NIFT (Post Graduate) Solved Paper – 2019
1. In a class of 80 students and 5 teachers, each student got sweets that are 15% of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students.
How many sweets were there?
(a) 1030
(b) 1040
(c) 1050
(d) 1060
2. A sum of Rs 9000 is to be distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6. What will be the difference between A’s and C’s shares?
(a) Rs 600
(b) Rs 1000
(c) Rs 900
(d) Rs 1200
3. If a quantity is divided in the ratio 3 : 5, then the larger part is 75. Find the quantity.
(a) 120
(b) 130
(c) 240
(d) 150
4. A sum of money becomes Rs 13380 after 3 yr and Rs 20070 after 6 yr on compound interest. The sum (in rupees) is
(a) 8800
(b) 8890
(c) 8920
(d) 9040
5. B and C together can complete a work in 8 days. A and B together can complete the same work in 12 days and A and C together can complete the same work in 16 days. In how many days can A, B and C together complete the same work?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
6. The ages of Sulekha and Arunima are in the ratio of 9 : 8, respectively. After 5 yr, the ratio of their ages will be 10 : 9. What is the difference in years between their ages?
(a) 4 yr
(b) 5 yr
(c) 6 yr
(d) 7 yr
7. A sum of Rs 2200 is invested at two different rates of interest. The difference between the interests got after 4 yr is 202.40 What is the difference between the rates of interest?
(a) 3.3%
(b) 2.3%
(c) 3.5%
(d) 2.5%
8. A man and a boy received Rs 800 a wages for 5 days for the work they did together. The man’s efficiency in the work was three times that of the boy. What are the daily wages of the boy?
(a) Rs 76
(b) Rs 56
(c) Rs 44
(d) Rs 40
9. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn profit of Rs 45000 at the end of the year. What is the Manav’s share in the profit?
(a) Rs 25000
(b) Rs 15000
(c) Rs 12000
(d) Rs 9000
10. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 1516 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs 1112. What is the cost price of the article?
(a) Rs 1314
(b) Rs 1343
(c) Rs 1414
(d) Rs 1434
11. Manoj sold an article for Rs 15000. Had he offered discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price?
(a) Rs 12500
(b) Rs 13500
(c) Rs 12250
(d) Rs 13250
12. If x: y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is
(a) 22 : 29
(b) 26 : 61
(c) 29 : 22
(d) 61 : 26
13. An equal amount of sum is invested in two schemes for 4 yr each, both offering simple interest. When invested in scheme A at 8% per annum the sum amounts to Rs 5280. In scheme B, invested at 12% per annum it amounts to Rs 5920. What is the total sum invested?
(a) Rs 4000
(b) Rs 3500
(c) Rs 4200
(d) Rs 8000
14. A car covers its journey at the speed of 80 km/h in 10 h. If the same distance is to be covered in 4 h, by how much the speed of car will have to increase?
(a) 8 km/h
(b) 100 km/h
(c) 120 km/h
(d) 160 km/h
15. In two vessels A and B, there is mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and water in these vessels is 5 : 2 and 8 : 5, respectively. In what ratio these mixtures be mixed together, so that the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture becomes 9 : 4?
(a) 7 : 2
(b) 2 : 7
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3
16. The average age of 80 boys in a class is 15 yr. The average age of a group of 15 boys in the class is 16 yr and the average age of another 25 boys in the class is 14 yr. What is the average age of the remaining boys in the class?
(a) 15.25 yr
(b) 14 yr
(c) 14.75 yr
(d) Cannot be determined
17. Twice the square of a number is six times the other number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second?
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 1 : 3
(d) Cannot be determined
18. When all the students in a school are made to stand in rows of 54, 30 such rows are formed. If the students are made to stand in the rows of 45, how many such rows can be formed?
(a) 25
(b) 42
(c) 36
(d) 32
19. A man buys a single apple for Rs 25. If he were to buy a dozen apples, he would have to pay a total amount of Rs 250. What would be the approximate per cent discount he would get on buying a dozen apples?
(a) 32%
(b) 20%
(c) 12%
(d) 17%
20. Vikas gets Rs 350 for every day that he works. If he earns Rs 9800 in a month of 31 days, for how many days did he work?
(a) 25 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 24 days
(d) 28 days
21. The mean value of 20 observations was found to be 75, but later on it was detected that 97 was misread as 79. Find the correct mean.
(a) 75.7
(b) 75.8
(c) 75.9
(d) 75.8
22. The average of 5 consecutive integers starting with m is n. What is the average of 6 consecutive integers starting with (m + 2)?
(a) 
(b) (n+2)
(c) (n +3)
(d)
23.
(a) −1/162
(b) 1/108
(c) 7696/106
(d) 1/109
24. A train passes a man standing on a platform in 8 s and also crosses the platform which is 264 m long in 20 s. The length (in metres) of the train is
(a) 188
(b) 176
(c) 175
(d) 96
25. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 40 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in
(a) 14 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 15 days
26. A sum of money was lent at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 yr. Had it been lent at 2.5% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 540 more. The money lent was
(a) Rs 6400
(b) Rs 6472
(c) Rs 6840
(d) Rs 7200
27. A DVD is listed at Rs 300 with a discount of 20%. The additional discount to be offered to bring the price to Rs 216 is
(a) 15%
(b) 10%
(c) 8%
(d) 
28. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, then the dividend is
(a) 4236
(b) 4306
(c) 4336
(d) 5336
29. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20% on the marked price. The dealer has a
(a) loss of 20%
(b) gain of 25%
(c) loss of 12%
(d) gain of 12%
30. A box has 100 blue balls, 50 red balls and 50 black balls, 25% of blue balls and 50% of red balls are taken away. Then, percentage of black balls at present is
(a) 25%
(b) 
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each sentence given below a word or phrase is underlined. From the given options, choose the word/phrase closest in meaning to the underlined part.
31. My impetuous cousin bought a car even before he got a job.
(a) judicious
(b) funny
(c) impulsive
(d) jolly
32. The callow employee did many mistakes in his first assignment.
(a) inexperienced
(b) experienced
(c) jovial
(d) comely
33. We had a sumptuous meal yesterday at the newly opened restaurant.
(a) expressive
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) expensive
34. People have become indifferent to the rampant corruption.
(a) concerned
(b) unconcerned
(c) irritated
(d) pleased
Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) In the given questions, a word is given with four alternatives. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
35. Corpulent
(a) Fat
(b) Thin
(c) Even
(d) Corrupt
36. Hilarious
(a) Amusing
(b) Delightful
(c) Serious
(d) Momentous
37. Erudition
(a) Intelligence
(b) Hollowness
(c) Slowness
(d) Ignorance
38. Vindicate
(a) Reprieve
(b) Absolve
(c) Indict
(d) Summon
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42) In each of the following sentences there are blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four words denoted by numbers a, b, c and d. Find out which word can be filled up in the blank in the sentence to make it grammatically correct.
39. A company car and a big apartment are some of the ………. that some with the post of CEO.
(a) pricks
(b) blurbs
(c) pastime
(d) perks
40. ……….. means that you express effectively and stand up for your point of view.
(a) passive
(b) sordid
(c) aggressive
(d) assertive
41. The …… use of mobile phones can cause long-term problems.
(a) prudent
(b) severe
(c) indiscriminate
(d) judicious
42. The officious clerk seldom looked at people and always sounded………. .
(a) rude
(b) rudely
(c) soft
(d) polite
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-47) Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
43. (A) The elephant is distinguished by its massive body, large earns and a long trunk.
(B) Asian elephants differ in several ways from their African relatives.
(C) The largest mammal on earth, the African elephant weighs up to eight tons.
(D) Only some Asian male elephants have tusks.
(E) They are much smaller in size and their ears are straight at the bottom, unlike the large fan shape ears of the African species.
(a) ABCDE
(b) CEDAB
(c) CABED
(d) CABDE
44. (A) The reporter-cum adventure is always on the move.
(B) Wherever Tintin goes, so does Snowy.
(C) And his pet dog Snowy is his ever-faithful shadow.
(D) The pair is inseparable, only leaving each other’s side when they are forcefully separated.
(E) Tintin can always rely on Snowy to be courageous in the face of danger, often helping him out of tight corners.
(a) BACED
(b) BACDE
(c) ABCED
(d) ABCDE
45. (A) Aesop’s Fables is a collection of fables credited to Aesop.
(B) Aesop was a slave and storyteller.
(C) It is also called as Aesopica.
(D) This is a story from Aesop, set in Rome.
(E) He is believed to have lived on ancient Greece between 620 and 564 BCE.
(a) ACBDE
(b) ACBED
(c) DECBA
(d) CBADE
46. (A) He was born on 8th February, 1828 in Nantes, France.
(B) His parents were Piere Verne, an attorney and Sophie Allote de la Fuye.
(C) His teacher, Mme Sambin, was a widow of a Naval Captain who had disappeared 30 years ago
(D) Jules Gabriel Verne is known as the father of science fiction.
(E) When he was six, he was sent to a boarding school.
(a) DAEBC
(b) ABEDC
(c) BACED
(d) DABEC
47. (A) Low-lying areas like marshes and ponds, edges around lakes or oceans, and the delta at the mouth of a river are wetlands.
(B) A wetland is a place where the land is covered by water, either fresh or salty.
(C) They are known to support fauna-including mammals, birds and fish.
(D) They also support he cultivation of rice, a staple in the diet of half the world’s population.
(E) 2nd February is celebrated as International Wetlands Day.
(a) EBADC
(b) EABCD
(c) BCEAD
(d) EBACD
Directions (Q. Nos. 48-51) Find the correctly spelt words
48.
(a) Prophesied
(b) Propheside
(c) Prophesiedd
(d) Prophside
49.
(a) Garrulouss
(b) Garrulous
(c) Garullous
(d) Garrullous
50.
(a) Aassasinnation
(b) Assassinationn
(c) Assassination
(d) Assessination
51.
(a) Cemetery
(b) Cemetry
(c) Cemettery
(d) Cemeteryy
Directions (Q. Nos.52-55) Choose the correct plural form the given words.
52. Sheep
(a) Sheeps
(b) Sheep
(c) Sheepes
(d) Sheepes
53. Elf
(a) Elves
(b) Elfs
(c) Elf
(d) Elfes
54. Nucleus
(a) Nucleus
(b) Nucleuses
(c) Nucleuss
(d) Nuclei
55. Datum
(a) Datums
(b) Datumes
(c) Data
(d) Datas
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE 1
I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the grey half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.
56.When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was
(a) extremely delighted
(b) very much helpless
(c) rather surprised
(d) absolutely shocked
57. From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is
(a) calm and courageous
(b) cunning and crafty
(c) noisy and dangerous
(d) active and jumpy
58. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made
(1) The incident took place early in the morning.
(2) Yuri threw the snake away.
Which of these assumptions is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. Which word from the passage means ‘a short fight that is not very violent’.
(a) fringe
(b) quarry
(c) strife
(d) scuffle
PASSAGE 2
I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, inasmuch as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. Sol long as we are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.
60. Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?
(1) Man was foolish to build it.
(2) Huge man-made structures did not appeal to him.
(3) Men flocked to see it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
61. Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?
(a) Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.
(b) Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.
(c) People who commit crimes are invariably addicted to tobacco.
(d) Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.
62. Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?
(a) Men were attracted to the castle built in the air.
(b) Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.
(c) Men were attracted to childish things.
(d) Men were attracted to things of no value.
63. Which word from the passage is the opposite of ‘praised’?
(a) folly
(b) disparaged
(c) criticised
(d) trinket
PASSAGE 3
During the past three generation s the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis; and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death are now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide.
These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone believes that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is in fact no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sicknesses on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors takes pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new disease in the last fifteen years are themselves the result for medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatrogenic.
64. In the western societies, the occurrence of polio, diphtheria and tuberculosis has
(a) increased
(b) completely stopped
(c) decreased
(d) continued without changes
65. More deaths are now associated with old age than in the past because
(a) iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now
(b) deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled
(c) accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control
(d) political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old
66. The writer probably is arguing for
(a) stopping the practice of western medicines completely
(b) stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines
(c) rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines
(d) giving greater attention to new, iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio, diphtheria and pneumonia
PASSAGE 4
Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture my own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of others, to him I say, “Brother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.
The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are p laced around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. It develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.
Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.
If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the word, it is this : it has proved to the world that holiness, purity and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world, and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religions and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance. : “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”
67. According to the author of the passage, people should
(a) change their religions
(b) follow their religions and persuade others to follow it
(c) follow their own religions and respect other religions
(d) disrespect other religions
68. The Parliament of Religions is
(a) a Christian organisation
(b) a Buddhist organisation
(c) a Hindu organisation
(d) a platform for discussion about every religion of the world
69. What does the author think about those who dream about the exclusive survival of their own religions and the destruction of the others?
(a) He hates them
(b) He desires to imprison them
(c) He pities them
(d) He praises them
70. According to the passage, what is ‘impossible hope’?
(a) One day, all the people of the world will follow only one religion
(b) One day, there will be no religion
(c) Purity and charity are the exclusive possessions
(d) Banner of every religion will soon be written
PASSAGE 5
“Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjuror, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will proceed to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!”
All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?”
But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-it-up-his-sleeve.”
Then the people nodded brightly at the Quick Man and said,, “Oh, of course”; and everybody whispered round the hall, “He-had-it-up-his-sleeve.”
“My next trick,” said the conjuror, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. you will notice that the rings are apparently separate, at a now they all join (clang, clang, clag)- Presto!”
There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper, “He must have had another lot up the sleeve.”
Again everybody nodded and whispered, “The rings-were-up-his-sleeve.”
The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.
“I will now,” he continued, “show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, than you-Presto!”
He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick man whispered along the front bench, “He has a hen up his sleeve.” and all the people whispered it on. “He has a lot of hens up his sleeve.”
The egg trick was ruined.
It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjuror must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cards, a loaf o bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.
71.“The brow of the conjuror was clouded with a gathering frown.” The sentence means that the conjuror
(a) was very pleased
(b) was very sad
(c) was rather angry
(d) was very afraid
72. ‘The egg trick was ruined.’ This means that
(a) eggs were all broken
(b) people were unconvinced
(c) conjuror was disappointed
(d) the trick could not be performed
73. The author believes that the Quick Man was really
(a) foolish
(b) clever
(c) wrong
(d) right
74. According to the Quick Man, the conjuror
(a) had everything bought for production
(b) produced things with the magic he know
(c) had things in the large sleeves of his coat.
(d) created an illusion of things with his magic
75. The conjuror extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of
(a) the Quick Man
(b) his own
(c) on gentleman from the audience
(d) None of the above
76. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, then what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1
77. In a certain code language, BANKER is written as LFSCBO, how will CONFER be written in that code?
(a) GFSDPO
(b) FGSDOP
(c) GFSEPO
(d) FHSDPO
Directions (Q. Nos. 78-80) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
S is the husband of Q. A is the brother of D. A is the only son of B. D is the sister of Q. R is married to D. M is the father of R. N is the daughter of Q.
78. If V is the grandfather of N, then how is B related to R?
(a) Uncle
(b) Mother-in-law
(c) Grandmother
(d) Aunt
79. How is S related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Uncle
80. How is D related to N?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Cousin
(d) Aunt
81. In a row of 30 boys, R is 4th from the right end and W is 10th from the left end. How many boys are there between R and W?
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-86) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G have different hobbies, viz. Travelling, Reading, Dancing, Painting Sculpting, Singing and Pottery making, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to a different state, viz. Punjab, Odisha, Kerala, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Karnataka, but not necessarily in the same order. A belongs to Maharashtra. D likes Pottery making. The person who likes Sculpting is from the state of Odisha.
The person who likes Dancing is from the state of Gujarat. F does not belong to Gujarat, Odisha, Punjab or Rajasthan. F does not like Singing, Reading or Painting. B does not belong to Kerala, Odisha, Punjab or Rajasthan. B does not like Painting, Travelling, Reading or Singing. C does not like Sculpting and he is not from Rajasthan or Punjab. Neither D nor G belongs to Punjab. A does not like Reading. The person from Kerala likes Singing.
82. Who among the following likes Singing?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) E
(d) G
83. Which of the following combinations is true according to the given information?
(a) A-Travelling-Maharashtra
(b) C-Dancing-Gujarat
(c) E-Reading
(d) D-Pottery making-Rajasthan
84. Who among the following belongs to the state of Karnataka?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) F
(d) E
85. Which of the following combinations is true about G?
(a) Sculpting-Odisha
(b) Pottery making-Karnataka
(c) Dancing-Gujarat
(d) Singing-Kerala
86. Person who belongs to Punjab, likes?
(a) Travelling
(b) Sculpting
(c) Painting
(d) Reading
87. A boat moves from a jetty towards East. After sailing for 9 nautical miles, she turns towards right and covers another 12 nautical miles. If she wants to go back to the jetty, what is the shortest distance now from her present position?
(a) 21 nautical miles
(b) 20 nautical miles
(c) 18 nautical miles
(d) 15 nautical miles
Directions (Q. 88-90) Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Each of the six friends, I, J, K, L, M and N working in an office handles different number of projects in a month. I handled the second lowest number of projects. K handles more projects than L and M, but less than J. J did not handle the maximum number of projects. L did not handle the minimum number of projects. The one who handle the third highest number of projects handled 31 projects . L. handled 12 projects.
88. How many projects did J possible handle?
(a) 28
(b) 10
(c) 36
(d) 9
89. If the number of projects handled by I + M is only three more than number of projects handled by L, how many projects were handled by I?
(a) 22
(b) 14
(c) 19
(d) 9
90. Which of the following is true regarding the number of projects handled by N?
(a) No one handles more projects than N
(b) Only J handled more number of projects than N
(c) N possible handled 24 projects
(d) N handled more number of projects than only there people
Directions (Q. Nos. 91 and 92) In each question below a statement is given followed by two Assumptions/Inferences numbered I and II.
Give Answer
(a) If only Assumption I is implicit
(b) If only Assumption II is implicit
(c) If neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
(d) If both Assumptions I and II are implicit
91. Statement Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.
Assumptions
(I) All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.
(II) Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.
92. Statement For any kind of problems with your mobile phone, contact our help desk immediately.
Assumptions
(I) Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.
(II) Unless the problem is reported immediately it cannot be solved.
93. In a certain code, JEALOUS is written as BFKKTVP. How is HEARTEN written in that code?
(a) OFUQBFT
(b) BFIQOFU
(c) BFIQUFO
(d) UFOQIBF
94. A person walks towards his house at 8 : 00 am and observes his shadow to his right. In which direction he is walking?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Directions (Q. Nos. 95 and 96) What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series.
95. AZY, EXW, IVU?
(a) MTS
(b) MQR
(c) NRQ
(d) LST
96. 8, 16, 28, 44,?
(a) 60
(b) 64
(c) 62
(d) 66
Directions (Q. Nos. 97 and 98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two Courses of action numbered I and II.
Give Answer
(a) If only Course of action I follows
(b) If only Course of action II follows
(c) If neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows
(d) If both Courses of action I and II follow.
97. Statement A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area.
Course of Action
(I) The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of water.
(II) The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility company for the damage caused by them.
98. Statement Millions of pilgrims are expected to take a dip in the Ganges at the holy place during the next fortnight.
Course of Action
(I) The Government should restrict the number of pilgrims who can take dip each day during the fortnight.
(II) The Government should deploy and adequate number of security personnel to maintain law and order during the next fortnight at the holy place.
Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) Each question below is followed by two Arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Give Answer
(a) If only Argument I is strong
(b) If only Argument II is strong
(c) If neither Argument I nor II is strong
(d) If both Arguments I and II are strong
99. Statement Should vacations of court judges be reduced?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will speed up judicial process and many people are likely to get justice in reasonable time.
(II) Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry it further?
100. Statement Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadres employees from one city to another Government offices be stopped?
Arguments
(I) No, transfer of employees is a routine administrative matter and we must continue it.
(II) Yes, it involves lot of Governmental expenditure and inconvenience to many compared to the benefits it yields.
101. Who among the following is not a fashion designer?
(a) Ritu Kumar
(b) Shiv Kumar Sharma
(c) Tarun Tahiliani
(d) Rahul Khanna
102. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Lucknow
103. Who is the brand Ambassador of Lakme Cosmetics?
(a) Aishwarya Rai Bachhan
(b) Deepika Padukone
(c) Kareena Kapoor
(d) Aushika Sharma
104. ‘Ekaya’, the traditional handloom Banarasi sarees brand is associated with
(a) Palak Shah
(b) Manish Arora
(c) Rohit Bal
(d) Sabyasachi Mukherjee
105. Pond’s men face wash is being promoted by popular Indian filmstar?
(a) Varun Dhawan
(b) Shahrukh Khan
(c) Hrithik Roshan
(d) John Abaraham
106. ‘Cherokee’, the global fashion lifestyle brand belongs to
(a) The USA
(b) The UK
(c) Singapore
(d) India
107. ‘Alrosa’, one of the largest rough diamond supplying companies globally belongs to
(a) South Africa
(b) Brazil
(c) Egypt
(d) Russia
108. Who among the following fashion designers has own the prestigious Padma Shri Award on India’s 65th Republic Day?
(a) Sabyasachi Mukherjee
(b) Wendell Rodrick
(c) Tarun Tahiliani
(d) None of the above
109. Popular Indian film star Amitabh Bachhan is associated with which one of the following jewellery brands?
(a) Amrapali Jewellers
(b) Kalyan Jewellers
(c) Tribhovandas Bhimji Zaveri
(d) PC Jewellers
110. ‘AJIO.COM’ the online clothing, accessories and footwear brand belongs to …………
(a) Reliance
(b) Lifestyle
(c) Aditya Birla Group
(d) Bharti Retail
111. ‘Inayat’, the designer jewellery collection is from the house of ………. .
(a) Malabar Jewellers
(b) Tanisq
(c) Nakshatra
(d) PC Jewellers
112. Which one of the following sport lifestyle clothing line is launched by cricketer Yuvraj Singh?
(a) True Blue
(b) SKULT
(c) YWC Fashion
(d) SEVEN
113. Indian Cricketer Virat Kohli endorses which one of the following Indian clothing brand?
(a) Manyavar
(b) Fashion by Big Bazaar
(c) Pantaloons
(d) None of the above
114. In which of the following places world’s first Bollywood themed park is opened?
(a) London
(b) Singapore
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Dubai
115. ……… city in Tamil Nadu is also called the ‘Textile city’.
(a) Thiruppur
(b) Tanjore
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Nagapattinam
116. Which of the following fibres is the most difficult to dye?
(a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
(c) Polyester
(d) Viscose nylon
117. Silk is produced from which among the following?
(a) Egg of silkworm
(b) Pupa of silkworm
(c) Larva of silkworm
(d) Insect itself
118. Who among the following was popularly known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Hasrat Mohani
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Iqbal Khan
(d) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
119. Article 123 of the Indian Constitution provides for which among the following?
(a) Ordinance Making power
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Special Status of Jammu and Kashmir
(d) An Election Commission
120. Which of the following rivers does not flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Narmada
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Mandovi
(d) Tungabhadra
121. Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is situated in the state of
(a) Kerala
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Sikkim
122. Who has been designated as a brand ambassador for global sportswear giant PUMA India?
(a) Swapna Barman
(b) Nirmala Sheoran
(c) Dutee Chand
(d) Mary Kom
123. Which of the following publishes the Red List of Threatened Species?
(a) UNEP
(b) WWF
(c) IUCN
(d) WNO
124. Which African nation is not a member of the African Union?
(a) Algeria
(b) Morocco
(c) Lesotho
(d) Comoros
125. Which of the following decorative techniques would most successfully achieve fabric layering on jeans?
(a) Applique
(b) Beading
(c) Gold foiling
(d) Stencilling
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-139) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.
CASE I
According to the 2019Bloomberg Healthiest Country Index, six of the ten healthiest countries in the world are on the continent of Europe. In first place came Spain, which jumped from sixth in 2017. Spain is also according to the Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation, set to have the highest global life expectancy in 2040-showing that the Iberian nation is leading the way in both quality of life and longevity. What put Spain on top? Life expectancy, yes, but also environmental factors like access to clean water and sanitation, as well as a lack of tobacco use and obesity. Their focus on a Mediterranean diet, which emphasises local fruits, vegetables, oils, and fish, is also touted as a reason. Following is Spain is Italy-as it turns out, living la dolce vita is good for your mind, body, and soul. The island of Sardinia in Italy, which has almost 10 times more centenarians per capita than the United States, also follows a Mediterranean diet and encourages an active, outdoor lifestyle with its mild climate. In third place is Iceland. yes, you guessed it, they also have a fish-heavy diet( another staple is skyr, a cultured dairy product that resembles yogurt). Despite their cold climate, Iceland residents also live a life full of routine physical activities. Japan came in fourth, the first Asian country to make the list. Rounding out the top ten were: Switzerland, Sweden, Australia, Singapore, Norway, and Israel. The United States ranked 35th.
126. According to the 2019 Bloomberg Healthiest Country Index, most healthiest countries lies in continent of
(a) Europe
(b) America
(c) Asia
(d) Europe
127. Spain is on the top due to
(a) high life expectancy
(b) access to clean water
(c) access to sanitation
(d) All of these
128. The island of Sardinia in Italy encourages
(a) resting
(b) meditation
(c) active, outdoor lifestyle
(d) drinking
129. Which among the following is true in the context of above case?
(a) Those who live in cold regions have healthy life
(b) Physical activities are nil in cold areas
(c) People who eat Mediterranean diet have relatively healthy life
(d) People should eat meat to stay healthy
CASE 2
Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. She discovered radius, with her husband Pierre, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. At any early age, Marie displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent may productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radius, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne University. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911, she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radius, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.
130. Marie discovered radium, with her husband Pierre, which is used widely
(a) in electric appliances
(b) to treat penumonia
(c) to treat cancer
(d) in tyres
131. Pierre and Marie’s collaborated to unlock the
(a) secrets of the atom
(b) algebraic formulas
(c) distance between Earth and moon
(d) None of the above
132. Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when
(a) she became professor at the Sorbonne University
(b) she discovered new element
(c) her daughter became scientist
(d) she left her home
133. In which field did Marie Curie received Nobel Prize in 1911?
(a) Physics
(b) Biology
(c) Anthropology
(d) Chemistry
CASE 3
When social media became a key communication platform for people to network, brands immediately began to realise their value to showcase their products and reach out to their audience. Few have done it more effectively than fashion brands, which realize their primary marketing impact is through the visual medium. With the advent of the Internet and social media, the ability to share and convey brand imagery exploded, leading to even niche brands and upcoming designers getting much greater exposure and visibility. This was seen as a boon for the fashion industry. With the increasing use of web and social analytics, designers are also able to predict style trends better, leading to a faster cycle of creation, and giving birth to the concept of fast fashion. Another important aspect of social media was the advent of the fashion bloggers, who express their opinions on fashion bloggers, who express their opinions on fashion and industry trends on the Internet and social media. Brands are unanimous in saying that these bloggers are helping them cover a much wider audience, leading to creation of new sales opportunities. Social media platforms have also provided an opportunity for all to showcase their own sense of style, clothing and a fashion outlook.
However, the flip side of this has been the reduction in the number of times a garment is worn. Once it is clicked and posted on social media, people do not want to the seen in the same outfit, therefore reducing the likelihood that it will be worn again. This is turn has led to the explosive growth of fast fashion as customers scan clothes more frequently. While this may lead people to think the fashion industry is doing well, the picture is not so rosy. People are now opting for cheaper clothes that looks stylish and look well in photographs, but are not necessarily durable and can be discarded after a couple of uses. This in turn creates pressure to manufacture at lower costs, using materials that are cheaper and not necessarily environment-friendly, dramatically increasing the carbon footprint of the industry. The industry is witnessing the impact of this tremendous growth of fast fashion in form of increasing pollution caused by the manufacturers and frequently discarded clothes. While several brands are taking steps to reduce the impact of synthetics on the environment, such as the use of recycled PET fabric in denims and sportswear, this effort is miniscule compared to the size of the problem.
134. How social media has impacted fashion industry?
(a) Greater reach to the masses
(b) Less competition in the market
(c) More investments in the fashion industry
(d) Less development of trends
135. What is fast fashion?
(a) Fashion that changes quickly
(b) Vintage fashion
(c) Discarding old clothes
(d) None of the above
136. Social media has resulted in the advent of the
(a) models
(b) fashion bloggers
(c) photographers
(d) designers
137. Fast fashion is resulting in
(a) pollution
(b) wastage of fabric
(c) animal cruelty
(d) None of these
138. People are now opting for
(a) cheaper clothes
(b) stylish clothes
(c) not necessarily durable
(d) All of the above
139. What is the purpose behind introducing recycled PET fabric in denims?
(a) to make them environment friendly
(b) to make them cheap
(c) to make them stylish
(d) to make them durable
Directions (Q. Nos. 140-150) Each of the following questions has a statement based on the preceding caselet. Evaluate each statement and mark answer:
(a) if the statement is major objective in making the decision or one of the goals sought by the decision maker, then mark (a) as answer.
(b) if the statement is major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem specifically mentioned in the caselet, which fundamentally affects or determines the decision.
(c) if the statement is a minor factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a major factor rather than a major objective directly.
(d) if the statement is a major assumption in making the decision, a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.
CASELET 1
“A clean India would be the best tribute India could pay to Mahatma Gandhi on his 150 birth anniversary in 2019,” said Shri Narendra Mod as he launched the Swachh Bharat Mission at Rajpath in New Delhi. On 2nd October 2014, Swachh Bharat Mission was launched throughout length and breadth of the country as a national movement. The campaign aims to achieve the vision of a ‘Clean India’ (100%) by 2nd October 2019. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the most significant cleanliness campaign by the Government of India. Prime Minister was helped spread the message of Swach Bharat by urging people through his words & action. he carried out a cleanliness drive in Varanasi as well. He wielded a spade near River Ganga at Assi Ghat in Varanasi under the Clean India Mission. He was joined by a large group of local people who cooperated in the Swachhta Abhiyan.
The Prime Minister, since the launch of this movement, said that the scope of hygiene was increased from 40 per cent to 98 per cent after the launch of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. “Women safety and dignity was my prime motive behind announcing the Swachh Bharat Mission on 15th August 2014. It was because of the efforts made by the people of India, especially women, that the sanitation coverage in rural India, which stood at merely 39 per cent as of October 2014 even after 67 years of India’s Independence, has today crossed the 98 per cent mark in just over four years of the Swachh Bharat Mission,” PM Modi said.
140. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan has a target of achieving 100% cleanliness in India.
141. This programme considers cleanliness as one of the responsibility of government.
142. Women is one of the major section of Indian society who have contributed towards the aim of achieving cleanliness.
143. The programme has been launched in all states of India.
CASELET 2
The goal of Universal Health Coverage is to ensure that all people obtain the health services they need without suffering financial hardship when paying for them. This requires a strong, efficient, well-run health system; a system for financing health services; access to essential medicines and technologies; and a sufficient capacity of well-trained, motivated health workers. The National Health Protection Mission, dubbed “Modicare” after the country’s Prime Minister Narendra Modi, would offer 100 million families, or about 500 million people living in poverty, up to 500,000 rupees ( $ 7,011) of coverage each year. If rolled out effectively, the NHPM would be a significant step toward achieving universal health coverage a key Sustainable Development Goal for 2030. While Modi has announced the program will be launched later in the month, experts wonder whether the program can truly the off the ground. Every year, 55 million Indians are propelled into poverty because of out-of pocket expenditure on health care, primarily medicine costs. The country currently spend just 1.4 per cent of its gross domestic product on health care – one of the lowest expenditures in the word. Last year, however, the country released it new National Health Policy, the first in 14 years, and pledged to boost health care spending up to 2.5 per cent by 2025. While care in government-run hospitals is technically free for everyone, the system is marred by long queues, poor quality of care, and a lack of human resources.
144. To ensure that all people obtain the health services they need without suffering financial hardship when paying for them.
145. Every year, 55 million Indians are propelled into poverty because of out-of-pocket expenditure on health care, primarily medicine costs.
146. New National Health Policy pledged to boost health care spending up to 2.5 percent by 2025.
147. The system in government run hospitals is marred by long queues, poor quality of care, and a lack human resources.
148. The country currently spend just 1.4 percent of its GDP on health care which is one of the lowest expenditure in the world, so by increasing the expenditure on health sector, health services can be improved.
149. The goal of Universal Health Coverage is to provide health services to only weaker section of society because they face economic hardships.
150. There is a need of a strong, efficient, well-run health system: a system for financing health services; access to essential medicines and technologies; and a sufficient capacity of well-trained, motivated health workers.
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