MHT MBA Common Entrance Test Examination
Held on March 4-5, 2017
Section 1 Logical Reasoning
1. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both ‘S > P’ as well as ‘A ≤ E’ definitely hold true?
S_H_A_P_E
(a) ≥, >, =, ≤
(b) >, ≥ <, <
(c) >, ≥, <, ≤
(d) >, >, ≥, =
(e) ≥, ≥, ≤, ≤
2. The given question consists of two statement numbered I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices depicts the relationship between these two elements.
Statement
I. The government has made the rules for the disposal of waste and other chemicals from the industries more stringent to keep a check on pollution level in the atmosphere.
II. Complex reaction of chemicals, such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide emitted from power plants, industries and automobiles escalate the level of particulate matter in the atmosphere.
(a) Both statements I and II are effect of independent causes.
(b) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(c) Both statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of their common cause.
(e) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
Directions (Q. Nos. 3-6) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
L’s sibling is married to J’s daughter. K is the wife of J. Q is the brother of J’s only son-in-law. P is the only brother of Q. A is the mother of L. M is the only sibling of A’s daughter-in-law. Both Q and M are unmarried. V is the nephew of M. A has only three children. L’s spouse has no siblings.
3. If R is the sister-in-law of L, then how is R related to P?
(a) Aunt
(b) Daughter
(c) Wife
(d) Cousin
(e) Sister-in-law
4. How is V related to A?
(a) Grandson
(b) Husband
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) Son-in law
(e) Brother-in-law
5. If S is the son of L, then how is S related to Q?
(a) Father
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Uncle
(d) Cousin
(e) Nephew
6. How is K related to M?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother-in-law
(c) Daughter
(d) Mother
(e) Aunt
Directions (Q. No- 7-12) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight boxes namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are placed from top to bottom not in the same order. They contain different chocolates, such as silk, temptation, fruit and nut, dairy milk, bubbly, milky bar, kit-kat and 5 star-boxes are packed with different colour paper, such as Yellow, Pink, Blue and Green. Exactly two boxes are packed with same colour paper. Consider the top positions as 1st position.
1. There is one box between box B and box D and box D is packed with pink paper and both are in the top 4 positions when boxes are arranged from top to bottom.
2. The box containing dairy milk is kept immediately below blue paper packed box and is packed with same colour paper as E.
3. Box C is kept somewhere between G and H, and H being below C.
4. The two green paper packed boxed are kept vertically adjacent to each other and one of the green paper packed box is immediately under the pink paper packed box.
5. Fruit and nut chocolate is kept exactly between F and the box containing milky bar.
6. H doesn’t contain silk chocolate.
7. There is one box between box E and box G, and box G is kept immediately below the box containing diary milk.
8. The box containing 5-star chocolate is placed at even numbered place but is not placed at the bottom.
9. The yellow paper packed box which is kept at top either contains silk or kit-kat.
10. Box E is not packed with green paper.
11. F which contains Bubbly is packed with blue paper and among top five.
12. The box containing temptation is packed with blue paper.
13. C doesn’t contain any of silk or 5-star chocolate.
7. Which of the following boxes is kept immediately above the box containing dairy milk?
(a) Box containing bubbly
(b) Box containing milky bar
(c) Box containing silk
(d) Box containing temptation
(e) None of the above
8. Four of the following fiver are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) A-dairy milk
(b) G-Bubbly
(c) H-Kit-kat
(d) B-Temptation
(e) D-5-Star
9. Which of the following boxes contains fruit and nut?
(a) E
(b) A
(c) D
(d) H
(e) G
10. What is the position of B in the given stack of boxes?
(a) First from the top
(b) Third from the bottom
(c) Fifth from the top
(d) Second from the bottom
(e) second form the top
11. Which of the following represents the contents of box G?
(a) Temptation
(b) 5-Star
(c) Kit-kat
(d) Silk
(e) Bubbly
12. Which two boxes are packed with pink paper?
(a) D and F
(b) C and H
(c) B and G
(d) D and E
(e) G and C
13. If two objects (or events) are correlated by cause and effect in such a manner that A causes B, it is argued that B also causes A. For example, high debts in a country causes slow growth, therefore slow growth in a country will definitely lead to increase in debts.
Which of the following examples fall in line with the condition presented above?
(a) Better health leads to higher incomes therefore people with higher incomes definitely have better health.
(b) We never vote because politicians never do what our group wants therefore politicians are paying more need to us in order to make us vote.
(c) Higher the intake of high calorie diet, higher is the risk of coronary heart diseases, therefore people who have coronary heart disease definitely consume high calorie diets.
(d) Company A generates higher profits in the year in which its client generates higher profits, therefore the company A generates higher profits, will definitely make higher profits as well.
(e) A windmill rotates faster when more wind is observed, therefore more winds will be caused in the windmill is rotating faster.
Directions (Q. Nos. 14-18) Read the given information to answer the given questions.
Eight people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in different years, viz 1954, 1961, 1968, 1971, 1978, 1985, 1989 and 1995 but not necessarily in the same order.
R was born in the year in 1961, R is younger than V. The difference between the present ages of R and T is 24 years. The difference between the present ages of T and W is more than 15 years. W was not born in the year 1989. The year of birth of S is an odd number. P is younger than S. The sum of present ages of P and U is 67 years. P is older than U.
A. All calculations are done with respect to the present year, 2017 assuming the month and date to be same as that of the years of birth as mentioned above.
B. Each person is assumed to be born on the same date and same month of the respective years.
14. If K is 12 years older than U, what is the present age of K?
(a) 44 yr
(b) 28 yr
(c) 58 yr
(d) 34 yr
(e) 40 yr
15. Who amongst the following was born on an even numbered year?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) V
(d) T
(e) Q
16. Who amongst the following was born in the year 1968?
(a) Q
(b) U
(c) P
(d) T
(e) W
17. Who amongst the following is older than W?
(a) R
(b) T
(c) S
(d) Q
(e) Non one as W is the oldest
18. What is the sum of present ages of T and W?
(a) 113 yr
(b) 78 yr
(c) 95 yr
(d) 81 yr
(e) 109 yr
19. This question consist of a decision and two statement numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given statements weaken/s or strengthen/s the decision and decide the appropriate answer.
Decision Company X decided to issue 100000 additional equity shares three months after had issued equity shares in the market.
I. Company X lacks money fund the new project it had started three months ago in collaboration with company Y.
II. The equity market in which company X has issued its additional shares is going down due to recession in the economy.
(a) Both statement I and statement II weaken the decision.
(b) Statement I strengthens the decision while statement I weakens the decision.
(c) Both statement I and statement II strengthen the decision.
(d) Both statement I and statement II are neutral statements.
(e) Statement I weakens the decision while statement I strengthens the decision.
Directions (Q. Nos. 20-25) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
L, M, N, O, P, Q and R have to attend a meeting in January, June, October and November months of the same year. In each month except in January, the meeting will be conducted on only 15th and 24th of the month. In January, the meeting will be conducted only on the 24th. Not more than two of the given people have a meeting in the same month. Each one of them also likes a different colour – Red, Violet, Pink, Green, Black, Silver and Yellow, but not necessarily in the same order.
N has meeting on the 24th of a month which as 30 days. Only one person has meeting between N and the one who likes Pink. The one who likes Pink has meeting before N. Only two people have a meeting between the one who likes Pink and the one who likes silver. Both L and the one who likes Silver have meeting in the same month but not on the same date. M has a meeting after L but not in October. M and L have meetings on different dates. The number of people having a meeting between M and the one who likes Pink is same as that between R and the one who likes Silver. Only one person has meeting between R and the one who likes violet. No one has a meeting after the one who likes Red. O and the one who likes Red have a meeting on the same date. P has a meeting on one of the days after Q. Neither P nor R likes. The one who likes Green does not have a meeting in October.
20. How many people have meeting after O?
(a) One
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) None
(e) Two
21. As per the given schedule, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to group?
(a) Q-June
(b) L-Silver
(c) Yellow-November
(d) M-Violet
(e) O-P
22. How many people have a meeting between P and the one who likes Yellow?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None
23. Which colour does P like?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Pink
(d) Silver
(e) Green
24. Which of the following statements is true as per the given schedule?
(a) M has a meeting on November 24.
(b) R likes Pink
(c) None of the given statements is true
(d) P has a meeting after M.
(e) The one who likes Pink has a meeting in October.
25. When does R have a meeting?
(a) October 11
(b) June15
(c) October 24
(d) November 15
(e) January 14
26. Six ropes viz, A, B, C, D, E and F each of different length are kept on a table but not necessarily in the same order. B is shorter than A But longer than F. D is longer than A. C is shorter than A but longer than B. F is not the shortest. Which is the shortest rope?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) D
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-32) Study the following information to answer the given question.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. .The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input gap 81 39 rat 25 tan 72 nap 14 mat
Step I tn gap 39 rat 25 72 nap 14 mat 80
Step II 71 tn gap 39 25 nap 14 mat 80 rt
Step III np 71 tn gap 25 14 mat 80 rt 38
Step IV 24 np 71 gap 14 80 rt 38 mt
Step V gp 24 np 71 tn 80 rt 38 mt 13
And step V is the last step of the rearrangement as the intended output is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input pat 32 48 yak bed 63 78 fan lay 27
27. How many elements are there between ‘62’ and ‘fan’ in step III of the given input?
(a) Two
(b) More than three
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Four
28. In which of the following step/s is ‘ly 62 yk bd’ found consecutively in the same order?
(a) Both step IV and V
(b) Both step III and IV
(c) Only step III
(d) There is no such step
(e) Only step IV
29. Which is the fifth element to the right of ‘yk’ in step V?
(a) Fn
(b) 27
(c) 26
(d) bd
(e) pt
30. In step IV, which element appears exactly between ‘77’ and ‘fn’?
(a) Both ‘bed’ and ‘pat’
(b) Only ‘pt’
(c) Both ‘pt’ and ‘47’
(d) Only ‘27’
(e) Both ‘47’ and ‘27’
31. In step I, ‘32’ is related to ‘yk’ following a certain pattern. Similarly, ‘77’ is related to ‘lay’ is step II. To which of the following is ‘bed’ related to following the same pattern in step IV?
(a) yk
(b) pt
(c) 77
(d) 62
(e) ly
32. Which is the seventh element to the right of the ninth element from the right end in stepI?
(a) lay
(b) 77
(c) 32
(d) 27
(e) fan
33. A medicine ‘Sudomol’ manufactured by company X is available in market at the price Rs 15 per tablet. Company Z recently launched ‘Dokilline’, a substitute of Sudomol. However, company Z decide to keep the price of Dokline at Rs 50 per tablet. Which of the following statement does not strengthen the decision of Company Z of keeping the price of Dokilline higher than its substitute Sudomol?
(a) Company Z uses a special film in the packaging of Dokilline which makes the Shief line of Dokilline three years longer than that of Sudomol.
(b) Few components of Sudomol were replaced in Dokilline the cost of which is higher.
(c) Unlike Dokilline, Sudomol contains few components the frequent consumption of which may cause skin allergies in some people.
(d) Company Z was issued a patent for Dokilline for ten years whereas the patent issued for Sudomol was only for five years.
(e) Unlike Sudomol, Dokilline contains high level of component ‘adroxen’ which relieves the pain of a person faster.
34. In which of the following expression will the expression ‘L < R’ be definitely false?
(a) D < R ≤ S < C, F < S ≤ L
(b) V ≤ X > L, R > M ≥ X
(c) L < A ≤ W ≤ H, W < R
(d) R > C ≥ E = T > P = L
(e) T ≤ L = W < V ≤ K ≤ R
Directions (Q. Nos. 35-39) Read the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven concerts are scheduled in seven different months viz. January, February, March, June, August, September and November. These concerts are scheduled in seven different countries viz. India, China, Japan, Germany, Spain, Brazil and Bhutan on seven different days of a week in each month, but not necessarily in the same order (note-to concert is scheduled in any other month) The concert in Brazil is scheduled in a month which has 30 days but not is September.
Only two concerts are scheduled between the concerts scheduled in Brazil and the one on Wednesday. Neither the concert scheduled on Wednesday nor the concert scheduled on Monday is scheduled in January.
Only three concerts are scheduled between the concerts scheduled on Monday and Friday. Both the concerts scheduled on Monday and Friday are scheduled in months which has 31 days.
The concert scheduled in China is scheduled immediately after the one scheduled on Friday. As many concerts are scheduled between the one scheduled in China and the one on Wednesday as between the one scheduled on Friday and the one in Germany. The concert scheduled on Tuesday is scheduled immediately before the concert scheduled on Sunday. The concert scheduled on Tuesday is not scheduled in China. Only three concerts are scheduled between the ones scheduled on Tuesday and the one scheduled in Bhutan.
Only three concerts are scheduled between the ones scheduled in Spain and India. The concert scheduled in India is not scheduled in August.
The concert scheduled on Thursday is not scheduled immediately after the one scheduled in India.
35. Based on the given information, which of the following is true?
(a) Only two concerts are scheduled between the concerts scheduled on Wednesday and Monday.
(b) The concerts in Japan is scheduled immediately after the one in China.
(c) The concerts scheduled in Bhutan in scheduled in a month having 31 days.
(d) The concert in Germany is scheduled on Friday.
(e) None of the given options are true.
36. India is related to Sunday and Brazil is related to Wednesday in a certain way based on the given arrangement. To which of the following is China related, following the same way?
(a) Monday
(b) Friday
(c) Thursday
(d) The one scheduled in June
(e) The one scheduled in January
37. Which of the following combinations is correct as per the given information?
(a) June-Brazil-Friday
(b) August-Brazil-Monday
(c) November-Bhutan-Wednesday
(d) March-Spain-Tuesday
(e) January-India-Sunday
38. On which of the following days is the concert in Japan scheduled?
(a) Friday
(b) Saturday
(c) Tuesday
(d) Monday
(e) Thursday
39. How many concerts are scheduled between the concerts in Germany and the concert scheduled on Saturday?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) More than three
(d) Two
(e) Three
40. If the expression S > T ≥ U = V ≤ W’, ‘Y ≥ T < X’ are true, then which of the following conclusions is definitely true?
(a) T ≥ W
(b) W > Y
(c) X < V
(d) S > X
(e) V ≤ Y
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-42) In these questions are given four statements followed by five conclusions, one of which definitely logically follows from the given statements. That conclusion is your answer.
41. Statements All aids are devices. No device is a tool. All tools are machines. Some machines are electronics.
Conclusions
(a) Some aids are definitely not electronics
(b) No tool is an electronic.
(c) All aids are machines.
(d) All electronics can never be devices.
(e) All electronics being aids is a possibility.
42. Statements Some evidences are files. No file is document. All documents are papers. Some documents are copies.
Conclusions
(a) All papers being files is a possibility.
(b) Some evidences are documents.
(c) Some files being copies is a possibility.
(d) No evidence is a paper.
(e) All copies are papers.
43. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘J ≤ Y’ be definitely true?
(a) J = P ≤ S = N ≤ V, N > Y
(b) Y ≥ H ≥ E = G ≥ B ≥ J
(c) N ≤ Y ≥ Q ≥ T < S ≤ J
(d) S ≤ V = P ≤ F ≤ Y, J ≥ S
(e) C < T ≥ W ≥ M ≥ V = J, T ≥ Y
44. Read the given information to answer the given question.
The Ganj Mahotsav, the biggest trade and cultural fair, being held every year in the month of October could not be held in October in the City X and was deferred to December this year.
Which of the following may be a reason for not organizing the Ganj Mahotsav in October this year in the City X?
A. A new trade fair was already being held in the City X during the month of October.
B. The number of proposals for cultural programmes, the main attraction of the Ganj Mahotsav, were relatively less as compared to previous year.
C. The number of tradesmen registered this year for the fair was less for the Ganj Mahotsav to be organized successfully.
D. The sponsors are financers of the Ganj Mahotsav were at risk due to projected low response this year at the fair.
(a) All of these
(b) B and C
(c) B, C and D
(d) Only A
(e) Only D
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Raghav went in his car to meet his friend John. He drove 30 km towards North and reaches point A. He then drove 40 km toward West to reach point B. He then turned to South and covered 8 km to reach point C further he turned to East and moved 26 km and reaches points D. Finally, he turned right and drove 10 km to the point E and then turned left to travel 19 km to his friend John.
45. How far is he from starting point?
(a) 5 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 14 km
(d) 6 km
(e) 12 km
46. In which direction is he from the starting point?
(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South
(d) North
(e) South-West
47. What is the shortest distance between his final place and point D?
(a) 29 km
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 27 km
(e) None of these
48. In which direction is point D with respect to point A?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South-West
(e) South-East
49. What is the difference between the distance of points C, D and points A, B?
(a) 14 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 9 km
(e) 18 km
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-54) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In certain coding scheme, ‘treated Patient for money is coded IA7 fO3 p17 mN5’
‘student letting false stories’ is coded as ‘fL5 lT7 sD7’ andR7
‘mending the display screens’ is coded as ‘sE7 th3 dp7 mD7’
‘changes for doing job’ is coded as ‘jO3 fO3 dI5 cN7’
(All the given codes comprise of two English alphabet and a number).
50. Which of the following will represent the code for ‘Spanish’ as per the given coding scheme?
(a) SN3
(b) sN7
(c) nN7
(d) hN5
(e) Cannot be determined
51. Which of the following represents the code for ‘posts’ in the given coding scheme?
(a) pS5
(b) cannot be coded as per the given coding scheme
(c) pO7
(d) So7
(e) sS5
52. Which of the following statements is true based on the given coding scheme?
(a) For every certainly’ is coded as ‘cE9 fO3 yE7’
(b) The code for ‘shake’ will definitely be ‘sE5’
(c) The code for ‘senses’ cannot be known as per the given coding scheme
(d) None of the given options is true
(e) The coded for ‘broaded’[ will be ‘dR9’
53. In the given coding scheme, how will ‘false codes generated’ be coded as?
(a) fL5 cD5 dR9
(b) gA7 cD9 fS5
(c) aA7 sD5 fE5
(d) dR9 eL5 sD7
(e) gR9 fL5 cD5
54. As per the given coding scheme, the code for which of the following pairs of words will be the same?
(a) Advisedly and asking
(b) Impacts and ideally
(c) unhealthy and unwilling
(d) bivalency and bankruptcy
(e) longevity and lengthy
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-57) In t his question three statements following by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
(a) Only conclusion II follows
(b) Both conclusion I and II follow
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(e) Only conclusion I follows
55. Statements All graphs are tables. All tables are charts. Some tables are lines.
Conclusions
I. All graphs are charts.
II. At least some lines are graphs.
56. Statements Some dates are weeks. No week is a month. All months are years.
Conclusions
I. All year can never be weeks.
II. Some dates are definitely not months.
57. Statements All graphs are tables. All tables are charts. Some tables are lines.
Conclusions
I. All lines being charts is a possibility
II. All tables are graphs.
58. Read the given information to answer the given question.
The 1500 new trainees who joined at MN Co. Ltd. six months ago, were transferred from City M to City B and were asked to joint at their office in City B within a span of 15 days.
Which of the given situations may possibly be the reason for which the trainees were posted at their office in City B?
A. The skills for which the trainees had to be trained further was to be done at City B.
B. The MN Co. Ltd. had opened a new store in City B and the trainees were asked to join at city B as employees.
C. The employees in City M were unable to complete the necessary training in the given span of time.
D. Some of the trainees in states of MN Co. Ltd. in City B left without prior information that burdened the employees
(a) Only C
(b) A and D
(c) All of these
(d) B and C
(e) Only A
59. Study the information carefully to answer the given question.
The National Museum of Country X ‘Banibian’ has 4 sections, each displaying different assets and aspects of the country between 2-4 pm. Taking the step will have the following three consequences.
A. The entry fees received from section 2 of the museum will decrease.
B. The number of Banibian visitors in section 2 between 2-4 pm will increase considerably.
C. The section displaying the cultural heritage of country X will start receiving foreign visitors.
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the given information?
(a) Each section of the museum has separate entry fees.
(b) Section 2 is not the section that displays to country’s cultural heritage.
(c) Foreign visitors will be allowed in other sections of the museum between 2-4 pm.
(d) The entry fee of section 2 was the highest among all the 4 sections.
(e) Earlier, the foreign visitors of the museum did not prefer to visit the section displaying cultural heritage of country X.
60. Five people viz A, B, C, D and E live on five different stores of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered five. A lives on an odd numbered floor. Only three people live between A and B. Only one person lives between B and C. E lives on one of the floors above A. On which floor does D live?
(a) Floor numbered I
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) Floor numbered 4
(d) Floor numbered 2
(e) Floor numbered 3
61. Is K the niece of R?
Statement
I. A is the sister of K. K is the niece of Y.
II. Y is the only sister of M. M is the son of R.
III. M is married to B. A is the child of B.
(a) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(b) The data in all statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the questions.
(c) The data in all statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
(d) The data in both statements I and III together are necessary to answer the question.
(e) The data in both statement II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
62. If the expressions A ≤ B < C > D ≤ E, G ≤ D ≤ F are true, then which of the following conclusions is definitely false?
(a) F ≤ C
(b) G > E
(c) D < B
(d) F > B
(e) D > A
63. Four people viz. P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table such that each of them sits at the middle of each of the sides, but not necessarily in the same order. Two of them are facing the centre and two face outside (opposite to the centre). Only one person sits between P and Q. P faces outside. R sits to the immediate right of P. Both the immediate neighbors of R face the same direction (If one neighbour face the centre and vice-versa.) What is the position of S with respect to Q?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Immediate left
(c) Second the right
(d) Second to the left
(e) Cannot be determined
64. This consists of a statement and two conclusion numbered I and II given below it. A conclusion is something which can be directly deduced from the given.
You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statement Pen manufacturing company Elux manufactures the popular ball-point pens Rexa which are sold for only Rs 10. If company Texur which manufactures pens similar to Rexa, most people will buy Texur ball-point pen only.
I. Texur’s ball point pens will definitely cost less than Rs 10.
II. Gel pens are more popular as well as preferred over ball-point pens these days.
(a) Neither I nor II can be concluded from the given information.
(b) Only II can be concluded from the given information.
(c) Either I or II can be concluded from the given information.
(d) Both I and II can concluded from the given information.
(e) Only I can be concluded from the given information.
Directions (Q. Nos-65-70) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a college, eight winds viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are located around a circular area, with all wings facing the centre of the circle. Eight different people viz Kin, Donna, Shiv, Anya, Jenna, Payal, Hari and Varsha study in one of these wings. No two wings appearing consecutively in alphabetical order are located immediately next to each other ie., wing P is not the immediate right or immediate left of wing Q, similarly wing Q is not to the immediate right or immediate left of wing P and R and so on.
Donna’s wing is second the left of T. There is only one between T and V.
Anya’s wing is second to the right of U. Anay’s wing is not immediately next to Donna’s wing.
The number of wings between Anya’s and Donna’s wing is equal to the number of wings between U and P. There are only three wings between Shiv’s and Jenna’s wings. Shiv studies in wing S. Jenna’s wign in not immediately next to Donna’s wing. Payal’s wing is to immediate right of Jenna’s wing.
Kin’s wing is to immediate left of W. Kin’s wing and Hari’s wing are not immediately next to each other.
65. Based on the given information, which of the following is true?
(a) None of the given options is true
(b) Shiv’s wing is to the immediate left of Anya’s wing.
(c) There are only two wings between R and Payal’s wing.
(d) Jenna’s wing is exactly between Anya’s and Hari’s wing.
(e) Hari studies in wing R.
66. Which of the following represents Varsha’s wing?
(a) T
(b) V
(c) P
(d) R
(e) Q
67. Which of the following represents the wing to immediate right of Varsha’s wing?
(a) V
(b) R
(c) S
(d) Kin’s wing
(e) Payal’s wing
68. Who amongst the following studies in wing T?
(a) Jenna
(b) Payal
(c) Kin
(d) Anya
(e) Varsha
69. How many wings are there between U and P when counted from the left of P?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) None
(e) Two
70. Which of the following represents the position of Donna’s wing with respect to wing R?
(a) Third to the right
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Third to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Immediate left
71. Six people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. A stands second from one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people stand between A and B. Only three people stand between B and D. F stands to the immediate right of B. More than one person stands between F and C. What is the position of E with respect to A?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Second to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Immediate left
(e) Immediate right
72. Read the following information carefully and answer the question. In country X, although the dental health is prove to be deteriorating through generations, the number of individuals graduating as dentists has been steadily going down as well.
Which of the following explains the incongruity stated above?
A. The scheme in which the government funded most of the expenses of dental colleges in being withdrawn in a phases manner since last 20 years.
B. In country X, it is mandatory for every medical college in Tier I and 2 cities to have a dental college as well.
C. The preference for Commerce and Engineering streams has been growing considerably over past decades owing to better compensations
D. Every sector and field of study is directly or indirectly correlated to the demands and patterns being available in the market.
(a) Only A
(b) A and D
(c) A and C
(d) B and D
(e) Only D
Directions (Q. Nos. 73-74) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Although overall health benefits of omega-3 fatty acids is well agreed upon, there still exist some differences in views regarding their major components- FPA and DKA. Dietary consumption of omega-3 fatty acids is one of the best studied interactions between food and brain evolutions. DKS is most abundant omega-3 fatty acid in cell membranes in the brain. However, unlike the other nutrients, the human body in not efficient at synthesizing DKA,
So, we are largely dependent on dietary DKA. Animal studies non-human primates, also show that DKA-depleted diets have resulted in impaired learning and memory, and that re-treating DKA containing diets reverses there Impairments. A growing number of similar studies are showing a strong correlations between the intake of omega-3 acids (especially DKA) and cognitive function, visual acuity and overall mental development.
73. Which of the following facts will contradict any part of the given information?
(a) LMA is a component of omega-3 fatty acids that cannot be consumed through maternal diet but can only be synthesized by body in pre-natal period.
(b) Studies on monkeys show that 85% of these monkeys displayed normal memory despite having 24% lower DKA than the average required level.
(c) A low species of fish are innately high in DKA content and the not need to depend upon external dietary supplements.
(d) People living in western countries, who are believed to be highest consumers of omega-2, reportedly have exceptionally good memory, problem solving skills and less mental disorders.
(e) Doctors of many countries prefer to give high doses of omega-3 tablets to the patients with weaker vision.
74. Following are two statements which may or may not be an inference based on the given information. (An inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be true based on known premises). You have to consider the given information and decide which of the given statements can be inferred?
I. At least some of the nutrients necessary for bodily functions can be synthesized within the body.
II. A diet rich in DKA assures no chances of developing brain disabilities/disorders.
(a) Neither I nor II can be inferred
(b) Only II can be inferred
(c) Both I and II can be inferred
(d) Either I or II can be inferred
(e) Only can be inferred
75. Read the following information and answer the question given.
Till now, congomersis was used of treating cancer patients which has many side effects. The red blood cells reduce considerably causing anemia especially in children after the congomersis sessions. The overcome these side effects, the scientists of country X have found a new technique called chemication for treating cancer patients although is a little painful but does not cause anemia.
Which of the following may prove that comeication will not be successful congomersis?
A. The patients need to undergo therapies under chemication every three months whereas a total of only two sessions are required.
B. The reduction in red blood cells in cancer patients is considerably less in chemication as compared to congomersis.
C. Unlike congomeris, a person has to continue medicines for two months even after chemication is over.
D. Cancer being a fatal disease, the chances of full recovery are very less despite using all medical techniques.
(a) A and C
(b) A and B
(c) Only A
(d) All of the above
(e) Only B
Section 2 Abstract Reasoning
Direction (Q. Nos. 76-90) In the questions given below which of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
76. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
77. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
78. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
79. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
80. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
81. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
82. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
83. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
84. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
85. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
86. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
87. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
88. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
89. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
90. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each question below, the second figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure with could fit in the place of the (?)
91. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
92. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
93. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
94. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
95. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) In these questions, a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pair of figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that of the unnumbered pair.
96. 
97. 
98. 
99. 
100. 
Section 3 Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension
101. Last year was supposed to bring faster economic growth and good monsoon that would end the miseries of two back-to-back years of drought. That complacency gave way to the sober realization that optimism doesn’t wait for facts.
A. Optimism will wait for facts is established
B. Despite last year being successful
C. It was believed that last year
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) None
102. Over five crore citizens suffered from depression, a major contributor to global suicides occurs mainly in low-and middle-income countries. Over three crore others suffered from anxiety disorders.
A. Because a major contributor to global suicides occurs
B. In addition to over five crore citizens
C. Ever since over three crore citizens suffered
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None
103. Expectation of the buyer is different in different geographies. Companies must understand the psyche of the buyer and then come up with a product based on what they need.
A. Even if buyers understand the psyche of
B. While coming up with a product
C. When expectation of the buyer is
(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None
104. Migration to urban areas is a worldwide phenomenon. Currently thirty-two percent of the population live in urban areas in another five years, it is estimated to grow to thirty-eight percent.
A. Even though thirty two percent of the population
B. When it is estimated that the population growth
C. Urban areas are saturated with worldwide.
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None
105. Laws to protect the privacy and financial details of people using electronic payments are on the cards. The move, aimed at preventing data theft, comes in the wake of a surge in phone banking and electronic payments.
A. In the wake of a surge in phone banking
B. Preventing data theft is not a priority
C. In order to protect financial details
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None
106. In this question, a sentence is given with three words/group of words in bold type. One or more of them may have a certain error. Below the sentence is given three combinations of words/group of words i.e. A, B and C. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among A, B and C given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One, two all three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any, and mark the option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
The first satellite launched five years ago, could send off pictures of just 3000 square kilometers a day, but the satellites have followed a trajectory of improving more closer to that seem in cell phone and the latest satellites can be covered 2.5 million square kilometers a day.
A. can send-advancement close-can report on
B. could send back-improvement similar-can cover
C. would send-improvement akin-are covering
(a) B and C
(b) All of the above
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required
107. In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (―) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. .From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are the perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as context in the blank space of the paragraph.
Italy’s fragmented banking industry is consolidating. The resolution in November 2015 of four tiny banks, in which bondholders were abiled in, caused uproar. Now UBI Banca, the fifth largest lender hopes to buy three of the four ‘good’ residual hopes to buy three of the four ‘good’ residual banks for £ 1. (―). Another is on the horizon, of two Venetian banks. Analysts at credit service suggest that the government’s £ 20 billion fund should be suffice to plug any remaining capital gaps. All this is necessary but not sufficient.
(a) Carved, a rating agency, predict that by 2018, bad loans will always be back to their pre-crisis level-although.
(b) A merger finalized on January 1st created Banca BPM, now Italy’s third largest bank.
(c) All this is necessary-but not sufficient-the vicious cycle will be hard to break.
(d) The finance minister says, the banking system is turning a page and he is yet to be proved right
(e) All the given options fit
Directions (Q. Nos. 108-115) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The need for regulation to protect the environment gets widespread but grudging acceptance : widespread because everyone wants a liveable planet, grudging because of lingering belief that environmental regulations erode competitiveness. The prevailing view that there is an inherent and fixed trade-off : ecology versus the economy. On one side of the trade off are the social benefits that arise from strict environmental standards. On the other hand are industry’s private costs for prevention and cleanup-costs that lead to higher prices and reduced competitiveness.
With the argument framed this way, progress on environmental quality has become a kind of arm-wrestling match. One side pushes for tougher standards; the other tries to roll them back: The balance of power shifts one way or the other depending on the prevailing political winds.
This static view of environmental regulation, in which everything except regulation is held constant, is incorrect. If technology, ,products, processes, and customer needs were all fixed, the conclusion that regulation must raise costs would be inevitable. But companies operate in the real world of dynamic competition, not in the static world of much economic theory. They are constantly finding innovative solutions to pressures of all sorts-from competitors, customers, and regulators. Properly designed environmental standards can trigger innovations allow companies to use a range of inputs more productively-from raw materials to energy to labour-thus offsetting the costs of improving environmental impact and ending the stalemate. Ultimately, this enhanced resource productivity makes companies more competitive, not less.
Consider how the Dutch flower industry has responded to its environmental problems. Intense cultivation of flowers in small areas was contaminating the soil and groundwater with pesticides, herbicides, and fertilizers. Facing increasingly strict regulation on the release of chemicals, the Dutch understood that the only effective way to address the problem would be to develop a closed-loop system. In advanced Dutch greenhouses, flowers now grow in water and rock wool, not in soil. This lowers the risk of infestation, reducing the need for fertilizers and pesticides, which are delivered in water that circulates and is reused. The tightly monitored closed-loop system also reduces variation in growing conditions, thus improving product quality. Handling costs have gone down because the flowers are cultivated on specially designed platforms. In addressing the environmental problem, then, the Dutch have innovated the ways that have raised the productivity with which they use in many of the resources involved in the growing flowers. The net result is not only dramatically lowers costs, better product quality, and enhanced global competitiveness.
This example illustrates why the debate about the relationship between competitiveness and the environment has been framed incorrectly. Policy makers, business leaders, and environmentalists have focused on the static cost impacts of environmental regulation and have ignored the m ore important offsetting productivity benefits from innovation.
As a result, they have acted too often in ways that unnecessarily drive up costs and slow down progress on environmental issues. This static mind-set has thus created a self-fulfilling prophecy leading to even more costly environmental regulation. Regulators tend to set regulations in ways that deter innovation.
Companies, in turn, oppose and delay regulations instead of innovating to address them. The whole process has spawned an industry of litigators and consultants that drains resources away from real solutions.
108. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?
A. Following advanced technologies, successful access Europe, has helped the Dutch flower industry boom.
B. Having a static view of environmental regulation is not desirable.
C. There exist disagreements among shareholders with respect to the regulation to protect the environment.
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) All the given options are true
109. The author in the given passage ………..
(a) is Dutch
(b) encourage policymakers and stakeholders to innovate
(c) is pessimistic about the outlook people have towards environment protection.
(d) encourages forest to adopt the closed-loop system for all crops.
(e) is contented with the present government for playing their role efficiently.
110. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase “ending the stalemate” as used in terms of innovation in the passage?
(a) dependent on technological advancements
(b) resolves a deadlock
(c) depletes resources
(d) adversely affects the environment
(e) curbs innovation
111. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘TRIGGER’ as used in the passage?
(a) Support
(b) Affect
(c) Prevent
(d) Switch
(e) Illicit
112. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word SPAWNED as used in the passage?
(a) Created
(b) Mounted
(c) Issued
(d) Spared
(e) Destroyed
113. As mentioned in the passage, the need for regulation to protect the environment …………
A. exists in different intensities among the stakeholders.
B. is affected by political pressures.
C. always forms out to be an expensive affair.
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) B and C
114. Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?
(a) Stringent Environmental Regulations – A must for supporting the Economy
(b) Green and Competitive-accommodating two sweets at one sheath
(c) Innovation in Agriculture across the world
(d) Environmental Polices-effective only on Paper
(e) All those given as options
115. As mentioned in the passage, companies can gain a competitive edge if…………
A. There exists a team of experts responsible for implementing practices having history of success.
B. The environment is devoid of competition.
C. There is thoughtful utilization of resources.
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) None
116. In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (―) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are the perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as a context in the blank space of the paragraph.
Work smarter, not harder : It is one of the most irritating things a book can tell you. But at the macroeconomic level, it is important that growth can come from having more labour (recruiting more workers, or making existing employees work for longer hours), more capital, or from using that labour and capital more effectively-something known as total factor productivity (TFP). This can come from the kind of brilliant innovations devised by Thomas Edison. (…………)
(a) This shows that, at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007.
(b) It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work.
(c) Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up.
(d) A Recovery has been underway for a while.
(e) Other might counter that the full benefits of new technology are not reflected in the data.
117. (…………….). Rising prosperity in the region means the cost of manual work, outsourced to the region is rising. Labour shortages loom. Certain job requires craft skills which are becoming rarer. From the first sketch of a completely new pair of trainers to making and testing prototypes, ordering materials, sending samples back and forth, rebooting a factory, working up production and eventually shipping the finished goods to the shop can take the industry as long as 18 months.
(a) Currently, trainers (shoes) are mostly by hand in giant factories, often in Asian countries, with people
(b) In Asia wealth is rising.
(c) Many people now have the wherewithal to avoid tasks that are thought of as manual and monstrous.
(d) The company will use robots and novel production techniques such as 3D printing to reinvent its manufacturing process.
(e) All the given options fit.
118. (……..). By 2022 more than 4.5 million are expected every year-about the same as the country’s resident population. Tourism has overtaken dairy produce as the biggest export, helped by a large in the number of visitors from China. They are seen to experience the natural beauty promised by the country’s “100% pure New Zealand” advertising campaign and shown off in the film adaptations of “The lord of the Rings” and “The Hobbit”, which were shot in New Zealand”, which were shot in New Zealand’s breathtaking wilderness.
(a) In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.
(b) Tourists already contribute around NZ $ 1.1 billion though the country 15 percent sales tax.
(c) It would be difficult to prevent tourists from sneaking around the toll booths.
(d) Many New Zealanders foresee a huge influx of foreigners who have been seeking to four national parks.
(e) All the given options fit.
Directions (Q. Nos. 119-122) In these questions, there are four sentences , B, C and D. You have to determined which of these sentences is/are grammatically correct/incorrect based on the question given. Mark the appropriate option as your answer.
119. Which of these sentences is/are correct?
A. The spokesperson announced that a female police officer would be the next commissioner of the police force.
B. Wounds made by words were hard to hear.
C. The film depicts an inspirational story of a young tribal girl who dreams to climb Mount Everest.
D. The captives used this woolen sticks to write on the internal side of envelopes.
(a) Only B
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and D
(d) A and C
(e) All are correct
120. Which of these sentences is/are incorrect?
A. What is bred in the bone will not wear out of the flesh.
B. He was so annoyed on been contradicted.
C. It is not for such as they, to dictate us.
D. There never had arise a great man who has not been misunderstood.
(a) Only C
(b) B, C and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and D
(e) Only D
121. Which of these sentences is/are correct?
A. The army had to suffer terrible privations due to war.
B. He was a tired as he could scarcely stand.
C. The most exquisitely work of literacy art exhibits a certain crudeness and coarseness.
D. Education and poverty are the most pressing issues for our country.
(a) B and C
(b) A, C and D
(c) A and D
(d) A and B
(e) Only D
122. Which of these sentences is/are correct?
A. Do not be idle, lest you came to ruins.
B. As he had not paid his bid, following his electricity was cut off.
C. Giving on wrong pleasure is not self-sacrifice, though self-culture
D. There were doors all around the hall, but they were all locked.
(a) Only D
(b) A, B and C
(c) A and D
(d) C and D
(e) All are correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 123-125) In these questions, a sentence is given with three words/group of words in bold type. One or more of them may have certain error. Below the sentence is given three combinations of words/group of words i.e., A, B and C. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among A, B and C given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One two, three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any, and mark the option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction is required’ as your answer.
123. As less of 5 percent of the total fleet of cars in Norway are electric at present, the country’s transport minister calls it ‘realistic’ expectation an end the sales of new cars power fossil fuels by 2025.
A. Though less than-to expect-powered by
B. Since approximately-an expectation-controlling
C. Although not even-to envisage-fuelled by
(a) A and C
(b) All of the above
(c) A and B
(d) Only A
(e) No correction required
124. To some audiences, orchestral conductors seemingly to dramatically wave their arms with no discernable feet on the music, whereas really, conductors undergo rigorous conservatory training, followed by further feedback on the job when they climb the career ladder.
A. merely-in reality-in their climb up
B. seem to-in fact-as they climb up
C. will-actually-while they climb
(a) Only C
(b) All of the above
(c) A and B
(d) Only A
(e) No correction required
125. Like roads, which have well-established rules, ,lane marketing and traffic signals to guide autonomous vehicle being use, the pavements running alongside those roads are what roboticists known to “unstructured environments”
A. While-in use of-called
B. Unlike-using those-refer to
C. Although-being in use-speak of
(a) Only B
(b) All of the above
(c) A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required
126. In the question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (……..) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives,, find the sentence which is/are the perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as context in the blank space of the paragraph. Infrastructure projects, the benefits are long term but the costs are short term. (………). So an elected leader gets all the fink from those who oppose this, while elephant/blot on the landscape but none of the praise for the reduced traffic jams or cheaper power that ensure.
(a) Private investors are happy to own infrastructure projects once they are up and running and delivering reliable yields, they are less keen on financing Greenfield projects with all the risks that go with them.
(b) The politician that authorizes the project is rarely the same on that opens it.
(c) Infrastructure can have positive externalities that are not captured by investors but will benefit society (the building of the internet or America’s interstate highway system, for example).
(d) Far too many projects get build and the overall returns are disappointing.
(e) All the given options fit.
Directions (Q. Nos. 127-133) Read the following passage and answer the given questions Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The death of Harambe- the western lowland gorilla shot dead at the Cincinnati Zoo after a three-year-old boy fell into his enclosure-ignited a fierce debate. Some critics seized the tragedy as an opportunity to advance an uncompromising anti-captivity narrative in which all zoos and aquariums are inherently unethical and cruel. To be sure, there are bad actors. The spawning of so-called ‘roadside zoos’ –an exploitative enterprise known for its systematic negligence and abuse of animals-are some of the most egregious cases-in-point. But responsible zoos and aquariums exist to facilitate and promote the conservation of animals. And the need for intensive conservation campaigns is now more urgent then ever before : Our world is currently in the midst of the ‘Sixth Extinction,’ a term coined by Elizabeth Kolbert in her Pulitzer Prize-winning book of the same name.
Unlike the five preceding die-offs, which were precipitated natural events-such as those that killed of the dinosaurs, exterminating three-quarters of all species on the planet-the current mass extinction is a result of human activities encroaching on wild spaces. Today’s zoos and aquariums are uniquely positioned to combat those evolving threats. Using robust and sophisticated breeding programs, these institutions fund and facilitate countless initiatives to propagate species and preserve genetic biodiversity, and then reintroduce critically endangered or extinct species into the wild. Consider the Arabian Oryx, a striking breed of antelope from the Arabian Peninsulal.
The species was hunted to extinctions in the wild nearly four decades ago. The Phoenix Zoo helped to lead the ensuing breeding and reintroduction programs which ultimately birthed more than 200 calves from just nine individuals. Now between Oman and Jordan there are about 1,000 Arabian Oryx living in the wild. The Arabian Oryx-which has since been removed from the endangered species list-isn’t alone. Breeding programs at zoos and aquariums have since saved numerous other species from extinction, including the European bison, the red wolf, and the Oregon spotted frog.
Even when animals are never introduced into the wild, placing them under human care can still improve the lives of their wild counterparts. Modern zoos and aquariums serve as bases for observation and research, which then helps to protect wild animals. One compelling example in the study of animal infection and disease, currently the subject of numerous ongoing research projects at zoos worldwide.
The zoological society of London,, for instance, is developing innovative methods to assess the risks of animals contracting disease when they’re reintroduced into the wild. Smithsonian’s National Zoo in Washington is leading global research efforts on the detection and treatment efforts on the detection and treatment of the sometimes-fatal elephant herpes virus, with the ultimate goal of developing an effective vaccine to be administered to the species in both zoo and wild populations.
Ofcourse, the positive contributions of zoos and aquariums conserving wild animals cannot-and should not-outweigh the health and well-being of the animals living under the care of these institutions.
The American Humane Association is thus launching a global initiative to elevate the welfare standards of zoos and aquariums worldwide. The Human conservation program will be the first third-party certification devoted solely to verifying that animals living in these institutions are healthy, positively social, active, safe, and living with proper light, sound, air, and heat levels. These standards will be set not by zoos but instead an independent collection of world-renowned experts in the fields of animal science, behaviour, and ethics-a sharp departure from most existing accreditation programs, which are vulnerable to accusations of conflicts of interest and leniency. To some detractors, the humane certification of zoos and aquariums in an oxymoron. But vast empirical and academic research discredits this black-and-white view. Animals in zoos and aquariums today can live longer, healthier, and richer lives than their forbearers ever did in the wild. Go see for yourself.
127. Why was the author cited the example of the Arabian Oryx?
A. To show that reviving species which are extinct is dangerous.
B. To draw attention to the fact that conservation efforts of zoos are effective.
C. To demonstrate that at times it is possible to reverse the effects of human activities.
(a) Only C
(b) B and C
(c) Only B
(d) All of the above
(e) A and B
128. Which of the following is/are the theme (s) discussed in the passage?
A. Evolution of science and animal wellbeing.
B. Outrage surroundings zoos.
C. Destructive footprint of human activities.
(a) A and C
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
(e) All of the above
129. Which of the following is/are objective (s) of the Humane Conservation Programme?
A. To focus solely on the conservation of endangered species.
B. To entrust the regulation of zoos and ethical treatment of animals to independent experts.
C. To advocate the abolition of keeping animals in captivity.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) All of the above
(e) A and C
130. Which of the following words as used in the passage are synonyms?
A. Fierce B. Egregious
C. Cruel D. Wild
(a) A and C
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) None of these
(e) All of these
131. Why does the author cite the phrase given in bold and in Italics in the passage?
A. It is his firm belief that zoos are detrimental to animal welfare.
B. To point out that accreditation agencies are corrupt.
C. To advocate that zoos should be allowed autonomy to govern themselves.
(a) Only C
(b) Only B
(c) None of these
(d) B and C
(e) A and B
132. Which of the following can be said in the context of the passage?
A. Zoos are investing in bettering the health of animal in the wild.
B. It is possible to reintroduce extinct animals species.
C. The existence of zoos is a complex issue.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) All of these
(e) A and C
133. Which of the following is true about roadside zoos?
(a) These are lucrative and allow even the hunting of animals.
(b) These play a vital role in extinction of endangered species.
(c) These are unscrupulous and distinct.
(d) These are threat to ethics pertaining to animal safety.
(e) None of the given options is true.
Directions (Q. Nos. 134-138) In these questions, there are five sentences A, B, C, D and E. Four of these sentence contribute to one main idea when these are formed into a paragraph. One Sentence does not contribute to that main Idea and that sentence is your answer. In case all the given sentences contribute to them main idea, mark ‘All contribute to the main idea’ as the answer.
134. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Industry automation has started causing disruption in the labour market.
B. Textile and footwear industry that were considered non-susceptible to computerization are being taken under control by the computers.
C. Given the current trends there will be an immediate slump in enrolment in course as Nano-technology, robotics, biotechnology etc. observed among college students.
D. Computer have already replace job which are easy to automate.
E. It is predicted that harder domains will also be captured during the next wave of computerization.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) E
(d) D
(e) All contribute to the main idea
135. Which of the following sentence does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Animals to protect themselves from predators resort to blending in with certain aspects of environment.
B.Mimicry of their surroundings among animals is common to maintain the continuity of their species.
C. Adaptation provides animals with better chance of survival.
D. Camouflage is used by some animals as a tool for hunting.
E. Adaptive tools are maintained and evolved by means of natural selection.
(a) E
(b) D
(c) A
(d) C
(e) All contribute to the main idea
136. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Voting is not only a right but also the responsibility of each and every citizen.
B. The person elected will help to decide polices on a plethora of issues such as health condition, corruption etc.
C. Awareness among citizens about their responsibilities as a voter should be cultivated.
D. By casting their vote citizens elect the person who would assure the power of governance and help transform
E. Seats are won or lost by a single vote thereby making the person casting his vote more responsible.
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) All contribute to the main idea
137. Which of the following sentences does not contribute to the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Sports instill or infuse a sporting spriti to take up the heavy burden of life in lighter vein.
B. The necessarily of sports is felt to be so great in life that there is ample justification in its favour.
C. Sports and games are the right avenues to channelize the energy and vitality of students.
D. Government has taken decision to ensure 50 percent reservation in colleges and hospitals in the state.
E. The greatest educational value of the sports and games is to provide stimulation to study.
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) A
(e) All contribute to the main idea
138. Which of the following sentences does not contribute the main idea of the paragraph?
A. Free market boosts effectiveness and efficiency in the production of goods and services.
B. Consumers are provided with various options of goods and services in a free market economy.
C. Free market makes consumers apparently believe that they influence the production in an economy.
D. Better awareness among consumer regarding options result in stable demand and supply.
E. Wastage in production of good and services does not occur due to the stability of supply.
(a) C
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
(e) All contribute to the main idea
139. In this question, a sentence is given with three words/group of words in bold type. One or more of them may have certain error. Below the sentence is given three combination of words/group of words i.e., A, B and C. You have to find out the correct word/group of words from among A, B and C given below each sentence to replace the incorrect words/group of words and make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. One, two, all three or none of them may be correct. Decide upon which is/are correct, if any, and mark the option which denotes your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
Having seen Greece consistently fail to meet previous bail-out targets, the IMF think the European
Commission’s forecasts are too rosy, and that, without relief. Greece’s debt with balloon after 2030.
A. Consistency in failing-most rosy-no relief
B. Consistent failure-overly optimistic-unless relief
C. Consistency falling-very rosy-being relieved
(a) Only A
(b) All A, B and C
(c) Only A and B
(d) Only C
(e) No correction required.
Directions (Q. Nos. 140-142) In this question, a word is given in bold CAPITALS is followed by four words. Find out, if any of the words(s) which are/is either most nearly the same in meaning OR opposite of the word given in bold.
140. EMANCIPATE
A. Enslave B. Loiter
C. Conjecture D. Assumption
(a) Only B
(b) B, C and D
(c) C and D
(d) A and D
(e) Only A
141. DRUDGE
A. Foreboding B. Toiler
C. Prod D. Menial
(a) Only B
(b) B and D
(c) A, C and D
(d) A and B
(e) Only C
142. LUDICROUS
A. Absurd B. Lavishness
C. Farcical D. Laughable
(a) Only B
(b) A, C and D
(c) B and E
(d) Only D
(e) Only A and D
Directions (Q. Nos. 143-150) In the given passage, there are words/group of words highlighted in bold and underlined. You have to decide if the words/group of words given is correct (In terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group of words from the given options. In case, the suggested word/group of words is correct, mark the option as your answer.
Every year over a lakh of our students seek admissions abroad spending about $ 4 billion (Rs. 16,400 crore) annually. The (143) demand in seats in metros is maddening. Even their-rate institutes are (144) crowded with students. There is an (145) urgent need in our country to expand capacity of higher education. To (146) linked this huge supply-demand gap, one of the recommendations of the Knowledge Commission is to allow foreign universities in the country. The government, it seems, is all set to follow this recommendation. There is a (147) selective, but there are some concerns too. There is a possibility that the craze for a foreign label and lack of information about these institutes can leave thousands of students duped by fly-by-night operators, especially the franchisees. The government has to be (148) choose in allowing entry to foreign universities. Only those institutions that are accredited by reputed organizations should be given permission to start companies here.
In the field of management, only those which are accredited by the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business (AACSB) or the European should be allowed. They should be asked to invest directly without any franchisee. Such accredited institutes have (149) Strength pedagogic systems and processes, and they are (150) unlikely to cut corners for making a quick buck.
143.
(a) rush for
(b) craze of
(c) processes on
(d) rate race
(e) The given word(S) is/are correct
144.
(a) fulfilled with
(b) overwhelmed with
(c) completely packed
(d) lack
(e) The given word(S) is/are correct
145.
(a) desperation
(b) immediate desires
(c) imperative
(d) important step
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
146.
(a) be connected
(b) fixing
(c) allow
(d) bridge
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
147.
(a) dogmatic steps
(b) realistically change
(c) critical measure
(d) pragmatic move
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
148.
(a) carefully
(b) judicious in
(c) selective
(d) discriminate
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
149.
(a) robust
(b) vigor
(c) potency
(d) fragile
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
150.
(a) implausible
(b) strange
(c) remote
(d) never
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct
Section 4 Quantitative Aptitude
151. 12 women, can complete a project in 40 days and 15 men can complete the same project in 27 days. 16 women worked for 6 days and after 6 days they were replaced by ‘X’ men. If ‘X’ men completed the remaining work in 9 days, what is the value of ‘X’?
(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 45
(d) 21
(e) 42
Directions (Q. Nos. 152-156) In the given questions two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have the relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
152. The sum of cubes of a and b is 7560. The sum of a and b is 30.
Quantity I The sum of reciprocals of A and B
Quantity II 1/3
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
153. ‘m’ is an even integer.
Quantity I Number of distinct prime factors of 16 m.
Quantity II Number of distinct prime factors of m.
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
154. A and B can together finish a piece of work in 10 days. If A starts working and after 3 days, A is replaced by B and B finished the remaining work in 24 days.
Quantity I Number of days taken by B alone to finish the piece of work.
Quantity II Number of days taken by C alone to finish the piece of work. (C is 40% less efficient than A).
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
155. A rod (X) is cut into 3 equal parts. The resultant rods are cut into 10, 30 and 36 equal parts, respectively. Each of these resulting rods has an integer length (in m).
Quantity I The minimum possible length of the rod X (in m).
Quantity II 520 m
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
156. Bag A contains 8 red and 4 blue balls. Bag B contains 1 red and 5 blue balls. One bag is selected at random. From the selected bag one ball is drawn at random
Quantity I 5/12
Quantity II Probability that the ball is red.
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the information that is given
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
Directions (Q. Nos. 157-162) Read the pie chart and answer the given questions.
Note : No new employees joined the given banks a left the given banks from January 2015 to December 2015
157. What is the average number of scale I officers in banks D, E and F?
(a) 63
(b) 65
(c) 64
(d) 67
(e) 68
158. In December 2014, 4% of the candidates who applied for job as scale I officer were recruited in bank A. If bank A had 44 scale I officers in 2014, what was the number of candidates who applied for the job?
(a) 240
(b) 450
(c) 400
(d) 250
(e) 300
159. In January 2015, 32% of the total number of scale I officers in banks B, D and E together were unmarried. If the respective ratio between the number of unmarried male officers in these banks was 3 : 2 : 3, what was the number of unmarried scale I officers in bank D?
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 14
(d) 20
(e) 16
160. In January 2016, 20% and 15% scale I officers were promoted to scale II in banks A and F, respectively and therefore the total number of scale II officers in banks A and F together was 126. If in bank A, the number of scale II officers in December 2015 was 100% more than that in bank F, what was the number of scale II officers in bank F in December 2015?
(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 36
(d) 32
(e) 40
161. In January 2015, the number of male scale I officers in bank B was three times the number of female scale I officers in the same bank. If in bank D, the number of female scale I officers was same as that in bank B, what was the number of male scale I officers of bank D?
(a) 80
(b) 78
(c) 82
(d) 84
(e) 76
162. In January 2016, some scale I officers resigned from bank C and all of them joined bank B. If the resultant respective ratio between the number of scale I officers in bank C and that in bank B is 24 : 13. What is the number of scale I officers who resigned from bank C?
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 4
(e) 5
163. A’s age six years ago was equal to twice of B’s age four years ago. C is nine years elder to B and also nine years younger to A. What is the sum of present ages of A, B and C?
(a) 90 yr
(b) 64 yr
(c) 65 yr
(d) 87 yr
(e) 81 yr
Directions (Q. Nos. 164-169) In these questions, a series is given in which one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
164. 54 57 62 69 78 90 102
(a) 57
(b) 69
(c) 90
(d) 78
(e) 62
165. 4 7 15 30 54 91 137
(a) 54
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 7
(e) 91
166. 446 445 437 410 384 221 5
(a) 410
(b) 348
(c) 221
(d) 445
(e) 437
167. 16 10 8 16 64 512 8192
(a) 16
(b) 512
(c) 10
(d) 8
(e) 64
168. 5 3 6 15 56 275 1644
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 275
(d) 6
(e) 15
169. 160 80 40 20 10 5 2.5
(a) 60
(b) 4.5
(c) 20
(d) 40
(e) 10
170. Pipe A and B together can fill an empty tank in 
Pipe B alone takes 6 hours more than the time taken by pipe A alone to fill the tank. If pipe B was opened for 2.5 hours and then closed, what portion of the tank will remain empty?
(a) 3/4
(b) 13/16
(c) 11/16
(d) 15/16
(e) 5/16
171. 20 L of pure water was added to a vessel containing 80 L of pure milk. 36 L of the resultant mixture was then sold and some more pure milk and pure water was added to the vessel in the respective ratio of 7 : 2. If the final quantity of water was 3 L less than the initial quantity of water in the vessel, what was the quantity of pure milk that was added to the vessel?
(a) 15.4 L
(b) 14.7 L
(c) 13.9 L
(d) 16.8 L
(e) 16.1 L
Directions (Q. Nos. 172-178) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
172. What is the respective ratio between the total vote count at centre D in 2013 and 2014 together and that at centre E in both years together?
(a) 7 : 6
(b) 8 : 7
(c) 9 : 7
(d) 5 : 4
(e) 6 : 5
173. If the vote count at centre A in 2014 comprised 40% of the total number of registered voters for that centre, what was the total number of registered voters for centre A
(a) 50000
(b) 54000
(c) 60000
(d) 40000
(e) 48000
174. What is the average vote count at centres B, C and E in 2013?
(a) 16000
(b) 17000
(c) 14000
(d) 18000
(e) 15000
175. Out of the total vote count a centre C in 2013 and 2014 together, 18% were invalid. How many votes at centre C in both these years were valid?
(a) 29800
(b) 24750
(c) 23780
(d) 30050
(e) 21400
176. If the vote count at centre F in 2013 and 2014 was 10% and 20% more than that of centre B in these years respectively, what was the total vote count at centre F in both these years together?
(a) 37800
(b) 41000
(c) 36900
(d) 40000
(e) 36500
177. Out of the total vote at centre B and D together in 2014, if the respective ratio of the number of males and females was 4 : 3, what was the number of males who voted at both these centres?
(a) 15000
(b) 18000
(c) 21000
(d) 22000
(e) 20000
178. Sam bought two different articles A and B at a total cost of Rs 5000. He sold article A at a loss of 25% and article B at a profit of 6%, Sam incurred an overall loss of Rs 165 by selling the articles. What is the cost price of article A?
(a) Rs 1200
(b) Rs 2000
(c) Rs 1250
(d) Rs 1800
(e) Rs 1500
179. Sarah keeps aside 25% of her monthly salary as petty cash and she divides the remaining salary into two funds expenditure and investments in the respective ratio 2 : 1. She makes only two types of investment PPF and MFs, in respective ratio of 3 : 2. If the sum she keeps as petty cash is Rs 5400, more than that she invested in MF, what is Sarah’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs 30000
(b) Rs 27000
(c) Rs 42000
(d) Rs 36000
(e) Rs 24000
180. A and B start a business. Sum invested by B is half of that invested by A. Nine months after the start of the business, B completely withdraws from the business and C joins the business with Rs. 9000. If the total annual profit earned was Rs 27000 and C earned Rs 5000 in his share from the profit, what was A’s initial investment?
(a) Rs 8000
(b) Rs 9000
(c) Rs 6000
(d) Rs 4000
(e) Other than those given, as options
181. To cross each other form the moment they meet, two trains A (with speed 81 km/h) and B (with speed 36 km/h) running in opposite direction (one towards South and one towards North) take 32 sec less than the time they take while travelling in same direction (both towards North). If length of train B is 80 m more than the length of train A, what is the length of train A?
(a) 215 m
(b) 298 m
(c) 265 m
(d) 278 m
(e) 285 m
182. Some invested in scheme B offering simple interest @ 5% per annum was 80% more than the sum invested in scheme A offering compound interest (compounded annually) @ 10% per annum If at the end of two years, the total amount received from both the schemes together was Rs 6360, what was the difference between the sum invested in both the schemes?
(a) Rs 1800
(b) Rs 1500
(c) Rs 1595
(d) Rs 1650
(e) Rs 2000
Directions (Q. Nos. 183-188) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
The following is a sales and revenue data made by two bakeries, namely Cakies and Misty. The bakeries sell only two types of product A and B. (Note: All the pieces produced on the particular day are sold, unless specified otherwise.)
Please note:
I. Revenue = Selling price per piece (*) number of pieces sold
II. Profit = Revenue (−) Cost incurred for total number of pieces produced
III. Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost incurred for total number of pieces produced) * 100
Bakery Cakies
Cost incurred on production of product A was Rs 12 piece. Revenue generated on selling @ Rs 18/piece was Rs 810. Profit made on sales of product A there by was Rs 90.
Price of product B was 25% more than that of product of product A produced. Profit on selling 2/5th of the total pieces of product B produced was Rs 1125, thereby making a profit of 60%.
Baker Misty
Pieces of product A produced was 20% less than that produced by bakery cakies. It could sell all the pieces of product A produced. Profit made on sales of product A was 220%.
Prices of product A produced was equal to that of product B produced. Profit on selling 36 pieces of product B @ Rs 50/piece was Rs 360. Profit made on the sales of product A was 175% more than that of product B.
183. Selling price of per piece of product B by bakery Cakies is what per cent more than the selling price of the same product by bakery Misty?
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 30%
(e) 25%
184. Per piece selling price of product A by bakery Misty is what percent more or less than that of the same product by bakery Cakies?
(a) 60% more
(b) 66 2/3% more
(c) 62 1/3% less
(d) 64% less
(e) 70% more
185. What is the difference between the revenue generated by selling product B by both the bakeries?
(a) Rs 1800
(b) Rs 720
(c) Rs 1200
(d) Rs 1500
(e) Rs 900
186. Had the cost incurred on per piece of product A produced by backery Cakies been 40% less than the original and had it been able to sell 40 pieces each of products B and A produced that day, then would have been the total profit by the bakery on selling both the products?
(a) Rs 840
(b) Rs 813
(c) Rs 864
(d) Rs 720
(e) Rs 687
187. What per cent of product A produced could bakery Cakies sell?
(a) 70%
(b) 65%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) Other than those given as options
188. Profit on sales of product A by bakery Misty is what per cent of revenue generated by the same bakery?
(a) 48%
(b) 72%
(c) 62.25%
(d) 60%
(e) 68.75%
Directions (Q. Nos. 189-193) Study the table and answer the given questions.
189. Total number of students who have seen at the most one movie in college F and those in college G together is 304. Total number of students who have seen at least four movies in college F and those in college G together is 160. What is the number of students in college G?
(a) 300
(b) 350
(c) 500
(d) 600
(e) 400
190. In college D, if the average number of students who have seen at the most four movies and number of students who have seen at least two movies is 1099, what is the number of students in college D?
(a) 1800
(b) 1500
(c) 1200
(d) 1400
(e) 1600
191. In college E, the respective ratio of boys and girls who have seen at the most four movies was 5 : 3 and the respective ratio of boys and girls who have seen at least three movies is 5 : 4. Number of boys is what per cent more than number of girls in college E?
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 55
(e) Cannot be determined
192. If the number of student who have seen at least three movies in college C is equal to those who have seen at the most four movies in College B, then number of students in college C in what percent more than number of students is college B?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
193. In college A, if the difference between the number of students who have seen at least four movies and those who have seen at the most two movies is 203, what is the number of students who have seen three movie?
(a) 153
(b) 141
(c) 168
(d) 159
(e) 147
194. A bag contains 8 red balls and 12 blue balls. One ball is drawn at random and replaced with 5 green balls. A second ball was drawn without replacement. What is the probability that first ball drawn is red in colour and the second ball drawn is blue in colour?
(a) 2/5
(b) 1/5
(c) 1/15
(d) 3/5
(e) 7/15
Directions (Q. Nos. 195-199) The following questions consist of a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate option.
a. The data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
b. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
c. The data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
d. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
e.The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.
195. What is the actual per cent profit made by the trader on selling rice @ Rs .36/kg?
I. The trade falsely claims to be making a profit of 20%.
II. The trader has tampered with his weighing instrument in such a way that it reads 1 kg for every 80 gm of rice weighed.
196. A and B started a business. A invested Rs X and B invested Rs 1.5 X. Six months after the start of business, C joined them with an investment of Rs 5000. If the total annual profit is Rs 6000, what is A’s share of the same?
I. C’s share of the total annual profit is Rs 2000..
II. X = 2000
197. Jar A comprises a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. Another mixture of milk and water is added to jar A and the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture changes. What was the initial quantity of mixture present in jar A.
I. The ratio of milk and water in the mixture that was added to jar A was 2 : 1 respectively.
II. The ratio of the new quantities of milk in jar A was 8 : 5 respectively. The quantity of water in the mixture added to jar A was 6 L.
198. If the given solid metallic right circular cone is melted and recast into a right circular cylinder having the same radius, what would be the height of the cylinder?
I. The sum and product of the radius and height of the cone are 18 cm and 81 cm2 respectively.
II. Total surface area of the cone is 550 cm2.
199. A car travels along a path A, B, C, D, (along segments AB, BC and CD). Points A, B, C, D are equidistant from each other. What was the speed of the car while travelling in the segment CD?
I. The total distance covered by the car is 288 km and the speed of the car in segment BC is 72 km/h.
II. The average speed of the car during the entire journey is 72 km/h. The speed of the car to cover segments AB, BC and CD is in the ratio of 15 : 12 : 10 respectively.
200. The circumference of a semi-circle is 125 cm. If the diameter of the semi-circle is 30% less than the diagonal of the square, what is the perimeter of the square?
(a) 
(b) 120 π 2 cm
(c) 120 cm
(d) 160 π 2 cm
(e) 148 cm
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