IBPS RRBS CWE-IV Officers Grade-B Recruitment Preliminary Examination-2015 Held on September 13, 2015
Part 1 Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language,
‘challenges for rural education’ is written as ‘vx pr bt ze’
‘find measures for problems’ is written as ‘ws dl ze ho’
‘experts find challenges difficult’ is written as ‘bt ka mu dl’
‘education difficult in villages’ is written as ‘xq cg pr ka’
(All codes are two-letter codes only)
1. If ‘experts find solutions’ is written ad ‘dl ny mu’ in the given code language, hen what will ‘rural solutions difficult’ be coded as?
(a) ny vs ka
(b) ny pr dl
(c) ka mu ny
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) vx ka xq
2. What is the code for ‘villages’ in the given code language?
(a) ws
(b) mu
(c) Either ‘xq’ or ‘cg’
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Either ‘pr’ or ‘ze’
3. What will be the code for ‘find education’ in the given code language?
(a) pr dl
(b) ka pr
(c) ze ka
(d) dl ws
(e) Other than those given as options
4. What is the code for ‘challenges’ in the given code language?
(a) cr
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) bt
(d) ze
(e) ka
5. In the given code language, what does the code ‘ho’ stand for?
(a) Either ‘measures’ or ‘problems’
(b) Either ‘for’ or ‘experts’
(c) rural
(d) find
(e) difficult
6. Read the following information and answer the given question.
In spite of conducting several awareness programmes and receiving monetary help from the government, the women self-help groups are not very successful in rural areas of State B.
Which of the following statements cannot be a ‘reason’ for the given problem?
(a) Mobility is highly limited for women due to social barriers in rural areas.
(b) Women self-help groups are unable to complete the orders on time due to manpower shortage.
(c) Women in rural areas of State B hesitate in starting their own ventures due to lack of practical.
(d) Only 55% of the women in rural areas of State B have matriculation certificate.
(e) Self-help groups in rural areas of State B lack an organized structure to pump in enough money for advertising their products.
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-12) Study the following information and answer the questions.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each of them also works at a different bank namely, IDBI, SBI, HDFC, BOI, PNB, TJSB, Axis Bank and SVC, but not necessarily in the same order.
Z lives on an even numbered floor. Only three people live between Z and the one who works at BOI.
W lives immediately below the one who works at BOI.
Only three people live between W and the one who works at Axis Bank.
V lives immediately above T. V lives on an odd numbered floor. T does not work at BOI.
Only two people live between T and the one who works at SBI. The one who works at SBI does not live on the lowermost floor.
The one who works at SVC lives immediately above the one who works at PNB. The one who works at SVC lives on an even numbered floor but not on floor numbered two.
Only one person lives between the one who works at SVC and the one who works at IDBI.
X lives immediately above S. X lives on an even numbered floor. X does not work at TJSB.
U does not work at PNB and does not live on floor numbered four.
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) S – Floor numbered two
(b) T – Floor numbered eight
(c) W – Floor numbered six
(d) Z – Floor numbered one
(e) U – Floor numbered seven
8. V works at which of the following banks?
(a) Axis Bank
(b) SVC
(c) IDBI
(d) SBI
(e) Other than those given as options
9. Which of the following pair represent those who live immediately above and immediately below Z?
(a) S, T
(b) S, V
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) T, V
(e) X, Y
10. W works at which of the following banks?
(a) Other than those given as options
(b) PNB
(c) Axis Bank
(d) BOI
(e) SBI
11. U lives on which of the following floor numbers?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) Five
(e) Seven
12. As per the given arrangement, U is related to PNB and S is related to HDFC in a certain way. To which of the following is V related to in the same way?
(a) SVC
(b) SBI
(c) IDBI
(d) TJSB
(e) Axis Bank
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Given answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows
(c) if both conclusions follow
(d) if none follows
(e) if either I or II follows
13. Statements
S ≤ P ≤ U ≥ N; U > B; L ≤ S
Conclusions
I. B > P II. L ≤ U
14. Statements
A > G ≥ O ≥ N < Y; O ≥ S ≥ R
Conclusions
I. R < A II. Y > S
15. Statements
M > O ≥ C ≥ K = E ≤ D; J ≥ C; O < Z
Conclusions
I. J ≥ E II. K < Z
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-19) In these questions, three statements followed by two conclusions I and II are given. Take the given statements to be true and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) if both conclusions follow
16. Statements
Some letters are digits.
All digits are numbers.
All symbols are numbers.
Conclusions
(I) At least some letters are numbers.
(II) All symbols being digit is a possibility.
17. Statements
No point is a spot.
All spots are marks.
No mark is a dot.
Conclusions
(I) All marks being points is a possibility
(II) No spot is a dot.
18. Statements
Some letters are digits.
All digits are numbers.
All symbols are numbers.
Conclusions
(I) No letter is a symbol.
(II) All letters being digits is a possibility.
19. Statements
No point is a spot.
All spots are marks.
No mark is a dot.
Conclusions
(I) All dots being points is a possibility.
(II) At least some points are marks.
20. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
The farmers of village D have been growing crop Y for many years as there is hardly any rainfall in the area and crop Y has minimum water requirements. However, this year many farmers of village D have sown crop X instead of crop Y despite the fact that crop Y yielded a good produce last year.
Which of the following statements, if considered true, may not be a reason for the action of the farmers of village D?
(a) In order to reduce the import of crop X, the government of the State has declared certain incentives for farmers cultivating crop X this year.
(b) Crop X requires only a specific kind of fertilizer, which is not easily available as it is manufactured only in village S, whereas any fertilizer with high nitrogen component is suitable for crop Y.
(c) The demand for crop X has risen considerably over the past one year as a result farmers growing crop X in the neighbouring villages of village D have made much more profit than expected.
(d) The government had introduced a subsidy this year for good quality seeds of crop X whereas seeds available in the market for crop Y were of substandard quality.
(e) A research committee, set-up this year by the government has recommended that the soil and climate conditions of village D are the best for crop X.
21. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
For the past three years, the government of State X has been organizing awareness programmes for the women. Hoardings and banners have been put across the State promoting women upliftment and gender equality.
Which of the following cannot be consequence of the steps taken by the government of State?
(a) The rate of female foeticide in the State has came down from 280 cases per year to 30 cases per year.
(b) Dowry and domestic violence cases in the State dropped by 85% in the last couple of years.
(c) Cases reported by women of the State regarding chain snatching on the roads have come down by 40% in the last two years.
(d) Two years ago minimum 15% fee exemption was mad mandatory for girl child in all public and private schools of the State.
(e) In all the public organizations of the State, a minimum of 10% female employees has been made compulsory since the past two and a half years.
22. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
Farmers should use hydroponics for farming. Hydroponics is growing plants in liquid nutrient solution. Since it does not require soil, farmers can save a large amount of time by avoiding tilling and de-weeding of their fields.
Which of the following statements does not weaken the given statement/
(a) Initial set-up cost for hydroponics is very high as the necessary equipment and inputs are three times more expensive than that used in traditional methods.
(b) Disease causing microorganisms that are water-based can enter and subsist much more easily in hydroponics based environment as compared to traditional methods.
(c) Rather than using only hydroponics or only traditional farming, most of the farmers use both simultaneously.
(d) Without soil to serve as a buffer, if the hydroponics system fails, plant death occurs very rapidly leading to loss of 70-85% crop.
(e) The production using hydroponics is very limited and is more efficient for house gardens rather than large scale farming.
23. Which of the following definitely true if the statement given below is considered to be true?
(You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.)
All farms are houses. All houses are jungles. No jungle is a ranch. All ranches are estates.
(a) No jungle is an estate.
(b) No jungle is a farm.
(c) All estates being houses is a possibility.
(d) No farm is a ranch.
(e) All ranches being houses is a possibility.
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-28) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people E, F, G, H, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each E, F, G and H are sitting in row-1 facing North and X, X, Y and Z are sitting in row-2 facing South. (but not necessarily in the same order.) Thus, each person sitting in row-1 faces another person sitting in row-2. Each of the two rows consists of one Professor, one Leader, one Technician and one Doctor (but not necessarily in the same order.)
The Doctor of row-1 sits second to the right of H. E is an immediate neighbout of H. E faces the Leader of row-2.
X sits to the immediate right of the Leader. X faces one of the immediate neighbours of the Professor of row-1. The Professor of row-1 does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
W sits second to the left of Y. Z does not face G. F faces the Professor of row-2. In both the rows, only one person sits between the Professor and the Technician. W is not a Doctor.
24. Which of the following represent both the immediate neighbours of W?
(a) X and Leader of row-2
(b) Y and Technician of row-2
(c) Y and Doctor of row-2
(d) X and Professor of row-2
(e) Z and Doctor of row-2
25. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate left of the Leader of row-1?
(a) Professor of row-1
(b) F
(c) H
(d) G
(e) Doctor of row-1
26. Which of the given statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) None of the given statements is true.
(b) Y sits to the immediate right of Z.
(c) H is a Teacher.
(d) Technician of one row faces the Doctor of another row.
(e) Y and H face each other.
27. If E and X interchange their places and so do G and Z, then who amongst the following will face W?
(a) Z
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) A
(d) X
(e) B
28. Which of the following represent the people sitting at extreme ends of both the lines?
(a) F, H and Z, W
(b) F, H and X, Y
(c) E, H and Y, Z
(d) G, F and Z, Y
(e) G, F and W, Y
29. Which of the give expression is definitely true if the expression Q > U < I ≤ E = T ≤ S’ is definitely
(a) Q ≥ T
(b) U < T
(c) E > S
(d) E ≥S
(e) I > S
30. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘A > I’ as well as ‘V ≥ T’ definitely hold true?
A_V_I_C_T
(a) >, <, ≥, ≥
(b) <, ≥, = <
(c) ≥, <, >, =
(d) >, =, ≥, =
(e) Other than those given as options
31. In a class of 42 students, Mahesh’s rank is 16th from the bottom. What is his rank from the top?
(a) 25th
(b) 26th
(c) 24th
(d) 27th
(e) 29th
32. A man travels 4 km due North, then travels 6 km due East and further travels 4 km due North. How far he is from the starting point?
(a) 6 km
(b) 14 km
(c) 8 km
(d) 10 km
(e) Other than those given as options
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the centre and some of them are facing outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre)
R sits seconds to the right of Y. Only two people sit between R and W.
P sits to the immediate right of W. W faces outside.
Only one person sits between P and Z. Immediate neighbours of P face opposite directions.
Q sits third to the left of Z. Q is not immediate neighbour of P.
X faces directions opposite to that Y. X is neither an immediate neighbour of Y nor P.
Immediate neighbours of S face same direction. P does not face outside.
R and Q face a direction opposite to that of S.
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the direction they are facing and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) YX
(b) QZ
(c) PQ
(d) RW
(e) XP
34. Who among the following sit exactly between X and P when counted from the left of X?
(a) Z, R
(b) W, S
(c) R, Q
(d) S, Z
(e) Q, Y
35. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of Y?
(a) Z, P
(b) S, X
(c) Q, S
(d) W, Q
(e) X, Z
36. What is Q’s position with respect to W?
(a) Immediate left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Immediate right
(e) Second to the right
37. Which of the following is true regarding S as per the given seating arrangement?
(a) R is an immediate neighbour of S.
(b) S faces outside.
(c) Only two people sit between S and Q.
(d) X sits second to the right of S.
(e) None of the given options is true.
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y.
Y is the sister of T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J.
S has only one daughter. S is married to R.
K is the brother of D. U is the father-in-law of D.
38. How is D related to Y ?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Mother
(c) Uncle
(d) Father
(e) Aunt
39. If Y is married to S, then how is S related to T?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Sister
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) Brother
40. If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C?
(a) Cousin
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) Brother
Part 2 Quantitative Aptitude
41. A trader sells an item to a retailer at 20% discount, but charges 10% on the discounted price, for delivery and packaging. The retailer sells it for Rs 2046 more, thereby earning a profit of 25%. At what price had the trader marked the item?
(a) Rs 9400
(b) Rs 9000
(c) Rs 8000
(d) Rs 12000
(e) Rs 9300
42. X’s age 3 years ago was three times the present age of Y. At present, Z’s age is twice the age of Y. Also Z is 12 years younger than X. What is the present age of Z?
(a) 15 yr
(b) 24 yr
(c) 12 yr
(d) 6 yr
(e) 18 yr
43. Average score of a class of 60 students, in an exam, was 43. Average score of the students who had passed is 52 and the average score students who had failed is 16. How many failed the exam?
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 18
(e) 30
44. The interest received on a sum of money when invested in scheme A is equal to the interest received on the same sum of money when invested for 2 years in scheme B. Scheme A offers simple interest (percent per annum) and scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually). Both the scheme offers the same rate of interest. If the numerical value of the number of years for which the sum is invested in scheme A is same as the numerical value of the rate of interest offered by the same scheme, what is the rate of interest (percent per annum) offered by scheme A?
(a) 3%
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 2%
45. A vessel contains 100 L mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 22 : 3. 40 L of the mixture taken out from the vessel and 4.8 L of each pure milk and pure water is added to the mixture. By what percent is the quantity of water in the final mixture less than the quantity of milk?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 76%
(e) 
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
46. 500 484 451 384 266 ?
(a) 36
(b) 80
(c) 56
(d) 64
(e) 42
47. 9 4 5 6 14 ?
(a) 48.5
(b) 42
(c) 32.5
(d) 20
(e) 36
48. 100 52 28 16 10 ?
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 5
49. 1 6 32 163 819 ?
(a) 1705
(b) 1066
(c) 4100
(d) 3800
(e) 4284
50. 3 5 13 43 177 ?
(a) 723
(b) 645
(c) 930
(d) 891
(e) 550
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Refer to the pie-charts and answer the given questions.
51. What is the average number of Dell laptops sold by stores P, R and S together?
(a) 424
(b) 432
(c) 428
(d) 454
(e) 436
52. What is the central angle corresponding to number of Dell laptops sold by store S?
(a) 29.4°
(b) 38.6°
(c) 36.2°
(d) 32.4°
(e) 30.8°
53. Number of Dell laptops sold by store Q is approximately what percent of the number of the number of laptops (both Dell and Lenovo) sold by store R?
(a) 28%
(b) 45%
(c) 50%
(d) 38%
(e) 32%
54. What is the difference between number of laptops (both Dell and Lenovo) sold by store Q and total number of Lenovo laptops sold by store R and S together?
(a) 185
(b) 99
(c) 91
(d) 119
(e) 107
55. Number of Dell laptops sold b y store T is what percent more than the number of laptops sold by store P?
(a) 30%
(b) 45%
(c) 40%
(d) 42.5%
(e) 35%
56. A and B started a business with initial investments in the respective ratio of 18 : 7. After four months from the start of the business, A invest Rs 2000 more and B invested Rs 7000 more. At the end of one year, if the profit was distributed among them in the ratio of 2 : 1 respectively, what was the total initial investment with which A and B started the business?
(a) Rs 50000
(b) Rs 25000
(c) Rs 150000
(d) Rs 75000
(e) Rs 125000
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-61) In these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.
Given answer
(a) if x> y (b) if x < y
(c) if x ≥ y (d) if x ≤ y
(e) if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
57. (I) x2 – 4x – 12 = 0
(II) y2 – 5y – 14 = 0
58. (I) 3x2 – 22x + 40 = 0
(II) 5y2 – 21y + 16 = 0
59. (I) 25x2 + 35x + 12 = 0
(II) 10y2 + 9y + 2 = 0
60. (I) 12x2 + 7x + 1 = 0
(II) 6y2 + 5y + 1 = 0
61. (I) 3x2 – 13x – 10 = 0
(II) 3y2 + 10y – 8 = 0
62. The respective ratio between the monthly salaries of Rene and Som is 5 : 3. Out of her monthly salary Rene gives 1/6th as rent, 1/5th to her mother, 30% as her education loan and keeps 25% aside for miscellaneous expenditure. Remaining Rs 5000 she keeps as savings. What is Som’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs 21000
(b) Rs 24000
(c) Rs 27000
(d) Rs 36000
(e) Rs 18000
Directions (Q. Nos. 63-67) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
3
63. What is the respective ratio of total number of calories burned by A and B together on Wednesday and that by the same individuals together on Tuesday?
(a) 45 : 59
(b) 43 : 57
(c) 41 : 57
(d) 43 : 61
(e) 47 : 61
64. If the number of calories burned by A and B increased by 10% and 20% respectively from Friday to Saturday, what was the total number of calories burned by them together on Saturday?
(a) 378
(b) 372
(c) 368
(d) 384
(e) 364
65. What is the total number of calories burned by A in Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday together?
(a) 425
(b) 440
(c) 430
(d) 445
(e) 435
66. If the average number of calories burned by B on Thursday, Friday and Saturday together is 125, what was the number of calories burned by B on Saturday?
(a) 110
(b) 95
(c) 115
(d) 90
(e) 105
67. Number of calories burned by B increased by what percent from Monday to Thursday?
(a) 80%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%
(e) 65%
68. A project requires 12 women to complete it in 16 days. 12 women started working and after a few days from the start of the project, 4 women left. If the remaining project was completed in 18 days, in how many days the whole project was completed?
(a) 
(b) 26 days
(c) 22 days
(d) 
(e) 20 days
Directions (Q. Nos. 69-73) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
This data is regarding number of Junior College students, Graduate students and Post-Graduate (PG) students only, studying in colleges A, B, C and D.
The respective ratio between the total number of students studying in the colleges A, B, C and D is 3 : 5 : 2 : 5. In college A, 40% of the total number of students is Junior College students. Out of the remaining, the respective ratio between the number of Graduate students and number of PG graduates is 5 : 4.
In college B, 2/5th of the total number of students are Junior College students. Out of the remaining, the respective ratio between the number of Graduate students and number of PG students is 3 : 2. In college C, 50% of the total number of students is Junior College students. Out of the remaining, 5/8th are Graduate students and the remaining are PG students.
In College D, 35% of the total number of students is Graduate students, 8/13th of the remaining students are Junior College students and the rest 1500 are PG students.
69. What is the respective ratio between the total number of Graduate students in College A and the total number of Graduate students in College B?
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 9
(c) 7 : 15
(d) 9 : 20
(e) 9 : 5
70. What is the difference between the total number of PG students in College A and B together and that in College C and D together?
(a) 320
(b) 340
(c) 450
(d) 260
(e) 280
71. Number of Graduate students in College D are what percent more than the number of Graduate students in College C?
(a) 140%
(b) 200%
(c) 150%
(d) 180%
(e) 175%
72. What is the average of total number of Junior College students in College A, B and C together?
(a) 1585
(b) 1680
(c) 1640
(d) 1565
(e) 1660
73. What percent of the total number of students in College C are Junior College students?
(a) 45%
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 35%
(e) 32.25%
74. A man takes 2.2 times as long to row a distance upstream as to row the same distance downstream. If he can row 55 km downstream in 2 hours 30 minutes, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 40 km/h
(b) 8 km/h
(c) 16 km/h
(d) 24 km/h
(e) 32 km/h
Directions (Q. Nos. 75-79) Study the table and answer the given questions.
Note
(I) Ne revenue = Gross revenue – Amount allocated for commission – Amount allocated for discount and others
(II) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by −). A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value. If it is required to answer the given questions, on the basis of the given data and the information.
75. In July, if 40% of the Gross revenue of the magazine was collected from advertisement, what was the amount of Gross revenue collected from advertisement in that particular month?
(a) Rs 148000
(b) Rs 164000
(c) Rs 144000
(d) Rs 172000
(e) Rs 156000
76. In March, if Net revenue of the magazine was 85% of its Gross revenue, what was the amount allocated for discount and others?
(a) Rs 23200
(b) Rs 24200
(c) Rs 22400
(d) Rs 22800
(e) Rs 21600
77. Amount allocated for commission in March is what percent less than amount allocated for commission in July?
(a) 24%
(b) 18%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
(e) 22%
78. What is the difference between Net revenue of the magazine in April and its Gross revenue in June?
(a) Rs 132000
(b) Rs 126000
(c) Rs 118000
(d) Rs 124000
(e) Rs 136000
79. In May, the respective ratio of amount allocated for commission and amount allocated for discount and others was 4 : 3. What was the Gross revenue of the magazine in May?
(a) Rs 424000
(b) Rs 440000
(c) Rs 380000
(d) Rs 420000
(e) Rs 430000
80. Two equal circles are drawn in square in such a way that a side of the square forms diameter of each circle. If the remaining area of the square is 42 cm2, how much will the diameter of the circle measures?
(a) 3.5 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 7.5 cm
(e) 21 cm
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuations, if any)
81. The economy is even weaker than it looks at first sight since official government figures show that investment and consumption lower than expected?
(a) The economy is even weaker than
(b) it looks at first sight
(c) since official government figures show that
(d) investment and consumption lower than expected
(e) No error
82. The popular misconception is that corruption in sports is harmless as it is a victimless crime which can overlook.
(a) The popular misconception is that
(b) corruption in sports is harmless as
(c) it is a victimless crime
(d) which can overlook
(e) No error
83. According to a consultant, big dams and hydropower offer great potential and can provide about 16% of Africa’s power by 2040 compared to solar power which will provide only about 10%.
(a) According to a consultant, big dams and
(b) hydropower offer great potential and can provide
(c) about 16% of Africa’s power by 2040
(d) compared to solar power which will provide only about 10%
(e) No error
84. Many of the services which were once delivered on branches such as international transfers or personal loans are now being offered by new generation financial technology firms.
(a) Many of the services which were once
(b) delivered on branches such as
(c) international transfers or personal loans are now
(d) being offered by new generation financial technology firms
(e) No error
85. A system of secure employment and performance appraisal that are linked to age not performance have caused many Japanese firms to tail.
(a) A system of secure employment
(b) and performance appraisal that are linked
(c) to age not performance
(d) have caused many Japanese firms to tail
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Rearrange the following sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence to make a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.
(A) In general, African nations have limited exposure, because they still price their goods in American dollars.
(B) So, while there is no immediate impact, in the medium, to long-term, the sales of African commodities and African currencies could take a knock because of this lowered demand.
(C) The immediate impact of the devaluation of the Yuan cannot be seen or measured, but countries that have taken steps to transact in Chinese money could see pressure on their own local currencies.
(D) Therefore, the sale of commodities such as platinum, copper or coal may become more expensive, which could reduce demand.
(E) If the Yuan is devalued buying anything priced in dollars becomes pricier for the Chinese.
(F) Nonetheless as China is now the biggest customer they could feel the pinch indirectly.
86. Which of the following should THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) D
(e) E
87. Which of the following should LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) D
(d) C
(e) E
88. Which of the following should FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) D
89. Which of the following should FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
90. Which of the following should SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In the following sentences there are two blanks for which options have been given. Choose the most appropriate option.
91. The natural oils …………. in roses help ……. the moisture in the skin.
(a) built; arrest
(b) found; retain
(c) witnessed; place
(d) full; absorb
(e) abundant; salvages
92. Parents must never …………… their children to play with catapults or augurs, as these so called toys can also ……….. harm to humans accidentally.
(a) let; affect
(b) sanction; prefer
(c) authorize; result
(d) permit; peace
(e) allow; cause
93. The city police has ……….. a meeting of various mandals organizing festivals, to ………….. them of directives on the sound limit.
(a) called; update
(b) organized; convey
(c) summoned; acquaint
(d) found; full
(e) need; place
94. When the traffic unit ………… multiple complaints about illegal parking, the police ………… penalties on the defaulters.
(a) received; exposed
(b) got; gave
(c) endorsed; levied
(d) collected; posed
(e) issued; created
95. …………. the cobra was safely released into the wild, the injured eagle had to be ………… .
(a) While; hospitalized
(b) Although; released
(c) Since; sent
(d) Despite; caged
(e) When; constricted
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-105) Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Virtual currencies are growing in popularity. While the collective value of virtual currencies is still a fraction of t he total US Dollars in circulation, the use of virtual currencies as a payment mechanism of transfer of value is gaining momentum. Additionally, the number of entities (issuers, exchangers and intermediaries, to name just a few) that engage in virtual currency transactions is increasing and these entities often need access to traditional banking services.
Virtual currencies are digital representations of value that function as a medium of exchange, a u nit of account and a store of value (buy now redeem later policy). In many cases, virtual currencies are ‘convertible’ currencies; they are not legal lenders, but they have an equivalent value in real currency. Despite what seems to be a tremendous interest in virtual currencies their overall value is still extremely small relative to other payment mechanisms, such as cash, checks and credit and debit cards. The virtual currency landscape includes many participants from the merchant that accepts the virtual currency, to the intermediary that exchanges the virtual currency on behalf of the merchant, to the exchange that actually converts the virtual currency to the real currency to the electronic wallet provider that holds the virtual currency on behalf of its owner. Accordingly, opportunities abound for community banks to provide services to entities engaged in virtual currency activities. Eventually, it is also possible that community banks may find themselves holding virtual currency on their own balance sheets. Launched in 2009, Silicon is currently the largest and most popular virtual currency. However, many other virtual currencies have emerged over the past few years, such as Litecoin, Dogecoin, Peercoin and thse provide even more anonymity to its users than that provided by Bitcoin. As the virtual currency landscape is fraught with dangers, what important risks should community bankers consider?
The most significant is compliance risk-a subset of legal risk. Specifically, virtual currency administrators or legal exchangers may present risks similar to other money transmitters, as well in presenting their own unique risks. Quite simply, many users of virtual currencies do so because of the perceptions that transaction conducted using virtual currencies are anonymous. The less-than transparent nature of the transactions, may make it more difficult for a financial institution to truly know and understand the activities of its customer and whether the customer’s activities are legal. Therefore, these transactions may present a higher risk for banks and require additional due diligence and monitoring. Another important risk for community banks to consider is credit risk. How should a community bank respond if a borrower wants to specifically post Bitcoin or another virtual currency as collateral for a loan? For many, virtual currencies are simply another form of cash, so it is not hard to analyze that bankers will face such a scenario at some point. IN this case, caution is appropriate. Bankers should carefully weigh the pros and cons of extending any loan secured by Bitcoin or other virtual currencies (in whole or in part), or where the source of loan repayment is in some way dependent on the virtual currency.
For one, the value of Bitcoin in particular has been volatile. Then, the collateral value could fluctuate widely from day-to-day. Bankers also need to think about over the account. How does the banker control access to a virtual wallet, and how can it control the borrower’s access to the virtual wallet? In the event of a loan default, the bank would need to take control of the virtual currency. This would require access to the borrower’s virtual wallet and private key. All of this suggests that the loan agreement needs to be carefully crafted and that additional steps need to be taken to ensure the bank has a perfected left on the virtual currency. Virtual currencies bring with them, both opportunities and challenges, and they are likely here to stay. Although, it is too early to determine just how prevalent they will be in the coming years, we to expect that the virtual participants in the virtual currency ecosystem will increasingly intersect with the banking industry.
96. Which of the following is the meaning of the phrase ‘fraught with dangers’ is mentioned in the passage?
(a) Healthy
(b) Tensed
(c) Evil
(d) Risky
(e) Stable
97. Which of the following is most nearly the most opposite in meaning to the word ‘volatile’ as used in the passage?
(a) Suitable
(b) Expensive
(c) Temporary
(d) Delicate
(e) Suitable
98. Which of the following can be a suitable title for the passage?
(a) Why virtual currencies work well in developing countries
(b) Virtual currency and risk involved in its employment.
(c) Reasons to convert real currency into virtual currency
(d) Role of participants involved in handling real currency
(e) Virtual Currency – An exercise in futility
99. As mentioned in the passage, banks may face which of t he following while dealing with virtual currencies?
(A) Since these transactions are largely untraceable, virtual currencies may be misused for criminal activities.
(B) The price of virtual currencies including Bitcoin is subject to significant fluctuations.
(C) There are few designated ATMs from which one can withdraw such currencies.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) B and C
100. The author in the given passage
(a) criticizes community banks which cater to consumers handling virtual currencies
(b) wants to do completely do away with real currency
(c) is optimize but cautious about the three employment of virtual currencies.
(d) urges the government of his country to take legal action against those involved in virtual currencies.
(e) is upset over the present economic situation in his country.
101. As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is/are the characteristics of virtual currencies?
(A) They are equivalent in value to other payment mechanisms.
(B) They cannot be destroyed.
(C) They can be used as later date as a medium of exchange.
(a) Only A
(b) B and C
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) A and B
102. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘gaining’ as used in the passage?
(a) Attaining
(b) Withdrawing
(c) Highlighting
(d) Talking
(e) Increasing
103. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘crafted’ as used in the passage?
(a) Designed
(b) Stitched
(c) Stoned
(d) Stack
(e) Divulged
104. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Most entities such as money exchangers do not access to traditional banking services.
(b) The value of virtual currencies is more than that of the real currency.
(c) Bitcoin provides most privacy in comparison to recently introduced virtual currencies.
(d) Community banks can play a crucial while catering to entities engaged in dealing with virtual currencies.
(e) None of the given statements is true.
105. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word’ anonymity’ as used in the passage?
(a) Ambiguity
(b) Surface
(c) Beauty
(d) Darkness
(e) Visibility
Directions (Q. Nos. 106-110) In these question below a part of the sentence is printed in bold type. The part printed in bold type contain an error. Below each sentence four phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given. One the these can substitute the part of the sentence in bold type to correct it. The letter of that part is the answer. If the part of the sentence, which is printed in bold type, is correct as it is, mark (e), i.e., ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
106. The cricketers admitted that they were practicing hard for the last six months.
(a) had practiced hard for
(b) had been practicing hard by
(c) had been practicing hard for
(d) had been practiced hardly
(e) No correction required
107. Had he taken the medicine regularly, he would have felt better much quicker.
(a) felt better more quickly
(b) feeling better much quicker
(c) been felt better more quickly
(d) felt much better and quicker
(e) No correction required
108. The number of cheating and forgery cases in disguise of running private commercial establishments has increased significantly.
(a) disguising as
(b) under the guise of
(c) in guise of
(d) disguised in
(e) No correction required
109. It is not very difficult to dishing out a simple recipe for your child’s lunchbox.
(a) for dishing about
(b) to dish out
(c) in order to dish
(d) to out dish
(e) No correction required
110. The city’s IT hub isn’t just decoding data or counting its export figures these days, but is rather aggressively beefed up ex-security both online and offline.
(a) beefing
(b) beef up
(c) is beefing up
(d) was beefing zup
(e) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-120) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words in each case.
After spending time and efforts to stabilize rural incomes in the face of plummeting agricultural prices, Thailand’s government has now banned its attention to dealing with unfair lending practices. This is part of a wider (111) set in motion to reform State dominated rural credit markets. Thailand has made great strides in (112) access to financial services. 73% of the population now has a bank account and only 3% has no access (113) to formal finance. But lending by loan sharks has proved hard to stamp out. One reason is that Thais like to keep things informal the country’s shadow economy (114) for more than 50% of GDP-the highest in Asia. Household borrowing as a share of national income in Thailand now (115) at 68% of GDP, much higher than other middle income countries such as China (20%), India (16%) and Indonesia (17%). To make the matter (116) for loan sharks, the governments wants to strap an interest ceiling that has been in place for sixty years. The cap (117) registered non-bank lenders from changing more than 28% per year (including a 13% service charge). The idea is to encourage non-banks to provide formal credit to poor households. (118) institutions are typically community based groups founded by the Ministry of Inferior, NGOs, local governments and monks. The cap means that it is not (119) for these groups to get into rural lending. Thailand is a vast country and delivering financial services in remote areas is costly. A Thai loan shark typically (120) two lending schemes – a borrower can just pay interest of 2% per day every day for 24 days or repay the principle plus 2% daily interest in equal installments. Both re terrible deals and switching from a loan shark to a sound financial institution can save a household as much as $ 100000 per month.
111.
(a) gap
(b) spaces
(c) effort
(d) distance
(e) confusion
112.
(a) give
(b) insisting
(c) inhibiting
(d) improving
(e) ignoring
113.
(a) service
(b) whether
(c) instead
(d) whatsoever
(e) further
114.
(a) totals
(b) value
(c) equivalent
(d) made
(e) accounts
115.
(a) reach
(b) stands
(c) fallen
(d) arrive
(e) received
116.
(a) better
(b) worse
(c) difficult
(d) easy
(e) cozmplicated
117.
(a) allow
(b) prohibits
(c) tries
(d) interferes
(e) confusion
118.
(a) These
(b) Which
(c) Its
(d) Through
(e) When
119.
(a) economical
(b) necessity
(c) essentially
(d) rich
(e) successfully
120.
(a) other
(b) have
(c) choose
(d) opts
(e) profit
Part 4 General Awareness
121. The majority stakeholder in the capital of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) is
(a) Insurance/Mutual Fund companies
(b) Central government
(c) Sponsor Bank
(d) Corporates/Individuals
(e) State government
122. Recently launched ‘Nai Manzil’ scheme is aimed at
(a) provision of Mid-day Meals in schools
(b) development of weaker sections housing
(c) research and development in science
(d) providing employment opportunities to visually impaired
(e) skill development among minority communities
123. The ‘Madison Square Garden’ is situated in the city of
(a) London (United kingdom)
(b) Canberra (Australia)
(c) New York City (USA)
(d) Paris (France)
(e) Ottawa (Canada)
124. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) code is a character recognition technology used mainly be the
(a) insurance industry
(b) banking industry
(c) stoke brokerages
(d) mutual fund industry
(e) investment brokerage
125. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently granted a license to Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) to set-up a payments bank. For this purpose, the RIL has entered into a partnership with
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Union Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Central Bank of India
(e) ICICI Bank
126. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently allowed 11 business houses to start payments banks. These banks are not permitted to
(a) offer debit cards/internet banking facilities
(b) hold a balance of up to Rs 1 lakh per individual
(c) accept NRI deposits
(d) set-up branches, ATMs
(e) distributed mutual fund insurance products
127. Indian Railways and LIC of India have recently signed a Memorandum of Understandings wherein over the next five years LIC will make insurance to the Ministry of Railways/its entities a financial assistance of up to
(a) Rs 115000 crore
(b) Rs 125000 crore
(c) Rs 110000 crore
(d) Rs 100000 crore
(e) Rs 150000 crore
128. The 18th Asian Games also known as ‘Asiad’ shall be held in 2018 in
(a) Bangkok (Thailand)
(b) Jakarta (Indonesia)
(c) Beijing (China)
(d) Seoul (South Africa)
(e) Tokyo (Japan)
129. The government of India has recently (August, 2015) released a Rs 5 postal stamp in honour of the Indian emperor
(a) Chandragupta
(b) Vikramaditya
(c) Ashoka
(d) Maharana Pratap
(e) Bindusara
130. UCO Bank is a government owned bank with its headquarters at
(a) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(c) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(d) Kolkata (West Bengal)
(e) New Delhi (Delhi)
131. The ‘World Penumonia Day’ is observed every year on
(a) November 12
(b) August 16
(c) September 16
(d) October 8
(e) August 28
132. The amount allocated in the Union Budget 2015-16 to the corpus of Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) set-up with NABARD is
(a) Rs 15000 crore
(b) Rs 10000 crore
(c) Rs 20000 crore
(d) Rs 8000 crore
(e) Rs 25000 crore
133. The ‘Aravali Range’ literally meaning ‘Line of Peaks’ is a range of mountains in Western India running through the States of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Delhi
(d) West Bengal
(e) Madhya Pradesh
134. Bank customers can transfer money to anyone without knowing the Bank account details of the beneficiary through ‘mCASH’. A money transfer tool recently launched by
(a) Union Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Corporation Bank
(e) Bank of India
135. Finance Minister in 2015-16 Budget has stated that quoting PAN would be mandatory for all sale and purchase transactions of over
(a) Rs 25000
(b) Rs 100000
(c) Rs 300000
(d) Rs 50000
(e) Rs 500000
136. A New Bank Note Paper Line with an annual capacity of 6000 tonnes has recently been inaugurated at the Security Paper Mill (SPM) in
(a) Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh)
(b) Nasik (Maharashtra)
(c) Hoshangabad (Madhya Pradesh)
(d) Navi Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(e) Mysore (Karnataka)
137. In the first such tie-up of its kind, Kishore Biyani’s ‘Future Group’ will manage the overall Public distribution system and management of ration shops in Indian State of
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Haryana
138. The ‘Veer Savarkar International Airport’ is also known as
(a) Port Blair Airport
(b) Chennai Airport
(c) Nagpur Airport
(d) Kochi Airport
(e) Goa Airport
139. Who among the following headed the Jury to select India’s official entry for the 88th Academy Awards?
(a) Amol Palekar
(b) Rakhi Gulzar
(c) Subhash Ghai
(d) Deepa Mehta
(e) Mahesh Bhatt
140. As per Census 2011, the most populous State in the country with a population of around 200 million, is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Madhya Pradesh
141. The first-ever hydropower plant in Delhi which will be run through hydraulic turbines propested by effluent from a produce 20000 kwh of electricity per year has recently been commissioned by
(a) Delhi Transport Corporation
(b) Delhi Vidyut Board
(c) Delhi Jal Board
(d) Delhi University
(e) Delhi Metro Corporation
142. While addressing the National banking Summit recently organized by IBA and FCCI, the RBI Governor Dr. Raghuram Rajan has stated India has forex reserves of around
(a) $ 880 billion
(b) $ 580 billion
(c) $ 3200 billion
(d) $ 520 billion
(e) $ 886 billion
143. The Minister of State for Water Resources in the Union Cabinet is
(a) Thawal Chand Gehlot
(b) Chaudhary Bireder Singh
(c) Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi
(d) Giriraj Singh
(e) Sanwar Lal Jat
144. The five BRICS countries represent over 3 billion people or
(a) 42% of world population
(b) 32% of world population
(c) 52% of world population
(d) 22% of world population
(e) 47% of world population
145. The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), is
(a) National Security Advisor
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief of DRDO
(d) Home Minister of India
(e) Director General of CISF
146. The host of the 24th Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHoGM) 2015 is
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Malaysia
(d) Mauritius
(e) Malta
147. The ‘Article-14’ of the Indian Constitution specifies the
(a) equality in matters of public employment
(b) right to equal access to public places
(c) right to freedom
(d) right to equality before law
(e) right to social equality
148. The author of the non-fiction book ‘Making India Awesome’ is
(a) Kiran Desai
(b) Vikram Seth
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Chetan Bhagat
(e) Robinson Mistry
149. Which of the following institutions is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) ARCIL
(b) DICGC
(c) ARSEC
(d) CIBIL
(e) ONICRA
150. Under the NITI Aayog, ‘Regional Councils’ will be formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one State of a region. These councils will be chaired by
(a) Home Minister of India or his nominee
(b) Chief Minister for the respective State
(c) Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog or his nominee
(d) Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee
(e) Ministry of Finance or his nominee
151. Under the ‘Digital India’ initiative, the government of India has recently launched a health service called Social Endeavour for Health and Telemedicine (SEHAT) in association with
(a) Narayana Health Services
(b) Apollo Hospitals
(c) Escorts Hospitals
(d) Fortis Hospitals
(e) Max Healthcare
152. ‘Bandhan Bank’ was recently been launched as a
(a) scheduled cooperative bank
(b) scheduled local area bank
(c) scheduled local area bank
(d) scheduled regional rural bank
(e) scheduled commercial bank
153. The government of Andhra Pradesh has recently announced a comprehensive development plan in association with of 264 smart villages in
(a) Nellore Parliamentary constituency
(b) Tripura Parliamentary constituency
(c) Vijaywada Parliamentary constituency
(d) Vishakhapatnam Parliamentary constituency
(e) Anantapur Parliamentary constituency
154. Which of the following is the official currency and legal tender of Italy?
(a) Peso
(b) Euro
(c) Franc
(d) Casa
(e) Dinar
155. The capital of Sweden is
(a) Paris
(b) London
(c) Stockholm
(d) Geneva
(e) Oslo
156. Shiv Prakash Mishra who was been named to receive the prestigious Dhyan Chand Award for lifetime achievement is associated with which game?
(a) Tennis
(b) Golf
(c) Hockey
(d) Athletics
(e) Football
157. India has recently signed a Memorandum of Understandings for the construction of the petroleum pipeline to export petroleum products to
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
(e) Myanmar
158. ’31 October’ commemorated as the ‘National Unity Day’ to mark the birth anniversary of the
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(e) Madan Mohan Malviya
159. The ‘Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh International Cricket Stadium’ is located in the Indian State of
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Assam
(e) Madhya Pradesh
160. The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized agency of United Nations with 171 Member States three Associate Members. It is headquartered in
(a) London (United Kingdom)
(b) New York (USA)
(c) Washington DC (USA)
(d) Geneva (Switzerland)
(e) Paris (France)
Part V Computer Knowledge
161. Usually, installation files have the extension
(a) .jpeg
(b) .gif
(c) .exe
(d) .doc
(e) .bng
162. ……….. tags on goods enable the tracking of the good electronically
(a) ASTM
(b) GPS
(c) RFID
(d) ISP
(e) IMB
163. Devices, such as monitors and printers, that are connected to the computer are called
(a) processing devices
(b) system devices
(c) input devices
(d) peripheral devices
(e) attachment devices
164. RAM is considered volatile storage, which means it is
(a) random
(b) optional
(c) permanent
(d) read only
(e) temporary
165. Which of the following do digital signatures provide?
(a) Confidentiality and integrity of data
(b) Confidentiality
(c) Authentication and confidentiality of data
(d) Authentication and integrity of data
(e) Authentication and availability of data
166. If you copy and paste a file
(a) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is not created
(b) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is created
(c) the original file is deleted and the new file is created
(d) the original file is removed and new file is not created
(e) the file gets scanned
167. An internet technology environment that sends information to a u ser without an explicit request from t he u ser, is
(a) Infoware
(b) Push
(c) Pull
(d) F202C
(e) Wiki
168. Any ……… appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked.
(a) heading
(b) hyperlink
(c) URL
(d) reference
(e) anchor
169. Which of the following is the correct sequence, the unit of digital information, smallest to largest?
(a) Kilobyte, Gigabyte, Megabyte, Terabyte
(b) Megabyte, Terabyte, Kilobyte, Gigabyte
(c) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Terabyte, Gigabyte
(d) Megabyte, Kilobyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte
(e) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Gigabyte, Terabyte
170. Which of the following will you consider as most secure?
(a) Log-in phrase
(b) Log-in numeral
(c) Password
(d) Log-in ID
(e) One time Password
171. …………. are specially designed computers that perform complex calculation extremely rapidly.
(a) Supercomputers
(b) Servers
(c) Mainframes
(d) Desktops
(e) Laptops
172. Which of the following refers to programs stored in ROM?
(a) Hardware
(b) Programme efforts
(c) Firmware
(d) Peripheral
(e) Software
173. Which of the following refers to restarting the system when it is already powered on?
(a) A strong boot
(b) A warm boot
(c) A cold boot
(d) Hibernation
(e) Standby mode
174. ………….. bits equal one byte.
(a) Eight
(b) One thousand
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) One million
175. A (n) …………. analyzes and executes each one of the source code in succession, without looking at the entire program.
(a) operating system
(b) computer
(c) interpreter
(d) utility
(e) device driver
176. In a microcomputer system, the CPU is contained on a single chip called the
(a) ROM
(b) Control Unit
(c) ALU
(d) Semiconductors
(e) Microprocessor
177. An EULA in computing stands for
(a) End-use License Arrangement
(b) Environmental Use Licensing Agreement
(c) End-Use License Agreement
(d) Everyday-User Learning Assistance
(e) Employee Use Legal Arrangement
178. Storage that retains its data after the power is turned off, is referred to as
(a) sequential storage
(b) non-volatile storage
(c) volatile storage
(d) direct storage
(e) non-destructive storage
179. The individual dots that form the image on a monitor are called
(a) bits
(b) bytes
(c) pixels
(d) picas
(e) pitens
180. Which of the following is an electronic or paper log used to track computer activity?
(a) Weblog
(b) Traceroute
(c) Monitor
(d) Cookie
(e) Internet trait
181. FTP in computing stands for
(a) File Transfer Project
(b) File Tagging Program
(c) File Transfer Program
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) File Tagging Protocol
182. In the e-mail address [email protected], ‘abc’ is the
(a) user name
(b) password
(c) client computer
(d) server name
(e) Other than those given as options
183. If you change Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP, you are actually performing a(n)
(a) push up
(b) pull down
(c) patch
(d) upgrade
(e) update
184. Security procedures can
(a) reduce but not eliminate risks
(b) be inaccessible for the average home user
(c) eliminate all computer security risks
(d) dissuade computer usage
(e) Other than those given as options
185. ……….. refers to the unauthorized copying and distribution and software.
(a) Software piracy
(b) Plagiarism
(c) Hacking
(d) Software literacy
(e) Cracking
186. Which of the following refers to an upside down mouse?
(a) Trackwell
(b) Trackboard
(c) Trackball
(d) Trackpoint
(e) Trackpad
187. Which of the following users tunneling protocol to securely send private network data over the internet?
(a) VPN
(b) WAN
(c) LAN
(d) GPS
(e) Other than those given as options
188. Which of the following devices sends and receives data over telephone lines to and from computers?
(a) Sound Card
(b) Speaker
(c) Expansion Slot
(d) Printer
(e) Modem
189. Which of the following refers to a technique for intercepting computer communications?
(a) Phishing
(b) Spoofing
(c) Pretexting
(d) Hacking
(e) Sniffing
190. The potential impact of a threat on a system is called as its
(a) Danger potential
(b) Degree of harm
(c) Susceptibility
(d) Vulnerabilities
(e) Countermeasures
191. Which technology allows users to shift their desktop computing activities to computers on the internet?
(a) Cloud computing
(b) Solid-state storage
(c) Distributed database
(d) Centralized database
(e) Other than those given as options
192. Converting the computer language of 1s to 0s to characters that a person can understand is called
(a) Generating
(b) Decoding
(c) Selecting
(d) Creating Clip Art
(e) Other than those given as options
193. The system conversion involves running the old and the new system and comparing their results
(a) pilot conversion
(b) direct conversion
(c) parallel conversion
(d) convergent conversion
(e) phased conversion
194. Every host computer on the Internet has a(n)
(a) unique IP address
(b) unique 10 digit number
(c) similar IP address
(d) unique 15 digit number
(e) Other than those given as options
195. Which of the following is/are effective controls for detecting duplicate transactions such as payments made or received?
(a) Concurrency controls and referential Integrity Controls
(b) Concurrency Controls
(c) Reasonableness Checks
(d) Time Stamps
(e) Referential Integrity Controls
196. Authorization is best characterized as
(a) certifying a user’s authority
(b) providing access to a resource according to the principle of least privilege
(c) ensuring maximum utilization of resources
(d) authenticating a user’s identify with a password
(e) a user providing an identity and a password
197. What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a catastrophic disaster such as a fire or food?
(a) Hot site
(b) Warm site
(c) Disaster recovery cost curve
(d) Buffer plan
(e) Disaster recovery plan
198. TCP/IP stands for
(a) Translation Computing Procedures/International Protocol
(b) Transmitter Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
(c) Transmission Control Procedures/Internet Procedures
(d) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
(e) Transaction Computing Printing/Internet Processing
199. Superscript, Subscript, Outline, Emboss, Engrave are known as
(a) text effects
(b) font effects
(c) word art
(d) clip art
(e) Other than those given as options
200. …………… is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(a) Tiger team
(b) Channel bank
(c) Cluster
(d) Logical unit
(e) Serverless back up
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