Indian Railway Assistant Loco Pilot Recruitment Examination Held on 20-07-2014
1. The amount of a certain sum at compound interest for 2 yr at 5% is Rs 4410. The sum is
(a) Rs 4000
(b) Rs 4200
(c) Rs 3900
(d) Rs 3800
2. The compound interest on Rs 2000 for 1 yr at the rate of 8% per annum, when the interest is compounded semiannually the compound interest is
(a) Rs 163.20
(b) Rs 2163.20
(c) Rs 2000
(d) None of these
3. If a sis an even positive integer and b is an odd positive integer, then which of the following statements is true?
(a) a(b – 1) is even
(b) a(b – 1) is odd
(c) (a – 1) (b – 1) is even
(d) None of these
4. AB and CD are two chords of a circle such that AB = 10 cm, CD = 24 cm and AB || CD. The distance between AB and CD is 17 cm. Then, the radius of the circle is equal to
(a) 13 cm
(b) 169 cm
(c) 26 cm
(d) None of these
5. If the mean of five observations x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 is 11, then the mean of first three observations is
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) None of these
6. If the mean of the following data is 13.5, then the value of P is
(b) 150(a) 15
(c) 10
(d) None of these
7. The radius of the internal and external surfaces of a hollow spherical shell are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. If it is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of height What is the diameter of the cylinder?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) None of these
8. A conical tent of a diameter 24 m at the base and its height 16 m. The canvas required to make it is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
9. If a flag-staff of 6 m high placed on the top of a tower throws a shadow of 2√3 m along the ground, then the angle that the Sun makes with the ground is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 90°
(d) None of these
10. The remainder when 4a3 – 12a2 + 14a – 3 is divided by 2a – 1 is
(a) 1/2
(b) 7/2
(c) 3/2
(d) None of these
11. If α and β be the roots of ax2 – bx + b = 0, then what is the value of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
12. In ratio of the areas of the incircle and circumcircle of a square is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d) None of these
13. The cost of leveling a rectangular ground at Rs 1.25 per m2 is Rs 900. If the length of the ground is 30 m, then the width is
(a) 6 m
(b) 18 m
(c) 24 m
(d) 36 m
14. If x and y are positive with x – y – z and xy = 24, then is equal to
(a) 5/12
(b) 1/12
(c) 1/6
(d) 25/6
15. If one root of x2 – 4x – K = 0 is 6, then the value of K is
(a) 16
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 12
16. It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) reflection
(d) polarization
17. A sound wave of wavelength 90 cm in glass is refracted into air. If the velocity of sound in glass is 5400 m/s, the wavelength of the wave in air is
(a) 55 cm
(b) 5.5 cm
(c) 55 m
(d) 5.5 m
18. The escape velocity of a sphere of mass m from Earth having mass M and radius R is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
19. An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 250 turns I the secondary. The peack value of the AC is 28 V. The rms secondary voltage is nearest to
(a) 40 V
(b) 100 V
(c) 70 V
(d) 50 V
20. The current flowing in a coil of self inductance 0.4 mH is increased by 250 mA in 0.1 s. The emf induced will be
(a) −1mV
(b) −1V
(c) + 1mV
(d) + 1V
21. A hot body will radiate heat most rapidly if its surface is
(a) white and rough
(b) white and polished
(c) black and rough
(d) black and polished
22. Energy contained is maximum in
(a) infra red rays
(b) microwaves
(c) radiowaves
(d) ultraviolet rays
23. If the length of second’s pendulum is decreased by 2%, how many seconds it will lose per day?
(a) 216 s
(b) 432 s
(c) 864 s
(d) 1728 s
24. In the network shown in the figure, each of the resistances between the points A and B is
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 2 Ω
(d) 1 Ω
25. The kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion will be equal when (amplitude = a) displacement is
(a) 2 a
(b) a
(c) a√2
(d) a/√2
26. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying current I is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic field at a distance 2 r is
(a) 0.2 tesla
(b) 0.8 tesla
(c) 0.1 tesla
(d) 1.6 tesla
27. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting
(a) low resistance in series
(b) high resistance in series
(c) high resistance in parallel
(d) low resistance in parallel
28. A current of 5 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A force of 7.5 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. The angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current is
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
29. At a given temperature, the ratio of root mean square velocities of hydrogen molecule and helium atom will be
(a) 1 : √2
(b) √2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
30. A simple microscope consists of a concave lens of power – 10 D and a convex lens of power + 20 D in contact. If the image formed at infinity, then calculate the magnifying power
(D = 25 cm)
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) 2.0
(d) 3.0
31. A person suffering from presbiopia should use
(a) a concave lens
(b) a bifocal lens of which lower portion is convex
(c) a bifocal lens of which upper portion is convex
(d) a convex lens
32. By keeping the barometer tube slanting the barometer reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) first increase, then decrease
(d) remains the same
33. The maximum height is h to which a person can throw a ball. The maximum distance to which he can project it will be
(a) h/2
(b) h
(c) 3h/2
(d) 2h
34. While jumping in a swimming pool, a swimmer bends his body to decrease his
(a) angular momentum
(b) angular speed
(c) kinetic energy of translation
(d) moment of inertia
35. When sand is heaped on a rotating disc, its angular velocity will
(a) become zero
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) decrease
36. In the given current distribution what is the value of I?
(a) 2 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 5 A
(d) 8 A
37. If two adjacent walls and the ceiling of a rectangular room are mirror surfaced, then how many images of himself, a man can see?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
38. The inhibitors
(a) stop a chemical reaction at once
(b) retard the rate of a chemical reaction
(c) do not allow the reaction to start
(d) are reducing agents
39. The noble gas forming maximum number of compounds is
(a) Ne
(b) Xe
(c) He
(d) Ar
40. Pyrophosphoric acid is a
(a) monobasic acid
(b) dibasic acid
(c) tribasic acid
(d) tetrabasic acid
41. Bauxite containing chief impurities of oxides of silicon is called
(a) red bauxite
(b) white bauxite
(c) black bauxite
(d) no specific name
42. When SO2 is passed through acidified solution of potassium dichromate, then chromium sulphate is formed, the change in valency of chromium is
(a) + 4 to + 2
(b) + 5 to + 3
(c) + 6 to + 3
(d) + 7 to + 2
43. A reducing agent is a substance which can
(a) accept electrons
(b) donate electrons
(c) accept protons
(d) donate protons
44. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium
(c) sulphates and chlorides of sodium and potassium
(d) nitrates of sodium and potassium
45. Water has abnormally high boiling point because
(a) its molecule is bent
(b) its molecule is linear
(c) it is associated by hydrogen bonding
(d) None of the above
46. Pollution free source of energy is
(a) thermal energy
(b) nuclear energy
(c) wind energy
(d) All of these
47. By Wurtz reaction which alkane cannot b e prepared?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane
48. The surface temperature of Sun is about
(a) 106°C
(b) 5800°C
(c) 10000°C
(d) 1000°C
49. Green house gas is
(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) H2
(d) N2
50. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by
(a) froth floatation
(b) leaching
(c) magnetic separation
(d) by gravity
51. Which is the fastest running train on Indian railways?
(a) Mumbai-Goa Superfast Express
(b) New Delhi-Lucknow Shatabadi Express
(c) New Delhi-Mumbai Rajdhani Express
(d) New Delhi-Chandigarh Shatabadi Express
52. NREGP is the abbreviated form of
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
(b) National Rural Educational Guarantee Programme
(c) National Rapid Educational Guarantee Programme
(d) National Rapid Employment Generation Programme
53. Mid Day Meal Scheme is financed and managed by
(a) Food and Civil Supply Department of State Government
(b) Department of Consumer Affairs and Welfare
(c) Ministry of Programme Implementation
(d) Ministry f Human Resource Development
54. Which one of the following pairs is not properly matched?
Industry Industrialists
(a) Reliance – Mukesh Ambani
(b) Wipro – R Krishna Murthy
(c) Airtel – Bharti Mittal
(d) Nano Car – Ratan Tata
55. Who has the Sole Right to issue paper currency in India?
(a) The Government of India
(b) The Finance Commission
(c) The Central Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
56. According to our constitution, the Rajya Sabha
(a) is dissolved once in 2 years
(b) is dissolved every 5 years
(c) is dissolved every 6 years
(d) is not subject of dissolution
57. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
58. Which of the following chief justices of India acted as the President of India also?
(a) Justice M Hidayatullah
(b) Justice PN Bhagwati
(c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahanjan
(d) Justice B K Mukherjee
59. The legal advisor of State Government is known as
(a) Advocate-General
(b) Attorney-General
(c) Solicitor-General
(d) State public prosecutor
60. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s support to decentralization of power?
(a) Decentralization ensures more participation of the people into democracy
(b) India had decentralization of power in the past
(c) Decentralization was essential for the economic development of the country
(d) Decentralization can prevent communalism
61. The first definite step to provide parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by
(a) The Regulating Act of 1773
(b) The Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1813
62. Consider the following statements
(1) Muhammad Shah (1719-48) was the first Mughal ruler to patronize Urdu.
(2) Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote the famous epic ‘Padmavat’ in Hindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. The main cause of the conflict between the Nawab Sirajuddaula and the East India company was that
(a) the British opposed the succession of Sirajuddaula
(b) the British misused the Dustaq (free duty passes)
(c) the British attacked the French settlement of Chandranagar in Bengal
(d) the incident of black hole had occurred
64. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(a) promote heavy industries in India
(b) facilitate British commerce and administrative
(c) move foodstuff in case of famine
(d) enable Indians to move freely within the country
65. The Arya Samaj was founded by
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Keshav Chandra Sen
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
66. Consider the following statements
Salinity of water in the equatorial oceans decrease because
(1) large rivers like Amazon and Congo enter into the sea.
(2) evaporation is less.
(3) water from Arctic and Antarctic mix with the waters of equator.
(4) of heavy rainfall
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
67. Tidal Range denotes the
(a) rise of sea water and its movement toward the coast
(b) fall of sea water and its movement toward the sea
(c) rise and fall of sea water due to gravitational forces
(d) difference between high and low tide
68. Radialarian oozes occur in the depths of
(a) 600 to 1200 fathoms
(b) 1500 to 2000 fathoms
(c) 2000 to 5000 fathoms
(d) 5000 to 6000 fathoms
69. What is a coastal plains?
(a) It is created by a continental shelf exposed by submerge
(b) It is created by continental shelf exposed by emergence
(c) It is created by a continental shelf exposed by tidal waves
(d) None of the above
70. Name the continents that form a mirror image of each other
(a) North America and South America
(b) Asia and Africa
(c) Africa and South America
(d) Europe and Asia
71. Root found in Dahlia
(a) Tuberous root
(b) Fusiform root
(c) Fasiculated root
(d) Conical root
72. Osmosis involves
(a) diffusion of suspended particle from higher to lower concentration
(b) diffusion of suspended particle from lower to higher concentration
(c) diffusion of water from ore to less concentrated side
(d) diffusion of water from less to more concentrated side
73. Which one of the following processes takes place in lakes during eutrophication?
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth
(b) Excessive availability of dissolved oxygen
(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(d) Excessive entry of nutrient into water
74. Age of tree is estimated by
(a) its weight
(b) its height
(c) the number of annual ring
(d) the length of its root
75. Tikka disease is related with the crop
(a) Musturd
(b) Paddy
(c) Ground nut
(d) All of these
76. Leaf spot disease of rice is caused by
(a) Fungus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) None of these
77. The unit of intensity of electric field is
(a) Newton/coulomb
(b) Joule/coulomb
(c) Volt-metre
(d) Newton/metre
78. When no current is passed through a conductor
(a) the free electrons do not move
(b) the average thermal velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(c) the average of thermal velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero
(d) (b) and (c)
79. Instrument used to store the electric charge is known as
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) transformer
(d) transistor
80. Consider the following statements
(1) Plutonium – 239 can be made artificially.
(2) Boron is used in a nuclear reactor to absorbs unwanted neutrons.
(3) In nature, the availability of Uranium-238 is much more than that of Uranium-235.
Which of these statements is are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) Only 3
81. Storage which stores or retains data after power off is called
(a) Volatile storage
(b) Non-volatile storage
(c) Sequential storage
(d) Direct storage
82. Hard disc drives are considered ………. storage
(a) flash
(b) non-volatile
(c) temporary
(d) non-permanent
83. H2O is liquid and H2S is a gas because
(a) oxygen forms stronger hydrogen bond than sulphur
(b) oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur
(c) atomic radius of oxygen is less than that of sulphur
(d) atomic radius of oxygen is greater than that of sulphur
84. Oxidation is defined as
(a) loss of electrons
(b) gain of electrons
(c) gain of protons
(d) loss of protons
85. With reference to their relative strengths which one of the following sequences of the basic is correct?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
86. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is about
(a) one half that of helium
(b) 1.4 times that of helium
(c) twice that of helium
(d) four times that of helium
87. Which one of the following pairs of geographical area show maximum biodiversity in our country?
(a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
(b) Eastern Ghats and Paschim Banga
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghat
(d) Kerala and Punjab
88. Pollution of big cities can be controlled to large extent by
(a) wide roads and factories away from city
(b) cleanliness drive and proper use of pesticides
(c) proper sewage and proper exist of chemicals from factories
(d) All of the above
89. Logo of WWF-N is
(a) Red panda
(b) Giant panda
(c) Polar bear
(d) Tiger
90. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct
(a) hyaenas and wolves will become scarce
(b) the wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
(c) its gene pool will be lost forever
(d) the population of beautiful animal like deers will get stabilized
91. Jude Felix has established reputation as an Indian player in which of the following games?
(a) Hockey
(b) Volleyball
(c) Football
(d) Golf
92. Meera Sahib Fathima Beebi is distinguished as the first lady
(a) Judge of the High Court
(b) Governor of a state
(c) Judge of the Supreme Court
(d) Gold medal winner in sports
(e) Prime Minister of Bangladesh
93. The term PC means
(a) Private Computer
(b) Personal Computer
(c) Professional Computer
(d) Personal Calculator
94. Who was the first chairman of the SAARC?
(a) Mr. Zia ur Rehman
(b) Lt Gen H M Ershad
(c) King Birendra
(d) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
95. Which of the following organization issue the rules of global trade?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) Foreign Exchange Dealer’s Association
(d) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
96. Who has written the book ‘War and Peace?
(a) Khushwant Singh
(b) Mikhali Solokhov
(c) Count Leo Tolstoy
(d) Saul Bellow
97. Who has been awarded the UNESCO/Crillermocana foundation World Press Freedom Prize?
(a) Ms. Christina Amyanure (Nigeria)
(b) Najam Sethi (Pakistan)
(c) Jesus Blancorenelas (Mexico)
(d) Jugnu Mohsin
98. Press freedom day is celebrated on
(a) May 2
(b) May 3
(c) May 4
(d) None of these
99. The United Nations declared 2003-2012 at the international decade for
(a) United Nations Literacy Decade
(b) Bone and Joint Decade
(c) Second International Decade for the Eradication of Colonialism
(d) International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction
100. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian games gold in 400 m run?
(a) M L Valsamma
(b) P T Usha
(c) Kamaljit Sandhu
(d) K Malleshwari
101. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(c) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
102. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), what does it mean?
(a) The Commercial Banks will have less money to lend
(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
(c) The Union Government will have less money to lend
(d) The Commercial Banks will have more money to lend
103. Interest on public debt is a part of
(a) transfer payments by the enterprises
(b) transfer payments by the government
(c) national income
(d) interest payment by house holds
104. Consider the following
(1) Fringe Benefit Tax
(2) Interest Tax
(3) Securities Transaction Tax
Which of the above mentioned is/are Direct Tax/Taxes?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
105. A Trade Policy consists of
(a) Export-Import Policy
(b) Licensing Policy
(c) Foreign Exchange Policy
(d) Balance of Payment Policy
106. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
107. Who sang ‘Sare Jahan Se Achchha Hindostan Hamara’ of Iqbal and ‘Jan-Gana-Mana’ of Rabindra Nath Tagore in the Central Assembly at midnight of 14/15 August, 1947?
(a) Rameshwari Nehru
(b) Meera Ben
(c) Sucheta Kriplani
(d) MS Subbalaxmi
108. Which one of the pairs given below is not correctly matched?
(a) Equality before law – Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens
(b) Altering the name of a state – Power of State Legislature
(c) Creating a new state – Power of Parliament
(d) Equality of opportunity – Guaranteed only to Indian in public employment Citizens
109. In what ways does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various Ministers
(c) By mailing the administrations send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
110. What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 1 hour
(c) 2 hours
(d) Indefinite period
Directions (Q. Nos. 111 and 112) Give one word for the following words/sentences.
111. An elderly unmarried woman
(a) Spinster
(b) Vandal
(c) Bachelor
(d) Adult
112. To induce to have sexual intercourse
(a) Incite
(b) Seduce
(c) Lax
(d) Entice
Directions (Q. Nos. 113 and 114) Choose the correct word to fill in the blanks.
113. The owner of these books …….. .
(a) have gone
(b) were gone
(c) has gone
(d) are going
114. Neither he nor you ……….. to go.
(a) has
(b) is
(c) have
(d) was
115. The indirect speech of He said to me, “What time do the offices close?” is
(a) He wanted to know what time the offices close
(b) He asked me what time did the offices closed
(c) He asked me what time the offices closed
(d) He asked me what time the offices did close
116. Who was an opium addict?
(a) Wilde
(b) Hardy
(c) Coleridge
(d) Marlowe
Directions (Q. Nos. 117 and 118) Choose the correct spelt word.
117.
(a) Guarantee
(b) Guaruntee
(c) Garantee
(d) Guareentee
118.
(a) Dismised
(b) Dismissed
(c) Dissmised
(d) Desmissed
Directions (Q. Nos. 119 and 120) Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms from the given choice.
119. A chicken hearted fellow
(a) Sober
(b) Intelligent
(c) Timid
(d) Bold
120. To face music
(a) Enjoyment
(b) In trouble
(c) Sound health
(d) To be it
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