Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2014 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2014
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2014 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2014


Part-A : Mathematics

Directions (Qs. 1 to 20) : Bear 2 marks each.

1. Represent 4/8 and −7/4 on the number line.


3. The sum of two number is 15 and the sum of their squares is 113. Find the numbers.

4. Multiply : (a + 7) by (a2 + 3a + 5).

5. If  find the value of  

6. Factorize: 25a2 – 4b2 + 28bc – 49c2.


8. Find the square root of 128881 by the division method.

9. Arun bought a pair of Skates at a sale where the discount given was 20%. If the amount he pays is Rs 1600. find the marked price.

10. Find the Compound interest on Rs 12600 for 2 yrs at 10% per annum Compounded annually.

11. Two adjacent angles of a Parallelogram have equal measures. Find the measure of each of the angles of the Parallelogram.

12. An Unbiased Die is thrown. What is the Probability of getting an even number greater than 5?

13. Find the ratio of the circumferences of two concentric circles of radii 2 m and 3 m.

14. The median of the given data is:

133, 73, 89, 108, 94, 140, 94, 85, 100, 120.

(a) 97       (b) 79

(c) 94       (d) None of these

15. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they differ by 18, then the numbers are:

(a) 36 and 54       (b) 36 and 18

(c) 45 and 27       (d) 63 and 45

16. The point (0, 6) lies on:

(a) X-axis             (b) Y-axis

(c) Origin             (d) None of these

17. The smallest natural number by which 392 must be multiplied so as to get a Perfect Cube is:

(a) 2         (b) 7

(c) 4         (d) 5

18. The diagonals of a rhombus are 64 cm and 48 cm. The height of the rhombus is:

(a) 30.5 cm           (b) 36.5 cm

(c) 38.4 cm           (d) 58.6 cm

19. In the figure given below, find the value of x.

20. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 105. Find the numbers.

Directions (Qs. 21 to 40): Bear 3 marks each.

21. A number consisting of two digits becomes 5/6 of itself, if its digits are interchanged. If the difference of the digits is 1, find the number.



24. Find the value of : 

25. If (x + y +z) = 9 and (xy + y z + zx) = 23, then find the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz)/

26. Find the area of a rhombus whose side is 6 cm and whose altitude is 4 cm.


28. An article was sold at Rs 18000 at a discount of 10%. Find the marked price of the article and the amount of discount allowed.

29. Find k, (3/7)5 × (7/3)11 = (3/7)8k.

30. Divide: (x3/2 – xy1/2 + x1/2y – y3/2) by (x1/2 – y1/2)

31. There are 100 students in a hostel. Food provision for them is for 20 days. How long will these Provision last, if 25 more students join the group?

32. The area of a trapezium is 384 cm2. If its parallel sides are in the ratio 3:5 and the perpendicular distance between them is 12 cm, find the smaller of parallel sides.

33. If two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 5 : 4, find all the angles of the parallelogram.

34. Find the least number that must be added to 1300 so as to get a Perfect Square.

35. Simplify: (a + b) (c – d) + (a – b) (c + d) + 2(ac + bd).

36. Find the height of a Cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total Surface area is 968 cm2.

(Use π = 22/7)

37. Construct a frequency distribution table for the data on weights (in kg) of 20 students of a class using the intervals 30 – 35, 30 – 35 and so on.

40, 38, 33, 48, 60, 53, 31, 46, 34, 36, 49, 41, 55, 49, 65, 42, 44, 47, 38, 39.

38. Rs 1400 is divided among A, B, C so that A receives half as much as B and B receives half as much as C. How much will each of them get?

39. Examine if 117912 is a perfect cube or not. If not, find the smallest positive integer by which it must be multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube.

40. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 8 m deep. The Earth taken out of it has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.

Directions (Qs. 41 to 50): Bear 10 marks each.

41. Arjun is twice is old as Shriya. Five years ago his age was three times Shriy’s age. Find their present ages.

42. The adjacent figure HOPE is a parallelogram. Find the angles measures x, y and z.

43. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice in 3 years. In how many years will it be 9 times itself at the same rate of interest?

44. (a) Factorise: x2 + 6x – 16.

(b) If a + b = 14 and ab = 20, find the value of a2 + b2

45. A road roller takes 750 complete revolutions to move once over to level a road. Find the area of the road if the diameter of a road roller is 85 cm and length is 1 m.

46. The shape of a garden is rectangular in the middle and semi-circular ends. Total length of the garden including the semi-circular ends is 20 m and its breadth is 7 m. Find the perimeter and area of the garden.

47. The denominator of a rational number is greater than its numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17 and the denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2. Find the rational number.

48. During a Sale, a shop offered a discount of 10% on the marked prices of all the items. What would a customer have to pay for a pair of jeans marked at Rs 1450 and two shirts marked at Rs 850 each?

49. Factorise and then Simplify the expression, 12xy(9x2 – 16y2) ÷ 4xy(3x + 4y).

50. A cow it tied to a pole fixed at one corner of a square field of grass of side 40 m by means of a rope 20 m long. Taking π = 3.14

(i) find the maximum area of the part of the field in which the cow can graze.

(ii) find the area of the remaining part of the field.

(iii) find the length of the rope, if the cow grazes 1256 m2 of the field.

Part-B : Science

Note:  Part ‘B’ bearing 75 marks, contains 37 questions, Q. Nos. 1 to 15 carry one mark each, Q. Nos. 16 to 25 carry two marks each Q. Nos. 26 to 35 carry three marks each, Q. Nos. 36 and 37 carry five marks each.

1. Malaria is caused by:

(a) Virus               (b) Protozoa

(c) Bacteria          (d) Fungi

Answer: (B)

2. The next nearest start to earth other than the Sun is:

(a) Aurora Australis         (b) Aurora Barialis

(c) Alpha Centauri           (d) Proxima Centauri

Answer: (D)

3. The only non-metal which is liquid in state at room temperature is:

(a) Bromine          (b) Boron

(c) Iodine             (d) Indium

Answer: (A)

4. A cubical wooden block has the dimension 30 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm, placed on a flat surface. In which of the following cases the pressure applied is maximum?

When it is placed on surface area

(a) 30 cm × 20 cm

(b) 20 cm × 10 cm

(c) 30 cm × 10 cm

(d) None of the above

Answer: (A)

5. What is the time taken by the moon to complete one revolution around the Sun?

(a) 29 days                       (b) 15 days

(c) 36 days (approx.)       (d) 183 days (approx.)

Answer: (A)

6. Which one of the following is not a communicable disease?

(a) Cholera                       (b) Tuberculosis

(c) Common cold             (d) Polio

Answer: (A)

7. Which is correct order to Agricultural practices?

(i) Tilling

(ii) Irrigation

(iii) Sowing

(iv) Adding manure and fertilizer

(v) Harvesting

(a) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (v)

(b) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii), (v)

(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (v), (iii)

(d) (i), (ii), (ii), (v), (iv)

Answer: (B)

8. When disease carrying microbe enters our body, the body produces

(a) Antigen          (b) Antidote

(c) Antibody        (d) Antioxidant

Answer: (C)

9. The gland known as ‘Master gland’ in our body is:

(a) Sweat gland               (b) Pituitary gland

(c) Salivary gland            (d) Sebaceous gland

Answer: (B)

10. If a ray of light incident on a plane mirror along the normal then the measure of the angle of incidence (in degree)

(a) 90

(b) 45

(c) 0

(d) Depends on which direction the ray is reflected

Answer: (C)

11. The instrument used to detect the charge in a body is

(a) Electrometer               (b) Electroscope

(c) Voltmeter                   (d) Barometer

Answer: (B)

12. For a male child the pair of chromosomes should be

(a) XX                 (b) XY

(c) YX                 (d) YY

Answer: (B)

13. The waves produces by earthquake on the surface of earth is known as

(a) Seismic wave              (b) Shock wave

(c) Mechanical wave        (d) Matter wave

Answer: (A)

14. The axis of the Earth inclined to its orbital plane at an angle of

(a) 23.5 degree     (b) 53.6 degree

(c) 66.5 degree     (d) 90 degree

Answer: (C)

15. If you stand between two parallel mirrors the number of image/images that you observe is/are

(a) One                 (b) Two

(c) Eight               (d) Infinite

Answer: (D)

16. Write two suitable examples where friction is increased for our benefit.

17. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long it acquires a dull green coating. Why?

18. Why fossil fuels are exhaustible natural resources?

19. What are Endemic and Endangered Species? Give one example of each?

20. A force of 60 N is applied towards east direction.

What is the magnitude and direction of the force so that:

(a) The net force is zero

(b) The net force is 110 N towards East?

21. What are chromosomes? What are their function?

22. What is Global warming? Why it is a major concern for us?

23. Why are the oily food stuffs such as chips and kurkures are kept in sealed packet and flushed with nitrogen?

24. Why ornaments are generally made with Gold and Silver?

25. Paper b itself catches fire easily whereas a piece of paper wrapped around an aluminum pipe does not-Give reason.

26. What is Acid rain? What are its consequences?


(a) Which sound wave is of more pitch?

(b) Which one is more loud sound?

28. How do amoeba reproduce? Explain in brief with suitable diagram.

29. Write has differences between a plant cell and animal cell.

30. Current is passed through Copper sulphate (blue colour) solution kept in a beaker by two copper rods connected with a battery.

(a) What changes do you notice in the solution and why?

(b) On which electrode a brown deposition is seen?

(c) Mark the two electrodes as anode and cathode.

31. What are Geostationary Satellites? What are their uses?

32. As a member of your society what would you do to reduce air pollution?

33. What are Hormones? Why adrenalin is known as Stress hormone? From where Insulin and Thyroxin hormones are produced?

34. Why lightning occurs between two clouds?

35. How do we hear any sound?

36. Two beakers marked ‘A’ and ‘B’ contains aqueous solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) and Ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) respectively. An Iron rod is placed in beaker A and a copper rod in beaker B. What changes do you observe after some time in the two beakers?

37. If there is any change explain it with proper chemical equation.

(a) Draw a diagram of human eye and label

(i) Retina              (iv) Cilliary muscles

(ii) Optic nerve    (v) Eye lens

(iii) Cornea           (vi) Iris

(b) How our eye adjusts automatically with the varying intensity of light?


Part-A : English Language

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 5 = 15)

Rain in countryside attracts the lovers of nature. It is pleasant and helpful. But rain in city creates a different kind of sight. For some people the heavy downpour may have a Chilling effect, but it has its charm with the roar of thunder and the flash of lightening. On a rainy day the lanes and the streets look like rivulets, and the entire city becomes magically converted into Venice. The street wears a deserted look. Occasionally a man tries to plod his way. His clothes are tucked up and he holds the umbrella in one hand and his bag in the other. A sudden gush of wind tilts his umbrella and he gets drenched. If a vehicle passes speedily by splashing muddy water on him, he looks a pitiable creature. Sometimes the streets become water-logged and traffic comes to a halt.

The men who dwell in comfortable house sit in their cosy rooms and look out of the window to catch a glimpse of some unusual sight. The howl of the wind and the patters of the rain constitute a symphony for them and some of them fell a poetic fervor in their hearts. The poor persons however, suffer a lot. Leaky roofs, rain-soaked floors and chocked up-drains fill them with despair. The street hawkers cannot carry on their trade. The busy house-wife wears a worry face as her oven does not burn.

Many people come out of their houses and wait for the town buses because they have the urgency of going to their work As the town buses do not come in time they feel irritated. Sometimes they are disappointed. Boys and girls do not go to school because of rain Life is painful when it rains in torrents.

When the rain stops, the sight becomes more interesting. Small children come out to the flooded streets and float paper boats. They like to splash water. Buses and cars begin moving on the streets. Life seems to begin normal activity as if a patient recovers from illness.

(a) How ‘Rain is pleasant and helpful’?

(b) How does rain bring happiness to rich while misery to poor section of the society?

(c) How does rain affect the daily life of the people?

(d) How does the life normalize after the rain subsides?

(e) Pick out the words from the given passage which mean

(i) Wet (para 1)

(ii) Live (paral 2)

(iii) Comfortable (para 2)

2. Write a paragraph in about 100 words on any one of the given topics. (10)

(a) Plan a picnic for your class.


(b) Harmful effects of junk fast food.

3. Your are Himanshu, a resident of Benaras Chowk, Ambikapur. Write a letter to the Chairman Municipality expressing your deep concern over the poor condition of roads and the inconvenience faced by the people of our locality.

(Maximum 150 words)                (15)

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions or adverbs given in the brackets. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) My mother ran ………(up/out of/into) milk yesterday and I went to buy some.

(b) Could you turn ………….. (out/off/up) the music while I am talking?

(c) Geetanjali’s car broke ………..(up/off/down) on her way to office.

(d) Fazia’s boss called ……. (down/out/off) the

meeting till tomorrow.

(e) That problem is actually quite simple to figure ………. (up/out/down).

5. Complete these sentence by choosing the correct phrases from the brackets.

[poke his nose into, white collar, once in a blue moon, got the green signal, apple of their eyes]               (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Swati’s parents stopped at nothing for her wedding; clearly she is the …………. .

(b) Nishant ……… for his radical project.

(c) Why does he always have to ……… other people’s affairs?

(d) Though my gardener is uneducated and poor, he is saving to send his son to a good school since he wants the boy to get a ………… job.

(e) After joining the coaching classes I …….. get chance to play cricket with my friends.

6. Following sentences are INCORRECT. Find out the error and rewrite the following sentences correctly. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Money begets money, Don’t they?

(b) He, I and you were asked to write the details.

(c) They had no manner.

(d) No other boy of the class is more taller than Ram.

(e) No sooner had he reached the station when the train left.

7. Write one word for the following group of words. (1 × 5 = 5)

(a) One who eats human flesh?

(b) A person’s first speech.

(c) One who draws maps and charts.

(d) A group of angry people.

(e) One who dies for country?

8. Frame a meaningful sentence by using each word. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Accede, Exceed

(b) Morning, Mourning

(c) Hoist, Host

(d) Temper, Tamper

(e) Differ, Defer

9. Change the following DIRECT sentences into INDIRECT. (1 × 5 = 5)

(a) The student said to his teacher, “Do you teach my brother”?

(b) The cricketers said, “Hurrah! The ICC T20 World Cup is ours”.

(c) The father said to his son. “Don’t walk to fast else you may fall”.

(d) The clerk said to the officer, “Why do you not accept a bribe?”

(e) He said, “Let us to out for a picnic in this lovely weather.”

10. Look at the picture critically, think of a suitable theme and write a story. (in approx. 100 words)      (10)

Part-B : Social Studies

1. State True/False. (1 × 15 = 15)

(a) The Battle of Seringapatam was fought between East India Company and Tipu Sultan in 1799.

(b) Captain Alexander Read introduced the Ryotwari system in India.

(c) Kunwar Singh was a leader of the rebel sepoys in Lucknow at the time of the Revolt of 1857.

(d) Dargah means the tomb of a Sufi Saint.

(e) The last Viceroy of British India was Lord Canning.

(f) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.

(g) Information Technology Industry is known as Sunrise Industry.

(h) Cotton is also known as the ‘Golden Fibre’.

(i) Viticulture means cultivation of grapes.

(j) Kalpakkam nuclear power station is in Karnataka.

(k) Resources that are found everywhere like the air we breathes, are called localized resources.

(l) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

(m) Bhopal Gas Tragedy took place on  02 December, 1986

(n) There are 233 elected members in the Rajya Sabha.

(o) Right to Life is a Fundamental Right  Under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Fill in the blanks. (1 × 15 = 15)

(a) In 1875, the Arya Samaj was founded by ………… in Bombay.

(b) C. V. Raman was given the Nobel Prize for his work in Physics in ……. .

(c) ……… was the British Military Officer at the time of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

(d) Silicon used in the computer industry is obtained from ………. .

(e) ……… is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.

(f) Petroleum and its derivatives are called …….. as they are very valuable.

(g) Silicon Valley is located in ……… .

(h) The Supreme Court of India was established in the year …………. .

(i) In India, Lok Sabha is presided over by the ………. .

(j) The ………. of India is the Supreme Law- making institution.

(k) New Delhi was constructed as a 10-square-mile city on …………..  Hill.

(l) Mala Irular is a tribal group of people who belong to the state of ……… .

(m) Gol Gumbaz, the largest dome in India is located in the state of ……….. .

(n) India’s first satellite ‘Arya-bhatta’ was launched in ………… .

(o) ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by ………. .

3. Expand the abbreviations. (1 × 10 = 10)

(a) PIL

(b) EVM


(d) DRDO

(e) FDI

(f) GSI

(g) NHRC

(h) IRBM

(i) ILO


4. Match the following columns. (1 × 10 = 10)

(a) Battle of Plassey                    (i) 1856

(b) Battle of Buxar                      (ii) 1757

(c) Annexation of Awadh           (iii) 1764

(d) Annexation of Sindh             (iv) 1849

(e) Annexation of Punjab            (v) 1843

(f) Bhangi                                      (vi) Gujarat

(g) Pabhi                                        (vii) Andhra Pradesh

(h) Sikkaliar                                 (viii) Tamil Nadu

(i) Manash National Park           (ix) New Delhi

(j) Supreme Court of India          (x) Assam

5. Write short notes on any five of the following topics (limit 50 words) (5 × 5 = 25)

(a) Indian women of Olympic Games.

(b) Key features of Indian Constitution.

(c) Right to Education.

(d) The “Blue Rebellion”.

(e) The Battle of Plassey.

(f) Fossil Fuel.

(g) Conservation of Water Resources.

(h) Renewable sources of Energy.

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2015 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2015
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2015 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2015


Part-A : Mathematics

Directions (Qs. 1 to 20) : Bear 2 marks each.

1. Find two rational numbers between ¼ and 3/8 and represent them in number line.


3. Fifteen years from now Mohan’s age will be four times his present age. What is Mohan’s age after five years from now.

4. Find the least number of three digits which is greater than 100 and a perfect square.

5. Find the value of 

6. Resolve into factors : 17 – 32y – 4y2.

7. Find the cube root of 91125.

8. There are certain number rows of trees in a garden. The number of trees in each row is twice the number of rows. If the number of trees in the garden is 1250, then the number of rows in the garden is ………… .

9. The marked price of an item is Rs 1200. Find the discount percentage allowed on the item if it is sold for Rs 1050.

10. A man borrowed Rs 16000 at 10% per annum interest compounded half yearly. Find the amount repayable after one year.

11. The four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Find the measures of the angles.

12. What must be added to 4x2 – 12x + 7 to make it a whole square.

13. (1298)9 is equal to

(a) 12917   (b) 1292

(c) 12972   (d) 1290

14. The mean of the first ten natural number sis:

(a) 5.10    (b) 5.5

(c) 5         (d) 6.2

15. Divide a sum of Rs 10 between two persons A and B such that A gets Re 1 more than B.

16. The sum of two number is 45 and their ratio is 7 : 8. Find the numbers.

17. If 56 men can do a piece of work in 42 days, how many men will do it in 14 days?


19. In the above figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, find all the angles of the parallelogram if measure of angle DCX = 130°.

20. A man loses 20% of his money. After spending 25% of the remainder, he has Rs 480.00 left. How much money did he originally have?

By selling a towel for Rs 126.90 a shopkeeper loses 6%. For how much should he sell the towel to gain 4%.

Directions (Qs. 21 to 40) : Bear 3 marks each.

21. The digits of a two digit number are such that one is twice the other. When the digits are interchanged, the new number obtained is greater than the original number by 27. Find the number.



24. If  then find the value of  

25. A well is dug 20 m deep and has a diameter 7m. The earth which is so dug out is spread even on a rectangular plot 22 m long and 14 m broad. What is the height of the platform formed?

26. Find the area in sq cm of a rhombus whose side is 17 cm and one of its diagonals is 30 cm.

27. The marks obtained by 40 students in Mathematics are given below:

69, 59, 49, 39, 84, 68, 77, 48, 47, 57, 46, 41, 44, 67, 57, 45, 34, 36, 87, 89, 65, 41, 84, 78, 52, 49, 75, 37, 38, 42, 73, 31, 34, 37, 56, 59, 64, 85, 81 and 62.

Based on the above data, the frequency of the class 60 – 70 is ………… .

28. An article with a marked price of Rs 600 is available at a discount of 18%. Find the discount given and also the price at which the article is available for sale.

29. If 53x + 4 = 25 × 54x – 1 find the value of x.

30. Walking at 4 km an hour, a person reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. Then the distance of his office from his residence is

31. The internal measures of a cuboidal room are 12 m × 8 m × 4 m. Find the total cost of whitewashing all four walls of the room, if the cost of whitewashing is Rs 5 per square metre. What will be the cost of whitewashing if the ceiling of the room is also whitewashed?

32. What least number must be subtracted from 2200 so as to get a perfect square?

33. A garrison of 2000 men has a provision for 15 weeks. How many men must leave so that the same provision may last for 20 weeks?

34. Multiply (a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca) by (a + b + c).

35. Construct a histogram for the frequency distribution below:


37. Pipe A can fill a tank in 14 minutes, pipe B can fill it in 7 minutes and pipe C can empty the full tank in 28 minutes. If all of them are opened simultaneously, find the time taken to fill the empty tank.

38. Four pipes 5 cm each in diameter are to be replaced by a single pipe discharging the same quantity of water. If the speed of water remains same in both the case, find the diameter of the single pipe.

39. Reduce the following expression into lowest term 


Directions (Qs. 41 to 50) : Bear 10 marks each.

41. A village, having a population of 4000. requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank which is 20 m long, 15 m broad and 6 cm high. For how many days will the water of this tank last? Given 1 m3 = 1000 litres.

42. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 50 years. 5 years ago father’s age was 7 times the son’s age. Find their present ages.

43. (a) Solve the linear equation

x – 0.3 + 0.05x = 2 – 1 – 4x

(b) The sum of the digits of a certain two digits number is 7. Reversing its digits increases the number by 9. What is the number?

44. Construct a trapezium ABCCD in which AB &DC are parallel, AB = 6 cm, DC = 3.5 cm ∠A = 55°, AD = 3.5 cm.

45. Parikshit made a cuboid of plasticine having dimensions 2 cm, 5 cm, 5 cm. What is the minimum number of such cuboid required to make a cube?

46. A horse is tethered in a corner of rectangular plot 40 m by 36 m with a rope 14 m long. Find the area over which it can graze.

47. The pie chart below shows how Mr. Davis distributes his monthly income into different household expenses. See the pie chart to answer the following questions.

(a) In which of the above categories does Mr. Davis spend the greatest portion of his income?

(i) Grocery                       (ii) Entertainment

(iii) Eating out                 (iv) Rent

(b) What portion of the monthly income does Mr. Davis spend on entertainment?

(i) 10%     (ii) 20%

(iii) 30%   (iv) 25%

(c) What fraction of the monthly income does Mr. Davis spend on groceries?

(i) ¼                     (ii) ½

(iii) 1/10               (iv) ¾

(d) If Mr. Davis earns Rs 2,000/- per month, how much does he spend on groceries?

(i) Rs 1,000          (ii) Rs 250

(iii) Rs 500           (div Rs 700

(e) What is the ratio of expenditure between entertainment and grocery?

(i) 3:4       (ii) 4:5

(iii) 3: 5    (iv) none of these

48. A man bought a TV and washing machine for Rs 8000 each. He then sold the TV at a loss of 4% and the washing machine at a profit of Rs 8%. Find the overall gain or loss percent in the whole transaction.

49. Factorise the following:

(a) m2 +  n – mn – m

(b) x4 + 12x2 + 64

50. (a) Solve : (4x2 + 7x3y2) – (−6x2 – 7x3y2 – 4x) – (10x + 9x2)

(b) Using the identity:

(x + a) (x + b) = x2  + (a + b)x + ab

Solve: 107 × 108

Part-B : Science

Note:  Part ‘B’ contains 37 questions, bearing 75 marks. Question No. 1 to 15 are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each , Question No. 16 to 25 carry 2 marks each, Question No. 26 to 35 carry 3 marks each, Question No. 36 & 37 carry 5 marks each.

Fill in the blanks.

1. Blue green algae fix ……. directly from air to enhance fertility of soil.

2. Species found only in a particular area is known as ………… .

3. Synthetic fibres are synthesized from raw material called ………….. .

4. Phosphorus is a very ………… non metal.

5. Process of separation of different constituents from petroleum is called …………. .

Select the Correct Answer.

6. The most common carrier of communicable diseases is

(a) Ant                 (b) Housefly

(c) Dragonfly       (d) Oxygen

Answer: (B)

7. Which of the following can be beaten into thin sheets

(a) Zinc                (b) Phosphorus

(c) Sulphur           (d) Oxygen

Answer: (A)

8. Unwanted sound is called as

(a) Music              (b) Pitch

(c) Noise              (d) Shrill

Answer: (C)

9. The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called

(a) Mixing            (b) Electrolyting

(c) Electroding     (d) Electroplating

Answer: (D)

10. Which of the following is NOT a planet of the sun?

(a) Sirius              (b) Mercury

(c) Saturn             (d) Earth

Answer: (A)

Mark ‘T’ if the statement is True and ‘F’ if it is False.

11. Generally, non metal react with acids. ( )

12. Coke is almost pure form of carbon ( )

13. Kerosene is not a fossil fuel. ( )

14. Unicellular organisms have one celled body. ()

15. An embryo is made up of a single cell. ( )

Write answers within the space provided under the questions:

16. Does pure water conduct electricity? If not what can we do to make it conductive.

17. Explain why sliding friction is less than static friction.

18. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Find its time period and frequency.

19. Define:

(a) Force of Gravity

(b) Pressure

20. Define adolescence.

21. Give two difference between Zygote and foetus.

22. Nylon is used for making parachutes, car seat belts and ropes for rock climbing. Why?

23. List condition under which combustion can take place.

24. List two advantages of using CNG & LPG as fuels.

25. What is malleability ? Give two examples of malleable metals.

Write answers within the space provided under each questions:

26. What is Marble Cancer? Write the air pollutants that are affecting the beauty of Tajmajal.

27. Why is the distance between stars is expressed in light years? What do you understand by the statement that a star is eight light years away from the earth?

28. Explain why plastic containers are favoured for storing food?

29. What are the major groups of micro organisms?

30. What is constellation? Name any two constellation.

31. Explain the reason why water is not used to control fires involving electrical equipment?

32. Why Sodium and Potassium are stored in kerosene?

33. Why are children?infants given vaccination?

34. Briefly explain types of combustion.

35. Draw labeled diagrams of plant cell and animal cell.

36. Write short notes on

(a) Cytoplasm      (b) Nucleus of a Cell

37. Briefly answer the following questions.

(a) Why porters place a round piece of cloth on their head when they have to carry a heavy load?

(b) An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it had been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that, the balloon sticks to the walls. What force might be responsible for attraction between the balloon and the wall?


Part-A : English Language

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 5 = 15)

The beauties of nature are the greatest gifts of God to man. How unlucky are they who cannot enjoy and appreciate nature. Nature is all around us in varied aspects and shapes. We have the green charming hills, snow-capped mountains, and the rising and setting sun in its varied and unforgettable glory. The dew drops on the blades of grass look like iridescent pearls. The silvery moon and the twinkling starts bedeck the sky. The roaring waves in the vast ocean and the lakes which look like sheets of water add to the glorious treasure. Even the violent aspects of nature like the thundering clouds with dazzling flashes fighting, the torrential rain, and the all-powerful storm are some of the aspects of nature which Tennyson termed as nature “red in tooth and claw”. But they have their own charms which captivate man and even inspire in his heart.

One can enjoy the beauties of nature in an abundant measure at a hill station. The floating clouds, the dancing springs, the winding rivulets, the all pervading multicolour flowers, emitting sweet, soothing smell, the trees standing like sentinels with birds singing sweet harmonious songs in their branches, the cool breeze, the humming bees, the delicious fruits-all cater to human senses. Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder on the earth, in the air, in the sky and in the ocean. His heart leaps up when he beholds a rainbow in the sky.

Nature teaches man the lesson of peace, innocence, purity, love, harmony, simplicity, hope and faith in the glory of God. Wordsworth believes that nature is the greatest store-house of wisdom, apart from being a source of eternal happiness:

(a) What is termed by Tennyson as “Red in tooth and Claw”?

(b) What are the captivating beauties of Hills?

(c) What lessons do nature teach humans?

(d) Write synonyms for the following words which means in above passage:

(i) Dazzling …………..

(ii) Capped ………….

(iii) Soothing ………..

(e) Pick out words opposite to following words from the passage:

(i) Calm …………..

(ii) Faded ……………..

(iii) Limited …………….

2. Write a para in about 100 words on ONE of the following given topics. (10)

(a) Hazards of Polythene

(b) Role of Media

3. Write a letter to collector inviting him for the children’s day function at your school. (limit your answer to 150 words)     (15)

4. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles/ prepositions in the brackets. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Who has kept ……… eggs in fruit basket. (a/an/the)

(b) We have turned ……… better ways of living. (towards/about/back)

(c) It was i who fixed ………  your train journey. (at/up/in/under)

(d) In the busy road many were passing ………. (out/by/off/on)

(e) Indian food appeals ………… anybody’s taste. (after/to /into/in)

5. Change into passive voice: (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Which team won the final match last year?

(b) We have sold all the tickets of the show.

(c) One should do one’s duty.

(d) We do not accept ATM cards.

(e) We will sell all kinds of clothes here.

6. Following sentences are INCORRECT. Find out the error and rewrite the following sentences correctly. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) He gave me some advices.

(b) Will you tell me the reason of an earthquake?

(c) One should work had if he wants to pass the exam.

(d) All but I were present in class.

(e) The flower pot is placed in the centre.

7. Write one word for the following group of words. (1 × 5 = 5)

(a) One who is all powerful

(b) A study of body

(c) An animal who preys on other animal

(d) That through which light cannot pass

(e) One who looks at the dark side of things

8. Frame a meaningful sentence by using each word. (2 × 5 = 10)

(a) Ode, Owed    (b) Ceiling, Sealing

(c) Mist. Missed   (d) Chord, Cord

(e) Cite, Sight

9. Change the following DIRECT sentences into INDIRECT sentence. (1 × 5 = 5)

(a) Ruby said, “Raj, how is  your knee today?”

(b) Raman said, “Let us decide on the place.”

(c) She said, “Wow! How lovely the house is.”

(d) I said “Did you call at my house last night?”

(e) He said, “Please lend me your umbrella”.

10. Look at the picture critically, think of a suitable theme and write a story. (in approx. 100 words)      (10)

PART-B : Social Studies

1. State True or False. (1 × 15 = 15)

(a) James Mill glorified India and its culture in his book “A HISTORY OF BRITISH INDIA”.

(b) The Maratha power a crushed in the third Anglo – Maratha war.

(c) The mughal emperor appointed the company as the diwan of the provinces of Bengal in the year 1700.

(d) The tribal chiefs lost their authority under the British rule.

(e) Birsa Munda was convicted on the charges of rioting.

(f) After the revolt of 1857 the Governor- general of India was given the title of Admiral General.

(g) The Tata iron and steel company began to produce steel after the First World War.

(h) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Aryasamaj in 1975.

(i) The Simon commission had two Indian representatives.

(j) The Jalianwalabagh massacre occurred in Amritsar on Baishakhi day.

(k) All natural resources of energy are renewable.

(l) Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper.

(m) Bauxite is the ore of aluminum.

(n) Our constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.

(o) The total membership of the Loksabha is 500.

2. Fill in the blanks. (1 × 15 = 15)

(a) The court language of Mughals was ………… .

(b) The coin of Rupa was first issued by ………. .

(c) The first Europeans to come to India were ………… .

(d) The title of Governor General changed to that of Viceroy in the year ………. .

(e) Delhi became the capital of India in ……… .

(f) Type of party system that has evolved in India is ………. .

(g) The first General Election in India was held in ………. .

(h) Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the state of …………… .

(i) The last Moughal Emperor was ……… .

(j) The third research centre of India in Antarctica is ………. .

(k) ………. is the latest established High Court in India.

(l) ………… is often referred to as ‘Manchester of India’.

(m) The president of the constituent assembly was  …………

(n) ………. allowed the company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal.

(o) …… was the capital of British India before Delhi.

3. Expand the abbreviations. (1 × 10 = 10)

(a) RTI                 (b) SAARC

(c) ISRO              (d) NDA

(e) BARC             (f) NATO

(g) UNO              (h) IPL

(i) TISCO                        (j) UNICEF

4. Match the following columns. (1 × 10 = 10)

(a) Rocks and minerals    (i) Bangalore

(b) Tiger of Mysore         (ii) Productive use of land

(c) Kunwar Singh            (iii) a waterborne disease

(d) Humus                         (iv) Bihar

(e) William Jones             (v) a biotic resources

(f) The arms act                (vi) South Africa

(g) Simon commission     (vii) a linguist

(h) Cholera                         (viii) 1878

(i) Diamond mines           (ix) 1927

(j) Silicon Valley                (x) Tipu sultan

5. Write short notes on ANY FIVE of the following topics (limit 50 words) (5 × 5 = 25)

(a) Women Empowerment.

(b) Revolt of 1857.

(c) Methods of Soil Conservation.

(d) Green Earth

(e) Cultural Diversity

(f) Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.

(g) Panchayati Raj.

(h) Battle of Plassey.

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2016 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2016
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2016 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2016


Part-A : Mathematics


1. Solve : 

2. Find any three rational numbers between and 4.

3. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers?

4. Convert the following ratios to percentages.

(i) 2 : 3                (ii) 3 : 4

5. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon whose each exterior angle has a measure of 45°.

6. State whether True or False.

(i) All rhombuses are parallelograms.

(ii) All parallelograms are trapeziums.

(iii) All squares are not parallelograms.

(iv) All squares are trapeziums.

7. The list price of a frock is Rs 220. A discount of 20% is announced on sales. What is the amount of discount on it and its sale price?

8. How many numbers lie between the squares of the following numbers?

(i) 25 and 26

(ii) 99 and 100

9. Find the square not of 6400 through prime factorization method.

10. A dice is thrown then, find the probability of getting prime number.

11. Shyam bought an air cooler for Rs 3300 including a tax of 10%. Find the price of the air cooler before VAT was added.

12. How many diagonals does each of the following have:

(a) Convex Quadrilateral

(b) A Regular Hexagon

13. Factorise : x2 – 7x + 12

14. Simplify the expression:

3y(2y – 7) – 3(y – 4) – 63 for y = −2.

15. Using the Identity (I), find (2x + 3y)2.

16. Find the area of the quadrilateral PQRS shown in the figure.

17. Find the height of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total surface area is 968 cm2.

18. Evaluate  using law of exponents and powers.

19. Six pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour 20 minutes. How long will it take if only five pipes of the same type are used?

20. Solve : 


21. The difference between two whole numbers is 66. The ratio of the two numbers is 2 : 5. What are the two numbers?

22. In the figure, BEST is a parallelogram. Find the values of angles x, y and z.

23. A bag has 4 red balls and 2 yellow balls. The balsa re identical in all respects other than colour. A ball is drawn from the bag without looking into the bag. Hat is the probability of getting a red ball? Is it more or less than getting a yellow ball?

24. Write a Pythagorean triplet whose smallest number is 8.

25. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs 10 each. However 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs 12 each. Find the gain % or loss %.

26. Find Compound Interest on Rs 12,600 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually.

27. Simplify : (a + b) (2a – 3b + c) – (2a – 3b)c.

28. For the given solid, draw the top view, front view and side view.

29. (a) How are prisms and cylinders alike?

(b) How are pyramids and cones alike?

(c) Is a square prism same as a cube?

30. A godown is in the form of a cuboid of measure 60 m × 40 m × 30 m. How many cuboid boxes can be stored if the volume of one box is 0.8 m3?

31. A rectangular piece of paper 11 cm × 4 cm is folded without overlapping to make a cylinder of height 4 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder.

32. Simply : 

33. If the three digit number 24x is divisible by 9, what is the value of x?

34. The four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 : 8. Find the angles.

35. Sum of two number is 74. One of the number is 10 more than the other what are the numbers?

36. The perimeter of a rectangle is 13 cm and its width is  Find its length.

37. CERI is a rhombus as shown in figure. Find x, y, z.

38. A sum of Rs 10000 is borrowed at a rate of interest of 15% per annum for 2 years. Find the simple interest on this sum and the amount to be paid at the end of two years.

39. The population of a city was 20,000 in the year 2007. It increased at the rate of 5% per annum. Find the population at the end of year 2010.

40. If each edge of a cube is doubled

(i) How many times will its surface area increase?

(ii) How many times will its volume increase?


41. Karan has a total of Rs 590 as currency notes in the denominations of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10. The ratio of number of Rs 50 notes and Rs 20 notes is 3 : 5. If he has a total of 25 notes, how many notes of each denomination does he have?

42. On a particular day, the sales (in rupees) of different items of a baker’s shop are given below. Draw a pie-chart for this data.

(a) Ordinary Bread         :           320

(b) Fruit Bread               :           80

(c) Cakes and Pastries    :           160

(d) Biscuits                     :           120

(e) other                          :           40

43. A picnic is being planned in a school for class VIII. Girls are 60% of the total number of students and are 18 in number. The picnic site is 55 km from the school and the transport company is charging at the rate of Rs 12 per km. The total cost of refreshments will be Rs 4280. Find out the following:

(a) The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys in the class.

(b) The cost per head if two teachers are also going with the class.

(c) If their first stop is at a place 22 km from the school, what per cent of the total distance of 55 km is this? What per cent of distance is left to be covered?

44. Total cost of 5 metres of a particular quality of cloth is Rs 210. Tabulate the cost of 2, 4, 10 and 13 metres of cloth of same type using proportions.

45. Observe the histogram on figure and answer the questions given below:

(i) What information is being given by the histogram?

(ii) What group contains maximum girls?

(iii) How many girls have a length of more than 145 cm?

(iv) If we divide the girls into the following categories, how many would there be in each?

150 cm and more                       – Group A

140 to less than 150 cm             – Group B

Less than 140 cm                       – Group C


46. (a) Is 2352 a perfect square ? If not, find the smallest multiple of 2352 which is a perfect square. Find the square root of the new number.

(b) Find smallest number by which  9408 must be divided so that the quotient is a perfect square. Find the square root of the quotient.

47. The rectangular park in figure is of length 30 m and width 20 m. Having understood the figure answers the following questions.

(a) What is the total length of fence surrounding it?

(b) How much land is occupied by the park?

(c) There is a path of one metre width running inside along the perimeter of the park that has to be cemented. If 1 bag cement is required to cement 4 m2 area, how many bags of cement will be required to construct the cemented path?

(d) There are two rectangular flower beds of size 1.5 m × 2 m each in the park as shown in the diagram and the rest has grass in it. Find the area covered by grass.

48. The internal measures of a cuboidal room are 12 m × 8 m × 4 m. Find the total cost of white washing all the four walls of the room, if the cost of white washing is Rs 5 per m2. What will be the cost of white washing if the ceiling of the room is also white washed?

49. (a) Mass of earth is 5.97 × 1024 kg and mass of moon is 7.35 × 1022 What is the total mass?

(b) The distance between sun and earth is 1.496 × 1011 m and the distance between earth and moon is 3.84 × 108 m. During solar eclipse moon comes between earth and sun. At that time what is the distance between moon and sun?

50. Define the following:

(a) A Bar Graph

(b) A Pie-chart

(c) A Histogram

(d) Frequency

(e) A Pictograph

Part-B : Science

Select the correct answer of the following questions.

1. Penicillin is a drug that can:

(A)  Interfere in the biological pathway of bacteria.

(B)  An antibiotic that can kill bacteria

(C)  Both A & B

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (C)

2. To hear a distinct echo the time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be:

(A)  0.2 S

(B)  1 S

(C)  2 S

(D)  0.1 S

Answer: (D)

3. The Non-metal which is highly reactive and stored under water is:

(A)  Bromine

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Phosphorus

(D)  Iodine

Answer: (C)

4. Nitrogen fixation can be done by:

(A)  Industries

(B)  Rhizobium

(C)  Lightning

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

5. The device used to measure the Purity of milk is:

(A)  Hydrometer

(B)  Lactometer

(C)  Hygometer

(D)  Maltometer

Answer: (B)

6. The Crops which are grown in the rainy season are called:

(A)  Rabi Crops

(B)  Kharif Crops

(C)  Rainy Crops

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

7. The number of nuclei present in a Zygote is:

(A)  one

(B)  two

(C)  four

(D)  None

Answer: (B)

8. Rayon is different from synthetic fibres because:

(A)  It has a silk like appearance

(B)  It is obtained from wood pulp

(C)  Its fibres can also be woven like of natural fibres

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

9. Choose the correct arrangement of the forces due to rolling, static and sliding friction in a decreasing order:

(A)  rolling, static, sliding

(B)  rolling, sliding, static

(C)  static, sliding, rolling

(D)  sliding, static, rolling

Answer: (C)

10. The process of transferring of charge from a charged body to earth is called:

(A)  Discharging

(B)  Charging

(C)  Earthing

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

11. The part of the eye which gives a distinct colour to the eye is:

(A)  Iris

(B)  Pupil

(C)  Cornea

(D)  Lens

Answer: (A)

12. Green house gases are:

(A)  CO2

(B)  CH4

(C)  CFC

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

13. Hottest part of the candle flame is:

(A)  Innermost

(B)  Outermost

(C)  Middle Zone

(D)  Luminous

Answer: (B)

14. Those species of plants which are found in a particular area are called:

(A)  Species

(B)  Endemic species

(C)  Endangered species

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

15. A tadpole develops into an adult by the process of:

(A)  Fertilization

(B)  Metamorphosis

(C)  Embedding

(D)  Budding

Answer: (B)

Write answers of the following questions.

16. What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.

17. What is lateral inversion? Name the mirror in which image formed undergoes lateral Inversion.

18. What are chemical effects of electric current, give one use of such effect?

19. Write the difference between audible and inaudible sound.

20. Why objects moving in fluids must have special shapes?

21. Name of the type of force acting:

(i) A straw rubbed with paper attracts another straw.

(ii) A ball rolling along the ground.

22. What is insulin, where is it produced in the body?

23. Petroleum is called black gold, Why?

24. What do you mean by polymer, give one example of natural polymer?

25. What is the relation between loudness and amplitude. In which unit is loudness expressed. If the amplitude of the wave becomes thrice, what change will you observe in loudness?

Write answers of the following questions.

26. What are antibiotics? Give two examples.

27. What are weeds, how do they affect the growth of plants?

28. What is potable water and how is water purified?

29. What is cloning? Who performed it for the first time. Write the name of first mammal that was cloned?

30. What is deforestation? Write its causes.

31. LPG is better domestic fuel than wood, why?

32. What is refining. Write the fractions of petroleum refining?

33. Explain the difference between thermosetting plastics and thermoplastics. Give two examples of each.

34. Write three commercial uses of micro-organisms.

35. Differentiate between prokaryotes and eukaryotes with one example each.

36. Draw a diagram for Animal cell and Label the following:

(a) Cell membrane

(b) Vacuole

(c) Nucleus

(d) Cytoplasm

37. (a) Define force, give two examples of situations in which applied force causes a change in the shape of an object?

(b) In an experiment 4.5 kg of fuel was completely burnt, the heat produced was measured to be 90000 KJ, calculate the calorific value of fuel.


Part-A : English Language

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

It all began more than 5,000 years ago in Egypt. At that time ancient Egyptians wrote on materials made from the papyrus reed, a plant grown in the delta of the Nile. This “plant paper” was made by laying strips of the stem tissue side by side. These were then struck together with a crude kind of paste made from bread crumbs soaked in boiling water. Though papyrus travelled all over, it did not travel to Eastern Europe. Europeans had started using animal skins as their writing paper. This material was called parchment and although it was expensive, it had several advantages over the humble papyrus. First, the parchment could be folded over without it cracking unlike papyrus, which had to be rolled up into a scroll, making it cumbersome for a reader to handle. Second, as both sides of the parchment could be used for writing, no space was wasted. The material we use for wriging today was invented over 1000 years earlier in China. A Chinese official named Tsai Loon made his paper in 105 A.D from a motley assortment of strange ingredients including mulberry and bamboo fibres, fishnets and rags. The Emperor Ho Ti was pleased with the invention.  Tsai Loon was made an important man in his court. With success going to his head Loon got involved in dangerous business. Unable to face public exposure he committed suicide. The Chinese jealously guarded the secret of papermaking for more than 1,000 years. Unfortunately for the Chinese, the Moors learned it and it was brought to Spain and Sicily. From there it spread throughout Europe and by the 1200s paper mills had mushroomed in Italy and elsewhere. Paper got a big boost when Johannes Gutenberg, a German craftsman, invented the first practical mechanical printing press in 1455. The next 50 years saw thousands of books being printed all over Europe and the demand for paper grew. At present USA is the world’s leading paper producer.

(a) What material was used by Egyptians to write on and how?

(b) How parchment was more easy to use than papyrus?

(c) Tsai Loon committed suicide because?

(d) How paper got a big boost after the year 1455?

(e) Pick out the words from the given passage which mean

(i) Unrefined

(ii) A collection of different things

(iii) Component.

2. Write a paragraph in about 100 words on any one of the following topics.

Mobile Phones-A Boon or A Bane


Cleanliness is next to Godliness

3. Write a letter in about 120 words to the editor of a leading newspaper expressing your views on “Brain Drain”.

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions or adverbs given in the brackets.

(a) Summer has begun to set …………. (out/in/by).

(b) The baby takes ………….(down/after/up) her mother.

(c) Translate this passage from English ……….. (into/in/to)Telugu.

(d) When I parted ………..(from/with/of)my mother, there were tears in my eyes.

(e) You are advised to learn this lesson word ………..(by/to/for) word.

5. Complete the sentences given below by choosing the correct phrase from the brackets.

Wild goose chase, cut a sorry figure, lion’s share, through thick and thin, gift of the gab

(a) If you develop friendships win an individual, you must stand by him ………

(b) The Punjab wants a ………. In the Beas river water.

(c) It was only through his …………. That the managed to win the election.

(d) His efforts to go abroad for studies is a ………..

(e) She …………. When she could not speak correct English in front of her teachers.

6. Following sentences are INCORRECT. Find out the error and rewrite the following sentences correctly.

(a) He ran very fastly.

(b) The woodcutter fell three trees.

(c) If I will reach late, I shall be punished.

(d) No other man in the town is more wiser than Mr Sathi.

(e) The jury was divided on the issue.

7. Write one word for the following group off words.

(a) One who plays a game for pleasure and not professionally.

(b) A substance that kills germs.

(c) A place where young plants are reared.

(d) A speech made without preparation.

(e) A person who can neither read nor write.

8. Frame a meaningful sentence by using each word.

(a) Adapt


(b) Accept


(c) Desert


(d) Patrol


(e) Team


9. Change the following DIRECT sentences into INDIRECT.

(a) Anil said to his sister, “How did you fare in the interview?”

(b) “Do you really want work?” said the merchant to the boy.

(c) He said to them, “Let us cast our votes sincerely.

(d) He said to me, “May you be happy!”

(e) The General said to his soldiers, “Bravo! You fought bravely.”

10. Look at the picture critically, think of a suitable theme and write a story (in approx. 100 words)

Part-B : Social Studies

1. State True/False.

(a) James Mill divided Indian history into three periods-Hindu, Muslim and British.

(b) The Champaran movement was against Indigo plantation.

(c) In Meerut, an old Zamindar, Kunwar Singh, joined the rebel sepoys and battled with the British.

(d) Dharavi in Bombay is one of the world’s largest slums.

(e) Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1775.

(f) The largest state in India in terms of area is Rajasthan.

(g) Lake superior of North America is the smallest of five lakes.

(h) Shifting cultivation is known by the name of Jhumming in North-East India.

(i) On the basis of their development and use, resources can be grouped as actual resources and local resources.

(j) On the basis of their development and use, resources can be grouped as actual resources and local resources.

(k) There are 543 elected members in Lok Sabha.

(l) The Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act came into effect in 2010.

(m) Article 15 of the constitution states that  untouchability has been abolished in India.

(n) The thinner most layer of the Earth is Core.

(o) Kolar gold mines are located in Andhra Pradesh

2. Fill in the blanks.

(a) Warren Hastings became the first Governor-General of India in ………. .

(b) Haider Ali and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of ………… .

(c) A field left uncultivated for a while so that the soil recovers fertility is called ………….. .

(d) ………….. is the closest celestial body to our earth.

(e) Coal and the petroleum are the examples of ………… resources.

(f) A temporary alliance of groups or parties is called ………

(g) ……………. is our Defence Minister.

(h) The act of being fair of just and not favouring one side over another is being …………….. .

(i) A non-government organization which has been working to address the problem of sanitation …………..

(j) ……….. is the 29th state of our country.

(k) The city known as Manchester of Japan …………… .

(l) ………….. is the leading producer of coffee in the world.

(m) The ores of metallic minerals are found in ………… and metamorphic rocks.

(n) Method to check soil erosion on steep slopes is called ……………….

(o) Silicon Valley is located in …………..

3. Write the full form of the following abbreviations:

(a) BHEL

(b) CTBT

(c) FIR

(d) ICBM


(f) NTPC

(g) KYC

(h) RAM

(i) PSLV


4. Match the following:

(a) Breeding of fish                                                         (i) Viticulture

(b) Cultivation of grapes                                                (ii) Sachin Tendulkar

(c) Prarthana Samaj founded in                                   (iii) village

(d) The Veda Samaj founded in                                    (iv) Nelson Mandela

(e) Tomb of Sufi Saint                                                     (v) 1864

(f) An open prayer place off Muslims                          (vi) pisciculture

(g) ryot                                                                               (vii) 1867

(h) mahal                                                                          (viii) Dargah

(i) ‘Playing it my Way’ is a book written by               (ix) peasant

(j) ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by       (x) Idgah

5. Write short notes on any five of the following topics (limit 50 words).

(a) FDI

(b) Independent Judiciary

(c) Mangalyaan

(d) The Battle of Buxar

(e) Conservation of Energy

(f) Information Technology

(g) Crime against Women

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2017 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2017
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2017 Question Paper

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination-2017


Part-A : Mathematics


1. Find the product of (a2) × (2a22) × (4a26).

2. Using Euler’s formula find the number of faces of polyhedron having 6 vertices & 12 edges.

3. Calculate the value of 100 × 8 + 10 × 1 + 7.

4. What is the point of intersection of x-axis and y-axis called?

5. Find the value of x if 

6. Eleven bags of wheat flour, each marked 5 kg, actually contained the following weights of flour (in kg) 4.97, 5.05, 5.08, 5.00, 5.06, 5.08, 4.98, 5.04, 5.07, 5.00. What is the probability that any of these bags chosen at contains more than 5 kg of flour?

7. If  then find the value of x.

8. Find cube root of 175616 by factorization method.

9. How many sides does a regular polygon have, if the measure of an exterior angle is 12°?

10. Evaluate 


AD || BC || EF and AE || DC

∠AFE = 52° ∠EAF = 64°.

∠x = ……….

12. If a spinning wheel has 3 Green sectors, 1 Blue and 2 Red sectors. What is the probability of getting a Green sector?


In trapezium

AE and DE bisect ∠CDA and ∠DAB.

Find ∠ABC and ∠DCB.

14. Two equal sides of an isosceles are each 3 m more than 3 times of third side. Find length of sides, if perimeter is 34 m.

15. The area of a circle is given as πx2 + 10πx + 25π. Find the radius as an algebraic expression.

16. Three numbers are in ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and sum of their cubes is 4500. Find numbers.

17. Find

x = ……………..

18. A coin is tossed 2 times. What are the total number of possible outcomes?

19. What is the range of data 30, 61, 55, 25, 2, 12, 17, 81?

20. Find the value of x2 if x = (100)1 – 4 ÷ (100)0.


21. A DVD player and TV were bought for Rs 8,000 each. The shopkeeper made a loss of 4% on the DVD player and a profit of 8% on the TV. Find the gain or loss per cent on the whole transaction.

22. Arif took a loan of Rs 80,000 from a bank. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, find the difference in amounts he would be paying after  if the interest is (a) compounded annually (b) compounded half yearly.

23. Find the value of:

24. What least number must be subtracted from 7250 to get a perfect square? Also, find the square root of this perfect square.

25. If 

26. A motor boat covers a certain distance downstream in a river in 5 hours It covers the same distance upstream in 6 hours. The speed of water is 2 km/hr, find the speed of the boat in still water.

27. A dealer buys an article for Rs 380. At what price must he mark it so that after allowing a discount of 5%, he still makes a profit of 25%?

28. The population of village is 20000. If the birth rate is 5% p.a. and death rate is 3% p.a., find the population after 2 years.

29. The distance between two stations is 550 km. Two trains start at the same time from the two stations on parallel tracks to cross one another. The speed of one train is 10 km/hr more than the other. If after 3 hours, the trains are 40 km apart, find their respective speed.

30. Simplify : 

31. Show that 

32. The ratio between interior and exterior angle of a regular polygon is 8 : 1. Find the number of sides of the polygon.

33. Find the area of trapezium.

34. Find the height of cuboid whose base area is 360 cm2 and volume is 1800 cm3.

35. Represent  on a number line.

36. Find the length of longest pole that can be kept in a room of 12 m × 4 m × 3 m.

37. The diameter of base of a cylinder is 140 cm and volume is 1.54 m2. Find its height.

38. Express 212 as sum of two consecutive integers.

39. If 21y5 is a multiple of 9, where y is a digit, what is the value of y?

40. Divide: 7(x3y2z2 + x2y3z2 + x2y2z3) by 4(x2y2z2).


41. The hour hand of a circular clock is 10 cm long. How much distance will it cover in 2 days or 48 hours?

42. A collage is made up of 400 rhombus shaped pieces and 200 trapezium. The diagonals of the rhombus are 6 cm and 4 cm long. Lengths of the parallel sides of the trapezium are 4 cm and 8 cm and the height is 10 cm. Find the area off the collage and also the cost of painting it at the rate of Rs 250 per m2.

43. The rainwater falling on a roof 40 m × 25 m is collected in a cylindrical tank with diameter 7 m and height 10 m. If the tank is completely filled, find the height of the rainwater on the roof.

44. MNOPQ is a regular pentagon. The bisector of angle M meets side OP at K. Find measure of ∠

45. How many wooden blocks of size 22 cm × 10 cm × 7 cm are required to make a wooden partition of 11 m ×5 m × 40 cm, if the glue and filling material used occupies one tenth of the wooden partition?

46. The side of a swimming pool are 7 m, 6 m, and 15 m. If 8400 litres of water is pumped out, what is the decrease in water level?

47. Ajit bought 150 kg sugar at Rs 50 per kg. He sold 70% of sugar at Rs 70 per kg and balance at Rs 40 per kg. Find overall profit/loss on the whole deal.

48. The following table gives the marks scored by 100 students in an Entrance Examination.

Represent this data in the form of a histogram.

49. Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 0.2 cm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.

50. In the adjoining figure, the bisectors of A & B meet at a point P.

If C = 96° and D = 30°, find APB.

Part-B : Science

Select the correct answer of the following questions.

1. The synthetic fibre that appears to resemble wool is:

(A)  PET

(B)  acrylon

(C)  rayon

(D)  nylon

Answer: (B)

2. A prominent constellation looking like a distorted form of the letter W or M, is the:

(A)  Cassiopeia

(B)  Big dipper

(C)  Orion

(D)  Ursa minor

Answer: (A)

3. A example of a plastic which cannot be remoulded again by simple heating is:

(A)  Polythene

(B)  PVC

(C)  Polystyrene

(D)  Bakelite

Answer: (D)

4. Cellulose is made up of a large number of ………

(A)  amide

(B)  amino

(C)  glucose

(D)  sucrose

Answer: (C)

5. Relationship between a biotic community and an abiotic environment is called:

(A)  Biodiversity

(B)  Ecosystem

(C)  Symbiosis

(D)  Survival

Answer: (B)

6. Lactobacillus bacteria help to make:

(A)  Bread

(B)  Pastries

(C)  Cake

(D)  Curd

Answer: (D)

7. World Water day is observed on:

(A)  24 March

(B)  23 March

(C)  21 March

(D)  22 March

Answer: (D)

8. The place meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are:

(i) Zoological gardens

(ii) Botanical gardens

(iii) Wildlife sanctuary

(iv) National Park

(A)  (i) and (ii)

(B)  (ii) and (iii)

(C)  (iii) and (iv)

(D)  (i) and (iv)

Answer: (C)

9. Which of the following is considered a clean fuel?

(A)  Cowdung cake

(B)  Petrol

(C)  Kerosene

(D)  Hydrogen

Answer: (D)

10. Which one of the following metals does not react with dilute HCl?

(A)  Magnesium

(B)  Aluminium

(C)  Iron

(D)  Copper

Answer: (D)

11. Solution of which of the following oxides in water will change the colour of Blue litmus to Red?

(A)  Sulphur dioxide

(B)  Magnesium oxide

(C)  Iron oxide

(D)  Copper oxide

Answer: (A)

12. The material used for making kitchen container is …………. .

(A)  PVC

(B)  Acrylic

(C)  Teflon

(D)  PET

Answer: (D)

13. Which of the following will not conduct electricity?

(A)  Lemon juice

(B)  Vinegar

(C)  Tap water

(D)  Vegetable oil

Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following is not part of solar system?

(A)  Asteroid

(B)  Satellite

(C)  Constellation

(D)  Comet

Answer: (C)

15. The phenomenon of ‘Marble Cancer’ is due to:

(A)  Soot particles

(B)  CFCs

(C)  Log

(D)  Acid rain

Answer: (D)

Write answers of the following questions.

16. Why a crackling sound is heard while taking off a sweater during winters?

17. Differentiate between “Spontaneous and Explosive combustion”.

18. Calorific value of wood is 1800 kJ/kg. How much wood is required to produce heat energy of 144,000 kJ?

19. A force of 150 N is applied to an object of area 5 m2. Calculate the pressure.

20. How reproduction of Hydra differs from that of Amoeba?

21. Explain why sliding friction is less than static friction.

22. How do vaccines work?

23. Hens and frogs are both oviparous exhibiting different types of fertilization. Explain.

24. What is meant by Water table?

25. Distinguish between ‘Speedometer’ and ‘Odometer’.

26. What is freezing mixture? How common salt helps to clean pavements covered with snow?

27. Mention the effect of iodine in water on the growth of tadpoles.

28. Write short note on Adam’s apple.

29. Eyes of nocturnal birds have large cornea and large pupil. How does it help them?

30. Explain how will you make a tester for testing electric current using a magnetic compass and empty matchbox, a battery of two cells and connecting wire.

31. Make sketch of human nerve cell. What functions nerve cell performs?

32. A block is kept in two different ways on a table as shown in figure. Explain in which positions the pressure exerted by the block on the table will be maximum.

33. Do all the starts in sky move? Explain.

34. Explain the process which enables us to perceive motion in a cartoon film.

35. Why CFCs are considered pollutants?

36. Explain ‘SOIL PROFILE’ using a neat and labeled diagram.

37. Distinguish between metals and non-metals. What are metalloids? Give any two examples of metalloids.


Part-A : English Language

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Prafulla Chandra Ray was born on 2 August 1861 in the district of Jessore, now in Bangladesh, close to the birth place of Madhusudan Dutt, widely regarded as the Milton of Bengal. It was the best of times and the worst. The British had by now perfected their role as masters and British values permeated the Indian upper classes to the very last detail like table manners. That of course, was not the worst of the British influence, there were several. What was far more demeaning to the educated Indians was the fact that senior Government positions were closed to them. Being forfeited of one’s right in one’s land off birth would become the rallying point for the Indian intelligentsia in the years to come.

Ray’s father Harish Chandra Ray, a man of learning and taste, was closely associated with the cultural and intellectual leaders of the time and exerted great influence on his son. Ray had his early schooling in the village school founded by his father but soon his father shifted to Calcutta and at the age of nine, little Prafulla set eyes for the first time, on the bustling city that would be his home for many years to come. He was filled with wonder at ever-charging sights and sounds – the city seemed to change moods ever so often! His formal schooling was interrupted due to illness but that did not affect his education.

(a) How did the British perfect their role as masters?

(b) Educated Indians felt insulted because ………. .

(c) Prafulla was greatly influenced by his father because ……… .

(d) Prafull’s illness could not stop his learning because …….. .

(e) Intelligentsia in the paragraph means ………. .

Part-B : Social Studies

1. State True/False.

(a) Viveka Vardhini magazine was started by Kandukuri Veeresalingam.

(b) The partition of Bengal was ordered by Lord Cornwallis.

(c) The Vice-President is elected by only the elected members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(d) Sikhs form the largest single minority community in India.

(e) Animal husbandry is the main production activity in the villages of India.

(f) Sariska Tiger Reserve is situated in Alwar, Rajasthan?

(g) The rubber plantation vegetation belongs to Tropical Evergreen forest.

(h) Death rate is also known as mortality rate.

(i) The prosecution is the legal party which an individual accused of breaking of law.

(j) Ruhr region of Germany is famous for rich deposits of coal.

(k) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2000 is an act of the Parliament of India

(l) Mother Diary is the cooperative which has brought about the white revolution in the country.

(m) BPL stands for Behind Poverty Level.

(n) Every person has a Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer under the Article 22.

(o) Rowlatt Acts (February 1919), empowered the British to put Indian people in jail without a trial.

2. Fill in the blanks.

(a) The first Deputy Prime Minister of Independent India was ………. .

(b) The ……………. Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh is a nomadic community.

(c) The author who described the revolt of 1857 as “the first war of independence” was ………… .

(d) The game of badminton originated in ………………. .

(e) The highest mountain peak in the Karakoram Range is ……….. .

(f) Narrow valleys between Shivalik and Himachal are known as ……… .

(g) …………… is the largest coffee-producing nation in the world.

(h) Hampi is located within the ruins of Vijayanagara, beside the river ……….. .

(i) In Lok Sabha there are ………. seats.

(j) Emperor Ashoka belonged to ………. dynasty.

(k) …………. is a weather phenomenon caused when warm water from the Western Pacific Ocean flows eastward.

(l) The Delhi Police is under …….. government.

(m) In India, Forest Research Institute is situated in …………. .

(n) The Battle of Buxar was fought in ………. year.

(o) Governor of RBI is ………… .

(p) The river which joins Chenab in Pakistan is …………. .

3. Write the full form of the following abbreviations:

(a) LBW                         (b) IMHO

(c) FBI                           (d) EPABX

(e) GAIL                        (f) UNESCO

(g) PIN                           (h) SPCA

(i) SPICMACAY           (j) PVSM

4. Match the following:

(a) Lord Dalhousie        (i) 1914

(b) Osaka                      (ii) Bauxite

(c) Criminal Tribe Act    (iii) Criminal Court

(d) First World War       (iv) Manchester of Japan

(e) Jet stream               (v) Chairman of the Drafting committee

(f) Odisha                      (vi) 1984

(g) Dr BR Ambedkar     (vii) Chief Judge

(h) Qazi                         (viii) Doctrine of Lapse

(i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy  (ix) High altitude westernly winds

(j) Faujdari adalat           (x) 1871

5. Write short notes on any five of the following topic (limit 50 words)

(a) National Food Security Bill

(b) Public Interest Litigation

(c) Describe the life style of Gujjar Bakarwals

(d) India is a secular state

(e) River disputes in India

(f) Doctrine of Lapse

(g) Jan Lokpal Bill

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2018
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class-IX Entrance Examination-2018



1. If a number 573 xy is divisible by 90, then what is the value of x + y?

(A)    6

(B)    9

(C)    3

(D)    8

Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following numbers is in standard form?

(A)    −24/52

(B)    −49/71

(C)    −27/48

(D)    28/−105

Answer: (B)

3. What should be added to −5/7 to get −2/3?

(A)    −29/21

(B)    29/21

(C)    1/21

(D)    −1/21

Answer: (C)

4. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 7. Four years from now the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 4. Then the present age of B is:

(A)    20 years

(B)    28 years

(C)    15 years

(D)    21 years

Answer: (B)

5. Two consecutive even numbers are such that half of the larger number exceeds one-fourth of the smaller number by 5. Then the larger number is:

(A)    16

(B)    18

(C)    32

(D)    34

Answer: (B)

6. If 0.25 (4f – 3) = 0.05 (10f – 9), then f is equal to:

(A)    0.6

(B)    0.8

(C)    0.5

(D)    0.4

Answer: (A)

7. A number consists of two digits. The digit in the lens place exceeds the digit in the units place by 4. The sum of the digit is 1/7 of the number. The number is:

(A)    27

(B)    72

(C)    48

(D)    84

Answer: (D)

8. How many sides does a regular polygon have, wherein, whose interior angle is eight times its exterior angle?

(A)    16

(B)    24

(C)    18

(D)    20

Answer: (C)

9. ABCD is a rectangle with ∠BAC = 48°. Then ∠DBC is equal to:

(A)    38°

(B)    42°

(C)    48°

(D)    132°

Answer: (B)

10. The angles A, B, C, D of a quadrilateral ABCD taken in order are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 6 : 4, then ABCD is a:

(A)    Rhombus

(B)    Parallelogram

(C)    Trapezium

(D)    Kite

Answer: (C)

11. A data set of n observations has mean  While another data set of 2n observations has mean . Then the mean  of the combined data set of 3n observations will be:





Answer: (D)

12. In a class of 17 students, six boys failed in a test. Those who passed scored 12, 15, 17, 15, 16, 15, 19, 17, 18, 18 and 19 marks. The median score of 17 students in the class is:

(A)    15

(B)    16

(C)    17

(D)    18

Answer: (A)

13. The mean age of a class is 16 If the class teacher aged 40 years old is also included, the mean age increases to 17  years. The number of students in the class is:

(A)    23

(B)    33

(C)    44

(D)    16

Answer: (A)

14. From a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. What is the probability that the drawn card is a queen?

(A)    1/4

(B)    1/52

(C)    1/13

(D)    1/26

Answer: (C)

15. Which of the following numbers is not a perfect square?

(A)    3600

(B)    6400

(C)    81000

(D)    2500

Answer: (C)

16. Which least number must be subtracted from 176 to make it a perfect square?

(A)    16

(B)    7

(C)    10

(D)    4

Answer: (B)

17. is equal to:

(A)    3/2

(B)    1.49

(C)    √3/2

(D)    3/√2

Answer: (A)

18. The volume of a cubical box is 32.768 cubic metres. Then the length of a side of the box is:

(A)    32 m

(B)    320 m

(C)    768 m

(D)    3.2 m

Answer: (D)

19. By what least number should 648 be multiplied to get a perfect cube?

(A)    3

(B)    6

(C)    9

(D)    18

Answer: (C)

20. Given that 3048625 = 3375 × Then what is the cube root of 3048625?

(A)    155

(B)    135

(C)    45

(D)    None of these

Answer: (B)

21. I borrowed Rs 12000 from Jamshed at 6% per annum simple interest for 2 Had I borrowed this sum at 6% per annum compound interest, what extra amount would I have to pay?

(A)    Rs 144

(B)    Rs 1440

(C)    Rs 72

(D)    Rs 43.20

Answer: (D)

22. During a sale, a shop offered a discount of 10% on the marked price of all the items. What would a customer have to pay for a pair of jeans marked at Rs 1450 and two shirts marked at Rs 850 each?

(A)    Rs 2835

(B)    Rs 3150

(C)    Rs 2300

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

23. If the cost price of 10 greeting cards is equal to the selling price of 8 greeting cards, then the gain or loss % is:

(A)    Loss of 25%

(B)    Loss of 20%

(C)    Gain of 25%

(D)    Gain of 20%

Answer: (C)

24. ‘A’ can be do a piece of work in 20 days which ‘B’ alone can do in 12 days. ‘B’ worked at it for 9 days then ‘A’ can finish the remaining work in:

(A)    3 days

(B)    5 days

(C)    7 days

(D)    11 days

Answer: (B)

25. A car takes 2 hours to reach a destination by travelling at 60 km/hr. How long will it take while travelling at 80 km/hr?

(A)    1 hr 30 mins

(B)    1 hr 40 mins

(C)    2 hrs 40 mins

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

26. If 

(A)    25

(B)    27

(C)    23


Answer: (C)

27. (a + 1) (a – 1) (a2 + 1) is equal to:

(A)    (a4 – 2a2 – 1)

(B)    (a4 – a2 – 1)

(C)    (a4 + 1)

(D)    (a4 – 1)

Answer: (D)

28. (82)2 – 182 is equal to:

(A)    8218

(B)    6418

(C)    6400

(D)    720

Answer: (C)

29. How many edges does a square prism have?

(A)    9

(B)    12

(C)    16

(D)    8

Answer: (B)

30. Three cubes of iron whose edges are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively are melted and formed into a single cube. The edge of the new cube formed is:

(A)    12 cm

(B)    14 cm

(C)    16 cm

(D)    24 cm

Answer: (A)

31. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m3 and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth of the tank is:

(A)    8 m

(B)    12 m

(C)    16 m

(D)    18 m

Answer: (B)

32. The edges of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its surface area is 88 cm2. The volume of the cuboid is:

(A)    64 cm3

(B)    96 cm3

(C)    120 cm3

(D)    48 cm3

Answer: (D)

33. The parallel sides of a trapezium are in the ratio 4 : 3 and the perpendicular distance between them is 12 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 630 cm2, then its shorter of the parallel side is:

(A)    45 cm

(B)    42 cm

(C)    60 cm

(D)    36 cm

Answer: (A)

34. The base of a triangle is four times its height and its area is 50 m2. the length of its base is:

(A)    10 m

(B)    15 m

(C)    20 m

(D)    25 m

Answer: (C)


(A)    1

(B)    9

(C)    3

(D)    3n

Answer: (B)

36. 45 : 25 is the same as:

(A)    4 : 1

(B)    2 : 1

(C)    7 : 5

(D)    7 : 10

Answer: (A)

37. If a = b2/3, and b = c2, then what is the value of a in terms of c?

(A)    4/C3

(B)    ∛C4

(C)    1/∛C4

(D)    ∜C3

Answer: (C)

A courier-person cycles from a town to a neighbouring suburban area to deliver a parcel to a merchant. His distance from the town at different times is shown by the above graph?

38. What is the scale taken for the time axis?

(A)    2 units = 1 hour

(B)    1 unit = 2 hours

(C)    1 unit = 4 hours

(D)    4 units = 1 hours

Answer: (D)

39. How much time did the person take for the travel?

(A)    2 hours



(D)    4 hours

Answer: (C)

40. How far is the place of the merchant from town?

(A)    11 km

(B)    22 km

(C)    13 km

(D)    26 km

Answer: (B)

41. When did the person stop on the way?

(A)    between 8 am and 9 am

(B)    between 9 am and 10 am

(C)    between 10 am and 10.30 am

(D)    between 10.30 am and 11.30 am

Answer: (C)

42. During which period did he ride the fastest?

(A)    between 8 am and 9 am

(B)    between 9 am and 10 am

(C)    between 10 am and 10.30 am

(D)    between 10.30 am and 11.30 am

Answer: (A)

43. Find the values of A, B, C in the following:

Then what is the value of A + B + C?

(A)    10

(B)    14

(C)    16

(D)    18

Answer: (D)

44. If y denotes the digit at hundreds place of the number 67y 19, such that the number is divisible by 11. The value of y is:

(A)    3

(B)    5

(C)    4

(D)    7

Answer: (C)

45. Find three whole numbers a, b and c such that a + b + c = a × b × c, then what is the value of a2 + b2 + c2?

(A)    14

(B)    15

(C)    16

(D)    17

Answer: (A)

46. 3 + 23y – 8y2 is equal to:

(A)    (1 – 8y) (3 + y)

(B)    (1 + 8y) (3 – y)

(C)    (1 – 8y) (y – 3)

(D)    (8y – 1) (y + 3)

Answer: (B)

47. A motor car starts with a speed of 70 km/hr with its speed increasing every 2 hrs by 10 km/hr. In how many hours will it cover 345 km?


(B)    4 hours 5 minutes


(D)    3 hours

Answer: (C)

48. is equal to:



(C)    (2x + 3)


Answer: (D)

49. 1200 soldiers in a fort had enough food for 28 days. After 4 days, some soldiers were transferred to another fort and thus the food lasted now for 32 more days. How many soldiers left the fort?

(A)    300

(B)    400

(C)    200

(D)    100

Answer: (A)

50. If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is (6 + 3√2)m, then the area of the triangle is:

(A)    5.4 m2

(B)    81 m2

(C)    9 m2

(D)    4.5 m2

Answer: (D)

English Language

51. The correctly punctuated sentence is:

(A)    He asked me, “whether I had done my work”.

(B)    He asked me, “whether I had done my work”?

(C)    He asked me whether I had done my work?

(D)    He asked me whether I had done my work.

Answer: (D)

52. Which of the following will be the correct indirect speech if the statement given below is changed into it?

He said, “I shall leave these papers here.”

(A)    He said that he would leave those papers there.

(B)    He said that he should leave those papers there.

(C)    He said that he would leave these papers there.

(D)    He said that he would leave those papers here.

Answer: (A)

53. The correct passive form of the following sentence is:

They asked me my name.

(A)    My name was asked me by them.

(B)    I was asked my name.

(C)    Me was asked my name by them.

(D)    My name was asked from them.

Answer: (B)

54. The correct meaning of the word ‘calamity’ is:

(A)    disaster

(B)    scourge

(C)    harm

(D)    injury

Answer: (A)

55. ‘Red Letter Day’ means:

(A)    a dangerous day

(B)    a rosy day

(C)    an important day

(D)    a bloody day

Answer: (C)

56. The correct antonym of the word ‘assets’ is:

(A)    liabilities

(B)    estate

(C)    responsibilities

(D)    hindrances

Answer: (A)

57. The plural form of ‘alumnus’ is:

(A)    alumnuses

(B)    alumna

(C)    alumnae

(D)    alumni

Answer: (D)

58. ‘Alma Mater’ is the place where one:

(A)    studied

(B)    married

(C)    died

(D)    was born

Answer: (A)

59. Identify the part which contains an error in the following sentence.

Ten miles are not a long distance.

(A)    ten miles

(B)    are not

(C)    a long distance

(D)    no error

Answer: (B)

60. Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful.

(1) History of India/(2) than/(3) was there a/ (4) Mahatma Gandhi/(5) never in the/(6) greater man.

(A)    124356

(B)    634521

(C)    513126

(D)    513624

Answer: (D)

61. Fill in the blank with a suitable Phrase Preposition.

He accepted the car ………. his claim for Rs 3,25,000.

(A)    on account of

(B)    by dint of

(C)    in lieu of

(D)    because of

Answer: (C)

62. The suitable prefix for the word “bitter” is:

(A)    im

(B)    in

(C)    un

(D)    em

Answer: (D)

63. Fill in the blank with a suitable Conjunction.

He is slow, ………… he is sure.

(A)    and

(B)    for

(C)    but

(D)    or

Answer: (C)

64. Complete the following maxim.

Genius without education is like silver in the ………. .

(A)    shop

(B)    mine

(C)    Well

(D)    pit

Answer: (B)

65. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

My first lecture in the classroom was a fiasco.

(A)    success

(B)    joy

(C)    fun

(D)    disaster

Answer: (A)

66. The right suffix for the word ‘just’ to make it an abstract noun is:

(A)    – ly

(B)    – ify

(C)    – ice

(D)    – ing

Answer: (C)

67. Select the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined word.

The requisite energy is derived from the battery.

(A)    insignificant

(B)    necessary

(C)    different

(D)    special

Answer: (B)

68. Select the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined word.

His candid opinion has won him many friends.

(A)    kind

(B)    courteous

(C)    generous

(D)    frank

Answer: (D)

69. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Everyone agreed that it was a piece of meticulous research.

(A)    careless

(B)    careful

(C)    cautious

(D)    scrupulous

Answer: (A)

70. The word ‘avert’ means:

(A)    avoid

(B)    fall

(C)    hatred

(D)    degenerate

Answer: (A)

71. The adjective form of ‘boast’ is:

(A)    boastful

(B)    boastly

(C)    boasty

(D)    boastile

Answer: (A)

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Vehicles do not move about the roads for mysterious reasons of their own. They move only because people want them to move in connection with the activities which the people are engaged in. Traffic is therefore a ‘function of activities’, and because, in towns, activities mainly take place in buildings, traffic in towns is a ‘function of buildings’. The implications of this line of reasoning are inescapable.

72. Line 1 of the passage means that the vehicles move on the roads:

(A)    for reasons difficult to explain.

(B)    to serve specific purposes of people.

(C)    in a haphazard fashion.

(D)    in ways beyond our control.

Answer: (B)

73. The author says that traffic is a ‘function of activities’. He means that:

(A)    human activities are taking place.

(B)    human activities are dependent on traffic.

(C)    traffic is not dependent on human activities.

(D)    traffic is connected with human activities.

Answer: (D)

74. The author suggests by his argument that:

(A)    to regulate traffic, more policemen have to be employed.

(B)    to regulate activities, traffic has to be controlled.

(C)    to regulate traffic, buildings have to be taken into consideration.

(D)    to understand the traffic problem, we must examine the social context in which it is found.

Answer: (D)

75. By ‘this line of reasoning’, the author means:

(A)    idea contained in this line.

(B)    idea contained in any one line of his argument.

(C)    the manner of arguing.

(D)    this row of printed characters.

Answer: (C)

General Science

76. Tungsten (a transition element being a metal exhibits the following properties:

(I) It is sonorous

(II) It possesses high tensile strength

(III) It possesses high melting point

(IV) It has high density

Which of the above property/properties of Tungsten made it a suitable material for the filament of an electric bulb?

(A)    I, II and III

(B)    II and III

(C)    Only III

(D)    II, III and IV

Answer: (C)

77. Hepatitis-B is caused due to:

(A)    Virus

(B)    Protozoa

(C)    Bacteria

(D)    Fungi

Answer: (A)

78. The production of an exact copy of an animal by asexual reproduction is known as:

(A)    Cloning

(B)    Mating

(C)    Budding

(D)    Hatching

Answer: (A)

79. The device which can be used to detect very small current following in an electric circuit is:

(A)    LEAD

(B)    MCB

(C)    LED

(D)    None of these

Answer: (C)

80. Which of these unicellular organisms has no definite shape?

(A)    Amoeba

(B)    Paramecium

(C)    Euglena

(D)    Bacteria

Answer: (A)

81. Which is a thermosetting plastic?

(A)    Polythene

(B)    Melamine

(C)    PVC

(D)    Nylon

Answer: (B)

82. Solution of which of the following oxides in water will change the colour of blue litmus to red?

(A)    Sulphur dioxide

(B)    Magnesium oxide

(C)    Iron oxide

(D)    Copper oxide

Answer: (A)

83. In India, PCRA advises how to save petrol/diesel while driving. For this, PCRA gave several tips. Here, PCRA stands for:

(A)    Pollution Control Research Association

(B)    Petroleum Conservation Research Association

(C)    Petroleum Collection and Reserve Association

(D)    None of the above

Answer: (B)

84. An electrolyte is:

(A)    a metal

(B)    a solution

(C)    a liquid that conducts current

(D)    All of the above

Answer: (B)

85. As the angle between two plane mirrors is decreasing gradually, the number of images of an object placed between them:

(A)    first increases then decreases

(B)    first decreases then increases

(C)    increases

(D)    decreases

Answer: (C)

86. Purest form of carbon is:

(A)    Coal

(B)    Charcoal

(C)    Coke

(D)    All of these

Answer: (C)

87. Value of one light year in S.I unit is:

(A)    1.5 × 1011 m

(B)    9.46 × 1051 m

(C)    1.5 × 1015 m

(D)    9.46 × 1012 m

Answer: (B)

88. Which of the following liquids does not conduct electricity?

(I) Lemon juice

(II) Sugar solution

(III) Distilled water

(IV) Dilute Hydrochloric acid

(A)    I, II and IV

(B)    Only III

(C)    Only IV

(D)    III and IV

Answer: (B)

89. I-Fungi, II-Bacteria

Consider the following statements and find the correct one:

(A)    II are small prokaryotes while I are large celled eukaryotes with defined mitochondria and other organelles.

(B)    I have a sexual reproduction through conjugation and transformation but II through genetic recombination.

(C)    II have a sexual reproduction through conjugation and transformation but I through genetic recombination.

(D)    All of the above

Answer: (A)

90. When the applied force is doubled and the object is still at rest, friction becomes:

(A)    doubled

(B)    halved

(C)    quadrupled

(D)    zero

Answer: (A)

91. Oxides of which statement(s) is/are present in acid rain?

(I) Carbon

(II) Nitrogen

(III) Sulphur

(A)    I and II

(B)    II and III

(C)    I and III

(D)    I, II and III

Answer: (D)

92. Which of the following tools would a farmer use to remove weeds from the filed?

(A)    Hoe

(B)    Plough

(C)    Axe

(D)    Cultivator

Answer: (A)

93. …………. are the smallest micro-organisms which can develop only inside the cell of the ……….. Organism. They do not respire, feed, grow, excrete or move on their own but they cannot ………. When they are outside the ……….. cell, they behave as …………… .

Choose the correct order to fill in the blanks:

(A)    Bacteria, Host, Multiply, Animal, Living

(B)    Virus, Bacteria, Reproduce, Living, Non-living

(C)    Virus, Host, Exchange gases, Living, Non-living

(D)    Virus, Host, Reproduce, Living, Non-living

Answer: (D)

94. In the process of vulcanization, Natural rubber is treated with an element X to improve its properties.

The element X can be:

(A)    Carbon

(B)    Nitrogen

(C)    Sulphur

(D)    Phosphorus

Answer: (C)

95. The standard value of atmospheric pressure is:

(A)    78 cm of Hg

(B)    76 mm of Hg

(C)    45 cm of Hg

(D)    0.76 cm of Hg

Answer: (B)

96. The sound from a mosquito is produced when it vibrates its wings at an average rate of 500 vibrations per second. What is the time period of vibration?

(A)    2 s

(B)    0.002 s

(C)    0.02 s

(D)    0.2 s

Answer: (B)

97. The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at varying distances is done by the action of:

(A)    Pupil

(B)    Iris

(C)    Retina

(D)    Ciliary muscles

Answer: (D)

98. Which cell organelle is called the Power House of a cell?

(A)    Lysosomes

(B)    Golgi bodies

(C)    Mitochondria

(D)    Ribosomes

Answer: (C)

99. The dramatic changes in body features associated with puberty are mainly because of the secretions of:

(I) Thyroxine

(II) Estrogen

(III) Adrenalin

(IV) Testosterone

(A)    I and II

(B)    II and III

(C)    I and III

(D)    II and IV

Answer: (D)

100. The earth rotates around its axis. The sun appears to rise in the east. Venus rotates in the opposite direction of Earth. We can therefore assume that on Venus, the sun sets in the:

(A)    East

(B)    West

(C)    North

(D)    South

Answer: (A)

Social Science

101. Who became the Nawab of Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan?

(A)    Murshid Quli Khan

(B)    Mir Jafar

(C)    Sirajuddaulah

(D)    Mir Qasim

Answer: (C)

102. FIR means:

(A)    Final Information Report

(B)    First Information Report

(C)    Full Information Report

(D)    First Investigation Report

Answer: (B)

103. How many MPs are elected to the Rajya Sabha?

(A)    272

(B)    250

(C)    245

(D)    233

Answer: (D)

104. What is the meaning of ‘media sets the agenda’?

(A)    Media supports the government

(B)    Media directs the people to agitate

(C)    Media shapes our thoughts by giving more importance to some issues

(D)    Media criticizes the government

Answer: (C)

105. The process in which different crops are grown in alternate rows is known as:

(A)    Crop rotation

(B)    Intercropping

(C)    Terrace farming

(D)    Contour cropping

Answer: (B)

106. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) ‘Diwani’ is the right to collect revenue

(2) ‘Faujdari adalat’ refers to a civil court

(3) Richard Wellesley implemented the Subsidiary Alliance

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)    1 only

(B)    1, 2 and 3

(C)    1 and 3 only

(D)    2 and 3 only

Answer: (C)

107. Which type of farming is practiced to meet the needs of a farmer’s family?

(A)    Subsistence Farming

(B)    Organic Farming

(C)    Commercial Farming

(D)    Mixed Farming

Answer: (A)

108. Biotic resources are:

(A)    made by human beings

(B)    derived from living things

(C)    derived from non-living things

(D)    None of the above

Answer: (B)

109. Separation of religion from the state means:

(A)    Communalism

(B)    Democracy

(C)    Secularism

(D)    All of the above

Answer: (C)

110. Arrange the following events of the Indian Freedom Movement in correct sequence beginning from the earliest:

(1) The Non-Cooperation Movement

(2) Quit India Movement

(3) The Rowlatt Satyagraha

(4) The March to Dandi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A)    3-1-4-2

(B)    1-2-3-4

(C)    3-1-2-4

(D)    1-3-2-4

Answer: (A)

111. The Young Bengal Movement was led by:

(A)    Swami Vivekananda

(B)    Keshab Chandra Sen

(C)    William Jones

(D)    Henry Louis Vivian Derozio

Answer: (D)

112. ………….. refers to the court declaring that a person is not guilty of the crime which he/she was tried for by the court.

(A)    Appeal

(B)    Acquit

(C)    Accuse

(D)    None of these

Answer: (B)

113. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(1) Nana Saheb                – Kanpur

(2) Rani Lakshmibai        – Jhansi

(3) Kunwar Singh            – Lucknow

(4) Bakht Khan                -Delhi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)    1 and 3

(B)    3 only

(C)    4 ony

(D)    2 and 3

Answer: (B)

114. Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?

(A)    Bolivia

(B)    Ghana

(C)    Peru

(D)    Zimbabwe

Answer: (C)

115. AMUL stands for:

(A)    Anand Milk Union Limited

(B)    Anand Milk United Limited

(C)    Anand Mazdoor Union Limited

(D)    Ahmedabad Milk Union Limited

Answer: (A)

116. How many permanent members are there in the UN Security Council?

(A)    Three

(B)    Four

(C)    Five

(D)    Six

Answer: (C)

117. Cultivation on planter’s won land was referred to as:

(A)    Ryoti

(B)    Mahalwari

(C)    Batai

(D)    Nij

Answer: (D)

118. Which of the following is a secondary activity?

(A)    Transport

(B)    Farming

(C)    Obtaining sugar from sugarcane

(D)    Bee keeping

Answer: (C)

119. Which one of the following is not a factor of soil formation?

(A)    Topography

(B)    Soil texture

(C)    Climate

(D)    Time

Answer: (B)

120. Viceroy ………….. partitioned Bengal in

(A)    Curzon

(B)    Minto

(C)    Irwin

(D)    Mountbatten

Answer: (A)

121. The leaders of the Khilfat agitation were:

(A)    Sayyid brothers

(B)    Ali brothers

(C)    Both A and B

(D)    None of these

Answer: (B)

122. Which of the following is not a fundamental right of citizens of India?

(A)    Right to equality

(B)    Right to education

(C)    Right to properly

(D)    Right to freedom

Answer: (C)

123. The complain about the problem of hygiene & sanitation, a person living in a big city should go to:

(A)    Municipal Corporation

(B)    Municipal Committee

(C)    Nagar Panchayat

(D)    Zila Parishad

Answer: (A)

124. The Supreme Court was established on:

(A)    26 January. 1950

(B)    15 August, 1947

(C)    26 November, 1949

(D)    15 August, 1950

Answer: (A)

125. Which one of the following refers to the tomb of a Sufi Saint?

(A)    Idgah

(B)    Khanqah

(C)    Dargah

(D)    None of these

Answer: (C)


Intelligence Test

Directions: Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters groups.






Answer: (C)

127. GDLM : IBNK : XSOH : ?

(A)    ZQQF

(B)    WTMO

(C)    APQF

(D)    ZQLF

Answer: (A)

128. TQW is to MJP as ZHN is to:

(A)    SAG

(B)    GSA

(C)    YGM

(D)    TEG

Answer: (A)

129. WEIGHT is related to KILOGRAM in the same way as DISTANCE is related to:

(A)    GRAM

(B)    POUND



Answer: (D)

Directions: Which number completes the second pair in the same way as the first pair?

130. 26 : 5 :: 65 : ?

(A)    6

(B)    7

(C)    8

(D)    9

Answer: (C)

131. 16 : 56 :: 36 : ?

(A)    96

(B)    112

(C)    118

(D)    128

Answer: (B)

Directions: In the given series, find the next/missing term.

132. AT, BS, CR, DQ, ?

(A)    EP

(B)    FP

(C)    ED

(D)    EN

Answer: (A)

133. 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49

(A)    50

(B)    36

(C)    64

(D)    39

Answer: (B)

134. 0, 1, ?, 27, 64

(A)    16

(B)    32

(C)    4

(D)    8

Answer: (D)

135. A 5, C 10, E 15, G 20, ?

(A)    H 30

(B)    I 30

(C)    I 25

(D)    H 25

Answer: (C)

136. Insert a letter which completes both the words given below:

(A)    T

(B)    K

(C)    V

(D)    L

Answer: (A)

137. Insert the missing terms in the figure, so that the word formed is the name of a country when read clockwise direction.

(A)    SAA

(B)    SAK

(C)    APR

(D)    PLC

Answer: (B)

138. Find the number that replaces the question mark.

(A)    12

(B)    6

(C)    5

(D)    7

Answer: (C)

139. In a class of 30 students, Swati’s rank is 11th from the top, what is her rank from the bottom?

(A)    19th

(B)    20th

(C)    22nd

(D)    21st

Answer: (B)

140. Ritu walks 50 m towards East, then turns to her right and walks 50 m, now she turns left and walks another 50 m, now again she turns left and walks another 50 m. In which direction is she form the starting point?

(A)    East

(B)    North

(C)    North-East

(D)    South-West

Answer: (A)

141. Find the fourth proportional to 3, 7 and 9.

(A)    23

(B)    27

(C)    21

(D)    None of these

Answer: (C)

142. Count the number of squares in the given figure:

(A)    14

(B)    13

(C)    10

(D)    None of these

Answer: (B)

143. Choose the figure, which is different from others.





Answer: (D)

144. What is the sequence of the following when arranged in a dictionary?

(A)    Telegraph

(B)    Telephone

(C)    Teleprinter

(D)    Telemetry

Answer: (C)

145. CLOCK is 42145, LEAN is 2068.

CARE is 4690, then NECKLACE is

(A)    80546240

(B)    6054842

(C)    80452640

(D)    50842604

Answer: (C)

146. Which among the following year is a leap year?

(A)    2500

(B)    2800

(C)    2600

(D)    2700

Answer: (B)

Directions: In each of the following questions, find the word which can not be made from the letters of the given word.






Answer: (C)


(A)    BRAIN

(B)    BONES

(C)    NOBLE

(D)    ARSON

Answer: (A)

149. If ‘÷’ sands for ‘×’, ‘×’ stands for ‘+’, ‘+’ stands for ‘−’, then what is the value of 7 ÷ 21 × 81 + 9 – 3 × 14?

(A)    21

(B)    24

(C)    27

(D)    28

Answer: (C)

150. Determine the term that would replace the question mark.

(A)    36

(B)    41

(C)    35

(D)    45

Answer: (B)

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2019 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2019
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2019 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class-IX Entrance Examination-2019



1. With the help of ruler and compass it is not possible to construct an angle of:

(A)    22.5°

(B)    37.5°

(C)    67.5°

(D)    40°

Answer: (D)

2. What time period is taken when interest is calculated half yearly?

(A)    twice as much as the number of given years

(B)    half as much as the number of given years

(C)    same as the number of given years

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

3. If a number is doubled then which of the following is a correct statement?

(A)    Its cube is two times the cube of the given number.

(B)    Its cube is three times the cube of the given number.

(C)    Its cube is six times the cube of the given number

(D)    Its cube is eight times the cube of the given number

Answer: (D)

4. Which of the following is the cube root of −64/243?

(A)    7/4

(B)    −7/4

(C)    4/7

(D)    −4/7

Answer: (D)

5. is equal to:

(A)    81/484

(B)    81/169

(C)    169/81

(D)    16/81

Answer: (B)

6. Which of the following is equal to x3 – 225x?

(A)    x(1 – 15x) (1+ 15x)

(B)    x(x – 15) (x + 15)

(C)    x(1 – 15x) (1 – 15x)

(D)    x(1 + 15x) (1 – 15x)

Answer: (B)

7. The points (−3, 2) and (2, −3) represent:

(A)    different points

(B)    same point

(C)    the origin

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

8. If the dimensions of a room are l, b and h, (∵ l → length, b → breadth the h → height) them which of the following is the area of its four walls?

(A)    2h(l + b)

(B)    2h(l + h)

(C)    2l(h + h)

(D)    2h + l + b

Answer: (A)

9. If [1X 2Y 6Z] is a number divisible by 9, then the least value of X + Y + Z is:

(A)    0

(B)    1

(C)    6

(D)    9

Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following is the Multiplicative identity for rational numbers?

(A)    1

(B)    −1

(C)    0

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

11. The mid value of a class interval is 42. If the class size is 10, then the upper and lower limits of the class are:

(A)    37.5 and 47.5

(B)    47 and 37

(C)    37 and 47

(D)    47.5 and 37.5

Answer: (C)

12. The speed of a car is  The distance travelled by it in 7/2 hours 35/2 minutes is:





Answer: (C)

13. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Four years from now the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 4. The present age of B is:

(A)    20 years

(B)    28 years

(C)    15 years

(D)    21 years

Answer: (B)

14. 36 is divided into parts such that 5 times the first part added to 3 times the second part makes 142. The two parts are:

(A)    10 and 26

(B)    12 and 24

(C)    15 and 21

(D)    17 and 19

Answer: (D)

15. Divided Rs 1500 into two parts so that 10% of the larger part exceeds 8% of smaller part by Rs 60. The value of larger and smaller parts are:

(A)    Rs 1200 and Rs 300

(B)    Rs 850 and Rs 650

(C)    Rs 900 and Rs 600

(D)    Rs 1000 and Rs 500

Answer: (D)

16. The value of x + y + z in the adjoining figure is:

(A)    180°

(B)    270°

(C)    360°

(D)    720°

Answer: (C)

17. If an exterior angle of a regular polygon is of measure 12°, then the number of its sides is:

(A)    12

(B)    18

(C)    22

(D)    30

Answer: (D)

18. The smallest whole number by which 44 should be multiplied so as to make it a perfect square is:

(A)    4

(B)    11

(C)    6

(D)    5

Answer: (B)

19. There are 12321 workers in a factory. They stand in such a way that the number of workers in each row is equal to the number of rows. How many workers stand in each row?

(A)    111

(B)    121

(C)    131

(D)    141

Answer: (A)

20. Cubical boxes of volume 15625 cm3 each are put in a cubical store of side 2.5 m. How many such boxes can be put in the store?

(A)    100

(B)    250

(C)    500

(D)    1000

Answer: (D)

21. If  then the value of   is:

(A)    ±4

(B)    ±3

(C)    ±6

(D)    ±5

Answer: (D)

22. If the sum of the lengths of bases of a trapezium is 12 cm and area is 14.1 cm2, then its altitude will be:

(A)    2.35 cm

(B)    4.70 cm

(C)    9.40 cm

(D)    1 cm

Answer: (A)

23. If the length, width and height of a cuboid are 4.2 m, 3 m and 1.1 m, then its capacity in litres will be:

(A)    12860 litres

(B)    13860 litres

(C)    14860 litres

(D)    15860 litres

Answer: (B)

24. A road roller is 350 cm long and its diameter is 84 cm. It takes 500 complete revolutions to travel the road. The area covered by it in m2 will be:

(A)    4620

(B)    6420

(C)    2460

(D)    4260

Answer: (A)

25. A solid cuboidal piece of wood measures 3 m ×5 m × 8 cm. Find the weight of the piece if 1 cubic cm of wood weighs 9 grams.

(A)    4500 kg

(B)    5000 kg

(C)    5400 kg

(D)    5600 kg

Answer: (C)

26. A well was dug with 14 m inner diameter and was 8 m deep. The earth dug out of it was evenly spread out on a rectangular plot of size 10 m × 8 m. Find the raise in the height of the plot.

(A)    15.6 m

(B)    15.4 m

(C)    15 m

(D)    15.5 m

Answer: (B)

27. If 53x + 4 = 25 × 54x – 1 then the value of x is:

(A)    −3

(B)    −5

(C)    5

(D)    3

Answer: (D)

28. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 9 s subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. The original number is:

(A)    81

(B)    54

(C)    72

(D)    45

Answer: (B)

29. You are given the multiplication of two numbers as below:

The values of the letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G are:

(A)    A = 2, B = 4. C = 0, D = 0, E = 2, F = 9, G = 6

(B)    A = 7. B = 4, C = 1, D = 0, E = 2, F = 0, G = 6

(C)    A = 2, B = 4. C = 1, D = 0, E = 2, F = 0, G = 6

(D)    A = 7, B = 4, C = 0, D = 9, E = 2, F = 9, G = 6

Answer: (A)

30. From a pack of 52 playing cards, one card is drawn at random. The probability of the drawn card being a black ten or a king is:

(A)    5/26

(B)    3/26

(C)    3/13

(D)    2/13

Answer: (B)

31. A spider is climbing a wall. It climbs up 5 cm, falls back 3 cm, climbs up another 4 cm, falls back 6 cm and climbs up another 5 cm. How far the spider has climbed from its starting point?

(A)    5 cm

(B)    6 cm

(C)    4 cm

(D)    23 cm

Answer: (A)

32. What will be the amount and compound interest on Rs 5000 in 3 years if the rat of interest is 4% for the five year, 3% for the second year and 2% for the third year.

(A)    Rs 5436.12 and Rs 436.12

(B)    Rs 5563.12 and 563.12

(C)    Rs 5063.12 and Rs 63.12

(D)    Rs 5463.12 and 463.12

Answer: (D)

33. The smallest square number which is divisible by each one of the numbers 8, 9, 10 is:

(A)    2600

(B)    3600

(C)    2900

(D)    3900

Answer: (B)

34. If 25% of a number is less than 18% of 650 by 19, then find the number:

(A)    293

(B)    329

(C)    239

(D)    392

Answer: (D)

35. If the cost price is 25% of selling price then the profit percentage is:

(A)    300%

(B)    305%

(C)    350%

(D)    355%

Answer: (A)

36. Area of a rectangle whose length is 4ab and breadth is 6b2 is:

(A)    24ab

(B)    24ab2

(C)    24ab3

(D)    24ab4

Answer: (C)

37. The total surface area of a cone having its slant height 9 dm and diameter of its base as 24 dm is:

(A)    792 sq. dm

(B)    729 sq. dm

(C)    279 sq. dm

(D)    297 sq. dm

Answer: (A)

38. A Cube of side 4 cm contains a sphere touching its side. Then the Volume of the gap in between is:

(A)    30

(B)    30.48

(C)    30.84

(D)    31

Answer: (B)

39. A chord of a circle is of length 6 cm and it is at a distance of 4 cm from the centre. Find the radius of the circle:

(A)    3 cm

(B)    4 cm

(C)    5 cm

(D)    6 cm

Answer: (C)

40. The mean of 40 observations was 160. It was detected on rechecking that the value of 165 was wrongly copied as 125 for computation of mean. Find the correct mean:

(A)    161

(B)    159

(C)    166

(D)    111

Answer: (A)

41. If x + y = 12 and xy = 27 and the value of x3 + y3:

(A)    756

(B)    765

(C)    567

(D)    576

Answer: (A)

42. In what time will a sum of money double itself at  on simple interest.

(A)    13 years

(B)    14 years

(C)    15 years

(D)    16 years

Answer: (D)

43. In a triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD. Then the area of ∆ BED is:

(A)    Area of ∆ ABC

(B)    0

(C)    ½(area of ∆ ABC)

(D)    ¼(area of ∆ ABC)

Answer: (D)

44. The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 7 cm to 14 cm as air is being pumped into it. Find the ratio of surface areas of the balloon in the two cases:

(A)    1 : 4

(B)    1 : 2

(C)    4 : 1

(D)    2 : 1

Answer: (A)

45. Two isosceles triangles have equal vertical angles and their areas in the ratio 25 : 36. Find the ratio of their corresponding heights.

(A)    4 : 5

(B)    5 : 6

(C)    6 : 7

(D)    5 : 7

Answer: (B)

46. The face value of each share is Rs 10. If dividend is 16% then what will be the income from 600 shares?

(A)    Rs 900

(B)    Rs 960

(C)    Rs 860

(D)    Rs 800

Answer: (B)

47. A solid gold ball of radius 7 cm was melted and then drawn into a wire of diameter 0.2 cm. Find the length of the wire.

(A)    457.33 m

(B)    475.33 m

(C)    547.33 m

(D)    745.33 m

Answer: (A)

48. A horse is tethered for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one corner by a rope 21 m long. How much area can it graze?

(A)    346.5 sq. m

(B)    340 sq. m

(C)    349.5 sq. m

(D)    348.5 sq. m

Answer: (A)

49. A race boat covers a distance of 66 km downstream in 110 minutes. It covers the same distance upstream in 120 The speed of the boat in still water is 34.5 km/hr. The speed of the stream will be:

(A)    1.5 km/hr

(B)    2 km/hr

(C)    2.5 km/hr

(D)    3 km/hr

Answer: (A)

50. The value of 100012:

(A)    1002001

(B)    100201

(C)    100020001

(D)    1000201

Answer: (A)

English Language

51. The correctly punctuated sentence is:

(A)    Mina said, wheres’ Kishore?

(B)    Mina said, where’s Kishore!

(C)    Mina said, ‘Where’s Kishore?’

(D)    Mina said, ‘Wheres’ kishore!’

Answer: (C)


(A)    To jump out of a problem

(B)    Have a pet animal

(C)    To feel extremely happy

(D)    Reveal something that was kept a secret before

Answer: (D)

53. Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful:

Month (1)/ while (2)/ Mumbai (3) / Last (4) / it (5) / in (6) / happened (7) / living (8) / I was (9)

(A)    1 8 9 2 7 5 6 3 4

(B)    1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(C)    5 7 8 9 2 4 3 6 1

(D)    5 7 2 9 8 6 3 4 1

Answer: (D)

54. The adjective form of ‘ADVANTAGE’ is:

(A)    advantageous

(B)    advantagly

(C)    advantage

(D)    advantagement

Answer: (A)

55. The active voice of –“He had not been invited by us” is:

(A)    We had been invited by us.

(B)    We had invited by him.

(C)    We had not invited him.

(D)    We had not invited by us.

Answer: (C)

56. Identify the tense in the sentence given below:

When I arrived Ram had just left.

(A)    Present Perfect

(B)    Present Continuous

(C)    Past Perfect

(D)    Past Continuous

Answer: (C)

57. The synonym of the word ‘SPLENDID’ is:

(A)    Shortage

(B)    Insignificant

(C)    impressive

(D)    excess

Answer: (C)

58. The word ‘brittle’ means:

(A)    not easily breakable

(B)    easily breakable

(C)    easily understandable

(D)    easily portable

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 59 and 60): Find out the part containing error in the given statement.

59. He is one of the talented student in our class.

(A)    He is one of the

(B)    talented student

(C)    in our class

(D)    no  error

Answer: (B)

60. The thief was taken to the nearby police station.

(A)    The thief was

(B)    taken to the

(C)    nearby police station

(D)    no error

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 61 and 62): Fill in the blank by choosing the appropriate preposition from the given options.

61. They have gone _____ an excursion.

(A)    to

(B)    for

(C)    with

(D)    on

Answer: (D)

62. The team rebelled ______ the captain.

(A)    upon

(B)    over

(C)    with

(D)    against

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 63 and 64): Choose the correct option if the given statements are changed into comparative degree.

63. Silver is one of the most useful metals.

(A)    Silver is useful to any other metal.

(B)    Silver is useful than any other metal.

(C)    Silver is more useful than all other metals.

(D)    Silver is more useful than most of the metals.

Answer: (D)

64. Learning Italian is not as difficult as learning Japanese.

(A)    Learning Japanese is more difficult to learning Italian.

(B)    Learning Italian is not difficult than learning Japanese.

(C)    Learning Japanese is more difficult than learning in Italian.

(D)    Learning Japanese is more difficult than learning Italian.

Answer: (D)

65. The adjective form of ‘apathy’ is:

(A)    apathetically

(B)    apathical

(C)    apathetic

(D)    pathetic

Answer: (C)

66. The noun form of ‘Proud’ is:

(A)    proudy

(B)    pride

(C)    proudly

(D)    proudliness

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 67 and 68): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

     Books are by far, the most lasting product of human effort. Temples crumble into ruins. Pictures and statues decay, but books survive. Time does not destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today as when they first passed through the author’s mind ages ago. The only effect of time has been to throw out the bad products, for nothing in literature can survive long unless it is really good and of lasting value. Books introduce us to the best society; they bring us into the presence of the greatest minds that have ever lived, we hear what they said and did: we see them as if they were really alive, we sympathize with them, enjoy with them and grieve with them.

67. According to the passage, books live forever because:

(A)    They have productive value.

(B)    Time does not destroy great thoughts.

(C)    They are in printed form.

(D)    They have the power to influence people.

Answer: (B)

68. According to the passage, temples, pictures and statues belong to the same category because:

(A)    All of them are beautiful.

(B)    All of them are substantial.

(C)    All of them are likely to decay.

(D)    All of them are fashioned by men.

Answer: (C)

69. Books introduce us into the best society as:

(A)    They give us a glimpse of the greatest minds.

(B)    They take us to the world of imagination.

(C)    They instill in us the qualities of the greatest minds.

(D)    They introduce us to elite class of the society.

Answer: (A)

70. Radha, “I won’t buy a new car”. (Choose the correct word to fill in the blank.)

Radha said that she _______ buy a new car.

(A)    won’t

(B)    will

(C)    wouldn’t

(D)    would

Answer: (C)

71. They will ask you a lot of questions at the interview. The sentence, when converted into the passive voice, would read as:

(A)    You are asked a lot of questions at the interview.

(B)    You were being asked a lot of questions at the interview.

(C)    You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview.

(D)    You are being asked a lot of questions at the interview.

Answer: (C)

72. The phrase in cold blood means:

(A)    Indifferently

(B)    cruelly

(C)    thoughtlessly

(D)    deliberately

Answer: (B)

73. The workers went out of the factory ______ to hold a protest rally. (Choose the correct word to fill in the blank.)

(A)    en masse

(B)    en route

(C)    impasse

(D)    de facto

Answer: (A)

74. To put up with means:

(A)    to close

(B)    to prolong

(C)    to tolerate

(D)    to forget

Answer: (C)

75. Fill in the blank with a possessive pronoun chosen from those given below.

Mani declared that the book was not______.

(A)    our

(B)    her

(C)    your

(D)    hers

Answer: (D)

General Science

76. Rhizobium bacteria:

(A)    Help is digestion

(B)    Help in nitrogen fixation

(C)    Cause diseases

(D)    All of the above

Answer: (B)

77. The metal which is stored in kerosene?

(A)    Phosphorus

(B)    Magnesium

(C)    Sodium

(D)    Calcium

Answer: (C)

78. Poor conductors are:

(A)    Plastics

(B)    Clothes

(C)    Wood

(D)    All of these

Answer: (D)

79. There are following zones of the a flame:

(A)    Two

(B)    Three

(C)    Four

(D)    No any zone

Answer: (B)

80. Force of friction always acts on moving objects and its direction shall be:

(A)    On any direction

(B)    Along the direction of motion

(C)    Perpendicular to the direction of motion

(D)    Opposite to the direction of motion

Answer: (D)

81. The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts can be identified is:

(A)    Fetus

(B)    Zygote

(C)    Infant

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

82. Diabetes is due to malfunctioning of:

(A)    Adrenal gland

(B)    Pituitary gland

(C)    Heart

(D)    Pancreas

Answer: (D)

83. Naphthalene balls are obtained from:

(A)    Carbon

(B)    Coke

(C)    Coal tar

(D)    Coal gas

Answer: (C)

84. John accidentally placed his hand over flame and immediately pulled it back. He felt the sensation of heat and reacted due to the action of:

(A)    Nerve cells

(B)    Blood cells

(C)    Skin surface

(D)    Nucleus of cells

Answer: (A)

85. A purple coloured nonmetal forms a brown solution in alcohol which is applied on wounds as an antiseptic. Name of the non-metal is:

(A)    Phosphorous

(B)    Carbon

(C)    Sulphur

(D)    Iodine

Answer: (D)

86. Given below are the harmful effects of weeds on crop plants. Choose the correct combination of statements.

(i) They interfere in harvesting.

(ii) They help crop plants to grow healthy

(iii) The complete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light.

(iv) They affect plant growth.

(A)    (i), (iii), (iv)

(B)    (iii), (iv)

(C)    (iii) only

(D)    (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (A)

87. Which of the following groups contain all synthetic substances?

(A)    Nylon, Terylene, Wool

(B)    PVC, Polythene, Bakelite

(C)    Cotton, Polycot, Rayon

(D)    Acrylic, Silk, Wool

Answer: (B)

88. Which of the following statement is true about endemic species?

(A)    They are found exclusively in a specific habitat

(B)    Endemic species can never become endangered

(C)    They are only fond in zoos and botanical gardens

(D)    They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat

Answer: (A)

89. Identify the correct statement about cells

(A)    All the cells have nucleus

(B)    Cells of an organ have similar structure

(C)    Cells of a tissue have similar structure

(D)    Shape of all types of cells is round

Answer: (A)

90. Aquatic animals in which fertilization occurs in water are said to be:

(A)    Viviparous without fertilization

(B)    Oviparous with external fertilization

(C)    Viviparous with internal fertilization

(D)    Oviparous with internal fertilization

Answer: (B)

91. The light from sun takes 500 s to reach the earth. Assuming that the speed of light is 3,00,000 kms1, calculate the distance between the sun and the earth.

(A)    100 million km

(B)    150 million km

(C)    1500 million km

(D)    15 million km

Answer: (B)

92. Which of the following is not an application of chemical effect of electric current?

(A)    Electroplating of metals

(B)    Purification of metals

(C)    Decomposition of elements

(D)    Decomposition of compounds

Answer: (C)

93. An earthquake of magnitude ‘6’ on Richter scale has:

(A)    Ten times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.           

(B)    Hundred times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.

(C)    Thousand times more destructive energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.

(D)    One and half times more destructive  energy than an earthquake of magnitude ‘4’.

Answer: (B)

94. Which of the following statements is correct regarding rods and cones in the human eye?

(A)    Cones are sensitive to dim light

(B)    Cones are sensitive to bright light

(C)    Rods are sensitive to bright light

(D)    Rods can sense colour.

Answer: (B)

95. Suppose a new planet is discovered between Uranus and Neptune, its time period of revolution around the sun would be:

(A)    Less than that of Neptune

(B)    More than that of Neptune

(C)    Equal to that of Neptune of Uranus

(D)    Less than that of Uranus

Answer: (A)

96. Ramesh was cooking potato curry on a chulha. To his surprise he observed that the copper vessel was getting blackened from outside. It may be due to:

(A)    Proper combustion of fuel

(B)    Improper cooking of potato curry

(C)    Improper combustion of the fuel

(D)    Burning of copper vessel

Answer: (C)

97. When a Copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green material is a mixture of:

(A)    Copper oxide and Copper carbonate

(B)    Copper hydroxide and Copper carbonate

(C)    Copper oxide and Copper nitrate

(D)    Copper hydroxide and Copper nitrate

Answer: (B)

98. The places meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat are:

(i) Zoological garden

(ii) Botanical garden

(iii) Sanctuary

(iv) National park

(A)    (i) and (ii)

(B)    (ii) and (iii)

(C)    (iii) and (iv)

(D)    (i) and (iv)

Answer: (C)

99. The same force ‘F’ acts on four different objects having the areas given below, one by one. In which case the pressure exerted will be the maximum?

(A)    20 m2

(B)    50 m2

(C)    100 m2

(D)    10 m2

Answer: (D)

100. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the strings suitably. By doing so he is adjusting.

(A)    Intensity of sound only

(B)    Amplitude of sound only

(C)    Frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

(D)    Loudness of sound

Answer: (C)

Social Science

101. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution was:

(A)    Sardar Patel

(B)    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(C)    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(D)    J.L. Nehru

Answer: (B)

102. By the late of 18th Century East India Company was trying to expand the cultivation of:

(A)    Opium

(B)    Indigo

(C)    Cotton

(D)    Tea

Answer: (A, B)

103. EVMs were used for the first time in the _______ general elections.

(A)    2001

(B)    2002

(C)    2003

(D)    2004

Answer: (D)

104. There are ________ elected members in Rajya Sabha.

(A)    543

(B)    272

(C)    233

(D)    260

Answer: (C)

105. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as:

(A)    Open-cast mining

(B)    Shaft mining

(C)    Drilling

(D)    All of the above

Answer: (A)

106. The complainant has a ______ right to get a free copy of the FIR from the Police.

(A)    Fundamental

(B)    Legal

(C)    Political

(D)    Economic

Answer: (B)

107. Which article of the constitution states that untouchability has been abolished?

(A)    Article 14

(B)    Article 15

(C)    Article 16

(D)    Article 17

Answer: (D)

108. The Marathi newspaper Kesari was edited by:

(A)    Bipin Chandrapal

(B)    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C)    Sarojini Naidu

(D)    Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: (B)

109. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate is called the:

(A)    Natural growth rate

(B)    Normal growth rate

(C)    Actual growth rate

(D)    None of the above

Answer: (A)

110. Dandi March was against the:

(A)    Salt Tax

(B)    Purna Swaraj

(C)    Non co-operation movement

(D)    Simon Commission

Answer: (A)

111. The British East India Company got a charter from Queen Elizabeth-I in:

(A)    1600 AD

(B)    1599 AD

(C)    1601 AD

(D)    1700 AD

Answer: (A)

112. Delhi Renaissance refers to the period from:

(A)    1830 – 1857 AD

(B)    1857 – 1885 AD

(C)    1825 – 1857 AD

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

113. Woods Dispatch of 1854 refers to:

(A)    Educational Reform

(B)    Financial Reform

(C)    Forest Reform

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

114. The leader of the ruling party in Lok Sabha is:

(A)    The Prime Minister

(B)    The President

(C)    The Vice President

(D)    The Leader of Opposition

Answer: (A)

115. As per which article of the Indian Constitution every arrested person is guaranteed Fundamental Rights:

(A)    Article 20

(B)    Article 21

(C)    Article 23

(D)    Article 22

Answer: (D)

116. Which of the following gas was released in Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

(A)    Methyl Isocyanite

(B)    Ethyl Isocyanate

(C)    Methyl Alcohol

(D)    Ethyl Alcohol

Answer: (A)

117. Which one of the following is a leading producer of Copper in the world?

(A)    Bolivia

(B)    Chile

(C)    Ghana

(D)    Zimbabwe

Answer: (B)

118. Identify the state with “Lowest literacy” as per census 2011.

(A)    Bihar

(B)    Haryana

(C)    Rajasthan

(D)    Gujarat

Answer: (A)

119. The total number of Anglo Indians nominated to the Lok Sabha is:

(A)    8

(B)    6

(C)    4

(D)    2

Answer: (D)

120. Which one of the following countries has the highest percentage of forest land?

(A)    Australia

(B)    India

(C)    France

(D)    Japan

Answer: (A)

121. Who was the founder of the ‘Brahmo Sabha’?

(A)    Annie Besant

(B)    Bal Gangadhr Tilak

(C)    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(D)    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Answer: (C)

122. Child marriage restraint Act was passed in the year______.

(A)    1929

(B)    1909

(C)    1919

(D)    1853

Answer: (A)

123. What is a population pyramid?

(A)    A graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.

(B)    When the population density of an area is so high that people live in tall buildings.

(C)    Pattern of population distribution in large urban areas.

(D)    Pattern of population distribution in rural areas.

Answer: (A)

124. Which age group of India is guaranteed free education by the Constitution?

(A)    6-14 years

(B)    5-13 years

(C)    7-14 years

(D)    6-12 years

Answer: (A)

125. Who wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’?

(A)    Dadabhai Naoroji

(B)    Badruddin Tyabji

(C)    Pherojshah Mehta

(D)    Bipin Chandrapal

Answer: (A)


Intelligence Test

Directions (Qs. NO. 126-128) : Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters group.

126. MONKEY : XDJMNL : : TIGER : ?

(A)    QDFHS

(B)    SDFHS

(C)    SHFDQ

(D)    UJHFS

Answer: (A)

127. MAD is to JXA as RUN is to:

(A)    ORX

(B)    OSQ

(C)    PRJ

(D)    UXQ

Answer: (*)

128. Kilometer is to Distance as Poundal is to:

(A)    Density

(B)    Acceleration

(C)    Momentum

(D)    Force

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 129-131): Which number complete the second pair in the same way as the first pair.

129. 20 : 11 : : 102 : ?

(A)    49

(B)    52

(C)    61

(D)    98

Answer: (B)

130. 13 : 25 : : 48 : ?

(A)    95

(B)    97

(C)    109

(D)    105

Answer: (A)

131. Tiff is to Battle as Frugal is to:

(A)    Sprint

(B)    Vague

(C)    Miserly

(D)    Vital

Answer: (C)

132. A is 40 m South-West of B. C is 40 m South-East of B. Then C is in which direction of A?

(A)    East

(B)    West

(C)    North-East

(D)    South

Answer: (A)

133. Choose the figure, which is different from others.

(A)    1

(B)    2

(C)    3

(D)    4

Answer: (B)

134. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and FRANCE is written as 785291. How is GREECE coded?

(A)    381191

(B)    831191

(C)    832252

(D)    835545

Answer: (A)

135. Which word can’t be formed by using the letters of the INTELLIGENCE word? Find that word.





Answer: (A)

136. If + means divide, divide means −, − means ×, × means ÷ then 12 + 6/3 – 2 × 8 = ?

(A)    2

(B)    4

(C)    8

(D)    5

Answer: (B)

137. Select the figure from the answer set that would come in place of the question mark (?).

(A)    1

(B)    2

(C)    3

(D)    4

Answer: (B)

138. A Cube painted blue on all the faces is cut into 125 cubes of equal size. Then, how many cubes are not painted on any face?

(A)    8

(B)    16

(C)    27

(D)    54

Answer: (C)

139. If 1st October is Sunday, than 1st November will be:

(A)    Tuesday

(B)    Friday

(C)    Wednesday

(D)    Thursday

Answer: (C)

140. Find the missing number in the box.

(A)    64

(B)    63

(C)    66

(D)    84

Answer: (B)

141. Which one of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?


(A)    acbcc

(B)    aacbc

(C)    babbb

(D)    bcbba

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 142-145): In each of the following questions. Find the word which cannot be made from the letters of the given word.


(A)    CLIP

(B)    PURE

(C)    ANKLE

(D)    BANE

Answer: (C)





(D)    GREAT

Answer: (A)


(A)    ADMIT

(B)    NEST

(C)    MANTA

(D)    ROAD

Answer: (B)


(A)    SCOUT

(B)    CLASS



Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. No. 146 and 147): Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters groups.

146. If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO. What code is needed for DELHI?

(A)    DEHLI

(B)    EFIMJ

(C)    HLDEI

(D)    EFMIJ

Answer: (D)

147. PNS : OOT : : DBH : ?

(A)    PPI

(B)    BBI

(C)    CCI

(D)    DDB

Answer: (C)

Directions(Qs. No. 148-150): In the given series, find the next/missing term/number.


(A)    GK

(B)    UV

(C)    GH

(D)    UG

Answer: (D)

149. AZ, CX, EV, ?

(A)    HT

(B)    HU

(C)    GS

(D)    GT

Answer: (D)

150. YX, UTS, ONML, ?

(A)    FEDCB

(B)    GFEDC

(C)    IHGFE

(D)    HGFED

Answer: (B)

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2020
Sainik School Class IX Entrance Examination 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

Sainik School Class-IX Entrance Examination-2020




1. The value of 





Answer: (D)

2. The abscissa of a point is its distance from the

(A)    Origin

(B)    X-Axis

(C)    Y-Axis

(D)    None

Answer: (C)

3. What is the value of m, if 

(A)    m = 1

(B)    m = −2

(C)    m = −1

(D)    m = 2

Answer: (C)

4. “If a number when divided by 4 leaves remainders 2 or 3”, then which one is the correct statement?

(A)    The number is not a perfect square

(B)    The number is a perfect square

(C)    The number is a prime number

(D)    None of these

Answer: (A)

5. The value of 

(A)    15

(B)    16

(C)    5

(D)    150

Answer: (A)

6. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of their cubes is 33957. The numbers are

(A)    16, 24 and 32

(B)    12, 18 and 24

(C)    14, 21 and 28

(D)    18, 27 and 36

Answer: (C)

7. Find the least square number divisible by each one of 8, 9 and 10.

(A)  360

(B)  36

(C)  3600

(D)  3.6 × 102

Answer: (C)

8. If  is a multiple of 11, where a is a digit, the value of a is

(A)    0

(B)    4

(C)    1

(D)    2

Answer: (B)

9. Find the value of A and B in 

(A)  A = 5 and B = 2

(B)  A = 5 and B = 5

(C)  A = 2 and B = 2

(D)  A = 2 and B = 5

Answer: (A)

10. Find the value of Z for which the number 471Z8 is divisible by 9.

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  7

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

11. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 64√3 cm2, then the side of the triangle is _____.

(A)  18√3 cm

(B)  9 cm

(C)  16 cm

(D)  3√2 cm

Answer: (C)

12. The value of  is:

(A)  (2m – a + b)

(B)  (2m – a – b)

(C)  (2m + a + b)

(D)  (2m + a – b)

Answer: (A)

13. The ratio between the speeds of two trains A and B is 3 : 5. If train B runs 300 km in 4 hours, the speed of train A will be

(A)  40 km/h

(B)  60 km/h

(C)  30 km/h

(D)  45 km/h

Answer: (D)

14. Two years ago, Dillip was three times a old as his son and two years hence, twice his age will be equal to five times that of his son. The present age of son and Dillip are:

(A)  14, 38 years

(B)  16, 40 years

(C)  12, 36 years

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

15. The probability of getting a 7 in a single throw of a dice is:

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  1/6

(D)  1/2

Answer: (B)

16. A’s income is 60% more than that of B. By what per cent is B’s income less than A’s ?

(A)  37%

(B)  37.5%

(C)  36.5%

(D)  36%

Answer: (B)

17. By joining (−3, 2), (−3, −3) and (−3, 4), which of the following is obtained?

(A)  A triangle

(B)  A straight line parallel to x-axis

(C)  A straight line parallel to y-axis

(D)  A straight line passing through origin

Answer: (C)

18. The number of times a particular observation occurs in a given data is called as

(A)  Frequency

(B)  Range

(C)  Mean

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

19.  By selling 33 m of cloth, a draper loses an amount equal to the selling price of 3 m of cloth. Find his gain or loss per cent.



(C)  gain7%

(D)  loss 7%

Answer: (B)

20. Three cubes of metal whose edges are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively are melted to form a single cube. The edge of the new cube is _______.

(A)  24 cm

(B)  20 cm

(C)  18 cm

(D)  12 cm

Answer: (D)

21. Find the single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 20% and 10%.

(A)  25%

(B)  30%

(C)  28%

(D)  10%

Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following is not a case of direct variation?

(A)  Number of sheets of some kind are increased when their total weight is increased

(B)  More quantity of petrol is required to travel more distance with a fixed speed

(C)  More fees would be collected if number of students increase in a class

(D)  Time taken will be less, if number of workers is increased to complete the same work

Answer: (D)

23. If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = 23, then the value of a2 + b2 + c2 equals to

(A)  35

(B)  81

(C)  127

(D)  217

Answer: (A)

24. On dividing 200 into two parts, 1/3 of the first part and ½ of the second part are equal. The larger of the parts is _______.

(A)  80

(B)  120

(C)  40

(D)  150

Answer: (B)

25. On selling a fan for Rs 810, Sunil gains 8%. For how much did he purchase it?

(A)  Rs 700

(B)  Rs 675

(C)  Rs 650

(D)  Rs 750

Answer: (D)

26. Find the value of x: 32x × 3x+3 ×34x = (√3)10

(A)  −1

(B)  0

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (A)


(A)  −bc3/a2

(B)  bc4/a2

(C)  −ab4/c2

(D)  −bc4/a2

Answer: (D)

28. If n is a perfect cube, then every prime factor of ‘n’ occurs_____

(A)  One time

(B)  Two times

(C)  Three times

(D)  Four times

Answer: (C)

29. Find the greatest number of four digits which is a perfect square?

(A)  9800

(B)  9864

(C)  9999

(D)  9801

Answer: (D)

30. If the ratio of the ages (in years) of x and y, 8 years ago is 7 : , then which of the following can be the sum of their ages 8 years from now?

(A)  82

(B)  97

(C)  75

(D)  94

Answer: (B)

31. The age of the boy is one-fifth of the age of his mother and sum of the ages of the son and the mother is equal to the age of the father. After 15 y ears, the sum of the ages of the son and his mother will be four-third of his father’s age. Find the ratio of the present ages of son, mother and father respectively.

(A)  1 : 5 : 7

(B)  2 : 10 : 10

(C)  1 : 5 : 6

(D)  2 : 8 :  9

Answer: (C)

32. The ratio of the income of P and Q is 5 : 4. The ratio of expenditure is 4 : 3. The saving of P is more than that of Q by  What % of his incomes does P spend?





Answer: (B)

33. Mohan invested a sum of Rs 12,500 at 12% per annum compound interest. He received an amount of Rs 15,680 after x year. Then the value of x is _______.

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

34. Find the compound interest on Rs 1,25,000 for 9 months at 8% per annum, compounded quarterly.

(A)  7551

(B)  7651

(C)  7650

(D)  7655

Answer: (B)

35. Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours and pipe B can empty the tank is 18 hours. Both pipes are opened at 6 AM and after some time, pipe B is closed and tank is full at 8 PM. At what time was the pipe B closed?

(A)  10 AM

(B)  8 AM

(C)  9 AM

(D)  11 AM

Answer: (C)

36. A car covers 300 kms at a constant speed. If its speed was 10 kmph more, it would have taken 1 hour less to travel the same distance. Find the speed of the car.

(A)  60 kmph

(B)  50 kmph

(C)  40 kmph

(D)  75 kmph

Answer: (B)

37. Two trains are travelling in opposite direction with speed of 25 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. If the length of one train is 300 m and that of the other train is 250 m, then find the time taken by the trains to cross each other.

(A)  8 s

(B)  10 s

(C)  12 s

(D)  14 s

Answer: (B)

38. The sum of all digits of a two digit number is 9. If 27 is subtracted from the number then the digits get reversed. Find the number.

(A)  81

(B)  72

(C)  36

(D)  63

Answer: (D)

39. There are some four-wheelers and six-wheelers in a garage. The total number of wheels of these vehicles is 120. The number of four-wheelers is 3/2 times the number of six-wheelers. Find the number of six-wheelers in the garage.

(A)  20

(B)  5

(C)  15

(D)  10

Answer: (D)

40. What is the minimum interior angle possible for a regular polygon?

(A)  60°

(B)  75°

(C)  90°

(D)  None

Answer: (A)

41. What is the number of diagonals in a hexagon?

(A)  4

(B)  6

(C)  9

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

42. In the adjacent figure, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at a point P. If ∠C = 100° and ∠D = 60° find the  measure of ∠APB.

(A)  60°

(B)  70°

(C)  90°

(D)  80°

Answer: (D)

43. A square and a rectangle each have a perimeter of 40 m. The difference between areas of the two figures is 9 m2. What are the possible dimensions of the rectangle?

(A)  13 m, 7 m

(B)  14 m, 6 m

(C)  108 m, 1 m

(D)  15 m, 5 m

Answer: (A)

44. In a parallelogram ABCD, AB = 6 cm, BC = 5 cm and AC = 7 cm. Find the perpendicular distance between 

(A)  6√6 cm

(B)  12√6 cm

(C)  5 cm

(D)  2√6 cm

Answer: (D)

45. Some cubic metres of earth is dug out to sink a well which is 16 m deep and which has a radius of 3.5 m. If that amount of earth when taken out is spread over a rectangular plot of dimensions 25 m × 16 m, what is the height of the platforms so formed?

(A)  1.54 m

(B)  1.50 m

(C)  1.52 m

(D)  1.53 m

Answer: (A)

46. What is the difference between the total surface area and curved surface area of a cylinder whose radius is equal to 10 cm?

(A)  200π cm2

(B)  300π cm2

(C)  100π cm2

(D)  10π cm2

Answer: (A)

47. The mean of six numbers is 15. If 2 is taken away from every number, the new mean would be

(A)  13

(B)  4

(C)  17

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

48. The sides of the triangle are 45 cm, 60 cm and 75 cm. Find the length drawn to the longest side from its opposite vertex.

(A)  27 cm

(B)  21 cm

(C)  39 cm

(D)  36 cm

Answer: (D)

49. In the following figure, find the value of Y.

(A)  50°

(B)  65°

(C)  60°

(D)  70°

Answer: (D)

50. A cylindrical tank has a capacity of 5632 m3. If the diameter of its base is 16 m, find its depth.

(A)  28 m

(B)  25 m

(C)  16 m

(D)  29 m

Answer: (A)

Section B : English

51. Candidates must _______ the general conditions for admission.

(A)  do

(B)  prepare

(C)  satisfy

(D)  create

Answer: (C)

52. He resorts _______ sharp practice in his dealings.

(A)  at

(B)  to

(C)  in

(D)  for

Answer: (B)

53. _______ English is an international language.

(A)  No article

(B)  The

(C)  A

(D)  An

Answer: (A)

54. The word ‘Industrious’ means.

(A)  Working in industry

(B)  Labour in factory

(C)  Hard working

(D)  Laid back

Answer: (C)

55. Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful:

Wear (1) / these (2) / people (3) / almost (4) / a (5) / majority (6) / of (7) / days (8) / a watch (9)

(A)  4 5 6 7 3 1 9 2 8

(B)  4 5 7 6 1 3 8 2 9

(C)  4 5 6 7 9 2 3 1 8

(D)  4 5 6 7 3 1 2 8 9

Answer: (A)

56. Select the word closest in meaning to “Mortal”.

(A)  Recurrent

(B)  Trivial

(C)  Fatal

(D)  Eternal

Answer: (C)

57. Mark the word with the correct spelling.

(A)  Maintenance

(B)  Maintennance

(C)  Maintanance

(D)  Maintainance

Answer: (A)

58. The coach insisted that Ronaldo_____ the centre position, even though he’s too short for that position. (Use the correct verb)

(A)  play

(B)  played

(C)  plays

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

59. _____ King of Scotland saw ______ spider trying to climb up to ______ ceiling of the cave. (Use Articles)

(A)  The, a, the

(B)  A, a, the

(C)  No article, a, no article

(D)  The, a, no article

Answer: (C)

60. Raju relishes not only Chinese _______ continental food. (Use appropriate Concjunction)

(A)  also

(B)  but

(C)  but also

(D)  rather

Answer: (C)

61. You must learn _______ English every day to improve it. (Use appropriate determiner)

(A)  a few

(B)  a little

(C)  a lot of

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

62. Arrange the jumbled words to form a meaningful sentence


(A)  The remarkable inventor in the most world in Thomas Alva Edison.

(B)  Thomas Alva Edison is the most remarkable inventor in the world.

(C)  Is the most remarkable inventor in the world Thomas Alva Edison.

(D)  In the world most remarkable inventor is Thomas Alva Edison.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 63 to 67): Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

The moon’s role in causing tides is much more high and important than that of the Sun. The reason is that the moon enjoys more proximity to the earth than the sun. As such its force is greater than that of the sun in attracting the surface water. Tides are of immense importance. In trade, navigation and fishing, tides are very useful. During the high tide, the water depth near the coast goes up and helps big ships to reach the ports. Kandla port in Gujarat and Diamond Harbour in West Bengal owe their very existence to the tides only. The significance of both London and Kolkata also depends on the tides. Tides also keep the harbours clear of refuse and mud brought down by rivers and thus they do not allow the harbours to be silted. Commonly, the tidal rivers are navigable. For the purpose of generating electricity, tidal waves are harnessed. Tides do not allow the sea water to be frozen by keeping the sea water in motion. Tides are also made use by the fisherman for sailing into the sea and returning to the harbour. In countries like Canada, U.K., France and Japan, tidal power stations are set up.

63. Why does the moon play a greater role than the sun in causing tides?

(A)  The moon is closer to the earth as compared to the sun.

(B)  The moon has greater gravitational pull.

(C)  The moon shines in night.

(D)  None of the above.

Answer: (A)

64. How are tides useful for the economy of the country?

(A)  Tides bring treasure of sea with them.

(B)  During high tides, big ships can reach the ports thus opening new vistas for business.

(C)  Tides destroy enemies of the country.

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

65. How are tides useful in cold countries?

(A)  They bring fish for eating.

(B)  They bring water for drinking.

(C)  The don’t allow sea water to be frozen.

(D)  They keep the port silted.

Answer: (C)

66. How can tides solve the power problem of the world?

(A)  Electricity is being produced through tidal waves.

(B)  Tidal waves keep the steamers in motion.

(C)  Tidal waves melt the ice and save power.

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

67. Which word in the passage means ‘to bring under control’?

(A)  Proximity

(B)  Silted

(C)  Immense

(D)  Harness

Answer: (D)

68. She plays better than _______ do. (Choose appropriate pronoun)

(A)  I

(B)  my

(C)  may

(D)  myself

Answer: (A)

69. I ______ in a school in Delhi since 2017. (Choose appropriate from of tense)

(A)  has studied

(B)  has been studying

(C)  have been studying

(D)  will study

Answer: (C)

70. There isn’t any smog in the Highlands of Scotland, ——– ? (Choose appropriate question tag)

(A)  aren’t it

(B)  isn’t it

(C)  is there

(D)  there isn’t

Answer: (C)

71. Choose the best meaning of the Idiom ‘to play to the gallery”.

(A)  to watch the play with interest

(B)  to enact the play in the gallery

(C)  to endeavour to gain cheap popularity

(D)  to sit comfortably

Answer: (C)

72. The speckled tortoise walks steadfastly towards his goal? (Choose the adverb)

(A)  speckled

(B)  steadfastly

(C)  towards

(D)  goal

Answer: (B)

73. I wrote an article for the school magazine. (Change from active to passive voice)

(A)  An article for the school magazine I had written.

(B)  An article was written by me for the school magazine.

(C)  I have written an article for the school magazine.

(D)  The school magazine and an article I wrote for.

Answer: (B)

74. Empty vessels _______ much noise. (Select the correct form of verb)

(A)  make

(B)  are making

(C)  have made

(D)  makes

Answer: (A)

75. Gullible (Choose the word with opposite meaning)

(A)  trusting

(B)  cynical

(C)  clever

(D)  resourceful

Answer: (B)

Section C : General Science

76. The metal present in Chlorophyll is:

(A)  Iron

(B)  Calcium

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (D)

77. Name the gas present in LPG:

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Oxygen

(C)  Methane

(D)  Butane

Answer: (D)

78. Which gas is used to replace CFC?





Answer: (A)

79. The first Menstrual flow at puberty is termed:

(A)  Menopause

(B)  Menstruation

(C)  Puberty flow

(D)  Menarche

Answer: (D)

80. Which among the following statement is incorrect about all organelles?

(A)  They are found in all Eukaryotic cells.

(B)  They are found in Multi cellular organisms only.

(C)  They coordinate to produce new cell.

(D)  They are small sized and mostly internal.

Answer: (B)

81. The boy is pulling a cart by a force of 100 N. The frictional force experienced by the cart is 20 N. The force causing the motion of the cart is:

(A)  100 N

(B)  120 N

(C)  80 N

(D)  5 N

Answer: (C)

82. The cans used for storing food are made by electroplating:

(A)  Silver onto iron

(B)  Chromium onto iron

(C)  Gold onto iron

(D)  Tin onto iron

Answer: (D)

83. The impression of an image does not vanish immediately from the retina. It persist for:

(A)  (1/60)th of a second

(B)  (1/12)th of a second

(C)  (1/6)th of a second

(D)  (1/16)th of a second

Answer: (D)

84. The Sun appears to rise in the East and set in the West because:

(A)  Earth rotates from East to West on its axis.

(B)  Earth rotates from West to East on its axis.

(C)  The Sun is at the centre of universe.

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

85. Pressure is equal to

(A)  Area/force on which it acts

(B)  Force/area on which it acts

(C)  Volume/force on which it acts

(D)  Force/volume on which it acts

Answer: (B)

86. An ultrasound equipment works at a frequency.

(A)  Higher than 20,000 Hz

(B)  Higher than 10,000 Hz

(C)  Lower than 20,000 Hz

(D)  Lower than 10,000 Hz

Answer: (A)

87. When electrodes are immersed in water and electricity is passed, the bubbles formed on the negative terminal is actually _______ gas.

(A)  Hydrogen

(B)  Carbon dioxide

(C)  Oxygen

(D)  Nitrogen

Answer: (A)

88. If light falls perpendicularly on a plane mirror, the angle in which light will be reflected is ________.

(A)  45 degrees

(B)  90 degrees

(C)  180 degrees

(D)  360 degrees

Answer: (C)

89. All non-living things are known as________

(A)  Biotic Resource

(B)  Exhaustible Resource

(C)  Abiotic Resource

(D)  Human Resource

Answer: (C)

90. Malarial parasite is carried by

(A)  Culex mosquito

(B)  Male anopheles mosquito

(C)  Female anopheles mosquito

(D)  Aedes mosquito

Answer: (C)

91. Internal fertilization does not occur in

(A)  Dog

(B)  Cow

(C)  Parrot

(D)  Frog

Answer: (D)

92. Regeneration is observed in

(A)  Planaria

(B)  Spyrogyra

(C)  Yeast

(D)  Amoeba

Answer: (A)

93. Rapid combustion is

(A)  When gas burns, it produces heat and light

(B)  When material suddenly burst into flames

(C)  When there is evolution of heat

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

94. A student is carrying out distillation process in a lab. Water is boiling in distillation flask. Water that is collected in the receiver flask is refrigerated and ice cubes are formed. Ice cubes are then kept outside the refrigerator and they start melting. Arrange following phases of water in ascending order of their total (PE + KE) energy considering that the mass of water remains the same.

(i) Water collected in the receiving flask

(ii) Water boiling in the distillation\

(iii) Steam passing through the delivery tube

(iv) Ice cubes formed in the refrigerator

(A)  (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

(B)  (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

(C)  (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(D)  (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Answer: (B)

95. The difference samples of CO2 were found to contain carbon and oxygen in the same ratio of their mass. This illustrates

(A)  Law of conservation of mass

(B)  Law of definite proportions

(C)  Law of multiple proportions

(D)  Law of reciprocal proportions

Answer: (B)

96. An atlas of India is drawn by taking scale 100 cm = 50,000 km. The actual distance between the city of Bhopal and Cochin is 1,500 km, the distance between the two places in the atlas will be ______ cm.

(A)  3

(B)  1

(C)  10

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

97. Both sound and light waves can be propagated through

(A)  Vacuum

(B)  Air

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

98. A man stands in front of a mirror and finds that his image is larger than himself. The mirror is a ________ mirror.

(A)  Convex

(B)  Concave

(C)  Plane

(D)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (B)

99. Each lung is enclosed in a double membrane called as pleura. The membrane which covers the surface of each lung is

(A)  Visceral pleura

(B)  Lung pleura

(C)  Peritoneal pleura

(D)  Parietal pleura

Answer: (A)

100. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated mainly as _______

(A)  Urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult frog

(B)  Ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog

(C)  Urea in tadpole and adult frog

(D)  Urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog

Answer: (B)

Section D : Social Science

101. Who granted East India Company the sole right to trade with the East?

(A)  Robert Clive

(B)  Queen Elizabeth I

(C)  John Richardson

(D)  Queen Elizabeth II

Answer: (B)

102. The first Indian woman to become President of the Indian National Congress was:

(A)  Sarojini Naidu

(B)  Kamla Nehru

(C)  Kasturba Gandhi

(D)  Begum Rokeya Shakhawat Hossain

Answer: (A)

103. Land covered with grass shrubs on which animals can graze freely is known as:

(A)  Fallow land

(B)  Overgrazing

(C)  Pasture

(D)  Agricultural land

Answer: (C)

104. Name of the first country in the world to develop hydroelectricity.

(A)  Norway

(B)  Pakistan

(C)  India

(D)  Switzerland

Answer: (A)

105. Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as:

(A)  Agriculture

(B)  Sericulture

(C)  Pisciculture

(D)  Viticulture

Answer: (C)

106. Ahmedabad is referred as the ________ of India.

(A)  Ruhr

(B)  Manchester

(C)  Boston

(D)  Chicago

Answer: (B)

107. How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

(A)  233

(B)  12

(C)  22

(D)  250

Answer: (B)

108. The Industrial Revolution started in ________ around 1750.

(A)  France

(B)  Britain

(C)  Russia

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

109. The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of _______.

(A)  Buxar

(B)  Plassey

(C)  Seringapatnam

(D)  Saraighat

Answer: (B)

110. The architect of New Delhi was ______

(A)  Edwin Lutyens & H Baker

(B)  King George V

(C)  Lord Lytton

(D)  Queen Elizabeth

Answer: (A)

111. The existence of more than one level of government is known as

(A)  Federalism

(B)  Secularism

(C)  Marginalism

(D)  Communalism

Answer: (A)

112. Money Bill is introduced

(A)  Only in a Rajya Sabha

(B)  Only in  Lok Sabha

(C)  In both the Houses

(D)  By the Speaker of Rajya Sabha

Answer: (B)

113. In which state of India is the “Jim Corbett National Park” situated?

(A)  Uttarakhand

(B)  Gujarat

(C)  Assam

(D)  Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (A)

114. Which state of India is the highest producer of Jute?

(A)  Assam

(B)  West Bengal

(C)  Bihar

(D)  Odisha

Answer: (B)

115. A form of government where people enjoy equal political right, elect their ruler and hold them accountable is known as:

(A)  Secular

(B)  Democratic

(C)  Socialist

(D)  Republic

Answer: (B)

116. In order to prevent religion based exclusion and discrimination of ‘lower castes’, the Indian Constitution bans

(A)  Untouchability

(B)  Religious practices

(C)  Religion

(D)  Religious institutions

Answer: (A)

117. Sustainable development seeks to prevent _______.

(A)  Wastage of resources

(B)  Pollution

(C)  Loss of biodiversity

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

118. Of the earth’s total water resources, the fresh water easily accessible for our use is

(A)  More than 90%

(B)  50%

(C)  1%

(D)  Less than 1%

Answer: (C)

119. These are made to protect our natural vegetation and wild life

(A)  National park

(B)  Wildlife sanctuaries

(C)  Biosphere reserves

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

120. The largest producer and exporter of mica in the world is

(A)  Australia

(B)  India

(C)  USA

(D)  Russia

Answer: (B)

121. Resources which can be renewed or reproduced are known as________

(A)  Exhaustible resource

(B)  Non renewal source

(C)  Renewal source

(D)  Useful resource

Answer: (C)

122. The Act on the “Protection of Women from Domestic violence” finally became a law in the year:

(A)  2003

(B)  2004

(C)  2005

(D)  2006

Answer: (C)

123. Right to Information (RTI) act guarantees people’s right to

(A)  Know governmental proceedings

(B)  Get universal primary education

(C)  Speak out their discontent freely

(D)  Hold meetings and public gathering

Answer: (A)

124. At the village level, the judicial functions are performed by the

(A)  Nyaya Panchayat

(B)  Gram Panchayat

(C)  District Judge

(D)  Munsif

Answer: (A)

125. Many of India’s most important mining and industrial centre are located in

(A)  Jamshedpur

(B)  Rourkela

(C)  Bokaro

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)


Section E : Intelligence Test

Directions (Qs. No. 126-129) Choose the letters group that best represents a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair of letters group in the following.

126. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?





Answer: (C)






Answer: (A)

128. CAT is to DDY as BIG is to

(A)  CLL

(B)  CLM

(C)  CML

(D)  CEP

Answer: (A)

129. Bag is related to Laggag in the same way as Ship is related to ________?

(A)  Coal

(B)  Stock

(C)  Cargo

(D)  Weight

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 130 & 131): Which number completes the second pair in the same way as the first pair.

130. 3 : 243 :: 5 : ____?

(A)  425

(B)  465

(C)  546

(D)  3125

Answer: (D)

131. 6 : 24 :: 5 : ?

(A)  23

(B)  20

(C)  26

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

132. Find the missing character from among the given alternatives.

(A)  J15

(B)  K8

(C)  K15

(D)  L10

Answer: (B)

133. Choose the figure, which is different from others

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (D)

134. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

(1) Live    (2) Litter

(3) Little  (4) Literacy

(5) Living

(A)  3, 4, 2, 1, 5

(B)  3, 2, 4, 5, 1

(C)  4, 3, 5, 2, 1

(D)  4, 2, 3, 1, 5

Answer: (D)

135. In a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code?





Answer: (D)

136. If 30th January, 2003 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March, 2003?

(A)  Sunday

(B)  Monday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Tuesday

Answer: (A)

137. In the following series, how many KGN occur in such a way that ‘G’ is in the middle and ‘K’ and ‘N’ are adjacent to it on both sides?

A K G L M N D Q K G C S N G K T G k G N D Z P U X G K E

(A)  5

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  2

Answer: (*)

138. Which word can’t be formed by using the letters of the DISTRIBUTION word? Find that word.





Answer: (B)

139. Select the figure from the answer set that would come in place of the question mark (?).

(A)  1

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

140. If Maya is the only daughter of Richa’s grandmother’s brother, how is Maya’s daughter related to Richa?

(A)  Niece

(B)  Cousin

(C)  Aunt

(D)  Mother

Answer: (B)

141. It is 3 O’clock in a watch and it is rotated by 10 degrees in manner such that if the minute hand points towards the North-East, then hour hand will point towards which direction?

(A)  South

(B)  South-West

(C)  North-West

(D)  South-East

Answer: (D)

142. Which one does not belong to the group?

(A)  63

(B)  65

(C)  84

(D)  91

Answer: (B)

143. Which square would replace the question mark?





Answer: (D)

144. Village ‘W’ is 20 kms to the north to village ‘X’. Village ‘Y’ is 18 kms to the east of village ‘X’. Village ‘Z’ is 12 ms to the west of village ‘W’. If Manu starts from village ‘Y’ and goes to village ‘Z’ via village ‘W’, in which direction is he from his starting point?

(A)  North-West

(B)  South

(C)  North-East

(D)  East

Answer: (A)

145. If the 7th day of a month is 3 days earlier than Friday, what day will it be one the 19th day of the month?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Wednesday

(D)  Friday

Answer: (B)

146. Gaurav said to Tarun, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Gaurav?

(A)  Son

(B)  Brother

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Brother-in-law

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 147): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the question given below:


147. Which of the following pairs of letters has as many letters between them in the above arrangement as there are between them in the English alphabet?

(A)  AI

(B)  EL

(C)  LS

(D)  MO

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 148-150): A solid cube of each side 4 cm has been painted all faces. If it is then cut into cubical blocks each of side 2 cm, answer the question:

148. How many cubes are there in all of a edge 2 cm?

(A)  2

(B)  4

(C)  8

(D)  16

Answer: (C)

149. How many cubes have no face painted?

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (A)

150. How many cubes have only one face painted?

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (A)