Maharashtra Common Entrance Test CET-MBA Held on March 13, 2016
Abstract Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-18) In these questions, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
1. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
2. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
3. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
4. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
5. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
6. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
7. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
8. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
9. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
10. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
11. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
12. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
13. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
14. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
15. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
16. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
17. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
18. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-23) In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to t hat in the original pair. The best possible answer to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
19. 
20. 
21.
22. 
23. 
24. In this question, there are two sets of figures. The figures on the left is problem figures and those on the right are answer figures indicated. A series is established if one of the five answer figure is placed at the ‘question-marked space’. Problem figure from changes from left to right according tom some rule. All these five figures i.e. Four problem figures and one answer figure placed in the question-marked space should be considered as forming the series.
25. In this question , a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs or figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the unnumbered pair. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
Logical Reasoning
26. In this question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the given option is correct.
Statement I Banks in country X have recently decreased the rate of interest on home loans from the present 12 per cent to 10.9 per cent.
Statement II Apex Bank of country X has asked the banks to decrease the base rate, i.e. the minimum rate at which banks lend, by 2%.
(a) Both the statements I and II are the effects of some common cause.
(b) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(c) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(d) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.
(e) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven friends H, I, J, K, L, M and N are seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the same order Some of them are facing North while some are facing South.
K sits third to the left of I. Neither I nor K sits at any of the extreme ends of the line.
Only three people sit between K and M. J sits second to the right of M.
H sits to the immediate left of N. N is not an immediate neighbour of K.
Both the immediate neighbours of L face South.
Both the immediate neighbours of K face a direction opposite to N (i.e. if N faces North, then both the immediate neighbours of K face South and vice-versa)
27. What is the position of N with respect to K?
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Third to the right
28. Who amongst the following sitting at the extreme end of the line, faces North?
(a) H
(b) J
(c) N
(d) L
(e) No one
29. Based on the given statement, which of the following is true with respect to L?
(a) No one sits to the right of L
(b) L sits to immediate right of K
(c) L is one of the immediate neighbours of I
(d) None of the given options is true
(e) Only one person sits between L and H
30. In which of the following pairs are both the persons facing South?
(a) H, J
(b) N, H
(c) H, L
(d) K, J
(e) L, K
31. Who amongst the following sit exactly between K and I?
(a) L, N
(b) H, L
(c) J, N
(d) H, J
(e) I, J
32. Read the following information and answer the question.
High Court of state X has decided to ban an international entrepreneurial an international entrepreneurial programme which was rescheduled to be launched by the State Government near sea shore of the state.
Which of the following statements does not weaken the decision taken by the High Court of State X?
(a) Scheduling the programme at any other place of the state rather than the sea shore will create a lot of chase for general public due to heavy traffic on roads
(b) Entrepreneurial programmes require making of dummy structures which are later dismantled thereby causing environmental problems
(c) The entrepreneurial programme will help State X in attracting foreign investment thereby boosting the economy of the state
(d) Many small entrepreneurs will benefit from the entrepreneurial programme by learning new skills and understanding business dimensions
(e) Few national level programmes have been conducted in the past by State X near the sea shore for social causes without causing problems to residents
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-39) In these questions, a statement is given followed by two sets of conclusions numbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different elements. You have to assume the statement to be true and then decide of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statement.
33. Statements
L < M ≥ H ≥ G; H ≥ K; G > Z
Conclusions I. K ≤ M II. Z < I
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Only conclusion I follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
34. Statements
P ≥ W ≥ R < T; W ≥ L; R > K
Conclusions I. L < T II. W > K
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Only conclusion I follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
35. Statements
G > H ≤ L ≤ T; R ≤ L ≤ N
Conclusions I. R = T II. T > R
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Both I and II follow
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
36. Statements
P ≥ W ≥ R < T; W ≥ L; R > K
Conclusions I. P ≥ L II T < P
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Only conclusion I follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
37. Statements
N ≥ U < R ≤ D; R < S; J ≤ U
Conclusions I. J < D II. D > S
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Only conclusion I follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
38. Statements
L < M ≥ H ≥ G; H ≥ K; G > Z
Conclusions I. K ≥ G II. L < G
(a) Neither I nor II follows
(b) Both I and II follow
(c) Only conclusion I follows
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only conclusion II follows
39. Statements
N ≥ U < R ≤ D; R < S; J ≤ U
Conclusions I. D ≥ J II. J < S
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both I and II follow
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Either I or II follows
40. This question consists of an information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the information and decide the appropriate answer.
Information The government of state D is contemplating the inclusion of practical learning as a part of curriculum for students studying in the arts stream, which will have 50% weightage in marks.
I. The understanding of practical learning in arts streams could be very subjective and as a result the scoring will change depending on the views of the evaluator.
II. For many subjects in the arts stream it is very difficult to design the curriculum for practical learning and most teachers disagree about what should be included as a part of the curriculum.
(a) Statement I strengthen the information while statement II weakens the information
(b) Both statement I and II are neutral statements
(c) Both statement I and statement II weaken the information
(d) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the information
(e) Both statement I and statement II strengthen the information
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-47) In this question, two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
41. Statements
Some levels are planes.
All planes are distances.
No distance is a size.
Conclusions
I. All sizes planets is a possibility.
II. No level is a size.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
42. Statements
Some sales are targets.
No target is a goal.
Conclusions
I. Some targets are definitely not sales.
II. Some goals are definitely not sales.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
43. Statements
No object is a subject.
All subjects are topics.
All topics are aims.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some objects are aims.
IIAll topics can never be objects.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
44. Statements
All discounts are cuts.
Some cuts are rebates.
All rebates are prices.
Conclusions
I. No rebate is a discount.
II. Some rebates are discounts.
(a) Either conclusion I or II is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Only conclusion I is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
45. Statements
All the locks are keys.
All the keys are bats.
Some watches are bats.
Conclusions
I. Some bats are locks.
II. Some watches are keys.
III. All the keys are locks.
(a) Only conclusion I and II are true
(b) Only conclusion I is true
(c) Only conclusion II is true
(d) Only conclusion I and II are true
(e) All the conclusions are true
All the conclusions are true
46. Statements
Some mangoes are yellow.
Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions
I. Some mangoes are green.
II. Tixo is a yellow
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
47. Statements
Some papers are pens.
Conclusions
I. Some pens are pencils.
II. Some pens are papers.
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
48. If G is the son of H, H is the daughter of T, B is the brother of T and P is married to H, then which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) P is the father of G.
(b) H is the daughter of B.
(c) G is the only child of his parents.
(d) T has no sister.
(e) T is the mother-in-law of P.
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-54) Study the given information and answer the questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input the of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers.)
Input metal 54 title 97 25 vision quest 68n fierce 39 battle 81
Step I vision metal 54 title 97 quest 68 fierce 39 battle 81 25
Step II 39 vision metal 54 97 quest 68 fierce battle 81 25 title
Step III quest 39 vision metal 97 68 fierce battle 81 25 title 54
Step IV 68 quest 39 vision 97 fierce battle 81 25 title 54 metal
Step V fierce 68 quest 39 vision 97 battle 25 title 54 metal 81
Step VI 97 fierce 68 quest 39 vision 25 title 54 metals 81 battle
Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input 63 45 fault 13 caught imprison 76 51 till hang 27 death.
49. Which element will appear exactly between the fifth element from the left and the sixth element from the right in step III of the given input?
(a) Both ’51’ and ‘caught’
(b) Only ‘fault’
(c) Both ‘76’ and ‘death’
(d) Only ‘caught’
(e) Only ‘51’
50. Which is the ninth element form the right end in step II of the given input?
(a) 76
(b) till
(c) fault
(d) hang
(e) 45
51. Following a certain pattern, ‘45’ ‘caught’ in step I and similarly ‘death’ imprison in step IV. Following the same pattern, ‘76’ ‘….’ in step II.
(a) 27
(b) 13
(c) till
(d) fault
(e) hang
52. In Step VI, if the digits in all the numbers are reversed, which element will be fourth to the right of the second largest number thus formed?
(a) 72
(b) hang
(c) fault
(d) 54
(e) other than those given as options
53. In which steps of the given input does ‘76’ appear to the left of ‘caught’?
(a) Only Step IV
(b) Both Step V and VI
(c) Both Step IV and Step V
(d) Only Step III
(e) Only Step VI
54. How many elements will appear between ‘63’ and ‘death’ in Step IV of the given input?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) None
(e) More than three
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q all belonging to the same family are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (with equal distance between each other but not necessarily in the same order.)
O sits second to the left of his wife. Both the immediate neighbours of O are males.
J, the wife of M sits third to the left of P. P is the daughter of Q.
Only one persons sits between J and P’s sister.
Only three people sit between L and N. One of the immediate neighbours of L is married to L.
K is not an immediate neighbour of O.
P’s only child is an immediate neighbour of P. Only two people sit between N and one of N’s parents.
55. Who among the following is N’s mother?
(a) L
(b) P
(c) K
(d) J
(e) Cannot be determined
56. Who sits exactly between O and Q when counted from the left of Q?
(a) L
(b) P
(c) M’s cousin
(d) J
(e) O’s grandmother
57. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(a) K
(b) L
(c) M
(d) N
(e) O
58. Which of the following statements is true as per the given information?
(a) N and M are immediate neighbours of L
(b) O is the father of P
(c) None of the given statements is true
(d) O sits third to the right of P
(e) P sits to the immediate right of her daughter.
59. How is K related to the person who is sitting to immediate left of J?
(a) Son-in-law
(b) Grandmother
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Nephew
(e) Aunt
60. Who amongst the following is K’s sister-in-law?
(a) J
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) L
(e) N
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-67) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between each adjacent persons in row-1, J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing North. In row-2 P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing South. Each of them likes a different fruit namely, Banana, Orange, Guava, Pineapple, Kiwi, Cherry, Mango, Apple, Strawberry and Litchi but not necessarily in the same order.
Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row and each of them likes a different fruit. (Please Note : All the given information is not necessarily in the order) R sits second to the left of S. R does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the row. The one who faces R sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Cherry. Only two people sit between the one who likes Cherry and the one who likes Mango.
The one who faces the one who likes Mango sits third to the right of the one who likes Apple. Only one persons sits between the one who likes apple and the one who likes Litchi. The one who faces of one who likes Litchi sits third to the left of N. Only two people sit between N and M. L faces Q. The one who likes orange sits to the immediate right of Q. The one who likes Strawberry sits second to the left of the one who likes Orange. P sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Guava. The one who likes Kiwi sits to the immediate right of the one who likes Banana. J does not like Mango.
61. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of them does not belong to that group?
(a) J
(b) S
(c) T
(d) K
(e) N
62. Who amongst the following is facing K?
(a) The one who likes Pineapple
(b) The one who likes Guava
(c) R
(d) P
(e) The one who likes Kiwi
63. Who amongst the following is facing T?
(a) N
(b) The one who likes Kiwi
(c) The one who likes Mango
(d) The one who likes Orange
(e) J
64. Which of the following statements is true regarding J?
(a) Only two people sit between J and the one who likes Pineapple
(b) J sits to the immediate right of the one who likes Cherry
(c) None of the given statements is true
(d) On of J’s immediate neighbours faces the one who likes Litchi
(e) J faces one of the immediate neighbours of the one who likes Strawberry
65. What is the position of M with respect to T?
(a) M faces the o ne who sits to the immediate right of T
(b) M faces the one who sits second to the left of T
(c) M faces the one who sits second to the right of T
(d) M faces the one who sits third to right of T
(e) M faces the one who sits to t he immediate left of T
66. What is the position of S with respect to Q?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Third to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) To the immediate right
(e) To the immediate left
67. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group?
(a) Orange-Kiwi
(b) Strawberry-Banana
(c) Apple-Mango
(d) Litchi-Pineapple
(e) Guava-Cherry
Directions (Q. Nos. 68-69) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Radha starts from point F, walks 6 m to the North and reaches point E. She then takes a right turn and walks 5 m. She again takes a right turn, walks for 10 m and reaches point G. She finally takes a right turn and walks 8 m and stops at point D. Medha, who is standing at point N which is 7 m to the West of point F walks 7 m towards South, takes a left turn and walks for 7 m. She finally takes a left turn and after walking for 3.5 m stops at point S.
68. In which direction is point G from point M?
(a) South-West
(b) East
(c) South-East
(d) South
(e) North-East
69. How far and in which direction is Medha’s final position with respect to point F?
(a) 5.5 m towards North
(b) 3.5 m towards West
(c) 7 m towards South
(d) 5 m towards South
(e) 3.5 m towards South
Directions (Q. Nos. 70-76) Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven stores, namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S were launched on seven different days of the same week starting from Monday to Sunday (but not necessarily in the same order). Each store was launched in a different locality namely-Aliganj, Sodaala, Borivali, Saket, Bamrauli, Velupur and Chembur (but not necessarily in the same order).
Stop P was launched on one of the days after Friday. Only three stores were launched between P and the one launched in Saket. Only one store was launched between S and the one launched in Saket. S was not launched on Friday. The store launched in Borivali was launched on the day immediately after S was launched. Only two stores were launched between M and the one launched in Borivali.
The store launched in Aliganj was launched on one of the days before M. S was not launched in Aliganj. O was launched in Bamrauli but not on Sunday. Only three stores were launched between N and the one launched in Bamrauli. The store launched in Sodaala was launched on the day immediately after the store in Chembur was launched. O was not launched on Monday.
70. In which of the following localities was R launched?
(a) Sodaala
(b) Chembur
(c) Velupur
(d) Aliganj
(e) Other than those given as options
71. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Tuesday-R
(b) Sunday-P
(c) Wednesday-O
(d) Monday-M
(e) Saturday-N
72. Which of the following combinations is correct as per the given arrangement?
(a) Tuesday-N-Borivali
(b) Monday-N-Chembur
(c) Saturday-Q-Bamrauli
(d) Thursday-S-Velupur
(e) None of the given options
73. Which of the following pairs represent the stores which was launched immediately before and immediately after S?
(a) R, N
(b) Q, D
(c) O, Q
(d) M, Q
(e) None of these
74. As per the given arrangement, N is related to Friday and Q is related to Monday in a certain way. To which of the following is P related to in the same way?
(a) Sunday
(b) Saturday
(c) Thursday
(d) Wednesday
(e) Tuesday
75. On which of the following days was N launched?
(a) Friday
(b) Monday
(c) Thursday
(d) Tuesday
(e) Sunday
76. Which of the given statements is True as per the given arrangement?
(a) R was launched on Wednesday.
(b) S was launched in Chembur.
(c) Only two stores were launched after M.
(d) Only two stores were launched between P and Q.
(e) None of the given statements is true.
77. Read the given information and answer the given questions.
The HR managers of Company XYZ have been recruiting regularly from college D, however since the past two year the managers of the company have been very unhappy as although its students recruited from College D are very good at work, most of them resign within six to seven months of employment for better salaries?
Which of the following may be the immediate course of action undertaken by the HR manager of company XYZ in order to deal with the situation?
(a) The pay package of recruits of college D should be inclusive of a percentage retention bonus which would be given to employees only after completion of a year
(b) College D must be blacklisted and no student must be recruited from the college
(c) The management of college D must be informed of the situation and should be asked to talk to the students appearing for the interview
(d) The recruits of college D must be asked to sign a bond of minimum five years before being employed
(e) The students of college D should be asked during the interview if they intend to stay with the company for a long time
78. If D is the brother of V, G is t he father of V. S is married to G and P is father of S, then how is D related to P?
(a) Brother
(b) Grandfather
(c) Grandson
(d) Nephew
(e) Cannot be determined
79. Read the following information and answer the given questions.
Bank B in country Z had launched a scheme named ‘Sona Vridhi’ in which customers can deposit gold with t he bank and earn an interest rate higher than the other banks.
However the scheme failed badly.
Which of the following statements can be a reason for the failure of the scheme launched by Bank B?
(a) The scheme has a lock-in period of one of three years and the interest can be redeemed in the form of either gold or cash
(b) The minimum weight of pure gold to be deposited in ‘Sona Vridhi’ is 500 g worth Rs 10 lakhs with no upper limit
(c) The tax levied on interest received from the gold deposits in the scheme is lower as compared to other deposits
(d) ‘Sona Vridhi’ allow individuals to use the deposit in the scheme as a collateral security against loans
(e) Unlike similar gold schemes of other banks ‘Sona Vridhi’ accepts gold jewellery as a deposit along with gold bars and biscuits.
Directions (Q. Nos. 80-84) Read the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain ode language,
‘new series launching soon’ is coded as ‘tk nh mp er’
‘launching fresh adventure series’ is coded as ‘er lo nh wi’
‘results status coming soon’ is coded as ‘bj yu tk fg’
‘coming with fresh results’ is coded as ‘fg wi yu da’
(All codes are two letter codes only)
80. What is the code for ‘new’ in the given code language?
(a) tk
(b) yu
(c) mp
(d) fg
(e) da
81. In the given code language, if ‘result status declared’ is coded as bj xq fg’, then what will be the code for ‘declared fresh coming’ in the given code language?
(a) wi yu lo
(b) er lo xq
(c) xq yu wi
(d) bi wi er
(e) yu xq bj
82. What will be the code for ‘adventure’ in the given code language?
(a) wi
(b) er
(c) lo
(d) yu
(e) Other than those given as options
83. What may be the possible code for ‘soon with lyrics’ in the given code language?
(a) mp er bj
(b) tk vs fg
(c) vs da mp
(d) fg da tk
(e) da tk vs
84. What does the code ‘nh’ stand for the given code language?
(a) either ‘fresh’ or ‘status’
(b) either ‘series’ or ‘launching’
(c) adventure
(d) soon
(e) new
85. If S is married to J, M is the mother of J and K, K is the only daughter of Y and H is the only child of S, then which of the following statements is not definitely true?
(a) H is the grandson of Y
(b) J is the son of M
(c) K is the aunt of H
(d) M is the wife of Y
(e) Y is the father-in-law of S
86. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
‘The variety of faux leather items sold these days have snatched our market. Despite longer durability of real leather, people these days are settling for faux leather only because of their prices and colour options’ – statement by the owner of a leather-items showroom.
Which of the following can be inferred from the owner’s statement?
(Ann inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be true based on known premises.)
(a) Durability is the least important factor that affects the choice of customers while buying leather items
(b) Just lowering the price of real leather by some percentage will attract more customers
(c) Incorporating novel contrast combinations of economic prices will help the market of real leather to revive
(d) The manufacturing cost of real leather and faux leather is more or less same
(e) The texture of faux leather is exactly same as t hat of real leather
87. Read the given information carefully to answer the given question.
‘Paramount Consultants’ have gradually evolved to complete online functioning as compared to the manual functioning 10 yr ago. Owing to the same, the HR manager of the company has requested the Chairman to allot atleast half the space of the printing press in the basement of the building to set up a customer care centre.
Which of the following best supports the Manager’s plea to the Chairman?
(a) Customer Care centre is in highest use only during the peak recruitment season, thus allotting a separate floor to it would be unnecessary blocking of space
(b) Earlier the portals were provided in printed format only and sent to the companies in hard copies but now they are sent only through e-mails and their dispatch/receipt is coordinate telephonically or electronically
(c) All the staff members working in the printing press than bigger cubicles than other staff members
(d) All the departments of the company have been renovated atleast once in the past ten years with the exception of the printing press
(e) ‘100 Dresses’, an online apparel store has it head office just next to ‘Paramount Consultants’. Since ‘100 Dresses’ has set up an online customer grievance and retrieval of sales have increased by 20%.
Directions (Q. Nos. 88-92) Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.
Nine people-P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the floor above that is numbered two and so on till t he topmost floor is numbered nine.
T lives on floor numbered seven. Only one persons lives between T and X. Only three people live between X and Q. S lives on an even numbered floor immediately above U. U does not live on the lowermost floor. P lives immediately below W. R lives on an even numbered floor but not floor numbered six. Only three people live between R and V.
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) PT
(b) VP
(c) UX
(d) SR
(e) UQ
89. Which of the following statements is true regarding V?
(a) V lives on a floor immediately below T
(b) V lives on an odd numbered floor
(c) V lives on a floor immediately above W
(d) Only three people live between V and P
(e) None of the given statements is true
90. Who amongst the following lives on a floor immediately above as well as immediately below X?
(a) P, S
(b) U, V
(c) V, S
(d) R, U
(e) W, R
91. If in the given arrangement P interchanges its position with S and Q interchanges its position with V, then who amongst the following will live on a floor exactly between S and Q?
(a) T
(b) R
(c) P
(d) X
(e) V
92. Who amongst the following lives on floor numbered three?
(a) V
(b) W
(c) P
(d) Q
(e) U
93. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
“It’s a common belief that using cell phones can develop cancer due to harmful radiation. However, since the last decade, the number of cellphone users has increased eightfold whereas deaths due to brain cancer have decreased by half. It can therefore be said that this belief is actually a myth” – CEO of a cellphone company.
Which of the following statements weakens the CEO’s statement?
(a) According to many studies, occurrence of cancer also depends on the proximity of an individual to the source of radiations such as transmission towers
(b) Cell phones emit radiations which are similar to those used for wireless satellite communications in remote areas
(c) On introduction of microwave ovens about 15 yr ago, similar facts had surfaced but microwave ovens survived the last of time
(d) Research and technological intervention in cancer treatment over the past 12 yr has decrease the number of fatalities by more than 70%
(e) The study to correlated cellphone usage and cancer was conducted independently by government as well as non-government sources
Directions (Q. Nos. 94-98) These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
(a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer t he question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) if the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) if the data in both the Statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question
94. Who amongst G, H, I, J and K completed the least number of projects?
(Each person completed different number of projects)
I. H completed more projects than K. Only one person completed less projects than K. J completed more projects than both I and G.
II. I did not complete second highest number of projects. H completed more projects than I. completed more projects than K but less than H.
95. In a straight line of six people-B,, C, D, E, F and G, who sits second from t he right end of the line? (Note : All the people are facing North)
I. E sits second from the left end of the line. B is an immediate neighbour of E. G sits fourth to the right of B.
II. C sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between C and B. E sits to the immediate right of B.
96. A certain number of boxes have been stacked one above the other. How many boxes are there in the stack?
I. Only three boxes are kept between U and H. S is kept immediately below U. Only two boxes are kept between S and B.
II. Only one box is kept between H and W. There are only four boxes between W and the box kept at the top. There is only one box above B.
97. How far is point D from point L?
I. Point B is 15 m to the South of point G. Point L is 7 m to the East of point B. Point L is exactly between points K and R such that points K, L and R form a straight line of 30 m. Point D is 10 m to the West of point R.
II. Point L is 15 m to the East of point K. Point K is 10 m to the North of point S. Pont S is 20 m to the West of point M. Point M is exactly between points D and C such that points D, M and C form a straight line of 20 m. Point C is to the South of point M.
98. Eight people-A , B, C, D, J, K, L and M are sitting around a square table but not necessarily in the same order. The people sitting at the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). Which direction is A facing?
I. C sits second to the left of M. Only three people sit between C and K. B sits third to the right of K. J is neither an immediate neighbour of M nor B. D faces outside.
II. Only three people sit between J and L. A sits second to the right of J. M sits to the immediate right of A. only two people sit between M and B. C faces outside.
99. Read the given information and answer the given question.
The Government of State B has recently issued a notice for stalling the post-construction process of building ‘S’-built by Builder N. The construction of the building was complete and the residents were informed that they would be given the possession of their flats in around four months time.
Which of the following support the decision of the government, of stalling the post-construction process of building ‘S’?
(a) The design of building ‘S’ is exactly the same as the design of building Y which has been built by another builder
(b) The builder has almost doubled this price per flat of building ‘S’ in the past three years due to its rising popularity
(c) It was recently noticed by government officials that the builder N built four more floors in building ‘S’ as compared to the original plan
(d) In a recent earthquake in State A, a neighbouring state, few buildings build by builder N were among the other buildings which collapsed
(e) There have been several complaints like leakage and lack of 24 hr water and electricity supply by residents in other buildings of builder N
100. Read the given information and answer the given question.
Although steel sector generates 56% of the revenue of State X, investments by an international investment house Lee and Stem are, instead.
According to the investment house’s policy, no investments are made in a sector until the returns to the investment are expected to be atleast 42%.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?
A. Lee and Stem do no expect a return of 42% from the steel sector in State X.
B. Sectors which already generate high returns do not need investments from foreign investment houses.
C. According to Lee and Stem, the highest revenue generating sector for State X would fail to provide even half of its investments in return.
D. After investments from Lee and Stem, the Pharmaceutical sector will surpass steel sector in terms of revenue generation for the State.
(a) Both A and C
(b) Only C
(c) Both A and D
(d) Both B and D
(e) Only A
Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) In this question, a sentence with four words in bold type is given. One of these words given in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all the words in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the content of the sentence, mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.
101. The policy implementation at our end was lacks of an required serious tightening on the part of regulators.
(a) policy
(b) lacks
(c) tightening
(d) regulators
(e) All correct
102. My heart isn’t simple or straightforward, it’s a complicated mess of wants and needs.
(a) simple
(b) straightforward
(c) complicated
(d) mess
(e) All correct
103. A stilted heron labored up into the air and dove into the river.
(a) stilted
(b) heron
(c) laboured
(d) dove
(e) All correct
104. Tears gushed from my eyes and a piercing mule crept up my throat like a spider.
(a) gushed
(b) piecing
(c) mule
(d) crept
(e) All correct
105. Gazing up into the darkness I saw myself as a creature driven and derided by vanity and my eyes burned with anguish and anger.
(a) gazing
(b) derided
(c) vanity
(d) anguish
(e) All correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 106-110) In this question, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E. Four of these five sentences contribute to one main idea when these sentences are formed into a paragraph. One sentence does not contribute to that main idea. That sentence is your answer.
106. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Software is eating the world but we are presenting with an abundance of value being generated for consumers.
B. xcept that his time, there hasn’t been half as much noise from, internet users-or in the media-as there was in the case of Free Basics plan.
C. As per a news article, Telecom companies wish to curb internet speed to 64 Kbps in order to ensure fair usage.
D. While the debate around Net neutrality in the country seems to have been settled for now, Internet activists and telecom companies could be at loggerheads very soon once again.
E. This was in response to a Trai Consultation paper that recommended download speed in broadband connection to ensure quitable access to usage.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
107. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Scientists are about the learn exactly what spending a year in space does to a person, after two astronauts returned from a 340 day trip to the International Space Station.
B. Commander Scott Kelly will be of particular interest to Nasa scientists-his identical twin, Mack, stayed on Earth.
C. Every object in the Universe that has mass exerts gravitational pull, or force on every other mass.
D. That means scientists can compare the two and see exactly what sort of changes happen after a year in space.
E. Some of those findings have already emerged. Nasa has said that Scott Kelly is now two inches taller than his brother.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
108. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. The authorities will soon make it difficult for so-called willful defaulters from getting fresh equity or debt from the public.
B. Bad credit loans can offer a number of advantages that can make one’s life easier.
C. The move will mark yet another offset by the Government to crack down on the problem of bad loans.
D. A willful defaulter is a company or individual who borrowed money and has no intention of paying it back.
E. The authorities will, however, allow such entities to raise funds through rights issues or share sales to institutional investors.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
109. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. House these days provide very limited space to develop such interests such as gardening or growing smaller farm animals.
B. Home sales rose about 15% in the October-December quarter to 78 million sq ft from the preceding quarter across the country’s top eight property markets.
C. After a lull of almost two years in the luxry residential sector, high-end developments are making a comeback in the city.
D. The country’ most valuable property has been spurred by rising demand.
E. In a slightly slow market, both the pricing of the product and the project itself matter to end-users.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
110. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. From next year, two-wheelers will have to have a headlight that will light up as soon as the engine is turned on.
B. The Government has issued a notification that all new two-wheelers manufactured in the company from next year must have a provision of automatic headlamp on (AHD) like Daytime Running Lamps found on cars.
C. NO horsepower figures have been released but the two wheeler manufacturer has conveyed that its new range of bikes is among the safest ones across the globe.
D. Once this systems is fitted in two-wheelers, riders won’t have a switch to turn the headlight off as it would be automatic.
E. Two-wheelers as a triangle category of vehicles accounted for the highest number of total road crashes (32524) in 2014.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) In this question, there are two statements which can be combined into a single statement in a number of different ways without changing their meaning. Below them are given three probable starters A, B and C of such a combined sentence. One, two or three none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any and mark the option which denotes your answer. If none of the three starters is suitable mark none as your answer.
111. The most common measure of inequality in the Gini coefficient where a score zero means perfect equality and a score of one means that one person gets everything in only one large country, Brazil, has the coefficient come down from 0.59 to 0.55.
A. Brazil is the only one large….
B. Being the most common measure….
C. Though a score of zero ……
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) All A, B and C
(d) Only A
(e) None
112. In 1960, Jacques Piccard, a Swiss Oceanographer, and Den Wallah launched at the floor of the Mariana Trench, the Ocean’s deepest point, of the Pacific Island of Guam. It is nearly 11000 m down, in four comparison Mount Everest rises 8848 m.
A. While in 1980 Jacques ….
B. In comparison to Mount Everest …..
C. Located off the Pacific Island, Guam…..
(a) A and B
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) B and C
(e) None
113. In Britain housing associations got going in the mid 19th century but became really important in the 1980s when the government used them as an alternative to council owned housing. Responsive to local needs, housing associating could also borrow without adding to public debt.
A. Housing associations responsive….
B. Though the government saw….
C. In the mid 19th century…..
(a) A and C
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Only A
(e) None
114. While the need for rural electrification was recognized in the 1950s, the first major initiative was the establishment of the Rural Electrification Corporation in 1969. Its main objective is to finance and promote rural electrification all over the country.
A. Though the need…
B. Establishing the rural electrification…..
C. Rural electrification was…..
(a) A and C
(b) A and B
(c) All A, B and C
(d) Only C
(e) None
115. Many CEOs particularly in America take the view that the best view to contribute to the common good is to succeed as businesses. Furthermore, they feel that more money they can save by not being fixed to highly, the more they have to open new plants and generate jobs.
A. While one view of many CEOs….
B. The best way to…
C. Since many CEOs…
(a) Only A
(b) B and C
(c) Only B
(d) A and B
(e) None
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/sentences are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
“Sarcasm is the lowest form of wit but he highest form of intelligence,” wrote that connoisseur of wit, Oscar Wilde. Whether sarcasm is a sign of intelligence or not, communication experts and marriage counselors alike typically advise us to stay away from this particular form of expression. The reason is simple : sarcasm expresses the poisonous sting of contempt, hurting others and harming relationships. As a form of communication, sarcasm takes on the debt of conflict.
And yet, our research suggests, there may also be some unexpected benefits from sarcasm like greater creativity. The use of sarcasm, in fact, promotes creativity for those on both the given and receiving end of sarcastic exchanges. Instead of avoiding sarcasm completely in the office, the research suggests sarcasm, if used with care and in moderation, can be effectively trigger creative sparks.
Sarcasm involves constructing or exposing contradictions between intended meanings. The most common form of verbal irony, sarcasm is often used to humorously convey thinly veiled disapproval or scorn. “Pat, don’t work so hard!” a boss might say upon catching his assistant surfing the internet. Early research on sarcasm explored how people interpret statements and found that, as expected, sarcasm makes a statement sound more critical. Participants rated sarcasm to be more condemning than literal statements.
Why might sarcasm enhance creativity? Because the brain must think creatively to understand or convey a sarcastic comment so sarcasm may lead to clearer and more creative thinking. To either create or understand sarcasm, tone must overcome the contradiction between the literal and actual meanings of the sarcastic expressions. This is a process that activates and is facilitated by, abstraction, which in turn promotes creative thinking. Consider the following example, which comes from a conversation one of my friend had a few weeks before getting married. His fiancée woke him up as he was soundly asleep at night to tell him about some new ideas she has for their upcoming wedding next month – many of which were quite expensive. Adam responded with some ideas of his own. “Why don’t we get Paul McCartney to sing, Barack Obama to give a benediction and Amy Schumer to entertain people.” His comment required his finance to recgonise that there is distinction between the surface level meaning of the sentence and the meaning that was intended.
116. According to the passage, which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘CONDEMNING’ as used in the passage?
(a) Repressed
(b) Losing
(c) Deeming
(d) Critical
(e) Convicted
117. According to the passage, what does sarcasm require?
A. Its intention is to cause hurt in the most profound manner possible.
B. In order to understand it, one needs to be able to grasp abstract context.
C. Its usage involves the employment of words contrary to the intended meaning.
(a) Only C
(b) Only A
(c) B and C
(d) A and B
(e) All A, B and C
118. Which of the following is true according to the author of the passage?
A. Words used in sarcasm are to be considered for their literal meaning.
B. Sarcasm does involve an element of humour in it.
C. Tone of voice is one of the essential components of conveying sarcasm.
(a) A and C
(b) B and C
(c) A and B
(d) All A, B and C
(e) None of these
119. According to the passage, which of the following is not true?
A. One needs to exercise restraint while using sarcasm.
B. Sarcasm has the potential to damage relationships.
C. Using sarcasm is devoid of any merits.
(a) All A, B and C
(b) B and C
(c) Only A
(d) Only C
(e) A and B
120. What did the author’s friend actually mean when he said the following, “Why don’t we get Paul McCartney to sing, Barack Obama to give a benediction and Amy Schumer to entertain people”?
(a) The idea of his fiancée gave for the wedding was a good one and needed encouragement.
(b) Paul McCartney, Baracck Obama and Amy Schumer could easily be asked to be present at his wedding.
(c) He was friends with Paul McCartney, Barack Obama and Amy Schumer.
(d) People standing his wedding would love to hear Paul McCartney, Barack Obama and Amy Schumer perform.
(e) Other than those given as options.
Directions B(Q. Nos. 121-125) This passage consists of six sentences. The sentences are jumbled up. Rearrange the sentences and answer the questions.
A. Apart from the presence of this pollutant, last month, as representatives from all over the world concluded their climate summit in Paris, officials in Beijing issued China’s “red alerts” for smog.
B. Look of the sky in China and it’s easy to think that the apocalypse is now.
C. This North-Eastern city saw the harmful pollutant PM 2.5 at a level 40 times greater than what the World Health Organization considers safe.
D. The country’s dismal air isn’t news to those who have to breathe it, or to the international community.
E. But recent reports about the ‘dooms day’ smog in Shenyang were alarming.
F. As a result of this warning schools were closed and drivers were told to stay off the road every other day, depending on whether their license plate ended with an even or odd number.
121. Which of the following should be third sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) D
(e) E
122. Which of the following should be fourth sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) D
123. Which of the following should be sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
(e) E
124. Which of the following should be first sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) B
(d) E
(e) D
125. Which of the following should be second sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) E
(d) D
(e) C
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-130) In this question, a word is given in bold capitals is followed by five words. Find out, if any, the one which is either most nearly the same in meaning or opposite of the word given in bold.
126. CONVALESCENT
(a) healing
(b) antithesis
(c) convergent
(d) blend
(e) ligament
127. RUMBUSTIOUS
(a) boisterous
(b) incompetent
(c) pertinent
(d) acute
(e) immigrant
128. MITIGATE
(a) insect
(b) entrance
(c) disclaim
(d) persuade
(e) aggravate
129. EXEMPLIFY
(a) release
(b) effort
(c) embody
(d) nuance
(e) expand
130. GRUFF
(a) soft
(b) stout
(c) swollen
(d) grass
(e) round
Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
It is hard to exaggerate the decrepitude of infrastructure in most of the rich world. One in three railway bridges in Germany is over 100 yr old as are half of London’s water mains. In America, the average bridge is 42 yr old and the average dam 52.
Traffic jams on urban highways cost America over Rs 100 billion in waster time and fuel each year, congestion at airports costs Rs 22 billion and another $ 150 billion is lost to power outages.
The B20, the business arm of the G20, a club of big economies, estimates that the global backlog of spending needed to bring infrastructure up to scratch will reach $ 15 trillion-$ trillion by 2030. Mckinsey, a consultancy, reckons that in 2007-12 investment in infrastructure in rich countries was about 2.5% of GDP a year when it should have been 3.5%
If anything, the problem is becoming more acute as some governments whose finances have been racked by the crisis cut back. However, over the past six years, the cost of repairing old infrastructure or building new projects has been much cheaper than normal, thanks both to rock-bottom interest rates and ample spare capacity in the construction industry.
Arcadis, an infrastructure consultancy, reckons building costs in Britain, for example, were 20% lower in the aftermath of the financial crisis. The most striking examples of the impact of the infrastructure development on the economy are in emerging markets, paving roads has helped double school attendance by girls Morocco. Improved sanitation has helped reduce child mortality in India by over 50%. But the impact in rich countries is equal great.
Standard & Poor’s a rating agency, reckons that the activity spurred by increasing government spending on infrastructure by 1% of GDP would leave the economy 11.7% bigger after three years in America, 2.5% bigger in Britain and 1.4% in the Euro zone.
Planning constraints play their part : It takes four years past to get the permits for the average European power project, according to Mckinsey. Crossrail, a train line running under London, was first mooted in 1974 but is not due to be completed until 2018.
The ‘Juncker Plan’ which is supposed to mobilize €315 billion of mostly private investment in infrastructure in Europe, was announced with great aplomb, last November, the website taking possible projects has yet to be launched.
There is also lots of scope for modernization without undue disruption : adding a layer of plastic on top of an asphalt road can increases its lifespan by a third. Investment in technology can make better use of existing infrastructure without adding a brick at considerably low cost. New digital monitoring systems, for example, have increased the capacity of Frankfurt Airport from 150000 passengers a day to 200000, by providing advance warning of impending bottlenecks. Such repairs and improvements typically yield higher returns than more grandiose projects. They are also much quicker to initiate. Western politicians searching for a way to pep up growth in light of the current uncertainty about the health of the word economy need look no further.
131. Which of the following best sums up the author’s view of infrastructure development?
(a) There is nothing that can be done to remedy the present state of infrastructure.
(b) Infrastructure development should be entrusted to private entities.
(c) The utilization of technology will assist in infrastructure development.
(d) Global backlog of infrastructure will be wiped out by 2030.
(e) The share of GDP devoted to infrastructure should be lowered.
132. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?
(a) Infrastructure in developed countries has not been maintained as it should.
(b) After the financial crisis, developed countries are unable to invest in infrastructure.
(c) Engineering and Infrastructure in Europe and America is a marvel.
(d) The developed economy is in the midst of a crisis from which it will not recover soon.
(e) None of the above
133. What does the author want to convey through the GDP?
(a) Infrastructure development can boost the economy of developed countries tremendously.
(b) GDP is not a true indicator of social and economic development.
(c) The GDP of developing countries is growing faster than developed ones.
(d) Despite investment of a greater proportion of GDP in infrastructure the impact on growth is negligible.
(e) Other than those given as options.
134. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
A. Much of the infrastructure in Europe though ancient is in good repair.
B. At present there is no way developing countries can reduce the infrastructure deficit.
C. Infrastructure development is time consuming but need not be expensive.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) A and C
(d) All A, B and C
(e) None of A, B and C
135. Which of the following factors has impacted infrastructure in developed countries?
A. Sever and unusual weather conditions.
B. Sluggish project implementation.
C. Financial crisis.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) All A, B and C
(e) Only B
Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct it is given and no correction is required, mark ‘No correction’ required as the answer.
136. Factors that are likely to impact rural demand include global agricultural commodity prices and monsoons.
(a) are like
(b) is likely
(c) are liked
(d) are liking
(e) No correction required
137. This is not the first time the minister’s name has came up in this controversial deal.
(a) have come up
(b) has come up
(c) have upcoming
(d) has coming up
(e) No correction required
138. The Central Bank has ordered banks to get tough by willful defaulters and have a tough set of rules in place.
(a) to getting tougher
(b) for getting tough
(c) too get tough on
(d) to get tough with
(e) No correction required
139. Demand in rural India will probably stay under stress, largely on account off usage of poor fertilizers.
(a) on account of
(b) on account for
(c) accounting of
(d) on account from
(e) No correction required
140. The fact that it had to issue a connection about how much coal the country burns reflects the government’s failure to track emissions from coal mines.
(a) A fact which
(b) The factual that
(c) Factually
(d) In fact that
(e) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) In the given passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. Against each, five word are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Suppose you put $ 100 in a savings account that earns 10% interest each year, after five years how much will you have ? This was a question posed in a multiple choice quiz by Standard and Poor’s a rating agency. The answers (141) were “less than $ 150”, “exactly $ 150” and “more than $ 150”. The intention was to test whether respondents (142) compound interest, in addition to basic Mathematics. Alas, not that many did: just one-third of them answered three out of five similar multiple-choices questions (143). Scandinavians are the most financially literate : 70% were able to answer three questions, the corresponding figure for Angolans and Albanians was 15%. While education plays a large role in (144) financial literacy, the link with GDP per person is also remarkable strong. Research shows that in developed countries, knowledge (145) a U shaped curve with middle aged adults performing best while in developing countries financial literacy is best among the young. But worryingly many countries remain in a 1960s time warp.
141.
(a) volunteer
(b) suggest
(c) proffered
(d) compromised
(e) guessing
142.
(a) familiar
(b) comprehension
(c) valued
(d) decide
(e) understood
143.
(a) truthfully
(b) correctly
(c) flawless
(d) precisely
(e) instead
144.
(a) standard
(b) determining
(c) shape
(d) discovering
(e) participating
145.
(a) follows
(b) abides
(c) gained
(d) create
(e) develops
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks.
An agricultural economist reports that the largest boost to farm income comes from investment in rural rods compared in other forms of agri-related investment. This offers a key related (146) that our policymaking obsession with the technical means of raising yields has ignored, farm production, to is (147) by the market. If you provide farmers easier (148) to markets for farm inputs and output, they would use it raise output and incomes. If the best seeds and fertilizer boost production in an interior village which cannot evacuate the (149) harvest to a market outside, the only result would be to depress local prices and farmer’s incomes. On the, other hand, if farmers can taken their produce to buyers outside their incomes would (150).
146.
(a) moral
(b) input
(c) potence
(d) insight
(e) symbol
147.
(a) resolved
(b) inclined
(c) determined
(d) drive
(e) hamper
148.
(a) access
(b) outlet
(c) acquire
(d) pass
(e) advent
149.
(a) plunge
(b) surplus
(c) plethora
(d) oversupply
(e) superficial
150.
(a) rise
(b) amplify
(c) halt
(d) lifted
(e) plummet
Quantitative Aptitude
151. A and B started business by investing Rs 2400 and Rs 3600 respectively. At the end of 4th month from the start of the business, C joined with Rs ‘X’. After 8 months from the start of the business, B withdrew Rs 600. If C’s share is Rs 8000 in the annual profit of Rs 22500, what was the amount that C invested in the business?
(a) Rs 7200
(b) Rs 5800
(c) Rs 4000
(d) Rs 4800
(e) Rs 8800
152. There are 4 consecutive odd numbers x1, x2, x3 and x4 and three consecutive even n umbers y1, y2 and y3. The average of the odd numbers is 6 less than the average of the even numbers. If the sum of the three even numbers is 16 less than the sum of the four odd numbers, what is the average of x1, x2, x3 and x4?
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 38
(d) 32
(e) 34
Directions (Q. Nos. 153-157) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Date regarding sugar production by four different small sugar mills in State X of country Y in year 2005.
Note It is given that
(i) the total sugar produced by the mils is sold either through Govt. Public Distribution System (PDS) or through retail (free market). The mills have no other channels of selling the sugar produced.
(ii) All the sugar mills mentioned in the data could sell the entire quantity of sugar they had produced (i.e. 20% through PDS and remaining 80% through retail)
The difference between the quality of sugar sold through retail and that through PDS, by mill D was 54 tonnes.
The total sugar production of mill D was 50% more than that produced by mill C. Total sugar production by mill C was 25% more than that produced by mill B. The total sugar production of mill A was less than that produced by B, by 12 tonnes.
Every mill has a Projected Production Level (PPL), however the actual production (or the total production) may vary from the PPL. The actual production of mills A, B, C and D was 90%, 80%, 75% and 75%, respectively of their respective PPL.
153. In the year 2006, mill C sold 13.5 tonnes of sugar through PDS. If in the year 2006, the PPL of mill C was same as the previous year and that mill C sold 20% of sugar production through PDS, the actual production of sugar was what percent of PPL in the year 2006?
(a) 85%
(b) 78%
(c) 82%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%
154. The PPL of mill B was what percent more than that of mill A?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 75%
(e) 100%
155. What is the difference between the quantity of sugar sold through retail by mill C and that sold through retail by mill D?
(a) 20 tonnes
(b) 22 tonnes
(c) 24 tonnes
(d) 25 tonnes
(e) 26 tonnes
156. What is the respective ratio between the total quantity of sugar sold through PDS by mills A and B together and that sold through PDS by the mills C and D together?
(a) 14 : 25
(b) 14 : 27
(c) 14 : 29
(d) 18 : 25
(e) 16 : 25
157. What is the average of total sugar production of mills B, C and D?
(a) 64.5 tonnes
(b) 66 tonnes
(c) 64 tonnes
(d) 66.5 tonnes
(e) 60 tonnes
158. A tank has two outlets A and B, which together take 6 h to empty a full tank when they are opened simultaneously. The tank was initially half-full an both the outlets were opened. After an hour, an inlet pipe ‘X’ was also opened. If the inlet alone can fill an empty tank in 4 h, how much time will it now take to fill the tank complete? (in hours)
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 
(d) 9
(e) 
Directions (Q. Nos. 159-165) Study the pie charts given below and answer the following questions.
159. What is the cost of gear box?
(a) Rs 9000
(b) Rs 6000
(c) Rs 3000
(d) Rs 15000
(e) None of these
160. What percentage of total cost is contributed by the brake?
(a) 55%
(b) 6.6%
(c) 6%
(d) 5.4%
(e) None of these
161. If the price of tyres goes up by 25%, by what amount should the sale price be increased to maintain the amount of profit?
(a) Rs 750
(b) Rs 2250
(c) Rs 3750
(d) Rs 375
(e) None of these
162. If transmission cost increases by 20%, by what amount is the profit reduced (total price of a car remains same)?
(a) Rs 3000
(b) Rs 4000
(c) Rs 6000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
163. What is the profit percentage?
(a) 10%
(b) 9.09%
(c) 11.11%
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
164. What percentage of sale price is contributed by clutch?
(a) 6%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
165. If transmission cost increases by 10% and engine cost increases by 20%. What is the percentage contribution of transmission to the cost?
(a) 20%
(b) 22.44%
(c) 21.86%
(d) 21.98%
(e) None of these
166. A bag contains 4 red balls, 6 blue and 8 pink balls. One ball is drawn at random and replace with 3 pink balls. A second ball was drawn without replacement. What is the probability that t he first ball drawn was either red or blue in colour and the second ball drawn was pink in colour?
(a) 12/21
(b) 13/17
(c) 11/30
(d) 13/18
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 167-172) Study the table and answer the given questions.
Data related to published books distributed by 5 publishing companies to their respective distributors during two months (May and June).
Note All the given companies distributed the published books among its respective distributor during both the given months.
167. In May, Company A published 100 books more than Company B. If the number of books not distributed by Company B among its distributors in May was 64% of the number of books not distributed by Company A among its distributors in the same month, what was the number of books published by Company B in May?
(a) 2500
(b) 2000
(c) 2100
(d) 1800
(e) 2400
168. Number of books published by Company C in May and June together was equal. If the average number of books received for each distributor of Company C in May and June was 175, what was the number of books published by Company C in June?
(a) 3800
(b) 4200
(c) 3600
(d) 4000
(e) 4400
169. Number of books received by each distributor of Company D in May and that by each distributor of Company E in the same month was equal. Number books published by Company E in May was what per cent of number of books published by Company D in the same month?
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 55
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) 40
170. In June, the difference between number of books distributed by Company B and that by Company D was 864. If number of books published by Company B in June was 1/3rd of the number of the books published by Company D in the same month, what was the number of books published by Company B in June?
(a) 1200
(b) 900
(c) 1500
(d) 1800
(e) 2400
171. If each distributor of Company A received 238 books in June, what was the number of books published by Company A in June?
(a) 4800
(b) 3200
(c) 3840
(d) 4480
(e) 5120
172. Number of books received by each distributor of Company E in June was what per cent less than the number of books not distributed by the same among its distributors in the same month?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
Directions (Q. Nos. 173-178) The following questions are to be answered on the basis of the turnover bar-chart for the years 2010 to 2015 given below.
.
173. By what amount are the sales in 2013 more than those in 2011?
(a) Rs 100
(b) Rs 10000
(c) Rs 100000
(d) Rs 1000000
(e) None of these
174. The sales in 2011 are how many times to those 2012?
(a) 8 times
(b) 0.8 times
(c) 2.5 times
(d) 3 times
(e) None of these
175. In which year did the sales show the least per cent increase to that of the preceding year?
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1994
(e) None of these
176. The sales in 2014 are what per cent of those 2012?
(a) 40
(b) 4
(c) 110
(d) 1.1
(e) None of these
177. What is the appropriate average sales (in thousand) for the years 2012 to 2015?
(a) 420
(b) 415
(c) 430
(d) 425
(e) None of these
178. For which of the earlier years, was the sale turnover same as for the year 2015?
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2013
(d) 2014
(e) None of these
179. A movie was screened for 3 days – Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday. The respective ratio between the number of spectators on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 2 : 3 : 5 and the price charged for three days was in the respective ratio 2 : 3 : 4. If the difference between the amount earned on Tuesday and Wednesday was Rs 8800, what was the total amount earned in all three days?
(a) Rs 24800
(b) Rs 27500
(c) Rs 26400
(d) Rs 22820
(e) Rs 25200
180. The circumference of a circle is 10% more than the perimeter of a square. If the difference between the area of the circle and that of the square is 216 cm2, how much does the diagonal of the square measure? (in cm)
(a) 14√2
(b) 14
(c) 20
(d) 28
(e) 20√2
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185) In each of the following questions, a question followed by two statements numbered I and II are given. You have to read both the statements and then give the answer.
a. If the data given in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b. If the data given in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question whereas the data given in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c. If the data in either Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d. If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e. If the data given in both the Statements I and II are necessary to answer the question
181. A rectangular garden is surrounded by a path uniform width of 2 m. What is the breadth of the rectangular garden?
I. If the length of the garden is reduced by 2 m, it will become a square garden.
II. If the length of the garden is reduced by 2 m, the area of the path will become 1/6 times of its original area.
(external boundary of the path remains constant)
182. There are X l of pure milk in each of the jars A and B. What is the value of X?
I. Ram took out 32 L of milk from jar A and replaced it with equal quantity of water. He again took out 32 L of new formed mixture of milk and water from same jar and replaced with equal quantity of water. As a result respective ratio of milk and water in jar A became 16 : 9.
II. Ram took out 20% of milk from jar B and added 72 L of water. As a result percentage of water in the mixture becomes 35%.
183. What is the speed of the boat in still water? (in km/h)
I. The boat takes total time of 4 h to travel 14 km upstream and 35 km downstream together.
II. The boat takes total time of 5 h to travel 29 km upstream and 24 km downstream together.
184. An article was sold after giving discount on the marked price. What was the discount of percentage given?
I. The profit earned after giving the discount is 20%. Had the percentage of discount been doubled the seller would have incurred a loss of 4%.
II. Marked price of the article is 60% above the cost price o f the article.
185. In an election only two candidates A and B contested. 25% of the registered voters did not cast their votes and 250 votes cast were declared invalid. What is the number of registered voters?
I. Number of votes received by B is 1550.
II. A gets 1150 votes more than B. Number of votes received by A is equal to 45% of the number of registered voters.
186. In river A, the distance travelled by a boat downstream in time T is 50% more than the distance travelled by the same boat upstream in the same time. In river B, the same boat travels a distance of 11 km upstream in 30 min. If the sped of the river current in river B is 2 km/h, what is the speed of the stream in river A?
(the speed of the boat in still water is same in both the rivers)
(a) 2 km/h
(b) 4 km/h
(c) 4.8 km/h
(d) 5.2 km/h
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 187-191) In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and other as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between the quantities and choose the appropriate option.
187. 
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I > Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
188. M is an integer selected at random from the set {7, 13, 24, 27, 33, 19 and 21}.
Quantity I Probability that the average of 11, 8 and M is atleast 15.
Quantity II 1/3
(a) Quantity I < Quantity II
(b) Quantity I = Quantity I or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
189. Sum of first 5 term of an arithmetic progression (AP) is 65. The respective ratio of the 8th and 15th terms is 4 : 7.
Quantity I 4th term of the AP
Quantity II 16
(a) Quantity I < Quantity II
(b) Quantity I = Quantity I or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
190. ab < 0
Quantity I a – b
Quantity II a/b
(a) Quantity I < Quantity II
(b) Quantity I = Quantity I or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
191. O is the centre of the circle length of LM is 6 cm.
Quantity I The area of the circle
Quantity II 36 π cm2
(a) Quantity I < Quantity II
(b) Quantity I = Quantity I or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I > Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
192. 12 men can complete a project in 8 days. For the first two days, all 12 men reported for work but on the third and fourth days 2 men did not report for work. If in the following days, 8 men reported for work, in total how many days, the whole project was completed?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 8
(d) 
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 193-199) In these questions, a number series given. Only one number is wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number.
193. 13 6 8 5 29 75 228
(a) 75
(b) 29
(c) 13.5
(d) 6
(e) 8
194. 3 14.5 18.2 12.5 20.1 10.7 22
(a) 10.6
(b) 20.1
(c) 14.5
(d) 12.5
(e) 18.2
195. 43 45 55 85 153 290 505
(a) 55
(b) 45
(c) 153
(d) 85
(e) 290
196. 6 5 8 21 80 415 2364
(a) 415
(b) 8
(c) 80
(d) 21
(e) 5
197. 324 164 84 44 46 14 9
(a) 26
(b) 164
(c) 84
(d) 44
(e) 46
198. 3 5 12 38 154 782 4634
(a) 782
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) 154
(e) 38
199. 220 229 211 247 157 319
(a) 229
(b) 157
(c) 211
(d) 247
(e) 319
200. Ten years hence, the respective ratio between Simmi’s age and Niti’s age will be 7 : 9. Two years ago, the respective ratio between Simmi’s age and Niti’s age was 1 : 3. If Abhay is 4 years older to his sister Niti, what is Abhay’s present age? (in years)
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 12
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