IBPS Clerk Pre. Online Examination Held on December 3, 2017
Part I English Language
Direction (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options (a), (b) (c) and (d), a combination of words would independently fit and one combination would not. Mark that option that does not fit as the answer. If the given combinations fit perfectly, then mark ‘All fit’ as the answer. Both the words in the correct answer combination independently must not fit in the blank.
1. Games between England and Australia enjoy a popularity sadly ………… in others parts of the world.
(A) absent (B) dearth
(C) lacking (D) inadequately
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BD
(d) CD
(e) All fit
2. A recent survey …… that light pollution is threatening darkness almost everywhere.
(A) highlighted (B) revealed
(C) show (D) unveiling
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
3. The mobile wallet firm Mobikwik recently announced that the users will now be ……… to pay traffic challans on its application.
(A) able (B) willing
(C) went (D) allowed
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
4. The president has consistently been ……….. to take it on a bigger role in the world owing to reasons unknown.
(A) very (B) hesitant
(C) uncertainty (D) reluctant
(a) AC
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
5. The two countries will ……. in the next phase of bilateral cooperation in the field of science and technology.
(A) merged (B) clasps
(C) work together (D) join hands
(a) AD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
6. Passengers should brace themselves for a fare increase as the government is likely to …….. the passengers service’ fee by 30%.
(A) raise (B) rise (C) hike (D) boast
(a) BD
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
(e) All fit
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-12) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
In a world in which nearly half the population is over the age of 50, we will have to start thinking of older people differently. The first thing we will have to recognize is that our very notion of old age is faulty. In the mid-to-late 1800s, medical theory suggested that the only healthy thing for older adults to do was rest. This gave birth to the first government pensions, corporate retirement policies, dedicated old-age homes. Surviving till today is this idea that older people are ‘supposed’ to be consumers of ideas, work, products and culture, but never producers.
Today, ask anyone over the age of 60 or so if she wants to sit in a rocking chair for the rest of her life and she’ll laugh you out of the room. Yet, this outmoded norm concerning the capabilities and goals of older people persists. It remains at the core of misguided products, policies, workplace expectations. Living longer and better may mean working longer. It may mean a lifetime of learning and growth. We may see older adults in roles to which we are not accustomed: retail, manufacturing, teaching and delivering healthcare (not just receiving it). The energy we draw from our older population may grow to become one of our most valuable resources. Businesses founded by people over the age of 50 are already major sources of employment across the nation. Products designed with older people in mind must evolve. An ageing society has given rise to a new multi-trillion-dollar market of consumers who want not just to be taken care of, but also live out aspirations once considered impossible in old age. These products, services and experiences will become a source of economic growth and innovation. Infrastructure from housing to transportation must be reengineered, Workplaces will have to learn to utilize the unique skills and institutions knowledge of older workers and resist the age-old urge to age-discriminate. We as individuals will have to rethink old age, both for the sake of those older than us and for our own future selves.
7. Choose the world which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Innovation’ printed in bold as used in the passage?
(a) Modernity
(b) Customary
(c) Nascency
(d) Novation
(e) Upstart
8. Which of the following is the author referring to through the term ‘valuable resources’?
(a) Embracing the latest technology
(b) Economic growth
(c) Infrastructure
(d) Cut-throat corporate culture
(e) None of the given options
9. Which of the following is/are the impact(s) of the medical theory mentioned in the passage?
(A) We have side-lined the older population.
(B) Better treatment of age related diseases.
(C) Creation of facilities such as pensions for the elderly.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and C
(d) Only C
(e) All of these
10. Which of the following is the author’s advice regarding work?
(a) Organizations should harness the skills of older workers.
(b) Companies should utilize the experience of workers who are not yound.
(c) We must embrace the idea of people working even at an older age.
(d) We must keep in mind that older workers can be entirely productive.
(e) All the given options
11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) We must revamp infrastructure to meet the needs of the elderly.
(b) The elderly population is dropping.
(c) The concept of ‘old age’ needs to be rethought.
(d) The traditional idea of ‘old age homes’ is outdated.
(e) All the given options are true.
12. Which of the following represent(s) the author’s view?
(A) Society needs to recognize the needs, desires and aspirations of older people.
(B) Older people are capable producers.
(C) Corporate retirement policies are very generous at present.
(a) A and B
(b) Only B
(c) B and C
(d) Only C
(e) All of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-20) The sentence has been spilt into five parts denoted by A, B, C, D and E. Part A is fixed in the sentence and is to be taken as grammatically correct. The remaining four parts B, C, D and E may or may not have either (an) inappropriate word (s) or spelling errors in it. From these four, there will be only one part without any error. Identify that part and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
13. Traditionally, people have/ associated excessive sweating/ with having a higher body fat/ percentage and less sweating/ with a higher level of acrobic activity.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
14. The country is among/the emerging global players in/research and innovation, thenks/to the excellent research centres/ and a considerable talent pool.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
15. After a gap of over eighty years,/ the black bear has returned/ to the northern region of the country/ through conservation, and their/population believed to be over 500.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
16.The government is likely/ to lounch a policy on electric vehicles/ proposing benefits for manufacturers/ and putting in place the necessary/ support system by the end of this year.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
17. ‘Writer Page’ is a unique platform/where budding writers/are encouraged to hone/ their writing skills/ with the help of establishment authors.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
18. Ferrying of coal in/uncowered vehicles and rail wagons is/said to won of the key/ reasons behind high pollution/ levels along the transportation root.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
19. Thanksgiving is that/festival when families/gather together, forget/ their differences and feast/ on turkey and pumpkin pie.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
20. There needs to be/a dipper exploration of/why parents actually have/ a problem with/their children reading books based on voilence.
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) The sentence has a blank which indicates something has been omitted. which of the following phrases given against the sentence, fits the blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully, If none of phrases fit, select ‘None of the given options’ as your answer.
21. She ……….. so badly in the last movie that she decided to withdraw from acting.
(a) so hardly hit
(b) got alive and kicking
(c) got her fingers burnt
(d) fall at life
(e) None of the given options
22. Last night the cricket match was ………. as the home team could not stand their opponents.
(a) a throwback on
(b) epic fall
(c) a major let down
(d) loss of face
(e) None of the given options
23. Since you were just discharged from the hospital, you need ………. so that you are able to recover fully.
(a) plenty of down-time
(b) play back required
(c) take care of
(d) recover from
(e) None of the given options
24. He started working from home so that he would be able ………. with his family.
(a) for the duration
(b) to spend more time
(c) to in the long run
(d) spend a penny for
(e) None of the given options
25. While I was searching the attic, I ………. some very interesting photographs.
(a) find a way around
(b) came across
(c) looking forward to
(d) came down with
(e) None of the given options
26. Simone ……… deleted Ravi’s contact number but pretended to have lost it.
(a) an honest mistake
(b) accidentally on purpose
(c) at cross purpose
(d) all intention of purpose
(e) None of the given options
27. The manager offered him a lucrative job but he ……….. .
(a) fell for it
(b) paid dearly for
(c) turned it down
(d) given it away
(e) None of the given options
28. The head of the detective department asked the officers to …….. before reaching any conclusion in the case.
(a) thinking over
(b) do searching of
(c) looking for clues
(d) explore all the avenues
(e) None of the given options
29. The teacher complained to his mother that he does not ……… the rule.
(a) follow over
(b) make the rounds
(c) stick with
(d) abide by
(e) None of these
30. At the beginning of her performance on stage, she always has ……… .
(a) butterflies in her stomach
(b) get highly tensed
(c) nervous brokedown
(d) get all worked up
(e) None of the given options
Part II Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32) In each question, relationship between different elements is shown in the two statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
(a) if either conclusion I or II follows
(b) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(c) if only conclusion II follows
(d) if both conclusions follow
(e) if only conclusion I follows
31. Statement M ≥ P ≥ F ≥ Q; R ≤ F
Conclusion I R ≤ M
Conclusion II Q < R
32. Statement G = E ≤ N < R ≥ L > T
Conclusion I T < N
Conclusion II E ≤L
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
‘lots of exams today’ is written as ‘po li sy ko’
‘today are final exams’ is written as ‘jp sy po fr’
‘are the lots ready’ is written as ‘fr dv ko mt’
‘get ready for exams’ is written as ‘sy ot gh dv’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
33. What is the code for ‘ready today’ in the given code language?
(a) mt po
(b) po dv
(c) dv fr
(d) li ot
(e) mt ko
34. Which of the following may represent ‘the routine exams’ in the given code language?
(a) mt kk gh
(b) dv op sy
(c) mt ot sy
(d) fr sy mt
(e) sy ul mt
35. What is the code for ‘get’ in the given code language?
(a) Either ‘sy’ or ‘dv’
(b) sy
(c) ko
(d) Either ‘ot’ or ‘gh’
(e) None of these
36. What is the code for ‘lots’ in the given code language?
(a) po
(b) ko
(c) fr
(d) li
(e) mt
37. What is the code for ‘final’ in the given code language?
(a) po
(b) jp
(c) ko
(d) fr
(e) sy
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-42) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
Eight people C, D, E, F, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre with equal distance between each other.
Only three people sit between E and U. Only two people sit between U and F. C sits third to the left of V. V is neither an immediate neighbour of U nor F. D sits to the immediate right of T.
38. Which of the following represents the position of D with respect to C?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Third to the left
(c) Fourth to the right
(d) Third to the right
(e) Second to the left
39. Which of the following is true regarding S as per the given arrangement?
(a) S sits to the immediate right of D.
(b) None of the given options is true.
(c) S is an immediate neighbour of F.
(d) S sits second to the right of E.
(e) Only three people sit between S and T.
40. Who sits second to the right of T?
(a) F
(b) V
(c) E
(d) U
(e) C
41. How many people are sitting between V and F when counted from the right of F?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Four
(d) three
(e) Two
42. Who among the following are seated exactly between U and F when counted from the right of U?
(a) C, D
(b) C, S
(c) E, S
(d) E, T
(e) S, T
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Sameer starts walking from Point A, He walks 15 m towards East and reaches Point B. He then takes a left turn, walks 5m and reaches Point C. From Point C he takes, a left turn. walks 6 m and reaches Point D. He takes a left turn, walks 10 m and reaches Point E. From Point E, he takes a right turn, walks 9 m and reaches point F.
43. How far and in which direction is Point A with respect to Point F?
(a) 9m towards South
(b) 9m towards North
(c) 8m towards North
(d) 5m towards North
(e) 6m towards South
44. Points B, C and Z form a straight line in such a way that B falls at a point between Points C and Z. If the distance between B and Z is double the distance between Points B and C, in which direction is Point Z with respect to Point E?
(a) South-East
(b) North-West
(c) West
(d) South-West
(e) North-East
45. In which direction is Point F with respect to Point C?
(a) North
(b) East
(c) South-West
(d) West
(e) South-East
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. All the given persons in both the rows face North. In row-1 A, B, C, D and E area seated and in row-2, L, M, N, O and P are seated. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member of row-2 is sitting right behind a member of row-1.
D sits second to the left A. A does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The one sitting behind A sits to the immediate right of P. The one sitting in front of M sits third to the right of B. Only one person sits between B and C. E sits in front of L. More than two people sit between L and N.
46. Which of the following is true regarding O?
(a) O sits second to the left of M.
(b) O sits behind C.
(c) O is an immediate neighbour of L
(d) O sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(e) None of the given option is true.
47. In which of the following pairs of people, are both of them sitting at extreme ends of the rows?
(a) C, M
(b) C, N
(c) E, N
(d) B, O
(e) B, P
48. B is related to C in the same way as P is related to L based on the given seating arrangement. To who amongst the following is N related to following the same pattern?
(a) N
(b) The one sitting behind E
(c) P
(d) O
(e) The one sitting behind D
49. How many persons are seated between E and D?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) Cannot be determined
50. Who amongst the following is sitting in front of O?
(a) B
(b) The one sitting to immediate right of A
(c) The one sitting to immediate right of C
(d) C
(e) D
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-53) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.
D C U D B C B A C D E B U B A C
A D C A D B A E B U A D E B C E
51. How many alphabets are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is fourth from the left end and the alphabet which is third from the right end of the arrangement?
(a) More than three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
(e) Three
52. If all D’s are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the left end of the given arrangement?
(a) U
(b) A
(c) E
(d) B
(e) C
53. How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?
(a) Two
(b) More than four
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) Four
Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Each of eight people-L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S was born in a different month viz. January, March, May, June, September, October, November and December of the same year.
S was born in one of the months before April. Only three people were born between the months in which S and Q were born. Only two people were born between L and N. L was born in one of the months before N. More than two people were born between the months in which L and Q were born. As many people were born before N as after O. P was born in one of the months having only 30 days. M has born in one of the months before R.
54. If X was born in one of the months between the months in which N and O were born, in which was X possibly born?
(a) February
(b) May
(c) April
(d) October
(e) August
55. Who amongst the following was born in a month immediately after the month in which P was born?
(a) M
(b) L
(c) R
(d) Q
(e) S
56. In which of the following months was M born?
(a) March
(b) December
(c) January
(d) May
(e) November
57. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and thus form a group. Which is the one that dies not belong to that group?
(a) L
(b) m
(c) R
(d) S
(e) O
58. How many people were born between the months is which S and O were born?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) One
(e) Four
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-62) Following questions are based on five words given below.
SHE OLD ANT TIN JUG
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
59. If S is added before the first letter in each word, which of the following would form meaningful English words with the new arrangement?
(a) Only SHE
(b) ANT and JUG
(c) Only OLD
(d) TIN and JUG
(e) Only TIN
60. If in each of the given words each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is chaged to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
(a) One
(b) More than three
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) Two
61. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
(a) Two
(b) Eight
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) Three
62. If second alphabet in each of the words is chaged to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having more than one vowel will be formed?
(a) Three
(b) More than three
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) None
Directions (Q. Nos. 63-65) In each question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.
Give answer
(a) if either conclusion I or II follows
(b) if both conclusions follows
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(d) if only conclusion II follows
(e) if only conclusion I follows
63. Statements All alerts are mails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.
Conclusion I No post is an alert.
Conclusion II No box is an alert.
64. Statements All alerts are nails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.
Conclusion I Atleast some boxes are nails.
Conclusion II All mails can never be boxes.
65. Statements Some sauces are jams. All jams are pickles.
Conclusion I Some jams are definitely not sauces.
Conclusion II At least some pickles are sauces.
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. 120 kg and 150 kg of potatoes were stored in warehouse on Monday and Tuesday respectively. If ‘X’ kg of potatoes got rotten on each day and the respective ratio of number of potatoes that did not get rotten on Monday and Tuesday was 3 : 4, what is the value of X?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 20
(e) 40
Directions (Q. Nos. 67-81) What will come in place of question marks (?) in the given questions?
67. (612 +184 – ?) ÷ (2 ÷04) = 15
(a) 50
(b) 46
(c) 42
(d) 54
(e) 49
68. 
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 0.5
(e) 2
69. (4.5)2 – (1.5)2 = ?2
(a) 9√2
(b) 9
(c) 3√2
(d) 18
(e) 4√3
70. 3432/3 * 2561/4 – ? = 122
(a) 44
(b) 56
(c) 52
(d) 42
(e) 54
71. 
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 7
(e) 6
72. 
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 26
(e) 28
73. 
(a) 25
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 20
(e) 45
74. 4/5th of 3/8th of ? = 112 + 5
(a) 450
(b) 390
(c) 360
(d) 420
(e) 440
75. 4 – ? ÷ 5 – 3.9 = 17.8
(a) 17.5
(b) 16.5
(c) 18.5
(d) 12.5
(e) 14.5
76. 
(a) 225
(b) 324
(c) 196
(d) 400
(e) 289
77. (18* 23 – 141) ÷5 = 2?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
(e) 6
78. 
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 36
(d) 24
(e) 48
79. √? = 120 ÷ 48 + 29.5
(a) 900
(b) 1156
(c) 784
(d) 1024
(e) 676
80. 2/5 of (40 ÷25 + 2 ÷ 5) = ?
(a) 4/5
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/5
(d) 1/4
(e) 1/5
81. 14* 5 ÷ 8 + 7.25= ?2
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 4
(e) 2
82. Train A, 150 m long and running at 15 m/sec overtakes Train B running at 10 m/sec in a direction same as that of Train A in 72 sec (from the moment both trains meet). What is Train B’s length?
(a) 240 m
(b) 220 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 160 m
(e) 210 m
83. A vessel contains a mixture of X L milk and 25 L water in the respective ratio of 24 : 5. If 29 L mixture is taken out and 4 L water is added to it, what will be the resultant respective ratio between milk and water?
(a) 16 : 3
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 16 : 5
(d) 4 : 1
(e) 8 : 3
84. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 236. Sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 140% more than the second highest even number. What is the average of the given four odd numbers?
(a) 32
(b) 38
(c) 34
(d) 28
(e) 36
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
85. 129 127 122 112 ? 69
(a) 105
(b) 65
(c) 115
(d) 75
(e) 95
86. 60 89 112 131 ? 161
(a) 158
(b) 148
(c) 142
(d) 152
(e) 144
87. 2 8 26 80 242 ?
(a) 718
(b) 716
(c) 728
(d) 722
(e) 724
88. 25 8 128 1024 ? 8192
(a) 4048
(b) 2024
(c) 4096
(d) 3072
(e) 2048
89. 5 6 10 17 30 ?
(a) 45
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 52
(e) 55
90. Marked price of article A is 40% more than its Cost Price. Profit earned when article A was sold after giving two successive discounts of 10% each is Rs 53.60. If article A is sold at 30% profit, what would be its selling price?
(a) Rs 580
(b) Rs 680
(c) Rs 750
(d) Rs 590
(e) Rs 520
91. A and B started a business with investment of Rs 12800 and Rs 15600 respectively. 8 months after the start of the business, B left. If the total annual profit was Rs 14500, what was A’s share in profit?
(a) Rs 8800
(b) Rs 8000
(c) Rs 7200
(d) Rs 7680
(e) Rs 9600
92. Harshal spends his monthly income on paying rent, buying groceries and investing in mutual funds in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. If the difference between the income spent on rent and that invested in mutual funds is Rs 12000, what is h is annual income?
(a) Rs 4.8 lakh
(b) Rs 4.0 lakh
(c) Rs 5.4 lakh
(d) Rs 3.6 lakh
(e) Rs 6.0 lakh
93. Suresh invested some money for 8 years in scheme A offering simple interest at 12% p.a. The interest received from Scheme A was then invested in scheme B (which offers simple interest at 10% p.a.) for 5 years. If interest received from scheme B was Rs 4032, what was the sum invested in scheme A?
(a) Rs 9600
(b) Rs 7200
(c) Rs 7600
(d) Rs 8000
(e) Rs 8400
94. A alone can finish a piece of work in 36 days. B is 20% more efficient than A. A alone started working and was replaced by B after 8 days. In how many days B alone can finish the remaining work?
(a) 21 1/3
(b) 19 1/3
(c) 25 2/3
(d) 20 2/3
(e) 23 1/3
Directions (Q. Nos. 95-99) Study the table and answer the given questions.
95. What was the respective ratio of total number of tickets sold from Location D on Tuesday and Wednesday together to number of tickets sold from Location A on Wednesday?
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 5: 4
(d) 2 : 1
(e) 4 : 3
96. What is the average number of tickets sold from Location C on Monday, Wednesday and Friday?
(a) 91
(b) 89
(c) 90
(d) 88
(e) 87
97. If number of tickets sold from Location E on Tuesday was 15/31 times the total number of tickets sold from locations A and B together on Tuesday, how many tickets were sold from Location E on Tuesday?
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) 55
98. What was the difference between total number of tickets sold from Location B and D on Monday and those sold from the same locations together on Thursday?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 14
(e) 8
99. Number of tickets sold from Location a on Monday was what percent more than those sold from Location A on Friday?
(a) 25%
(b) 22.5%
(c) 15%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 17.5%
100. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 25%, its perimeter would become 92 m. If the breadth of the original rectangle is increased by 50%, its perimeter would become 96 m. What is the breadth of the original rectangle?
(a) 14 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 16 m
(d) 20 m
(e) 18 m
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