Rajasthan Subordinate & Ministerial Service Selection Board Gram Sevak, Panchayat Secretary & Hostel Superintendent Grade-II Examination Held on 18-12-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

RSMSSB Gram Sevak, Panchayat Sec. & Hostel supt. Exam-2016
Rajasthan Subordinate & Ministerial Service Selection Board Gram Sevak, Panchayat Secretary & Hostel Superintendent Grade-II Examination Held on 18-12-2016 Question Paper with Answer Key

Rajasthan Subordinate & Ministerial Service Selection Board

Gram Sevak, Panchayat Secretary & Hostel Superintendent Grade-II Recruitment Exam 2016

Held on 18.12.2016

1. Council of Ministers of a State is accountable to

(a)  Governor

(b)  President

(c)  State Legislative Assembly

(d)  Indian Parliament

Ans: (c)

2.  Arrange the following posts of a State Secretariat in hierarchy (Higher to lower) order by using the code given below.

1. Secretary

2. Deputy Secretary

3. Special Secretary

4. Assistant Secretary

(a)  3214

(b)  4321

(c)  1324

(d)  2341

Ans: (c)

3. Which of the following is not a function of District Collector ?

(a)  Maintenance of law and order

(b)  Maintenance of land record

(c)  Collection of income tax

(d)  Collection of revenue

Ans: (a)

4. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was on :

(a)  rural development

(b)  democratic decentralisation

(c)  community development programmes

(d)  panchayati raj institutions

Ans: (d)

5. Which of the following articles of the Constitution was inserted through the 73rd amendment regarding Panchayats ?

(a)  243 to 243-ZA

(b)  244 to 244-P

(c)  243 to 243-T

(d)  243 to 243-O

Ans: (d)

6. Panchayati Raj is a system of :

(a)  local government

(b)  local administration

(c)  local self government

(d)  rural local self government

Ans: (a)

7. Consider the following about State Legislative Assembly :

1. Its term is Five Year.

2. It is chaired by Chief Minister.

3. It is directly elected by the people.

4. Governor is empowered to dissolve it.

(a)  2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(b)  1, 3 and 4 are correct.

(c)  1, 2 and 3 are correct.

(d)  1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Ans: (b)

8. In which of the following games, India has won World Cup in October 2016 ?

(a)  Lawn Tennis

(b)  Kabbadi

(c)  Football

(d)  Hockey

Ans: (b)

9. In US President’s election 2016 Donald Trump was a candidate of

(a)  Republican Party

(b)  Green Party

(c)  Constitution Party

(d)  Democratic Party

Ans: (a)

10. When did NITI (National Institute for Transformation of India) Aayog came into existence ?

(a)  January 1, 2015

(b)  January 1, 2014

(c)  January 1, 2016

(d)  November 1, 2014

Ans: (a)

11. Goods and Service Tax Council (GST) of India is headed by

(a)  Speak of Lok Sabha

(b)  Finance Minister

(c)  Prime Minister

(d)  Finance Secretary

Ans: (b)

12. Who discharge the duties of Governor in his absence ?

(a)  Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

(b)  Chief Minister of a State

(c)  Chief Justice of High Court

(d)  None of the above

Ans: (c)

13. Consider the following two statements :

Assertion (A) State Governor holds his office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason (R) Governor is appointed by the Prime Minister.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?

(a)  Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation A.

(b)  A is true, but R is false.

(c)  A is false, but R is true.

(d)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Ans: (b)

14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a)  Article 156 – Qualifications for the appointment as Governor

(b)  Article – 63 – Council of Ministers of State

(c)  Article-154 – Executive power of State

(d)  Article-155 – Appointment of Governor

Ans: (a)

15. Consider the followings about the State High Court :

1. Article-213 provides that there shall be a High Court for each State.

2. Judges of High Courts are appointed by President.

3. Under Article-226, it has power to issue certain writs.

4. As per the provision of the Constitution of India common High Court can be established for two or more States.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a)  1, 2 and 3 are correct.

(b)  1, 3 and 4 are correct.

(c)  2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(d)  1 and 2 are correct.

Ans: (c)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List-I

(Soil Type)

List-II

(Climatic Region)

A. Aridisols

B. Inceptisols

C. Alfisols

D. Vertisols

1. Arid and semi-arid

2. Semi-arid and humid

3. Sub-humid and humid

4. Humid and super-humid

(a)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

(b)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(d)  A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

Ans: (a)

17. On the basis of legal status (March 31, 2011) examine the following statements regarding forests of Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. Of the total forest area in Rajasthan reserved and protected forests respective constitute 55.84% and 37.94%

2. Maximum reserved forests in the State are found in Udaipur and Chittorgarh districts.

3. Maximum protected forests in the State are found in Baran and Karauli districts.

4. Maximum unclassified forests in the State are found in Bikaner and Ganganagar districts.

(a)  Only 1

(b)  1, 2 and 3

(c)  1, 2 and 4

(d)  2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

18. Rajasthan desert is quite unlikely from other deserts situated in similar latitudes of the world. What is the logical perception about desertification process here ?

(a)  It starts due to drought.

(b)  It starts and expands from arid regions.

(c)  It starts and expands from desert heartland.

(d)  It starts and expands due to overgrazing, over ploughing, deforestation and improper management of soil and water.

Ans: (d)

19. In which agricultural year during the last three decades more than 90% villages of Rajasthan were hit by unprecedented famine and drought ?

(a)  2000-01

(b)  2002-03

(c)  2009-10

(d)  1987-88

Ans: (b)

20. Examine the following statements regarding development of barren land in Rajasthan and select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. Currently (2013-14) barren land constitutes about 19% of total reported are for land use purpose in the State.

2. Old fallow land has recorded about 18% decrease over the last 30 years in the State.

3. Onus of development of barren land in the State lies with the National Wasteland Development Board.

4. Integrate barren Land Development Project is being currently run in 10 districts of the State with the co-operation of Swedish International Development Agency (SIDA).

(a)  2 and 4

(b)  1, 2 and 4

(c)  1 and 2

(d)  1 and 3

Ans: (b)

21. In view of increasing number of dark and grey zones in Rajasthan Central Ground Water Authority of India has put total ban on exploitation of ground water in which of the administrative blocks of the State ?

(a)  Behror, Osian, Mahuwa

(b)  Bhinmal, Todabhim, Tada Raisingh

(c)  Behror, Bhinmal, Surajgarh, Dhond, Shri Madhopur

(d)  Surajgarh, Desuri, Deoli

Ans: (c)

22. Odd out the incorrect statement regarding livestock numbers in Rajasthan

(a)  Donkeys and mules recorded maximum increase in number from 2007 to 2012.

(b)  Rajasthan constitutes 11.27% of total livestock numbers of India (2012)

(c)  Camel recorded maximum decrease in number from 2007 to 2012.

(d)  Livestock numbers of Rajasthan increased by 10.69 lack from 2007 to 2012.

Ans: (a)

23. Which of the following changes occurred in cropping pattern of Rajasthan since First Plan Period till 2012-13 is/are correct?

1. Area under cereals has increased from 42.5 to 56.0%.

2. Area under pulses has declined from 21 to 13.5%.

3. Area under oilseeds has increased from 6.2 to 20.5%.

4. Area under cotton, sugarcane, guar fruits, vegetables, spices and fodder crops has increased from 16.8 to 23.5%.

Select the correct answer using the following codes

(a)  2, 3 and 4

(b)  1 and 3

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  Only 1

Ans: (a)

24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List-I

(Lift Canal

List-II

(Beneficiary District)

A. Jai Narain Vyas

B. Choudhary Kumbha Ram

C. Panna Lal-Barupal

D. Dr. Kami Singh

1. Bikaner, Nagaur

2. Jodhpur, Bikaner

3. Jodhpur, Jaisalmer

4. Hanumangarh, Churu

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(b)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(c)  A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1

(d)  A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

Ans: (b)

25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List-I (Mineral) List-II (Mining Area)
A. Emerald

B. Garnet

C. Manganese

D. Copper

1. Tikki, Garhbore

2. Rajmahal, Bageshwear

3. Leelawani Kalakkuta

4. Kolhan, Bhagoni

(a)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(b)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(c)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(d)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

Ans: (b)

26. On the basis of industrial potentialities assessed by various Public Sector Financial organizations (RICO, RFC, RAJSICO etc.) which districts of Rajasthan have been included in category ‘A’?

(a)  Alwar, Tonk, Chittorgarh, Ajmer

(b)  Kota, Ajmer, Udaipur, Bharatpur

(c)  Jodhpur, Pali, Ajmer, Alwar

(d)  Bikaner, Jodhpur, Bhilwara, Jaipur

Ans: (a)

27. Which of the following statements regarding population trends in Rajasthan is/are correct ? Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. Decadal growth rate of the State population has declined 9.97% during 1991-2011.

2. Population density of the State has increased more than six times during 1901-2011.

3. Trend of sex ratio of the State has been even during 1901-2011.

4. Literacy rate of the State has increased more than eight times during 1951-2011.

(a)  1, 2 and 4

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1 and 2

(d)  3 and 4

Ans: (d)

28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I

(Percentage of Tribes in Total Population of Rajasthan, 2011

List II

(Major Habitats)

A. Less than 20%

B. 20-25%

C. 26-50%

D. 51-80%

1. Baran, Bundi, Karauli

2. Chittorgarh, Rajsamand, Jhalawar

3. Udaipur, Sirohi, Dausa

4. Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(b)  A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(c)  A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3

(d)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

Ans: (d)

29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List-I (Tribes of Rajasthan) List-II (Major Habitats)
A. Sahariya

B. Garasiya

C. Damore

D. Mina

1. Dungarpur, Banswara

2. Udaipur, Sirohi

3. Baran, Kota

4. Jaipur, Dausa

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

Ans: (d)

30. Which of the following development programmes are not directly related with improvement of tribal economy is Rajasthan?

1. Modified Area Development Approach and Cluster Project

2. Rajasthan Mission on Livelihood (RMOL)

3. Mewat, Dang and Magra Area Development Programme

4. Swarnajayanti Gram Sarojgar Yojana (SGSY)

(a)  Only 1

(b)  1, 2 and 3

(c)  1 and 2

(d)  2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

31. How many unemployed persons have been estimated in total 3 crore labour force of Rajasthan as per population Census, 2011 ?

(a)  30 lakh

(b)  38 lakh

(c)  33 lakh

(d)  20 lakh

Ans: (d)

32. Which of the following facts about unemployment rates in Rajasthan is/are correct according to 68th round 2011-12 of National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) usual status adjusted (UPSS) mode?

1. 0.9% males of total labour force are unemployed in rural areas.

2. 3.2% males of total labour force are unemployed in urban areas.

3. 3.1% persons of total labour force are unemployed in whole State.

4. Unemployment rates are much higher in rural areas than urban areas.

(a)  2 and 3

(b)  1, 3 and 4

(c)  Only 4

(d)  1 and 2

Ans: (c)

33. Which of the following development programmes in Rajasthan were amalgamated in Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) since April 1, 1999?

1. Integrated Rural Development (IRDP) and Training to Rural Youth in Self Employment (TRYSEM)

2. Development of Women and Children (DWCRA) and Industrial Tools Supply in Rural Areas (SITRA)

3. Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY) and Million Wells Scheme (MWS)

4. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY)

(a)  1, 2 and 4

(b)  Only 1

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

34. Approximately how many persons in total population of Rajasthan have been estimated as poor in 2011-12 according to C. Rangrajan Expert Group Report 2014 ?

(a)  1.51 crore

(b)  90 lakh

(c)  2.35 crore

(d)  1.12 crore

Ans: (a)

35. Which of the conclusions obtained from poverty ratios calculated for Rajasthan according to Suresh Tendulkar method is/are correct ?

1. Poverty ratio in rural areas of the State has increased by 10.3% between 2009-10 and 2011-12.

2. Poverty ratio in urban areas of the State has declined by 9.2% between 2009-10 and 2011-12.

3. Poverty ratios in the State have declined in both the years 2009-10 and 2011-12 compared to India.

4. Poverty ratio in 2011-12 was estimated 14.7% for Rajasthan and 21.9% for India.

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  1 and 3

(c)  2, 3 and 4

(d)  1 and 4

Ans: (c)

36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List I

(Mountain Type)

List-II

(Region)

A. Young folded

 

B. Old folded

 

C. Volcanic

 

D. Fault-block

1. South-Eastern coast of North

America

2. Western coast of North America

 

3. South-Western coast of North America

 

4. Circum-pacific belt

(a)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(b)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(d)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

Ans: (a)

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I

(Mountain Peak)

List II

(Continent)

A. Kilimanjaro

B. Vinson Massif

C. Mount Kosciusko

D. Aconcagua

1. South America

2. Australia

3. Antarctica

4. Africa

(a)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(b)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(c)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

(d)  A – 4; B – 1; C – 2; D – 3

Ans: (c)

38. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of world’s oceans/seas in descending order of area occupied ?

(a)  Indian-Arctic-South China-Atlantic

(b)  Arctic-Atlantic-South China-Indian

(c)  Atlantic-Indian-Arctic-South China

(d)  Atlantic-South China-Arctic-Indian

Ans: (c)

39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I (Particulars) List II (Spots)
A. Worlds wettest spot

B. World’s driest spot

C. World’s northernmost town

D. World’s southernmost town

1. Iqique

2. Mawsynram

3. Ushuaia

4. Ny-Alesund

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C –1; D – 4

(b)  A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(c)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

Ans: (d)

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I

(Wetland Ecosites)

List-I

(States)

A. Bhoj

B. Chandratal

C. Schlur

D. Rudrasagar

1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Tripura

4. Jammu-Kashmir

(a)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

(b)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(d)  A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1

Ans: (a)

41. Which one of the following would be the best strategy for ecology-friendly sustainable development in Indian agriculture ?

(a)  Wide use of high-yielding crop varieties, better and more frequency of aerial sprays of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides.

(b)  Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimize post-harvest grain losses and monoculture cropping practices.

(c)  Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of super phosphate, ,urea and effective bioacids.

(d)  Mixed cropping and use of organic manures, nitrogen-fixing plants and pest-resistant crop varieties.

Ans: (d)

42. Tropic of Cancer and 80° East longitude divide India into four quadrants. In which quadrant are the maximum cotton growing areas located ?

(a)  South-East

(b)  South-West

(c)  North-East

(d)  North-West

Ans: (b)

43. What is the root cause of shifting tendency of Indian cotton textile industry from Mumbai towards Ahmedabad ?

(a)  Land in Ahmedabad is cheaper than Mumbai

(b)  High quality cloths manufactured in Ahmedabad are in large demand in India and abroad as well.

(c)  Ahmedabad enjoys more import-export facilities than Mumbai.

(d)  This  industry has the advantage of early start in Ahmedabad.

Ans: (b)

44. Which of the following statements regarding physical features of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. Hadauti plateau is bounded by Main Boundary Fault in North-West.

2. 41.50% area of western sandy plain is sand dune free region.

3. Structurally, physical features of Rajasthan form part of northern great plains and peninsular plateau of India.

4. Aravalli in the present time exist as residual mountains.

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  Only 3

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

45. Which of the following statements regarding climatic conditions of Rajasthan is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below

1. Climatic conditions of Rajasthan exhibit extremity of temperature and rainfall..

2. During the last ten years, amount of rainfall has decreased in western desert

3. Sudden onset of south-east moisture laden winds over an intensely heated landmass is the root cause of scarce rain in western Rajasthan.

4. Climatically major part of Rajasthan lies in sub-tropical zone.

(a)  1, 2 and 4

(b)  1 and 2

(c)  2 and 4

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

46. In which of the following Maharaja’s Darbar ‘Gandharv Baisi’ was present in the form of 22 poets, 22 astrologers, 22 singers and 22 other subject specialist?

(a)  Maharaja jai Singh

(b)  Maharaja Pratap Singh

(c)  Maharaja Bhagwat Singh

(d)  Maharaja Man Singh

Ans: (b)

47. ‘Namadi and Rangdi’ are characteristic of which language?

(a)  Malawi

(b)  Hadoti

(c)  Ahirwati

(d)  Mewati

Ans: (a)

48. Who established the ‘Alkhiya Sect’ (Sampradaya)?

(a)  Sant Dasji

(b)  Bhola Nath

(c)  Lal Giri

(d)  Charan Das

Ans: (c)

49. During which Maharaja’s rule ‘Ram Prakash Theatre’ was established in Jaipur?

(a)  Maharaja Ram Singh II

(b)  Maharaja Vijay Singh

(c)  Maharaja Ishwari Singh

(d)  Maharaja Man Singh

Ans: (a)

50. ‘Bam Dance’ is famous at which place?

(a)  Udaipur-Sirohi

(b)  Alwar-Bharatpur

(c)  Jaisalmer-Barmer

(d)  Jaipur-Ajmer

Ans: (b)

51. To which form the ‘Sugan Chiri’ is considered as Lokmata?

(a)  Naganchi Mata

(b)  Shitala Mata

(c)  Ayad Mata

(d)  Sawangiya Mata

Ans: (d)

52. Who was the Guru of Balindji?

(a)  Sundardasji

(b)  Dadu Dayalji

(c)  Manglaramji

(d)  Ramcharanji

Ans: (d)

53. Which Lok Devata is known by name of ‘Jaharpeer’?

(a)  Gogaji

(b)  Ramdevji

(c)  Hadbuji

(d)  Devnarayanji

Ans: (a)

54. Who is considered as Lokdevi of Alwar region ?

(a)  Sugali Mata

(b)  Jilani Mata

(c)  Sachiya Mata

(d)  Latiyala Mata

Ans: (b)

55. Molana Village is famous for which handicraft art?

(a)  Meenakari

(b)  Bluepottery

(c)  Thevakala

(d)  Teracota

Ans: (d)

56. What is ‘Jannotan’ in Rajasthani culture?

(a)  A type of lokgeet

(b)  An agricultural tax

(c)  A Dinner given by the groom side

(d)  Measurement of land

Ans: (c)

57. In Bhil tribe who wears ‘Kachawo’?

(a)  Women

(b)  Children

(c)  Young boy

(d)  Men

Ans: (a)

58. What is ‘Aulondi’ in Rajasthani Culture?

(a)  A girl or woman accompanying the bride-groom

(b)  A type of marriage

(c)  Rajasthani lok geet.

(d)  A local game

Ans: (a)

59. What for the ‘Chanduji ka Gadha and Bodigama Places’ are famous?

(a)  For jajarm printing

(b)  For meenakari work

(c)  For manufacturing to teer-kaman

(d)  For kundan art

Ans: (c)

60. On which part of the body ‘Ballaya’ ornament is wore?

(a)  On head

(b)  On nose

(c)  On ears

(d)  On hands

Ans: (c)

61. In which period ‘Amrawati Stupa’ was built?

(a)  Mauraya’s

(b)  Satavahana’s

(c)  Vardhan’s

(d)  Gupta’s

Ans: (b)

62. Who discovered the ‘Bharhut Stupa’ iin the year 1873 AD ?

(a)  KS Lal

(b)  BK Thapar

(c)  Marshal

(d)  Cunnengham

Ans: (d)

63. Where is ‘Danchand Chopra’s Havelli’ situated in Rajasthan?

(a)  Kishangarh

(b)  Bikaner

(c)  Sujangarh

(d)  Khatdi

Ans: (b)

64. Who built the famous Fort of Mandu?

(a)  Mohammad Shah

(b)  Hussain Shah

(c)  Kumbha

(d)  Bajbahadur

Ans: (b)

65. What is ‘Cheda Phadna’ In Bhils?

(a)  Birth of Son

(b)  Divorce

(c)  Festival

(d)  Marriage

Ans: (b)

66. If the cost of product of an article is 2/5 its marked retail price, if it is sold at 10% discount, then what will be profit?

(a)  25%

(b)  50%

(c)  40%

(d)  125%

Ans: (d)

67. A cycle seller gives 10% discount on marked retail price and still earns 26% profit. If marked retail price of the cycle is Rs. 840, then how much money was paid by the seller for that cycle?

(a)  Rs. 650

(b)  Rs. 700

(c)  Rs. 750

(d)  Rs. 600

Ans: (d)

68. Two things were sold at same sale-price. One thing got 10% profit and another suffered 10% loss. The difference of their purchase price will be in multiple of which number?

(a)  15

(b)  25

(c)  10

(d)  20

Ans: (d)

69. What will be the next number in the given series ?

     3   28   4  65  5  126   6……. ?

(a)  246

(b)  264

(c)  317

(d)  217

Ans: (d)

70. What will come at the place of question mark in the given series?

BZA   DYC   FXE   ?   JVI

(a)  HGJ

(b)  HYG

(c)  HWG     

(d)  HAG

Ans: (c)

71. Two trains of same length are moving in the same direction at the velocity of 46 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. The fast train crosses the slow train in 36 seconds. What is the length of each train?

(a)  82 m

(b)  72 m

(c)  50 m

(d)  80 m

Ans: (c)

72. A car driver starting from Bengaluru at 8:30 am wants to reach a place 300 km away from Bengaluru at 13:30 Noon. At 10 : 30 am he finds that he has covered only 40% distance. How much speed of the car he has to increase to reach at stipulated time?

(a)  45 km/h

(b)  35 km/h

(c)  40 km/h

(d)  30 km/h

Ans: (d)

73. Out of Rs. 20000 Prakash gives some amount on loan at simple interest rate 8% per annum and rest amount at simple interest rate  At the end of year he earns Rs. 800. The amount given at 8% rate will be

(a)  Rs. 12000

(b)  Rs. 6000

(c)  Rs. 10000

(d)  Rs. 8000

Ans: (d)

74. A person takes a some amount on loan at 3% per annum simple interest payable annually. Immediately he gives it on loan at 5% per annum compound interest payable half yearly. At the end of year he earns profit of Rs. 330%. How much amount he tooks on loan?

(a)  Rs. 16000

(b)  Rs. 15000

(c)  Rs. 17000

(d)  Rs. 16500

Ans: (a)

75. If at the rate of  per annum the compound interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest is Rs. 510. What will be the simple interest on same amount for the same period at the same rate of interest?

(a)  Rs. 4800

(b)  Rs. 400

(c)  Rs. 450

(d)  Rs. 460

Ans: (a)

76. Sort out the word which, is different in some sense in the following group :

1. Geometry 2. Algebra

2. Trigonometry

3. Maths

4. Arithmetic

(a)  Maths

(b)  Trigonometry

(c)  Algebra

(d)  Arithmetic

Ans: (a)

77. Which is odd word in these ?

1. Birbal        2. Abul Fazal

3. Tan Sen    4. Faiz Ahmad

5. Todarmal

(a)  Birbal

(b)  Abul Fazal

(c)  Faiz Ahmad

(d)  Todarmal

Ans: (b)

78. In class of 105 students out of three subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry each students studies at least one subject. In Maths 47, in Physics 50, and in Chemistry 52 students studies. 16 in Maths and Physics, 17 and Maths and Chemistry and 16 in Physics and Chemistry students studies both subjects. What will be the number of students, who studies all three subjects?

(a)  5

(b)  7

(c)  6

(d)  4

Ans: (a)

79. In class of 105 students, out of three subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry studies each students studies at least one subject. In these 47 students studies maths, 50 students Studies Physics and 52 Students Studies Chemistry and 16 maths and Physics. 17 Maths and Chemistry and 16 Physics and Chemistry students studies both subjects.

What will be the number of those students who studies only two subjects?

(a)  32

(b)  33

(c)  34

(d)  31

Ans: (c)

80. What will be the square root of  

(a)  0.1

(b)  9

(c)  10

(d)  1.0

Ans: (c)

81. The ratio of ages of A and B 4 years before was 2 : 3 and after four years it will be ……?

(a)  38 and 54 yr

(b)  36 and 40 yr

(c)  34 and 50 yr

(d)  42 and 58 yr

Ans: (a)

82. A completes 7/10 part of work within 15 days. Thereafter with the help of B, he completes the rest of the work within 4 days. B alone will be able to do it in how many days?

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Ans: (a)

83. If the value of (102)2 is 10404, then value of  will be

(a)  11.122

(b)  11.022

(c)  11.322

(d)  10.322

Ans: (c)

84. In an alloy proportion of Zinc, Copper and Lead is 2 : 3 : 1. In another alloy, the proportion of Zinc, Copper and Lead is 5 : 4 : 3. A third alloy is prepared by mixing both alloys in same quantity. The proportion of Lead, Copper and Zinc in the third alloy will be.

(a)  5 : 10 : 9

(b)  9 : 10 : 5

(c)  7 : 7 : 4

(d)  6 : 7 : 4

Ans: (a)

85. Six people, Parul, Rajendra, Satish, Tarun, Vishal and Prakash, were all born on the same day of the year. But each was born in different six consecutive years. It is also known that

1. Parul is older than Satish

2. Rajendra is older than both Tarun and Vishal

3. Prakash is 2 years older than Tarun

4. Parul was born either and 1962 or in 1963

5. The oldest member of the group was born in 1960

Which of the following group is correctly listed from the youngest to the oldest?

(a)  Satish, Vishal, Parul, Tarun, Prakash, Rajendra

(b)  Satish, Vishal, Tarun, Prakash, Parul, Rajendra

(c)  Satish, Vishal, Tarun, Parul, Prakash, Rajendra

(d)  Satish, Parul, Rajendra, Tarun, Vishal, Prakash

Ans: (c)

86. If in a certain language, ENTRY is coded as 12345 and STEADY is coded as 931785. Then how will the word TENANT is coded?

(a)  312723

(b)  312523

(c)  316169

(d)  396243

Ans: (a)

87. A, B, C, D E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthday on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and E, the oldest is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D.

Which of the following statement is not possible?

(a)  F is 19 years old.

(b)  F is 18 years old.

(c)  F is 20 years old.

(d)  D is 20 years old.

Ans: (c)

88. If in a code language ‘PLAYER’ is written as ‘AELPRY’, then in the same language ‘MANAGER’ will be written as

(a)  AAEMGNR

(b)  AAEGMNR

(c)  AAEGMRN

(d)  AAGEMNR

Ans: (b)

89. A person walks 8 km in the East direction. There form, he moves 5 km in the North-West direction. From that place he walks 6 km in the South direction. His last point will be in the direction……from starting point.

(a)  West-North

(b)  South-East

(c)  North-East

(d)  South-West

Ans: (b)

90. The number of students in a school increases and decreases by 10% respectively in every alternate year. If there was an increase in the year 2000, then in how much percentage what happened in the number of students in the year 2003 in comparison to year 2000.

(a)  9.8% decrease

(b)  9.8% increase

(c)  8.9% decrease

(d)  8.9% increase

Ans: (c)

91. Identify the Incorrect sentence : (in which the verb is not in agreement with the subject)

(a)  Age and experience brings wisdom to man.

(b)  The ship’s crew was a mixed group of different nationalities.

(c)  Neither Y nor Z has any right to the property.

(d)     When the ship arrived in part, the crew was taken into custody on a charge of mutiny.

 

92. Choose the correct set of English translation of the following Hindi Words : (in right order)

(a)  Inflation; Increment; Transcription

(b)  Deflation; Inscribe; Counter-Copy

(c)  Decreased Income, Increment; Translation

(d)     Currency decrease; Salary zenith; Copyist

 

93. The most suitable set of synonyms of the word ‘Generous’ is

(a)  Gentle, Humble, Tender

(b)  Stately, Dignified, Exalted

(c)  Thankful, Grateful, Indebted

(d)     Liberal, Bountiful, Magnanimous

 

94. The most suitable antonym of the word ‘Misanthropist’ is

(a)  Disanthropist

(b)  Philanthropist

(c)  Anti misanthropist

(d)     Amisanthropist

 

95. The most suitable ‘one word substitute’ of the following words are; (in right order); (a) fear of confined spaces; (b) a person who has an irresistible desire to steal.

(a)  (a) spacephobia; (b) dipsomaniac

(b)  (a) claustorphobia; (b) kelptomaniac

(c)  (a) clastophobia; (b) theftomaniac

(d)  (a) agoraphobia; (b) pyromaniac

 

96. Fill in the blanks using the correct tense (of the verb) :

When I …… (open) the door, I……. (see) a man on his knees. He…… (listen) to our conversation and I (wonder) how much he …….(hear)

(a)  opens; sees; listen; wonder hears.

(b)  opened; saw; had been listening; wondered; had heard

(c)  open, see; listens; wondered; heard

(d)  opened; saw; has been listening; wonder; has heard.

 

97. Choose one of the following sentences which is the correct Passive Voice of the sentence given below : (Do not mention the agent).

Active Voice You will have to pull down this skyscraper as you have not complied with the town planning regulation.

(a)  This skyscraper building will be pulled down as the town planning regulations are not complied with

(b)  This skyscraper will have to be pulled down as the town planning regulations have not been complied with.

(c)  This skyscraper building has to be pulled down as the town planning regulations were not complied with.

(d)  This skyscraper should be pulled down by you as you have not complied with the town planning regulation.

 

98. Choose a sentence with the correct Indirect form of Narration :

Direct “I will sell the TV set if you keep  quarrelling about the programme”, said their mother. “No, don’t do that ! We will never quarrel”, said the children.

(a) Their mother told that the TV set will be sold if they keep quarrelling about the programme. The children forbade her to do that, saying that they will never quarrel.

(b) Their mother threatened to sell the TV set if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children begged her not to do that assuring her that they would never quarrel.

(c) Their mother threatened that she should sell the TV set, if they kept quarrelling about the programme. The children requested her do not do this as we would never quarrel.

(d) Their mother said that she would sell the TV set, if you kept quarrelling about the programme. The children said, don’t do that as we would never quarrel.

 

99 Choose the correct set of articles of fill in the blanks : (Use ‘X’, if there is not article)

He said, “As…… matter of ……. fact, there was ….. explosion in ….. last house I visited; and Mr. Beans…… owner of…….house, was burnt in …….face.

(a)  the; the; an; a; the; X; a;

(b)  the; the; X; the; a; a; the

(c)  a; X; an; the; the; the; the

(d)  the; a; an; X; the; the; the

 

100. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct set of preposition:

……..mistake I opened Sylvia’s letter instead……..my own. She was very angry ….. me and said that I’d done it …… purpose

(a)  By; of; with; on

(b)  With; of; on; with

(c)  By; of; on; with

(d)  On; on; with; with

Answer: ()

101. I Nibble is equal to

(a)  8 bit

(b)  4 byte

(c)  16 bit

(d)  4 bit

 

102. Highest capacity of the storage are

(a)  Zettabyte

(b)  Terabyte

(c)  Exabyte

(d) Yottabyte

103. The speed of modem is measured in which unit?

(a)  GPS

(b)  BPS

(c)  CPS

(d)  None of these

104. What is the full form of ISDN?

(a)  Integrated Services Digital Network

(b)  Integrated Switch Digital Network

(c)  Input Switch Digital Network

(d) Input Service Digital Network

105. Which is the fastest memory?

(a)  Auxiliary Memory

(b)  Cache Memory

(c)  CD ROM

(d) Hard Disk

106. Which key of the keyboard is mainly used to cancel the program?

(a)  Esc key

(b)  Del key

(c)  Enter key

(d)  Ins Key

107. Shortcut command for align the text in Centre

(a)  Ctrl + T

(b)  Ctrl + C

(c)  Ctrl + R

(d)  Ctrl + E

108. Multimedia contains

(a)  Audio

(b)  Video

(c)  Both of these

(d)  None of these

109. ‘DNS’ stand for

(a)  Data Name System

(b)  Domain Number System

(c)  Domain Name System

(d)  None of the above

110. 1 Kilobyte is equal to

(a)  512 bits

(b)  1024 bits

(c)  8000 bits

(d)  None of these

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