economy.
(a) still
(b) rapidly
(c) expected
(d) growing
(e) extremely
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) In the following question sentence with four bold words were given. One of them from four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. If any, that word will be your answer. If all words given in the bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.
46. According to the management the bank is likely to perform better in the next
(a) management
(b) likely
(c) perform
(d) quarter
(e) All correct
47. It is difficult to gain access to the hospital because there is no permanent
(a) difficult
(b) gain
(c) access
(d) permanent
(e) All correct
48. One of the most important tasks of the morden government is to run as efficient welfare system.
(a) most
(b) tasks
(c) morden
(d) efficient
(e) All correct
49. Even experienced bankers were surprised by RDFs decision to cut rates prior to the budget.
(a) Even
(b) experienced
(c) surprised
(d) prior
(e) All correct
50. The new generation is confident, tech-savvy and is not fearful of trying new
(a) generation
(b) fearful
(c) trying
(d) things
(e) All correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-60) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A group of employees was working in a software company, it was a team of thirty employees. They was young, energetic and dynamic team with keen enthusiasm and a desire to learn and grow. The management decided to teach the employees how to find real solutions to problems. The team was called to play a game in banquet hall. The group was quite surprised that they were called to play a game. Everyone reached the venue with various thoughts on their minds. As they entered the hall, they found the hall decorated beautifully with colourful decorated papers and ballons all over the place. It was more like a children’s party area than a corporate meeting hall.
Everyone was surprised and gazed at each other. Also there was a huge box of balloons was placed at the centre of the hall. The team leader asked everyone to pick a balloon from the box and asked them to blow it up.
Everyone picked up the balloon and blow it up. Then the team asked them to write their names on their balloons carefully so that the balloons did not burst. Everyone tried to write their names on their balloons, but not everyone was successful. A few balloons burst due to pressure and the people whose balloons were burst, were given another chance to pick a balloon. Those, who failed to write their names even after the second chance, were asked to leave the game.
After the second chance, twenty-five employees qualified for the next level. All the balloons were collected and then put into a room. Then team leader asked the employee to go to the room and pick the same balloon that had his/her name on it. Also he told them that no balloon should burst and warned them to be very careful. All the employees reached the room, where the balloons carrying their names were thrown here and there. They were searching for their respective balloons. While they were in a rush to find the respective balloons. They tried not to burst the balloons. Fifteen minutes passed away and no one was able to find the balloons carrying their own name.
The team was told that the second level of the game was over. Now as the time for third and final level. The employees were asked to pick any balloon in the room and given it to the person named on the balloon. Within a couple of minutes alb balloons reached the hands of the respective employees and everyone reached the hall. The team leader then said “This is called as the new solution to problem. Everyone is frantically haunting for solutions to problem without understanding the ideal way. Many times sharing and helping others gives you real solutions to all problems.”
51. Which of the following cannot be said about the employees?
(A) At least one employee found the balloon when they were asked to pick up a balloon with their name on it.
(B) The participated whole-heartedly in the task.
(C) They all failed to follow the instructions given by the team leader in the end.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) All of these
(d) Only B
(e) A and C
52. Why was everyone surprised reaching on their corporate meeting hall?
(a) Their team leader was dressed as a kid.
(b) Their seniors were missing from the hall.
(c) The hall was equipped with the latest and high technological gadgets.
(d) The hall was too small to accommodate all of them.
(e) Other than those given as options
53. Which of the following can be said about the management’s idea of trying to teach their employees something?
(A) The idea did not indeed to teach anything for the people who did not finish the task.
(B) The idea was ill received by all.
(C) The idea was creative.
(a) Only A
(b) B and C
(c) Only C
(d) All of these
(e) A and B
54. Which one of the following aspects come across very strongly in the story?
(a) One should not worry about goals.
(b) One should be honest and sincere regarding one’s work.
(c) One should be helpful towards others regardless what the end results in
(d) One should look beyond personal goals to achieve success in a task.
(e) One should share one’s problem with others to feel better.
55. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Qualified’ given in the bold as used in the passage.
(a) Illiterate
(b) Ignorant
(c) Talled
(d) Pushed
(e) Silly
56. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Warned’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Threatened
(b) Cautioned
(c) Pressurized
(d) Intermediated
(e) Bulfied
57. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Dynamic’ given in the bold as used in the passage.
(a) Vibrant
(b) Colourful
(c) Explosive
(d) Different
(e) Noisy
58. Which of the following is true according to the story?
(a) The task was successful only after the employees were shown the right way to go about it.
(b) The only way to make a task successful is by helping others, otherwise the task fails.
(c) The employees who were asked to leave the game were disinterested in it.
(d) There were more than four levels in the task.
(e) All the given statements are true.
59. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Frantically’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Nervously
(b) Secretively
(c) Crazily
(d) Calmly
(e) Minutely
60. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story?
(a) Sharing and caring
(b) The game of balloons
(c) The company with a team leader
(d) A friend in need is a friend indeed
(e) The twenty-five employees
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Rearrange the given sex sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) Beena grow fertilizers by the day and was charming and polite but as the goddess predicted she has to have a new outfit everyday and for a while the king and queen were happy to let their way but soon realized that this had to stop.
(B) They longed for the child and prayed and prayed till finally one day their prayers were but the goddess warned,” you will soon have a little girl and though she will be a loving child. She will love new clothes too much and will be cursed if she covert another’s clothes.
(C) They tried to get mend her ways but in vain and one day when Beena saw a beautiful girl simply dressed in a cotton saree and noticed how people were admiring the simply dressed girl she demanded the dress.
(D) The kingdom was at peace, subjects were happy and there was a bumper crop but the King and Queen was very sad.
(E) As foretold, Beena turned into an onion. A plant with many layers to symbolize the many dresses she had.
(F) The King and Queen were ready to accept this flow and when the Queen gave birth to a baby girl the entire kingdom replaced.
61. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
62. Which of the following should be SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
63. Which of the following should be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
64. Which of the following should be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
65. Which of the following should be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error mark ‘no error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuations if any.)
66. One night, friddle the fox was/prowling around/ an actor’s house when he/ found an open window.
(a) One night, friddle the fox was
(b) prowling around
(c) an actor’s house when he
(d) found and open window
(e) No error
67. Millie was/ a mouse who had/ a cousin named Tora/ living from the city.
(a) Millie was
(b) a mouse who had
(c) a cousin named Tora
(d) living from the city.
(e) No error
68. In a jungle, there lived/ a lion who felt ashamed/ of himself because/ he was scared on chickens.
(a) In a jungle, there lived
(b) a lion who felt ashamed
(c) of himself because
(d) he was scared on chickens
(e) No error
69. The big bad wolf gobbled/ up the little lamb so fast/ that a bone was stick/ in his throat.
(a) The big bad wolf gobbled
(b) up the little lamb so fast
(c) that a bone was stick
(d) in his throat.
(e) No error
70. Hares are rather/ noise animals who/ love to bear/ themselves talking.
(a) hares are rather
(b) noise animals who
(c) love to bear
(d) themselves talking
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-80) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which are numbered. Against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once in a town of Shimpola, there lived a rich and cunning money lender called Vidushan. He (71) money to poor people and (72) them to give their lands. The trouble people went to Subhadhar who (73) to visit their town soon.
One morning, a jeweler visted Vidushan with some expensive looking jewellery. When Vidushan asked for its price, the jeweler said it was worth a handful grain. he also said if you are (74) to give me a handful grain, give me a thousand gold coins and return to poor people’s land as well. Greedy Vidushan was very (75). He gave the jeweler a handful of grains. The jeweler (76) to take it and took him to court. There he told the judge, ‘My Lord, I had asked him for a single grain that was the (77) of a full hand and he gave me a handful of grains. As per the (78) he should pay me a thousand of gold coins and return the poor people’s land to them.”
The Judge (79) and adjudged the case in his (80). The jeweler was actually Subhadhar and he had helped the poor to get their lands back.
71.
(a) lent
(b) borrowed
(c) grant
(d) presented
(e) showed
72.
(a) empowered
(b) forced
(c) punished
(d) prevent
(e) destroy
73.
(a) said
(b) assuring
(c) promise
(d) guarantee
(e) vouched
74.
(a) not
(b) powerless
(c) unqualified
(d) unable
(e) there
75.
(a) contents
(b) delightful
(c) blessed
(d) happy
(e) gladly
76.
(a) accepted
(b) denies
(c) loved
(d) wanted
(e) refused
77.
(a) lengthy
(b) growth
(c) extent
(d) size
(e) shapes
78.
(a) conditions
(b) demands
(c) position
(d) state
(e) will
79.
(a) yes
(b) agreed
(c) supporting
(d) chose
(e) ordered
80.
(a) honour
(b) side
(c) favour
(d) worth
(e) service
Part C Quantitative Aptitude
81. If one-third of one-seventh of a number is 15, then two-fifth of that number is
(a) 158
(b) 165
(c) 142
(d) 136
(e) 126
82. The simple interest obtained when a sum of money is invested for 4 years at 18% per annum is Rs 427 more than the simple interest obtained if the same sum of money is invested for 2 years at 22% per annum. What is the amount obtained when the same sum of money is invested for 4 years at 18% per annum?
(a) Rs 2130
(b) Rs 2623
(c) Rs 1096
(d) Rs 1854
(e) Rs 2475
83. Train A, whose length is 328 m, can cross a 354 m long platform in 11 seconds. Train B can cross the same platform in 12 seconds. If the speed of Train B is 7/8th of the speed of Train A, what is the length of Train B?
(a) 321 m
(b) 303 m
(c) 297 m
(d) 273 m
(e) 309 m
84. The ratio of number of males and number of females in village X is 11:7 respectively. If in village Y, the number of males is 20% more than the number of males in village X and the number of females is 12% less than those in village X, then what will be the respective ratio of males to females in village Y?
(a) 15 : 11
(b) 17 : 5
(c) 17 : 11
(d) 23 : 9
(e) 15 : 7
85. The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio of 25 : 64 respectively. If the radius of the latter is 16 m then what is the radius of the former?
(a) 14 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 18 m
(e) 8 m
86. 16 time X is equal to 5 times Y. If 8 is subtracted from Y it is 10 more than 2 times X. What is the sum of X and Y?
(a) 78
(b) 39
(c) 48
(d) 92
(e) 63
Directions (Q. Nos. 87-91) Study the table and answer the given questions.
87. If the total number of pages printed by all the given printers together on Saturday was 18% more than the total number of pages printed by all the given printers together on Thursday, what was the total number of pages printed by all the given printers together on Saturday?
(a) 1379
(b) 1299
(c) 1357
(d) 1289
(e) 1331
88. What is the respective ratio between total number of pages printed by printer O on Tuesday and Wednesday together and total number of pages printed by printer Q on Monday and Tuesday together?
(a) 17 : 21
(b) 17 : 19
(c) 19: 21
(d) 17 : 23
(e) 19 : 23
89. What is the sum of 58% of the total number of pages printed by printers M and O together on Monday and 65% of the total number of pages printed by printers N and Q together on Friday?
(a) 610
(b) 655
(c) 575
(d) 625
(e) 640
90. Number of pages printed by printer N on Tuesday is what percent of the number of pages printed by printer M on Friday?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
91. What is the average number of pages printed by printer P during all the given days together?
(a) 214
(b) 204
(c) 208
(d) 218
(e) 198
92. Glenn labelled the price of an article in such a way so to earn 25% profit. However, while selling he offered 6% discount on the labelled price. If the sold it for Rs 10340, what was the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs 9200
(b) Rs 8000
(c) Rs 8800
(d) Rs 8600
(e) Rs 8400
93. In what ratio Martina should mix two varieties of juice worth Rs 52 per litre and Rs 74 per litre so that by selling the mixture at Rs 71.28 per litre she can earn a profit of 8%?
(a) 6 : 7
(b) 3 : 7
(c) 5 : 8
(d) 4 : 7
(e) 3 : 8
94. The difference between length and breadth of a rectangle is 17 m and the perimeter is 106 m. Find the area of rectangle?
(a) 716 m2
(b) 660 m2
(c) 630 m2
(d) 740 m2
(e) 524 m2
95. Present ages of three persons A, B, C are in the ratio of 6 : 7 : 9 respectively. After 5 years, sum of their ages will be 81 years. Find the present age of B?
(a) 21 years
(b) 28 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 14 years
(e) 42 years
96. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 hours and 16 hours respectively. A third pipe can empty the tank in 40 hours. If all the three pipes are opened and function simultaneously then in how much time the tank will be full?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
97. The average monthly income of A and B is Rs 7760. The average monthly income of B and C is Rs 10990 and that of C and A is Rs 9070. What is the annual income of B?
(a) Rs 120240
(b) Rs 124480
(c) Rs 112360
(d) Rs 128120
(e) Rs 116160
98. Scheme A offers compound interest (compounded annually) at a certain rate of interest (percent per annum) When a sum was invested in the scheme it amounted to Rs 14112 after 2 years and Rs 16934.40 after 3 years. What was the sum of money invested?
(a) Rs 9000
(b) Rs 10200
(c) Rs 8800
(d) Rs 9400
(e) Rs 9800
99. Sharma distributed an amount of money among his wife, one son and one daughter and kept some money for himself. 12% of the total amount he gave to his wife and kept 22% for himself. Out of the remaining amount, he gave to his son and daughter in the ratio of 7 : 8 respectively. If the daughter got Rs 3806 more than the son, what was the total amount that Mrs. Sharma had?
(a) Rs 60000
(b) Rs 78650
(c) Rs 86500
(d) Rs 80500
(e) Rs 72400
Directions (Q. Nos. 100-119) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?
100. 
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 4
101. (349 + 583) / 23.3 + 428 = ?/9
(a) 4068
(b) 3870
(c) 4203
(d) 4158
(e) 4212
102. 56 – 742/53/2 = ?2
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 2
103. (1496 – 392) / 23 × 15 = 213 + ?
(a) 477
(b) 437
(c) 539
(d) 507
(e) 517
104. 
(a) 14
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 12
(e) 20
105. 5136/(523 + 333) of 3/4 + 459 = ?
(a) 520
(b) 541
(c) 513
(d) 493
(e) 467
106. 642 – 362 = ? × 25
(a) 118
(b) 212
(c) 112
(d) 134
(e) 106
107. 2/3 – 5/7 of 21/23 of 46/51 = ? of 8/85
(a) 1/6
(b) 5/6
(c) 5/7
(d) 2/17
(e) 1/3
108. 43 × 26 × 82/3 = 2?
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 8
(e) 12
109. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
110. 2560/32 + 23/45 of 855 = 7/11 of ? + 391
(a) 297
(b) 198
(c) 132
(d) 176
(e) 275
111. 156.25/12.5 × 1000/2500 = ?/28
(a) 147
(b) 140
(c) 112
(d) 168
(e) 196
112. 
(a) 51
(b) 59
(c) 53
(d) 42
(e) 45
113. 
(a) 129
(b) 139
(c) 121
(d) 153
(e) 119
114. 150% of 240 + 125% of 1684 = [? – 345] × 493
(a) 350
(b) 450
(c) 370
(d) 368
(e) 410
115. 319, 320, 347, 472, 815, ?
(a) 1322
(b) 1265
(c) 1435
(d) 1148
(e) 1544
116. 12, 6.5, 7.5, 12.75, 27.5, ?
(a) 65.5
(b) 58.25
(c) 71.25
(d) 55.75
(e) 52
117. 5, 6, 14,45, ?, 925
(a) 138
(b) 184
(c) 172
(d) 98
(e) 154
118. 112, 117, 127, 142, 162, ?
(a) 214
(b) 187
(c) 194
(d) 182
(e) 205
119. 4, 7, 20, 79, ? 2363
(a) 234
(b) 148
(c) 296
(d) 482
(e) 394
120. A, B and C started a business together. The respective ratio of investments of A and B was 3 : 5 and the respective ratio of investments of B and C was 10 : 13. If at the end of the year C received Rs 5876 as his share of annual profit, what was the total annual profit earned by all of them together?
(a) Rs 13108
(b) Rs 12756
(c) Rs 13224
(d) Rs 12984
(e) Rs 12188
Part D Computer Knowledge & Marketing Awareness
121. …………. connects CPU to various internal components to expansion cards for graphics and sound.
(a) RAM
(b) Internal buses
(c) BIOS
(d) Chip set
(e) ROM
122. As per SEBI regulation, every applicant shall pay a non-refundable application fee of …………. along with application for grant or renewal of certification of registration for investments advisors.
(a) Rs 2500
(b) Rs 15000
(c) Rs 7500
(d) Rs 5000
(e) Rs 10000
123. In order to grow task, if a company takes its existing product/service to new markets, it is said to be deploying
(a) Market penetration strategy
(b) Market development strategy
(c) Product development strategy
(d) All those given as options
(e) Diversification strategy
124. ……………. are used to measure both computer memory (RAM) and storage capacity of floppy disks, CD-ROM drives and hard drives.
(a) Bytes
(b) Bites
(c) Octal numbers
(d) Hexadecimal numbers
(e) Binary numbers
125. Which of the following is not included in the four strategies to assign objective, strategy and budget to each SBU as per BCG growth share matrix?
(a) Invest
(b) Divest
(c) Harvest
(d) Hold
(e) Bold
126. …………… is not the stage of product life-cycle in marketing.
(a) Maturity
(b) Growth
(c) Introduction
(d) Decline
(e) Planning
127. The marketing concept for a cluster of complimentary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers but are spread across a diverse set of industries, is
(a) Metamarket
(b) Syncrhonised marketing
(c) Vertical integration
(d) Horizontal integration
(e) Betamarket
128. ……………… includes boot firmware and power management.
(a) CD-ROM
(b) Internal buses
(c) BIOS
(d) Chip set
(e) RAM
129. In case of open ended scheme, the mutual funds shall publish in a daily newspaper of all India circulation at least once in …………… the sale and repurchase priceoff units.
(a) a week
(b) three days
(c) two days
(d) a fortnight
(e) a month
130. ……………. is not a basic element of marketing mix.
(a) Promotion
(b) Place
(c) Price
(d) Product
(e) Publication
131. What is an on-screen display listing of available options or functions on a computer?
(a) Document
(b) View
(c) Tool
(d) Format
(e) Menu
132. Which concept is practiced for the products that buyers normally do not think of buying, such as insurance?
(a) Other than those given as options
(b) Trading concept
(c) Selling concept
(d) Product concept
(e) Production concept
133. Compact disk that can store approximately 650-800 MB of data or 74-80 minutes of music are
(a) Zip disks
(b) CD-ROM
(c) Video cards
(d) Pressing machines
(e) Floppy diskettes
134. What do we call a network whose elements may be separated by some distance? It usually involves two or more networks and dedicated high speed telephone lines.
(a) LAN
(b) WAN
(c) URL
(d) Server
(e) World wide web
135. Printing orientation that is wider that it is taller is
(a) portrait concentration
(b) icon
(c) page set
(d) landscape orientation
(e) wide-angle
136. A collection of various programs that helps control your computer is called
(a) System software
(b) Application software
(c) Microsoft Excel
(d) Microsoft Word
(e) Microsoft Outlook
137. Social marketing emerged during the year
(a) 1982
(b) 1972
(c) 1961
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) 1951
138. Which of the following is a parameter for determining competitive position of company’s products?
(a) Historical profit margins
(b) Market growth rate
(c) Market share rate
(d) Overall market size
(e) Number of brands in portfolio
139. …………… is the standard input device of most computers.
(a) Scanner
(b) Joystick
(c) Speaker
(d) Microphone
(e) Keyboard
140. What is MS-Word?
(a) It is a calculating tool.
(b) It is planning tool.
(c) It is a chart.
(d) It is a networking tool.
(e) It is a document typing tool.
141. …………. is considered as debit market securities.
(a) Fixed deposit of bank
(b) Certificate of deposit
(c) Shares stock
(d) Preference stock
(e) Mortgage loans
142. What is the temporary storage memory chips that form the computers primary work space? The contents are lost if power is disrupted.
(a) Outputs
(b) Windows
(c) ROM
(d) Hard drive memory
(e) RAM
143. Computer software is
(a) used only for output
(b) a computer peripheral
(c) used for input
(d) a set of instructions
(e) used only in operating systems
144. Which of the following does not come under ‘general insurance’?
(a) Marine insurance
(b) Fire insurance
(c) Life insurance
(d) Fidelity insurance
(e) Health insurance
145. What do we call for the arrangement when two or more computers physically connected by cables to share information or hard ware?
(a) URL
(b) Network
(c) Server
(d) Internet
(e) Modem
146. In growth-share matrix approach of Boston Consulting Group, ……… are businesses with weak market share in low-growth market generating low profit.
(a) Stars
(b) other than those given as options
(c) Dogs
(d) Questions marks
(e) Cash cows
147. A word (or words) used in computing in a search to match a desired topic is called
(a) ID name
(b) Hint
(c) Password
(d) User
(e) Keyword
148. What is the stored question about information in a database?
(a) Query
(b) Sort
(c) Report
(d) Record
(e) Field
149. Merrill Lynch uses a symbol of bull to implify strength and leadership. This is an example of ………… in service marketing.
(a) Visualization
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) Association
(d) Documentation
(e) Physical representation
150. Which of the following is a tax saving mutual fund scheme?
(a) Gilt fund
(b) ELSS
(c) Debt funds
(d) Gold funds
(e) Balanced funds
151. Formatting a disk means
(a) programming the disk so data on it can’t be erased
(b) cleaning the disks from any dust contaminates
(c) installing an operating system on it
(d) setting up sections on the disk to store the files in
(e) installing files on it
152. Keyboard shortcut for CUT command is
(a) Ctrl + W
(b) Ctrl + Y
(c) Ctrl + Z
(d) Ctrl + X
(e) Ctrl + V
153. The main circuit board in the computer that connects the parts of the computer is the
(a) Mother board
(b) Father board
(c) Match board
(d) Hard drive
(e) Special board
154. Dividing the market into segments and charging the same price for every one in a segment is known as
(a) Steaming pricing
(b) Cost-based pricing
(c) Personal pricing
(d) Group pricing
(e) Individual pricing
155. What is the name of the device that links your computer with other computers and information services through telephone lines?
(a) Modem
(b) LAN
(c) URL
(d) WAN
(e) Server
156. ………….. provides hard copy output on paper.
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) LCD monitor
(d) Scanner
(e) Printer
157. What is the validity period for the certificate of registration issued by SEBI for investment advisors for mutual funds?
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 2 years
(e) 1 year
158. ………. concept holds that firms must strive to deliver value to customers in a way that maintains or improves both the consumers as well as society’s well being.
(a) Product
(b) Societal networking
(c) Selling
(d) Marketing
(e) Equity
159. The financial contracts whose value are obtained from the values of underlying assets are
(a) Bonds
(b) Mortgages
(c) Derivatives
(d) Stocks
(e) Commercial papers
160. When backed by an ability to pay, want for specific product becomes
(a) need
(b) satisfaction
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) demand
(e) esteem
Part E General Knowledge
161. ‘Jim Corbett National Park’ is the oldest national park in India. It is situated in the Indian State of
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttarakhand
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
162. An independent authority appointed by the RBI for resolution of complaints against deficiency in banking services, is known as
(a) Chief Manager Complaints in each bank
(b) Chief Vigilance Officer
(c) No such authority appointed.
(d) Banking Ombudsmen
(e) Compliance Officer
163. The capital ‘Kingdom of Denmark’ is
(a) Munich
(b) Prague
(c) Hamburg
(d) Heisenburg
(e) Copenhegan
164. In a bank’s balance sheet, which of the following is an asset?
(a) Its paid up capital
(b) Its savings deposits
(c) Its investment in government securities
(d) Its accumulated reserve funds
(e) Its current deposits
165. The United Nations Children Funds (UNICEF) is a United Nations programme that provides humanitarian and development assistance to children and mothers in developing countries. Its headquarters is in
(a) Geneva (Switzerland)
(b) Paris (France)
(c) Vienna (Austria)
(d) New York (USA)
(e) Rome (Italy)
166. The book ‘Odyssey of My Life’ is the autobiography of
(a) Shivraj Patil
(b) RR Patil
(c) Sandeep Patil
(d) Smita Patil
(e) Pratibha Patil
167. Union HRD Minister Smriti Irani laid the foundation stone of ‘Indian Institute of Management in the State of Andhra Pradesh. It is being set-up in
(a) Tirupathi
(b) Nellore
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Guntur
(e) Vijaywada
168. Space probe Beagle 2’ has been found on the surface of Mars, 11 years after it was thought that it was lost on Mars. It was originally launched in 2003 by
(a) Soviet Space Programme
(b) Israeli Space Agency
(c) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
(d) China National Space Administration
(e) European Space Agency
169. In order to raise awareness, conserve and use water resources in an integrated manpower, the government of India observed “India Water Week” in the month of
(a) December, 2014
(b) February, 20156
(c) October, 2014
(d) January, 2015
(e) November, 2014
170. The men’s final of 10th Savio Cup All India Basketball Tournament has recently been won by
(a) Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC)
(b) Indian Overseas Bank (IOB)
(c) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
(d) Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
(e) State Bank of India (SBI)
171. Deep Kumar Upadhyay has recently been named as its amabassador to India by the government of
(a) Mauritius
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Fiji
(e) Maldives
172. The ‘Indian Army Day’ is observed every year on
(a) March 15
(b) September 15
(c) January 15
(d) August 15
(e) October 15
173. ‘Raksha Blu’ is the recently launched vaccine aimed at minimizing the economic loss of the animal farming community from the strains of the
(a) Foot and Mouth virus
(b) Blue tongue virus
(c) Bird flu virus
(d) Road water disease
(e) Swine flu virus
174. As per 2011 Census, the child sex ratio in the (0-6) age group stood at
(a) 969 females against 1000 males
(b) 939 females against 1000 males
(c) 919 females against 1000 males
(d) 959 females against 1000 males
(e) 929 females against 1000 males
175. India’s indigenously developed nuclear capable sub-sonic cruise missile ‘Nirbhay’ can strike targets more than
(a) 1000 km away
(b) 3700 km away
(c) 700 km away
(d) 1700 km away
(e) 2700 km away
176. Which of the following countries is the world’s largest producer of gold?
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) Peru
(d) Australia
(e) Colombia
177. Who amongst the following has recently been appointed as the Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)?
(a) Pahlaj Nihalani
(b) Aakash Nihalani
(c) Govind Nihalani
(d) Shibha Nihalani
(e) Dayal Nihalani
178. Which of the following is not a primary function of a bank?
(a) Accepting deposit
(b) Clearing of cehques
(c) Providing reference on financial standing on its customer
(d) Financing of foreign trade
(e) Granting loans and advances
179. As per 2011 Census, the proportion of economically active population in the 15-50 age group in the total population was
(a) 55.5%
(b) 52.5%
(c) 42.5%
(d) 62.5%
(e) 48.5%
180. Meterological satellite ‘Fengyun-II 08’ has recently been launched by
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) France
(e) Germany
181. Who amongst the following is the regulator in the financial system of the country?
(a) Other, than those given as options
(b) SEBI
(c) CRISIL
(d) TRAN
(e) CERC
182. ‘Shivalik Hills’ is a mountain range of the outer Himalayas. The range is about 2400 km long passing through the Indian States of Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
(e) Rajasthan
183. The abbreviation ‘PLA’ stands for
(a) Private Liberation Army
(b) People’s Liberations Armed force
(c) Public Liberation Army
(d) People’s Liberation Army
(e) People’s Liberty Army
184. “SARFAESI Act 2001” is applicable in banking industry for
(a) regulating the service conditions of employee
(b) appointment of nominee directions on the bank boards
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) streamlining documentation
(e) facilitating enforcement of security for recovery of bad loans
185. The RBI on January 15, 2015 has reduced ‘Repo rate’ by how much percentage points?
(a) 0.60
(b) 0.25
(c) 1.00
(d) 0.75
(e) 0.40
186. According to the scientists of NASA’s Goddard Institute for Space Studies in Manhattan, the hottest year in Earth’s recorded history since 1990 was
(a) 2001
(b) 2014
(c) 1997
(d) 2005
(e) 2010
187. ‘Mohiniyattam’ is a classical dance from the Indian State of
(a) Assam
(b) Kerala
(c) Odisha
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Telangana
188. Who amongst the following won the Nobel Peace Prize for pioneering the concepts of micro credit and micro finance?
(a) Prof. Mohummad Yunus
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) Prof. Amartya Sen
(d) Jean Tirole
(e) Prof. Jagdish Bhagwati
189. ‘Renminbi’ is the currency of the
(a) People’s Republic of China
(b) People’s Republic of Bulgaria
(c) People’s Republic of Korea
(d) Peoples’ Republic of Ethiopia
(e) People’s Republic of Bangladesh
190. Loans granted by a bank to an exporter popularly known as ‘Export credit’ is guaranteed, in case of default, by which of the following?
(a) EXIM Bank
(b) Minister of Internal Trade, Goa
(c) ECGC
(d) DICGC
(e) Other than those given as options
191. ‘Spartan’ is the code-name for an upcoming web browser being developed by Microsoft to replace the existing user?
(a) Safari
(b) Opera
(c) Internet Explorer
(d) Firefox
(e) Chrome
192. Manohar Gopalkrishna Prabhu Parrikar is the Union Cabinet Minister for
(a) Railways
(b) Law and Justice
(c) Mines and Steel
(d) Defence
(e) Civil Aviation
193. Which of the following forms of securing a loan is the safest one?
(a) Lien
(b) Assignment
(c) Pledge
(d) Hypothecation
(e) Mortgage
194. The Asian News International (ANI) is a news agency based in
(a) Singapore
(b) New Delhi (India)
(c) Rawalpindi (Pakistan)
(d) Tokyo (Japan)
(e) Beijing (China)
195. With a view to encourage entrepreneurship among the schedule castes, ‘a venture fund for the SCs’ has recently been launched by the
(a) State government of Bihar
(b) State government of Uttar Pradesh
(c) State government of Rajasthan
(d) government of India
(e) State government of Maharashtra
196. The ratio of deposits to loans of a bank is known as
(a) NPA coverage ratio
(b) Return on asset ratio
(c) Asset coverage ratio
(d) CD ratio
(e) Other than those given as options
197. The loan limit for affordable housing (Valuing up to Rs 425 lakh) in six Metropolitan centres specified by RBI in
(a) Rs 7000 lakh
(b) Rs 4000 lakh
(c) Rs 5000 lakh
(d) Rs 2000 lakh
(e) Rs 3000 lakh
198. Which of the following is the negotiable instrument?
(a) Fixed deposit of a bank
(b) Share certificates issued by a PSU
(c) Demant draft issued by a bank
(d) Debenture of a company
(e) Airway receipt
199. ‘Jimjang Deru’ of Arunachal Pradesh has recently broken his own national record set by him last year in
(a) boxing
(b) archery
(c) wrestling
(d) athletics
(e) weightlifting
200. The scientists at the Harvard Smithsonian Centre for Astrophysics (CIA) have recently found two most Earth like planets. The planets have been named by
(a) Kinston 410b and Kinston 440b
(b) Kepler 438b and Kepler 442b
(c) Kirakon 420b and Kirakon 440b
(d) Litmus 414b and Litmus 441b
(e) Luilin 410b and Luilin 421b
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