Sainik School Class-IX Entrance Examination-2019
Paper-I
Mathematics
1. With the help of ruler and compass it is not possible to construct an angle of:
(A) 22.5°
(B) 37.5°
(C) 67.5°
(D) 40°
2. What time period is taken when interest is calculated half yearly?
(A) twice as much as the number of given years
(B) half as much as the number of given years
(C) same as the number of given years
(D) None of these
3. If a number is doubled then which of the following is a correct statement?
(A) Its cube is two times the cube of the given number.
(B) Its cube is three times the cube of the given number.
(C) Its cube is six times the cube of the given number
(D) Its cube is eight times the cube of the given number
4. Which of the following is the cube root of −64/243?
(A) 7/4
(B) −7/4
(C) 4/7
(D) −4/7
5. 
is equal to:
(A) 81/484
(B) 81/169
(C) 169/81
(D) 16/81
6. Which of the following is equal to x3 – 225x?
(A) x(1 – 15x) (1+ 15x)
(B) x(x – 15) (x + 15)
(C) x(1 – 15x) (1 – 15x)
(D) x(1 + 15x) (1 – 15x)
7. The points (−3, 2) and (2, −3) represent:
(A) different points
(B) same point
(C) the origin
(D) None of these
8. If the dimensions of a room are l, b and h, (∵ l → length, b → breadth the h → height) them which of the following is the area of its four walls?
(A) 2h(l + b)
(B) 2h(l + h)
(C) 2l(h + h)
(D) 2h + l + b
9. If [1X 2Y 6Z] is a number divisible by 9, then the least value of X + Y + Z is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 9
10. Which of the following is the Multiplicative identity for rational numbers?
(A) 1
(B) −1
(C) 0
(D) None of these
11. The mid value of a class interval is 42. If the class size is 10, then the upper and lower limits of the class are:
(A) 37.5 and 47.5
(B) 47 and 37
(C) 37 and 47
(D) 47.5 and 37.5
12. The speed of a car is 
The distance travelled by it in 7/2 hours 35/2 minutes is:
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
13. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Four years from now the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 4. The present age of B is:
(A) 20 years
(B) 28 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 21 years
14. 36 is divided into parts such that 5 times the first part added to 3 times the second part makes 142. The two parts are:
(A) 10 and 26
(B) 12 and 24
(C) 15 and 21
(D) 17 and 19
15. Divided Rs 1500 into two parts so that 10% of the larger part exceeds 8% of smaller part by Rs 60. The value of larger and smaller parts are:
(A) Rs 1200 and Rs 300
(B) Rs 850 and Rs 650
(C) Rs 900 and Rs 600
(D) Rs 1000 and Rs 500
16. The value of x + y + z in the adjoining figure is:
(A) 180°
(B) 270°
(C) 360°
(D) 720°
17. If an exterior angle of a regular polygon is of measure 12°, then the number of its sides is:
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 30
18. The smallest whole number by which 44 should be multiplied so as to make it a perfect square is:
(A) 4
(B) 11
(C) 6
(D) 5
19. There are 12321 workers in a factory. They stand in such a way that the number of workers in each row is equal to the number of rows. How many workers stand in each row?
(A) 111
(B) 121
(C) 131
(D) 141
20. Cubical boxes of volume 15625 cm3 each are put in a cubical store of side 2.5 m. How many such boxes can be put in the store?
(A) 100
(B) 250
(C) 500
(D) 1000
21. If 
then the value of 
is:
(A) ±4
(B) ±3
(C) ±6
(D) ±5
22. If the sum of the lengths of bases of a trapezium is 12 cm and area is 14.1 cm2, then its altitude will be:
(A) 2.35 cm
(B) 4.70 cm
(C) 9.40 cm
(D) 1 cm
23. If the length, width and height of a cuboid are 4.2 m, 3 m and 1.1 m, then its capacity in litres will be:
(A) 12860 litres
(B) 13860 litres
(C) 14860 litres
(D) 15860 litres
24. A road roller is 350 cm long and its diameter is 84 cm. It takes 500 complete revolutions to travel the road. The area covered by it in m2 will be:
(A) 4620
(B) 6420
(C) 2460
(D) 4260
25. A solid cuboidal piece of wood measures 3 m ×5 m × 8 cm. Find the weight of the piece if 1 cubic cm of wood weighs 9 grams.
(A) 4500 kg
(B) 5000 kg
(C) 5400 kg
(D) 5600 kg
26. A well was dug with 14 m inner diameter and was 8 m deep. The earth dug out of it was evenly spread out on a rectangular plot of size 10 m × 8 m. Find the raise in the height of the plot.
(A) 15.6 m
(B) 15.4 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 15.5 m
27. If 53x + 4 = 25 × 54x – 1 then the value of x is:
(A) −3
(B) −5
(C) 5
(D) 3
28. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 9 s subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. The original number is:
(A) 81
(B) 54
(C) 72
(D) 45
29. You are given the multiplication of two numbers as below:
The values of the letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G are:
(A) A = 2, B = 4. C = 0, D = 0, E = 2, F = 9, G = 6
(B) A = 7. B = 4, C = 1, D = 0, E = 2, F = 0, G = 6
(C) A = 2, B = 4. C = 1, D = 0, E = 2, F = 0, G = 6
(D) A = 7, B = 4, C = 0, D = 9, E = 2, F = 9, G = 6
30. From a pack of 52 playing cards, one card is drawn at random. The probability of the drawn card being a black ten or a king is:
(A) 5/26
(B) 3/26
(C) 3/13
(D) 2/13
31. A spider is climbing a wall. It climbs up 5 cm, falls back 3 cm, climbs up another 4 cm, falls back 6 cm and climbs up another 5 cm. How far the spider has climbed from its starting point?
(A) 5 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 23 cm
32. What will be the amount and compound interest on Rs 5000 in 3 years if the rat of interest is 4% for the five year, 3% for the second year and 2% for the third year.
(A) Rs 5436.12 and Rs 436.12
(B) Rs 5563.12 and 563.12
(C) Rs 5063.12 and Rs 63.12
(D) Rs 5463.12 and 463.12
33. The smallest square number which is divisible by each one of the numbers 8, 9, 10 is:
(A) 2600
(B) 3600
(C) 2900
(D) 3900
34. If 25% of a number is less than 18% of 650 by 19, then find the number:
(A) 293
(B) 329
(C) 239
(D) 392
35. If the cost price is 25% of selling price then the profit percentage is:
(A) 300%
(B) 305%
(C) 350%
(D) 355%
36. Area of a rectangle whose length is 4ab and breadth is 6b2 is:
(A) 24ab
(B) 24ab2
(C) 24ab3
(D) 24ab4
37. The total surface area of a cone having its slant height 9 dm and diameter of its base as 24 dm is:
(A) 792 sq. dm
(B) 729 sq. dm
(C) 279 sq. dm
(D) 297 sq. dm
38. A Cube of side 4 cm contains a sphere touching its side. Then the Volume of the gap in between is:
(A) 30 cu.cm
(B) 30.48 cu.cm
(C) 30.84 cu.cm
(D) 31 cu.cm
39. A chord of a circle is of length 6 cm and it is at a distance of 4 cm from the centre. Find the radius of the circle:
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 6 cm
40. The mean of 40 observations was 160. It was detected on rechecking that the value of 165 was wrongly copied as 125 for computation of mean. Find the correct mean:
(A) 161
(B) 159
(C) 166
(D) 111
41. If x + y = 12 and xy = 27 and the value of x3 + y3:
(A) 756
(B) 765
(C) 567
(D) 576
42. In what time will a sum of money double itself at 
on simple interest.
(A) 13 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 16 years
43. In a triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD. Then the area of ∆ BED is:
(A) Area of ∆ ABC
(B) 0
(C) ½(area of ∆ ABC)
(D) ¼(area of ∆ ABC)
44. The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 7 cm to 14 cm as air is being pumped into it. Find the ratio of surface areas of the balloon in the two cases:
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 2 : 1
45. Two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their areas in the ratio 25 : 36. Find the ratio of their corresponding heights.
(A) 4 : 5
(B) 5 : 6
(C) 6 : 7
(D) 5 : 7
46. The face value of each share is Rs 10. If dividend is 16% then what will be the income from 600 shares?
(A) Rs 900
(B) Rs 960
(C) Rs 860
(D) Rs 800
47. A solid gold ball of radius 7 cm was melted and then drawn into a wire of diameter 0.2 cm. Find the length of the wire.
(A) 457.33 m
(B) 475.33 m
(C) 547.33 m
(D) 745.33 m
48. A horse is tethered for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one corner by a rope 21 m long. How much area can it graze?
(A) 346.5 sq. m
(B) 340 sq. m
(C) 349.5 sq. m
(D) 348.5 sq. m
49. A race boat covers a distance of 66 km downstream in 110 minutes. It covers the same distance upstream in 120 The speed of the boat in still water is 34.5 km/hr. The speed of the stream will be:
(A) 1.5 km/hr
(B) 2 km/hr
(C) 2.5 km/hr
(D) 3 km/hr
50. The value of 100012:
(A) 1002001
(B) 100201
(C) 100020001
(D) 1000201
English Language
51. The correctly punctuated sentence is:
(A) Mina said, wheres’ Kishore?
(B) Mina said, where’s Kishore!
(C) Mina said, ‘Where’s Kishore?’
(D) Mina said, ‘Wheres’ kishore!’
52. “TO LET THE CAT OUT OF THE BAG’ means:
(A) To jump out of a problem
(B) Have a pet animal
(C) To feel extremely happy
(D) Reveal something that was kept a secret before
53. Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful:
Month (1)/ while (2)/ Mumbai (3) / Last (4) / it (5) / in (6) / happened (7) / living (8) / I was (9)
(A) 1 8 9 2 7 5 6 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(C) 5 7 8 9 2 4 3 6 1
(D) 5 7 2 9 8 6 3 4 1
54. The adjective form of ‘ADVANTAGE’ is:
(A) advantageous
(B) advantagly
(C) advantage
(D) advantagement
55. The active voice of –“He had not been invited by us” is:
(A) We had been invited by us.
(B) We had invited by him.
(C) We had not invited him.
(D) We had not invited by us.
56. Identify the tense in the sentence given below:
When I arrived Ram had just left.
(A) Present Perfect
(B) Present Continuous
(C) Past Perfect
(D) Past Continuous
57. The synonym of the word ‘SPLENDID’ is:
(A) Shortage
(B) Insignificant
(C) impressive
(D) excess
58. The word ‘brittle’ means:
(A) not easily breakable
(B) easily breakable
(C) easily understandable
(D) easily portable
Directions (Qs. No. 59 and 60): Find out the part containing error in the given statement.
59. He is one of the talented student in our class.
(A) He is one of the
(B) talented student
(C) in our class
(D) no error
60. The thief was taken to the nearby police station.
(A) The thief was
(B) taken to the
(C) nearby police station
(D) no error
Directions (Qs. No. 61 and 62): Fill in the blank by choosing the appropriate preposition from the given options.
61. They have gone _____ an excursion.
(A) to
(B) for
(C) with
(D) on
62. The team rebelled ______ the captain.
(A) upon
(B) over
(C) with
(D) against
Directions (Qs. No. 63 and 64): Choose the correct option if the given statements are changed into comparative degree.
63. Silver is one of the most useful metals.
(A) Silver is useful to any other metal.
(B) Silver is useful than any other metal.
(C) Silver is more useful than all other metals.
(D) Silver is more useful than most of the metals.
64. Learning Italian is not as difficult as learning Japanese.
(A) Learning Japanese is more difficult to learning Italian.
(B) Learning Italian is not difficult than learning Japanese.
(C) Learning Japanese is more difficult than learning in Italian.
(D) Learning Japanese is more difficult than learning Italian.
65. The adjective form of ‘apathy’ is:
(A) apathetically
(B) apathical
(C) apathetic
(D) pathetic
66. The noun form of ‘Proud’ is:
(A) proudy
(B) pride
(C) proudly
(D) proudliness
Directions (Qs. No. 67 and 68): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Books are by far, the most lasting product of human effort. Temples crumble into ruins. Pictures and statues decay, but books survive. Time does not destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today as when they first passed through the author’s mind ages ago. The only effect of time has been to throw out the bad products, for nothing in literature can survive long unless it is really good and of lasting value. Books introduce us to the best society; they bring us into the presence of the greatest minds that have ever lived, we hear what they said and did: we see them as if they were really alive, we sympathize with them, enjoy with them and grieve with them.
67. According to the passage, books live forever because:
(A) They have productive value.
(B) Time does not destroy great thoughts.
(C) They are in printed form.
(D) They have the power to influence people.
68. According to the passage, temples, pictures and statues belong to the same category because:
(A) All of them are beautiful.
(B) All of them are substantial.
(C) All of them are likely to decay.
(D) All of them are fashioned by men.
69. Books introduce us into the best society as:
(A) They give us a glimpse of the greatest minds.
(B) They take us to the world of imagination.
(C) They instill in us the qualities of the greatest minds.
(D) They introduce us to elite class of the society.
70. Radha, “I won’t buy a new car”. (Choose the correct word to fill in the blank.)
Radha said that she _______ buy a new car.
(A) won’t
(B) will
(C) wouldn’t
(D) would
71. They will ask you a lot of questions at the interview. The sentence, when converted into the passive voice, would read as:
(A) You are asked a lot of questions at the interview.
(B) You were being asked a lot of questions at the interview.
(C) You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview.
(D) You are being asked a lot of questions at the interview.
72. The phrase in cold blood means:
(A) Indifferently
(B) cruelly
(C) thoughtlessly
(D) deliberately
73. The workers went out of the factory ______ to hold a protest rally. (Choose the correct word to fill in the blank.)
(A) en masse
(B) en route
(C) impasse
(D) de facto
74. To put up with means:
(A) to close
(B) to prolong
(C) to tolerate
(D) to forget
75. Fill in the blank with a possessive pronoun chosen from those given below.
Mani declared that the book was not______.
(A) our
(B) her
(C) your
(D) hers
General Science
76. Rhizobium bacteria:
(A) Help is digestion
(B) Help in nitrogen fixation
(C) Cause diseases
(D) All of the above
77. The metal which is stored in kerosene?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sodium
(D) Calcium
78. Poor conductors are:
(A) Plastics
(B) Clothes
(C) Wood
(D) All of these
79. There are following zones of the a flame:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) No any zone
80. Force of friction always acts on moving objects and its direction shall be:
(A) On any direction
(B) Along the direction of motion
(C) Perpendicular to the direction of motion
(D) Opposite to the direction of motion
81. The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts can be identified is:
(A) Fetus
(B) Zygote
(C) Infant
(D) None of these
82. Diabetes is due to malfunctioning of:
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Heart
(D) Pancreas
83. Naphthalene balls are obtained from:
(A) Carbon
(B) Coke
(C) Coal tar
(D) Coal gas
84. John accidentally placed his hand over flame and immediately pulled it back. He felt the sensation of heat and reacted due to the action of:
(A) Nerve cells
(B) Blood cells
(C) Skin surface
(D) Nucleus of cells
85. A purple coloured nonmetal forms a brown solution in alcohol which is applied on wounds as an antiseptic. Name of the non-metal is:
(A) Phosphorous
(B) Carbon
(C) Sulphur
(D) Iodine
86. Given below are the harmful effects of weeds on crop plants. Choose the correct combination of statements.
(i) They interfere in harvesting.
(ii) They help crop plants to grow healthy
(iii) The complete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light.
(iv) They affect plant growth.
(A) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv)
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
87. Which of the following groups contain all synthetic substances?
(A) Nylon, Terylene, Wool
(B) PVC, Polythene, Bakelite
(C) Cotton, Polycot, Rayon
(D) Acrylic, Silk, Wool
88. Which of the following statement is true about endemic species?
(A) They are found exclusively in a specific habitat
(B) Endemic species can never become endangered
(C) They are only fond in zoos and botanical gardens
(D) They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat
89. Identify the correct statement about cells
(A) All the cells have nucleus
(B) Cells of an organ have similar structure
(C) Cells of a tissue have similar structure
(D) Shape of all types of cells is round
90. Aquatic animals in which fertilization occurs in water are said to be:
(A) Viviparous without fertilization
(B) Oviparous with external fertilization
(C) Viviparous with internal fertilization
(D) Oviparous with internal fertilization
91. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Assuming that the speed of light is 3,00,000 kms−1, calculate the distance between the sun and the earth.
(A) 100 million km
(B) 150 million km
(C) 1500 million km
(D) 15 million km
92. Which of the following is not an application of chemical effect of electric current?
(A) Electroplating of metals
(B) Purification of metals
(C) Decomposition of elements
(D) Decomposition of compounds
93. An earthquake of magnitude ‘6’ on Richter scale has:
(A) Ten times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.
(B) Hundred times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.
(C) Thousand times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.
(D) One and half times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.
94. Which of the following statements is correct regarding rods and cones in the human eye?
(A) Cones are sensitive to dim light
(B) Cones are sensitive to bright light
(C) Rods are sensitive to bright light
(D) Rods can sense colour.
95. Suppose a new planet is discovered between Uranus and Neptune, its time period of revolution around the sun would be:
(A) Less than that of Neptune
(B) More than that of Neptune
(C) Equal to that of Neptune of Uranus
(D) Less than that of Uranus
96. Ramesh was cooking potato curry on a chulha. To his surprise he observed that the copper vessel was getting blackened from outside. It may be due to:
(A) Proper combustion of fuel
(B) Improper cooking of potato curry
(C) Improper combustion of the fuel
(D) Burning of copper vessel
97. When a Copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green material is a mixture of:
(A) Copper oxide and Copper carbonate
(B) Copper hydroxide and Copper carbonate
(C) Copper oxide and Copper nitrate
(D) Copper hydroxide and Copper nitrate
98. The places meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are:
(i) Zoological garden
(ii) Botanical garden
(iii) Sanctuary
(iv) National park
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
99. The same force ‘F’ acts on four different objects having the areas given below, one by one. In which case the pressure exerted will be the maximum?
(A) 20 m2
(B) 50 m2
(C) 100 m2
(D) 10 m2
100. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the strings suitably. By doing so he is adjusting.
(A) Intensity of sound only
(B) Amplitude of sound only
(C) Frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(D) Loudness of sound
Social Science
101. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution was:
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) J.L. Nehru
102. By the late of 18th Century East India Company was trying to expand the cultivation of:
(A) Opium
(B) Indigo
(C) Cotton
(D) Tea
103. EVMs were used for the first time in the _______ general elections.
(A) 2001
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2004
104. There are ________ elected members in Rajya Sabha.
(A) 543
(B) 272
(C) 233
(D) 260
105. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as:
(A) Open-cast mining
(B) Shaft mining
(C) Drilling
(D) All of the above
106. The complainant has a ______ right to get a free copy of the FIR from the Police.
(A) Fundamental
(B) Legal
(C) Political
(D) Economic
107. Which article of the constitution states that untouchability has been abolished?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
108. The Marathi newspaper Kesari was edited by:
(A) Bipin Chandrapal
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
109. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate is called the:
(A) Natural growth rate
(B) Normal growth rate
(C) Actual growth rate
(D) None of the above
110. Dandi March was against the:
(A) Salt Tax
(B) Purna Swaraj
(C) Non co-operation movement
(D) Simon Commission
111. The British East India Company got a charter from Queen Elizabeth-I in:
(A) 1600 AD
(B) 1599 AD
(C) 1601 AD
(D) 1700 AD
112. Delhi Renaissance refers to the period from:
(A) 1830 – 1857 AD
(B) 1857 – 1885 AD
(C) 1825 – 1857 AD
(D) None of these
113. Woods Dispatch of 1854 refers to:
(A) Educational Reform
(B) Financial Reform
(C) Forest Reform
(D) None of these
114. The leader of the ruling party in Lok Sabha is:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) The Vice President
(D) The Leader of Opposition
115. As per which article of the Indian Constitution every arrested person is guaranteed Fundamental Rights:
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 22
116. Which of the following gas was released in Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(A) Methyl Isocyanite
(B) Ethyl Isocyanate
(C) Methyl Alcohol
(D) Ethyl Alcohol
117. Which one of the following is a leading producer of Copper in the world?
(A) Bolivia
(B) Chile
(C) Ghana
(D) Zimbabwe
118. Identify the state with “Lowest literacy” as per census 2011.
(A) Bihar
(B) Haryana
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat
119. The total number of Anglo Indians nominated to the Lok Sabha is:
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
120. Which one of the following countries has the highest percentage of forest land?
(A) Australia
(B) India
(C) France
(D) Japan
121. Who was the founder of the ‘Brahmo Sabha’?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhr Tilak
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
122. Child marriage restraint Act was passed in the year______.
(A) 1929
(B) 1909
(C) 1919
(D) 1853
123. What is a population pyramid?
(A) A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.
(B) When the population density of an area is so high that people live in tall buildings.
(C) Pattern of population distribution in large urban areas.
(D) Pattern of population distribution in rural areas.
124. Which age group of India is guaranteed free education by the Constitution?
(A) 6-14 years
(B) 5-13 years
(C) 7-14 years
(D) 6-12 years
125. Who wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Pherojshah Mehta
(D) Bipin Chandrapal
Paper-II
Intelligence Test
Directions (Qs. NO. 126-128) : Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters group.
126. MONKEY : XDJMNL : : TIGER : ?
(A) QDFHS
(B) SDFHS
(C) SHFDQ
(D) UJHFS
127. MAD is to JXA as RUN is to:
(A) ORX
(B) OSQ
(C) PRJ
(D) UXQ
128. Kilometer is to Distance as Poundal is to:
(A) Density
(B) Acceleration
(C) Momentum
(D) Force
Directions (Qs. No. 129-131): Which number complete the second pair in the same way as the first pair.
129. 20 : 11 : : 102 : ?
(A) 49
(B) 52
(C) 61
(D) 98
130. 13 : 25 : : 48 : ?
(A) 95
(B) 97
(C) 109
(D) 105
131. Tiff is to Battle as Frugal is to:
(A) Sprint
(B) Vague
(C) Miserly
(D) Vital
132. A is 40 m South-West of B. C is 40 m South-East of B. Then C is in which direction of A?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North-East
(D) South
133. Choose the figure, which is different from others.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
134. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is written as 785291. How is GREECE coded?
(A) 381191
(B) 831191
(C) 832252
(D) 835545
135. Which word can’t be formed by using the letters of the INTELLIGENCE word? Find that word.
(A) TILLAGE
(B) INCITE
(C) GENTLE
(D) NEGLECT
136. If + means divide, divide means −, − means ×, × means ÷ then 12 + 6/3 – 2 × 8 = ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 5
137. Select the figure from the answer set that would come in place of the question mark (?).
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
138. A Cube painted blue on all the faces is cut into 125 cubes of equal size. Then, how many cubes are not painted on any face?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 27
(D) 54
139. If 1st October is Sunday, than 1st November will be:
(A) Tuesday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
140. Find the missing number in the box.
(A) 64
(B) 63
(C) 66
(D) 84
141. Which one of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
ac_cab_baca_aba_aca_
(A) acbcc
(B) aacbc
(C) babbb
(D) bcbba
Directions (Qs. No. 142-145): In each of the following questions. Find the word which cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
142. REPUBLICAN
(A) CLIP
(B) PURE
(C) ANKLE
(D) BANE
143. ESTRANGE
(A) GENERATE
(B) SERGEANT
(C) REAGENTS
(D) GREAT
144. ADMINISTRATOR
(A) ADMIT
(B) NEST
(C) MANTA
(D) ROAD
145. SOCIALISATION
(A) SCOUT
(B) CLASS
(C) LIAISON
(D) ASSOCIATION
Directions (Qs. No. 146 and 147): Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters groups.
146. If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO. What code is needed for DELHI?
(A) DEHLI
(B) EFIMJ
(C) HLDEI
(D) EFMIJ
147. PNS : OOT : : DBH : ?
(A) PPI
(B) BBI
(C) CCI
(D) DDB
Directions(Qs. No. 148-150): In the given series, find the next/missing term/number.
148. MNOABCPQRDEFST??
(A) GK
(B) UV
(C) GH
(D) UG
149. AZ, CX, EV, ?
(A) HT
(B) HU
(C) GS
(D) GT
150. YX, UTS, ONML, ?
(A) FEDCB
(B) GFEDC
(C) IHGFE
(D) HGFED
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