RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination-2013 Held on 30-10-2015
General Awareness
1. The Lorraine Region of France is famous for-
(A) Cotton and textile industry
(B) Paper industry
(C) Chemical industry
(D) Iron and Steel industry
2. The ‘Man and Biosphere Programme’ (MAB) by UNESCO was started in-
(A) 1972
(B) 1986
(C) 1991
(D) 1970
3. The following map is showing the location of ports of eastern coast of India as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below-
(A) Tutiocorin, Chennai, Machilipatanam, Vishakhapatnam
(B) Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Machilipatnam
(C) Machilipatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakhapatnam
(D) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakhapatnam, Machilipatnam
4. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Oil Refineries Set up by
(A) Digboi (Assam) – IOCL
(B) Koyali (Gujarat)- HPCL
(C) Bina (M.P.)- BPCL
(D) Tatipaka (A.P.)- ONGC
5. The meeting town of North-South and East-West corridor super-highway is-
(A) Nagpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Delhi
6. Match the following-
(a) Strait of Gibraltor
(b) Strait of Malacco
(c) Strait of Bering
(d) Strait of Hormuz
1. Between Indonesia and Malaysia
2. Between Gulf on Persia and Gulf of Oman
3. Between Africa and Europe
4. Between Asia and North America
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
7. Which type of agriculture is a suitable for high land area of equatorial region?
(A) Humid agriculture
(B) Dry agriculture
(C) Commercial agriculture
(D) Plantation agriculture
8. Which State of India is located in the north of tropic of Cancer?
(A) Manipur
(B) Mizoram
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Tripura
9. Read the following statements and select the correct answer-
Statement (A) : Rivers flow from Himalaya are perennial rivers.
Statement (B) : Source of Himalayan rivers are located in glaciers.
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) does not support (A)
(B) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong
(C) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(D) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) supports (A)
10. Physiographic region of India covering the maximum area is-
(A) Northern plains
(B) Northern mountains
(C) Coastal plains
(D) Deccan plateau
11. The following map is showing the major concentration of tribes in Rajasthan as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below the map.
(A) Bhi. Sansi, Sahariya, Garasiya
(B) Sansi, Sahariya, Bhil, Garasiya
(C) Garasiya, Sahariya, Sansi, Bhil
(D) Sansi, Garasiya, Bhil, Sahariya
12. The following map is showing the location of lift canals of IGNP in Rajasthan as (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Identify and answer the correct sequence as given below the map-
(A) Dr. Karni Singh lift canal, Jai Narayan Vyas lift canal, Choudhary Kumbharam lift canal, Kanwarsen lift canal
(B) Jai Narayan Vyas lift canal, Dr. Karni Singh lift canal, Kanwarsen lift canal, Choudhary Kumbharam lift canal
(C) Jai Narayan Vyas lift canal, Kanwarsen lift canal, Dr. Karni Singh lift canal, Choudhary Kumbharam lift canal
(D) Dr. Karni Singh lift canal, Choudhary. Kumbharam lift canal, Jai Narayan Vyas lift canal, Kanwarsen lift canal
13. Agricultural practices done by tribes in South-East hilly areas of Rajasthan is known as-
(A) Chimata
(B) Dajia
(C) Dry farming
(D) Balara
14. Which river in the Rajasthan state has lowest drainage area?
(A) Mahi
(B) Vakel
(C) West Banas
(D) Sabarmati
15. Major coal types found in Rajasthan state is-
(A) Anthracite
(B) Bituminus
(C) Lignite
(D) Peat
16. ‘Got-Manglodh’ area is related to which mineral ?
(A) Tungsten
(B) Manganese
(C) Gypsum
(D) Rock-phosphate
17. ‘Mawat’ occurs due to-
(A) South-east monsoon
(B) North-east monsoon
(C) Western disturbances
(D) North-west monsoon
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list-
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
19. Which is not the iron ore mining area ?
(A) Dabla
(B) Neemla
(C) Talwada
(D) Morija
20. The district not benefiting from Jawai project is-
(A) Rajsamand
(B) Barmer
(C) Sirohi
(D) Udaipur
21. The President’s power to veto a Bill for amendment of the Constitution has been taken away, by substituting the word, ‘shall give his consent’ by which amendment ?
(A) Twenty fourth amendment
(B) Forty second amendment
(C) Forty fourth amendment
(D) Twenty third amendment
22. The Fundamental Duty to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is mentioned at number-
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) One
23. In the Constitution which part is concerned with the Panchayats ?
(A) Part-IX
(B) Part-IX-A
(C) Part-IX-B
(D) Part-VIII
24. Consider the following statements-
I. Through 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978, all the Directive Principles of State Policy have been given preference over Fundamental Rights mentioned in Articles 14 and 19.
II. Supreme Court has laid down in its verdict in Minerva Mills case, 1980 that the preference given only to Directive Principles of State Policy mentioned in Article 39(b) and (c) over Fundamental Rights mentioned in Article 14 and 19 is Constitutional.
(A) Only II is correct
(B) Both I and II are correct
(C) Neither I nor II is correct
(D) Only I is correct
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Provision of Constitutional Amendment)
(a) Right to form Cooperative societies under Article 191(c)
(b) Protect SC/ST reservation in filling backlog of vacancies
(c) Formation of National Judicial Appointment Commission
(d) Restrict the size of Council of Ministers
List-II
(Number of Constitutional Amendment)
1. 81st Amendment, 2000
2. 91st Amendment, 2004
3. 97th Amendment, 2012
4. 99th Amendment, 2015
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists-
Codes :
List-I
(Welfare Schemes of Government of India)
(a) Nai Roshni Programme
(b) DISHA
(c) Pradhanmantri Jan-Dhan Yojana
(d) Swavlamban Scheme
List-II
(Its content)
1. Women Empowerment
2. Financial Inclusion
3. New Pension System
4. IT Training
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
27. Match List-I with List-II and identify correct answer from the codes given below-
List-I
(Constitutional Provision)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Cabinet Government
(d) Union-State Relations
List-II
(Source)
1. British Constitution
2.Canadian Constitution
3.Irish Constitution
4. U. S. Bill of Rights
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
28. Assertion (A) : The primary objective of India’s federal design was to weave a nation out of its many diverse parts and protect national integration.
Reason (R) : Accommodation of diversities has built a stronger, not weaker, Indian nationhood.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
29. Match List-I with List-II and identify correct answer from the codes given below-
List-I
(Case)
(a) A. K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(b) Romesh Tapar Vs State of Madras
(c) Sankari Prasad Vs Union of India
(d) Champakam Dorairjan Vs State of Madras
List-II
(Subject)
1. Equality in admission educational institutions
2. Parliament’s power amend the Constitution
3. Procedure for preventive detention
4. Restrictions on free speech
Codes :
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below-
List-I
(a) Government of India Act.
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) August Offer
(d) Wavell Plan
List-II
1. 1935 2. 1940
3. 1945 4. 1942
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below –
List-I
(Books)
(a) Gandhian Constitution for India
(b) The Republic of India
(c) The White Umbrella
(d) The Politics of India since Independence
List-II
(Authors)
1. D. Mackenzie Brown
2. Sriman Narayan
3. A. Gledhill
4. Paul. R. Brass
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
32. Mizoram has been granted the status of a State by which of the following Constitutional Amendments ?
(A) 55th
(B) 52nd
(C) 53rd
(D) 54th
33. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Sarkaria Commission recommended that Article 356 should be sparingly used.
Reason (R) : The political parties that came to form the Government at the Centre misused the Article 356.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (R) is true, but (A) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
34. Amongst the following who was appointed as the first Director General of the Unique Identification Authority of India created in June, 2009 ?
(A) Mr. Ashok Desai
(B) Mr. Ram Sewak Sharma
(C) Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(D) Mr. Nandan Nilekani
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below-
List-I
(Human Rights Documents)
(a) The National Commission for Backward Classes Act
(b) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act)
(c) Persons with Disabilities (Equal opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act
(d) The National Commission for Minorities Act
List-II
(Year)
1. 1990 2. 1995
3. 21986 4. 1993
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
36. Who amongst these was not a Chairperson of Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission?
(A) Justice S. Sageer Ahmed
(B) Justice Kanta Bhatnagar
(C) Justice Prem Chand Jain
(D) Justice N. K. Jain
37. How many services are given guarantee under the Rajasthan guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011 ?
(A) 107
(B) 108
(C) 109
(D) 106
38. As per State Election Commission, in Urban Local Bodies General Election 2015, State Polling Percentage was-
(A) 76.19%
(B) 77.19%
(C) 78.19%
(D) 75.19%
39. In the first general election to State Assembly of Rajasthan, the Political Party which secured second highest number of seats after Congress was-
(A) Ramarajya Parishad
(B) Kisan Majdoor Praja Party
(C) Hindu Mahasabha
(D) Bharatiya Jansangh
40. In which years was the office of Divisional Commissioner abolished and revived thereafter?
(A) Abolished in 1959 and revived in 1987
(B) Abolished in 1966 and revived in 1973
(C) Abolished in 1962 and revived in 1987
(D) Abolished in 1962 and revived in 1971
41. What is not true about the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission?
Read the following Statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below-
1. The Commission became fully functional from May, 2000.
2. The Commission comprises of one full time Chairman and two members.
3. A former Chief Justice or a former Judge of a High Court can become Chairman of the Commission.
4. Justice A. S. Gobara was the Chairman of the commission from July 2000 to July 2005.
Codes :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
42. Match List-I (Finance Committees for 2015-16 in the 14th Rajasthan Legislative Assembly) with List-II (Chairman thereof) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists-
List-I
(a) Committee on Public Accounts
(b) Committee on Public Undertaking
(c) Committee on Estimates ‘A’
(d) Committee on Estimates ‘B’
List-II
1. Mohan Lal Gupta
2. Madan Rathore
3. Pradhyuman Singh
4. Dr. Gopal Krishna
Codes :
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
43. As on September 11, 2015 which district of Rajasthan stood first in achieving the annual target of Constructing toilets?
(A) Pali
(B) Ajmer
(C) Udaipur
(D) Sirohi
44. For how many times President Rule was promulgated in Rajasthan ?
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 2
(D) 6
45. Who amongst the following was the first Chief Secretary of Rajasthan ?
(A) Shri V. Narayan
(B) Shri K. Radha Krishnan
(C) Shri S. W. Shiveshkar
(D) Shri B. G. Rao
46. In which crop production, Rajasthan occupies first position in the Country, for the year 2013-14 ?
(A) Total pulses
(B) Rapeseed
(C) Rapeseed and Mustard
(D) Coarse cereals
47. Match items in List-I with items in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
48. Poverty-Ratio based on the Methodology adopted by Dr. C. Rangarajan Expert-Group was incorrect for the state for 2011-12 in relation to the population of the State-
(A) Goa 6.3%
(B) Rajasthan 21.7%
(C) All India 29.5%
(D) Chhattisgarh 37.9%
49. Which Super-critical power plant has the highest installed capacity at present in Rajasthan?
(A) Kalisindh Thermal Power Project
(B) Chabra Thermal Power Project
(C) Kota Thermal Plant
(D) Suratgarh Thermal Power Project
50. Indicate the vital change in the measurement of National Income of India recently.
(A) Calculation has changed from factor cost to market prices
(B) Calculation has changed from current prices to constant prices
(C) Both the base year and calculation method have changed
(D) Base year has been changed from 2004-05 to 2011-12
51. Which factor can be highly supportive in achieving economic growth rate of 8% or more in the near future in India?
(A) Implementation of all stalled productive projects
(B) Increasing Ease of Doing Business at a rapid rate
(C) Promulgation of GST from April 1, 2016 without further delay
(D) Fast skill development of labour force in the country
52. Match the items in List-I with items in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below-
List-I
(Specialization)
(a) Taxation
(b) Agriculture
(c) Monetary Policy
(d) Indian Economy, Planning and State Level Reforms
(e) Fiscal Policy
List-II
(Name)
1. M. Govinda Rao
2. C. Rangarajan
3. Arvind Pangariha
4. Ashok Gulati
Parthasarthy Shome
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 2; (e) – 5
(B) (a) – 5; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3; (e) – 1
(C) (a) – 5; (b) – 4; (c) – 3; (d) – 2; (e) – 1
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3; (e) – 5
53. Direct Cash Transfer Scheme of Kerosene on Pilot Basis in Rajasthan started from-
(A) Kotkasim Tehsil
(B) Kotra Tehsil
(C) Kishangarh Tehsil
(D) Kotputli Tehsil
54. Which district is not covered under National Bamboo Mission?
(A) Banswara
(B) Karauli
(C) Bhilawara
(D) Jalore
55. FM broadcasting services uses the range of frequency bands between-
(A) 76-87 MHz
(B) 88-108 MHz
(C) 109-139 MHz
(D) 54-75 MHz
56. Which of the following is an inorganic gaseous pollutant of air ?
(A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) Methane
(C) Phosgene
(D) Hydrogen cyanide
57. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Eastern Ghats
(C) Gangetic Plains
(D) Sunderbans
58. Steps of Recombinant DNA technology are given below :
1. Identification and isolation of the genetic material.
2. Fragmentation of DNA.
3. Obtaining the foreign gene product.
4. Downstream processing
5. Ligation of DNA fragmentation into the vector.
6. Isolation of desired DNA fragments.
7. Amplification of gene of interest.
8. Transfer of Recombinant DNA into the host cell/ organism.
(A) 1→2→6→7→5→8→3→4
(B) 8→6→7→5→1→4→2→3
(C) 3→1→2→4→6→5→7→8
(D) 1→4→3→2→5→7→6→8
59. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Ligases – Molecular Stitchers
(B) Restriction Endonucleases – Molecular Stitchers
(C) DNA Polymerase – Molecular Scissors
(D) Ligases – Molecular Scissors
60. Which statement about aspirin is not true?
(A) It is effective in relieving pain
(B) It has antiblood clotting action
(C) It is neurologically active drug
(D) Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics
61. List of few satellites manufactured by ISRO is given below along with the date of their launch. Which two of the following Satellites failed to reach the orbit ?
Satellite Launch Date
(a) GSAT-2 −8th May, 2003
(b) GSAT-4 −15th April, 2010
(c) GSAT-5P −25th Dec., 2010
(d) GSAT-12 −15th July, 2011
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (d) and (a)
(D) (a) and (b)
62. C-130J Super Hercules is world’s most advanced air lifter being used by Indian Air Force. These air lifters (aircraft) are made by-
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Israel
(D) U. S. A.
63. A person met with an accident and there is no time to check his blood group which of the following blood should be given to him ?
(A) O, Rh−
(B) AB, Rh−
(C) AB, Rh+
(D) O, Rh+
64. Which one of the following diseases is not due to contamination of water ?
(A) Jaundice
(B) Cholera
(C) Typhoid
(D) Hepatitis-B
65. Golden rice is-
(A) Long stored rice having yellow colour tint.
(B) A transgenic rice having gene for carotene
(C) Wild variety of rice with yellow coloured grains
(D) A variety of rice grown along the yellow river in China
66. Which of the following forests is known as the “lungs of the planet earth”?
(A) Tundra forest
(B) Amazon rain forest
(C) Rain forests of North-East
(D) Taiga forest
67. A device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called-
(A) Generator
(B) Moving coil meter
(C) Battery
(D) Motor
68. Which of the following is not a biotic component of the ecosystem ?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Animals
(C) Air
(D) Plants
69. Unicode encoding scheme represents a character as a group of-
(A) 8 bits
(B) 12 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 4 bits
70. The retina is outgrowth of the-
(A) diencephalon
(B) telencephalon
(C) pons varoli
(D) mesencephalon
71. Identify the correct pair of enzyme and its function-
(A) Acrosin – cortical granules of ovum secrete it to prevent polyspermic fertilization
(B) Succinic dehydrogenase – Lysosomal market enzyme, hydrolyses metabolites.
(C) Acid phosphatase – Mitochondrial marker
(D) E. Coli restriction endonuclease-II – cuts DNA at specific places.
72. For human nutrition, tomatoes are a rich source of-
(A) Citric acid
(B) Oxalic acid
(C) Acetic acid
(D) Methonic acid
73. Kiwi is-
(A) A desert snake
(B) Fastest flying Chiropteran mammal of Australia
(C) A species of vulture found in Amazon forest only
(D) Flightless bird found only in New Zealand
74. Eutrophication of water body results from-
(A) Enhanced growth of algae or algal blooms
(B) High amounts of nitrogenous nutrients and orthophosphates
(C) Submersing idols in the water body
(D) Depletion of oxygen
75. Which crop group out of the following contains crop/crops that cannot be used for biofuel production?
(A) Lentil, Sugarbeet, Wheat
(B) Soyabean, Corn, Repessed
(C) Sugarcane, Corn, Mustards
(D) Jatropha, Sugarcane, Palm
76. Deserts have phreatophytes, i.e. plants that have-
(A) Long (20-30 ft) taproots
(B) Small (2-3 mm) or spine like leaves
(C) Succulent stem (100-200 mm thick)
(D) Lipid accumulation (20-30 mg) in leaves
77. In a certain code language ‘567’ means ‘black tall man’, ‘859’ means ‘curly black hair’, and ‘167’ mean ‘fat tall man’, then in this code language ‘1’ stands for-
(A) fat
(B) curly
(C) tall
(D) black
78. A girl wants to go the school. She starts from her home which is in the east and she gets a crossing. The road to the left ends in woods, the straight ahead is the market. In which direction is the school?
(A) West
(B) North
(C) South
(D) East
79. Shalini ranks seventh from the top and twenty-seventh from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 34
(B) 35
(C) 32
(D) 33
80. If Q + R > P + S and P + Q > R + S, then it is definite that; (P, Q, R, S are positive whole numbers)-
(A) S < P
(B) R > S
(C) Q < S
(D) Q > S
81. If 
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 8
(D) 4
82. Consider the following statements-
(a) None but the best candidates can clear the exam.
(b) Some of those who clear the exam pass with good marks.
(c) Some of those who pass with good marks get awards.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?
(A) All those who clear the exam are the best candidates
(B) All best candidates pass with good marks
(C) Those who clear the exam pass with good marks
(D) All best candidates appear for the exam
83. What is the missing number ‘x’ of the series 18, 30, 48, 72, 96, x ?
(A) 106
(B) 115
(C) 120
(D) 96
84. Ena’s age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How long must at least she wait before her age be again the cube of a number ?
(A) 20 years
(B) 38 years
(C) 42 years
(D) 10 years
85. The number of all integers ‘n’ for which n2 + 48 is a perfect square, is-
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 3
86. The number of rhombus in the following figure formed by the set of same equilateral triangles is-
(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 15
87. x, y and z can complete a piece of work in 9, 18 and 24 days respectively. They started working together, but y and z left the work 3 days and 2 days before the completion of the work respectively. What was the ratio of contribution of y to that of z in the completed piece of work ?
(A) 3 : 2
(B) 2 : 3
(C) 1 : 1
(D) 4 : 5
88. If the arithmetic means of a, b, c, is M/3 and 
then the arithmetic mean of a2, b2, c2 is-
(A) 3M2
(B) 6M2
(C) 9M2
(D) M2/3
89. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a table. A and B do not sit next to each other. E and F are opposite to each other. C is sitting to the immediate right of F. If A is not between E and C, then D is not next to F. Which of the following is not an arrangement (in clockwise direction) satisfying the conditions given above?
(A) FADEBC
(B) BDEACF
(C) ACFDBE
(D) DAEBCF
90. In the following letter series arrangement, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternatives :
adb_ac_dc_cddcb_dbc_cbda
(A) ccbba
(B) cbbaa
(C) bbcad
(D) bccba
91. In a certain code language ‘goolo yarn’ means ‘blue sky’, ‘silko spadi’ means ‘bicycle race’ and ‘goolo silko’ means ‘blue bicycle’ Which word may means ‘race car’?
(A) spadi silko
(B) goolo breli
(C) spadi volo
(D) siko zwet
92. How many squares does the following figure contain ?
(A) 25
(B) 26
(C) 27
(D) None of these
93. Which of the following is the greatest ?
√59 – √51, √37, − √29 √87 – √79 and √79 – √71
(A) √59 – √51
(B) √87 – √79
(C) √79 – √71
(D) √37 – √29
94. The cost of the components X, Y, Z of a machine worth Rs 24,000 in 2008 is given as Pie Chart.
In the following year, the cost of the components X, Y, Z increased by 10%, 20% and 10% respectively. the cost of the three components respectively in 2009, was-
(A) Rs 6,600, Rs 9,600, Rs 11,000
(B) Rs 6,500, Rs 9,500, Rs 11,200
(C) Rs 6,900, Rs 9,600, Rs 11,200
(D) Rs 6,600, Rs 9,900, Rs 10,700
95. Statement : Most of the institutions in India have adopted online system of examination.
Assumptions :
I. It may happen that examines from all parts of India are expert in computer.
II. On-line system of examination helps in recruiting more qualified persons.
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Only Assumption II is contained in the statement
(B) Either Assumption I or Assumption II is contained in the statement
(C) Assumption I and II both are contained in the statement
(D) Only Assumption I is contained in the statement
96. Statement : A large number of graduates of Indian universities are not eligible for employment.
Courses of Action :
I. Universities should be given more freedom in deciding subject matters of the syllabi.
II. World ranking foreign universities should be inspired for opening their campus in India.
Assuming the truth of the above statement decide which of the above courses of action follows according to the statement ?
(A) Only Course of Action II
(B) Neither course of Action I nor course of Action II
(C) Courses of Action I and II both
(D) Only Course of Action I
97. If POTATO is coded as 3, then the code of MASK will be
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 0
(D) 7
98. Three of the following pairs of numbers have the same relationship. The odd pair is-
(A) 5,137
(B) 6,715
(C) 7,815
(D) 4,63
99. The ratio of an external angle and n internal angle of a regular polygon is 1 : 5. The number of sides in the polygon is-
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 6
100. If 23 × 5 = 26 and 13 × 8 = 19, then 39 × 7 = 0
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 44
(D) 40
101. The following Pie-Chart indicates the monthly domestic budget of a family where-
A = Food B = Conveyance
C = Clothing D = House rent
E = Miscellaneous expenses
If the monthly saving of the family is Rs 4,500, the monthly income is-
(A) Rs 30,000
(B) Rs 25,000
(C) Rs 20,000
(D) Rs 45,000
102. Justice Surendra Kumar Sinha has been in the news,, because-
(A) he have a note of dissent in Jaya Lalita case
(B) he has been sworn in as the first Hindu Chief Justice of Bangladesh Supreme Court
(C) he is the first Judge appointed after the Constitution of All India Judicial Commission in place of the Plenum
(D) he delivered bold judgements in T. A. D. A. cases
103. Identify the name of the player, who was awarded ‘Arjun Award’ in 2014, after the intervention of Delhi High Court-
(A) Mamta Pujari
(B) Manoj Kumar
(C) Tom Joseph
(D) Jai Bhagwan
104. Assertion (A) : Anju Bobby George of India, who won an Silver Medal in long jump in the Third World Athletics of 2005 has been declared a Gold Medal Winner in 2014.
Reason (R) : The Russian athlete Tatyana Kotava (2nd position) was disqualified during her Dope test.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but(R) is not the right reason for (A)
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(C) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right reason for (A)
105. The Rajasthan Panchayat Act (Amendment) Bill, 2015 was passed by Rajasthan Vidhan Sabha on March 27, 2015. It provides for Eligibility qualifications of local leaders-
1. Availability of a Toilet in the house
2. Candidates for Zila Parishad-B. A . Degree
3. Candidates for Panchayat Samitis- 10th Class Pass
4. Candidates for Sarpanches – (8th Class) and in Scheduled Areas (5th Class) respectively
Codes :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1 and 2 are correct
106. In which district of Rajasthan a war Museum is built up which was inaugurated recently?
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Barmer
(C) Sirohi
(D) Jodhpur
107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I
(a) 11 July
(b) 12 August
(c) 29 August
(d) 8 September
List-II
1. World Literacy Day
2. National Sports Day
3. International Youth Day
4. World Population Day
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
108. Government of India has launched a scheme of ‘Housing for All’ by the year-
(A) 2021
(B) 2022
(C) 2023
(D) 2020
109. The Thrust Areas of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMR-UT) include-
1. Water supply
2. Sewerage facilities
3. Public Transport facilities
4. Creation of parks and recreation centres especially for children.
5. Storm water drain to reduce flooding
Select the correct answer from the codes given below-
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2 and 5
110. Who said, recently, that ‘The Future of India as a democratic country is at risk’ ?
(A) M. J. Akbar
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) Kiran Bedi
(D) Richard A. Falk
111. Land Acquisition Bill was passed by Lok Sabha with how many amendments ?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 05
(D) 09
112. Who won Silver Medal in World Badminton Champion-ship this year (2015) ?
(A) Nisha Siddhu
(B) Martina Hingis
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) Sania Mirza
113. After how many years India has won Cricket Test Series in Sri Lanka ?
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 22
114. The Mudra Yojana of the Government of India is designed to-
(A) Provide loans to poor farmers
(B) Supplement the Jan Dhan Yojana
(C) Provide easy financial assistance to set up small businesses
(D) Initiate reforms in the currency management
115. Civil Service Day is celebrated on-
(A) 21st April
(B) 22nd June
(C) 21st September
(D) 15th August
116. Who has been appointed chairman of India’s Oscar Jury for the 88th Academy Awards ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Anupam Kher
(C) Amol Palekar
(D) Girish Karnad
117. Which Indian State has the highest percentage of children suffering from malnutrition?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Bihar
(D) Madhya Pradesh
118. “Two Years Eight Months and Twenty-Eight Nights” is a book written by-
(A) Sulman Rushdie
(B) Jhumpa Lahari
(C) Jai Ram Ramesh
(D) Ruskin Bond
119. In the recently held HIL auction, the costliest Indian Hockey player was-
(A) Sandeep Singh
(B) Mandeep Singh
(C) Daramveer Singh
(D) Akashadeep Singh
120. Who among following from Rajasthan was awarded Padmashri in 2015 for contribution to medicine?
(A) Dr. Rajesh Kotecha
(B) Dr. K. K. Agarwal
(C) Dr. Saumitra Rawat
(D) Dr. Ashok Pangaria
121. In which country teacher’s day is called ‘Hari Guru’ ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Thailand
(C) Malaysia
(D) India
122. Which one of t he following is not correct about Ranchhor Bhai Rebari ?
(A) He was awarded the President Medal
(B) He was a soldier in Indian Army
(C) International post of Sui village in Gujarat has been given the name as Ranchhordass post
(D) He died at the age of 112 year in 2013
123. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Population Day 2015 ?
(A) A time to reflect on population trends and related issues
(B) Focus is an Adolescent pregnancy
(C) Universal access to reproductive health services
(D) Vulnerable populations in emergencies
124. Consider the following about Raja Ramanna-
(a) He had directed the team of scientists which carried out the test of nuclear device
(b) He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1976
(d) He was made Union Minister of State for Defence in 1990
(d) He had written a book entitled ‘The Structure of Music in Raga and Western System’
Select the correct answer by using code given below-
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (d) only
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a) and (b)
125. Which one of the following Goddess Temples is situated in Sambhar Lake?
(A) Bawan Devi
(B) Shakumbhri Devi
(C) Kunjal Mata
(D) Shila Devi
126. The most important officer after the ruler in the kingdoms of medieval Rajasthan was known as-
(A) Mukhya Mantri
(B) Sandhivigrhik
(C) Pradhan
(D) Mahamatya
127. Who was appointed as the Chief Minister of the United Rajasthan which was formed on 25th March, 1948 ?
(A) Gokul Lal Asava
(B) Gokul Bhai Bhatt
(C) Heera Lal Shashtri
(D) Jai Narayan Vyas
128. The p lace which is famous for its terracotta craft-
(A) Kaithun
(B) Sanganer
(C) Kuchaman
(D) Molela
129. Match t he following-
List-I
(Book)
(a) Hammirayan
(b) Veermayan
(c) Raghunath Rupak
(d) Kirtar Bavani
List-II
(Author)
1. Badar
2. Mancharam Sevag
3. Dursa Adha
4. Bhandau Vyas
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
130 .Identify the instruments/s which is/are not aerophone.
1. Surnai 2. Algoja
3. Nagfani 4. Kamayacha
Choose the correct option-
(A) 3 and 4
(B) Only 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
131. Choose the incorrect pair-
Water body Location (district)
(A) Chand Baodi – Dausa
(B) Ghadsisar – Bikaner
(C) Gap Sagar – Dungarpur
(D) Kayalana – Jodhpur
132. In 1920s, with the objective of political awakening who published newspaper ‘Rajasthan’ from Beawer?
(A) Haribandhu Upadhyay
(B) Munshi Samrthdan
(C) Ram Narayan Chaudhari
(D) Rishi Dutt Mehta
133. During the reign of which of the following rulers the Delhi Shivalik pillar inscription was inscribed ?
(A) Vigrahraj-IV
(B) Prithviraj-II
(C) Prithviraj-III
(D) Arnoraj
134. Which of the following texts has not been written by Kumbha ?
(A) Sudha Prabandh
(B) Nritvaratnakosh
(C) Kalanidhi
(D) Rasikpriya
135. Jamanadas, Chhhotelal, Baksaram and Nandalal are associated with which of the following styles of painting ?
(A) Bikaner Style
(B) Marwar Style
(C) Jhalawar Style
(D) Alwar Style
136. Over which of the following territories of erstwhile Rajputana did the Varik dynasty rule ?
(A) Osian
(B) Bayana
(C) Alwar
(D) Badnaur
137. The Goga Navami is called-
(A) The navami (ninth day) of the Krishna Paksh (dark fortnight) of Shravan (5th month of the Hindu calendar)
(B) The navami (ninth day) of the Shukla Paksh (moonlit fortnight) of Bhadon (6th month of the Hindu calendar)
(C) The navami (ninth day) of the Shukla Paksh (moonlit fortnight) of Shravan (5th month of the Hindu calendar)
(D) The navami (ninth day) of the Krishna Paksh (dark fortnight) of Bhadon (6th month of the Hindu calendar)
138. Tejaji Fair is organized at-
(A) Goth Manglod
(B) Parbatsar
(C) Nagaur
(D) Merata
139. The Veer Bharat Society was established at Kota by-
(A) Sadhu Sita Ram
(B) Nayanu Ram
(C) Kesari Singh
(D) Pyare Ram
140. Kshetrapal has been an important aspect in the culture of Rajasthan as-
(A) Village Officer
(B) A Devotee
(C) A Saint
(D) Village Diety
141. The sect which believed in abding nature of destiny-
(A) Charvak
(B) Buddhism
(C) Jainism
(D) Ajivakas
142. Match the following-
Architectural Style
(a) ‘Lotus bud’ fringe on the underside of the arch
(b) Emergence octagonal tomb
(c) Use of Bodegoi in the pillar
(d) Massive entrance gate with inclined walls
Associated Dynasty
1. Sharqi
2. Vijayanagar
3. Khaljis
4. Tughluqs
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
143. Which amongst the following statements is/are true about V. D. Savarkar ?
1. He founded Abhinav Bharat A revolutionary organization
2. In order to inspire Indian nationalist he wrote the biography of Mazzini
3. He also authored “The Indian War of Independence-1857” which provides nationalist view of the revolt of 1857
4. He jumped into the sea from the sailing ship in order to escape British captivity
Choose the correct answer-
(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
(B) Only 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 3 and 4
144. 16 Janpadas of the age of Mahajanapada have often been mentioned in the Buddhist literature. Which of the following Janpadas have been mentioned by Panini in his Ashtadhyayi?
1. Magadh 2. Ashmak
3. Kamboj 4. Chedi
5. Vatsa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below-
(A) 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, and 3
(D) 4 and 5
145. Which of the following match is not correct in regard to the origin of Harappan civilization ?
(A) Mortimer Wheeler – Migration of idea of civilization’ from West Asia
(B) Amalanada Ghosh – Pre-Harappan culture matured to make Harappan civilization
(C) M. Rafique Mughal – Harappan civilization was inspired by Mesopotamian civilization
(D) E. J. H. Mackay – Migration of people from Sumer
146. Who among the following Maratha Chieftains was the first to offer nazr (gift) at the Dargah of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti of Ajmer?
(A) Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Peshwa Balaji Rao
(C) Nawab Ali Bahadur, grandson of Peshwa Balaji Rao-I (from his mistress Mastani)
(D) Raja Sahu, the grandson of Shivaji
147. ‘Pankodakasannirodhe’ was the penalty in Mauryan administration, charged for-
(A) Throwing garbage
(B) Stenching temples
(C) Filthy drinking water
(D) Slushing the road
148. The Ram Krishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekanand in the year-
(A) 1898
(B) 1897
(C) 1886
(D) 1892
149. Which one of the following officials was not a part of the Mauryan administration ?
(A) Pradeshika
(B) Rajuka
(C) Agraharika
(D) Yukta
150. Consider the following events and select the correct chronological order from the codes given below-
1. Formation of Naujawan Bharat Sabha
2. Formation of Swarajist Party
3. The Dandi March
4. The Jalianwala Bagh Tragedy
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1
(B) 4, 2, 1, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3
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