SBI Clerical Cadre (Assistant and Junior Assistant) Preliminary Online Examination Held on May 29, 2016
Part I English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each of the following questions, a sentence with four words in bold type is given. One of these four words may b e either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. That word is your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.
1. The Asian Development Bank has supported the government’s latest efforts to deliver quality health services to all sections of society.
(a) supported
(b) latest
(c) deliver
(d) sections
(e) All correct
2. On the basis of the forecast by the Indian Meteorological Department the government ordered district collectors to visit districts, which are expected to receive heavy
(a) ordered
(b) district
(c) expected
(d) rainfal
(e) All correct
3. The economy is on the part to recovery and slowly, but surely the banking sector will perform
(a) part
(b) recovery
(c) surely
(d) perform
(e) All correct
4. During the course of the day many meetings were held but the agenda was not shared with us.
(a) During
(b) course
(c) held
(d) agenda
(e) All correct
5. Meazures to increase both financial inclusion and investment in infrastructure will result in gains for the country.
(a) Meazures
(b) inclusion
(c) investment
(d) gains
(e) All correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Read the following story carefully and answer the questions given. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once there was a king who had been trying really hard to capture an elephant, but that prize and proved elusive. Al the hunters in the kingdom had tried but their efforts were ‘in vain’. So the king announced that anyone who could capture the elephant would get half his kingdom. The tortoise heard about this and went to the king to accept the challenge. The king was very amused. ‘All my hunters have failed to capture the elephant and you think you can succeed?’, asked the king. The tortoise insisted that he was up to the task and promised to deliver that elephant to the king within forty eight hours. The tortoise then dug a big hole, big enough to hold the elephant along a path leading to the village. Then he covered the hole with sticks and leaves so that it was not visible unless inspected closely. When this was done, the tortoise went in search of the elephant. When the tortoise met the elephant, he told him, ‘You know you are the largest animal in the forest and you should be a king?’ The elephant had never considered this before but he thought it was not a bad idea. The tortoise told the elephant that the villagers had decided to sale the largest animal to their king and were all expecting the elephant to come to the village and be crowned as their king. The more the elephant heard, the more excited he became.
The tortoise adorned the elephant with colourful beads and beating a gong, he sang songs praising the elephant while he led the way to the village. Soon they approached the trap and the tortoise being lighter and smaller walked over the trap. The elephant who was following him fell through the sticks and leaves into the deep hole and thus helped the tortoise in achieving his goal well within the time limit.
6. As mentioned in the story, despite the king doubling his ability, the tortoise accepted the challenge
(A) he was forced to do so by the villagers.
(B) to prove to the king that only a tortoise and his family could complete the challenge.
(C) he wanted the entire kingdom to himself.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Only C
(e) None of these
7. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘in vain’ as used in the story?
(a) Were painful
(b) Were successful
(c) Were in order
(d) Were untruthful
(e) Were simple
8. Which of the following could be a suitable title to the story?
(a) The Elephant who Became the Most Popular King
(b) The Wise King
(c) The Clever Tortoise
(d) The Villagers and their Love for the Elephant
(e) The Selfish Villagers
9. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Excited’ as used in the story?
(a) Bored
(b) Interested
(c) Affected
(d) Feeling
(e) Merciless
10. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the story?
(a) The king refused to share his kingdom with the tortoise.
(b) The tortoise kept his word by providing the king with what he desired.
(c) It was the king’s idea that helped the tortoise achieve his target.
(d) The elephant was popular for his beautiful skin.
(e) None of the given statements is true.
11. As mentioned in the story, the elephant followed tortoise’s advice because
(A) for him, the tortoise was the wisest animal in the village
(B) he really believed that the villagers wanted him as the king
(C) he had always wanted to become rich and powerful
(a) Only A
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) All of these
12. Which of the following is most n early the same in meaning as the word ‘Insisted’ as used in the story?
(a) Requested
(b) Revived
(c) Repeated
(d) Invited
(e) Showed
13. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Praising’ as used in the story?
(a) Insulting
(b) Concealing
(c) Hiding
(d) Refusing
(e) Removing
14. As mentioned in the story, which of the following can b e said about the elephant?
(a) He had a good sense of humour
(b) He was foolish
(c) He was balanced.
(d) He was logical.
(e) He was short tempered.
15. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Adorned’ as used in the story?
(a) Touched
(b) Adored
(c) Charmed
(d) Decorated
(e) Stuffed
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
(A) The next day Shiva appeared at Raghu’s house and spotted a metal chest on the rooftop which had all the money and ornaments that Raghu owned.
(B) When Raghu arrived at Shiva’s house, Shiva asked him to guess what fruit it was, saying that if Raghu failed the (Shiva) would carry one thing out of Raghu’s house and if Raghu guessed correctly then Raghu could carry one thing out of Shiva’s house.
(C) Seeing him Raghu tanked him saying, ‘Thing you for sparing my wealth and carrying out only the ladder!’
(D) One day Shiva hatched a plan to outwit Raghu. He plucked a mango and wrapped it well in a piece of cloth
(E) ‘Oh ho!’ You thought that you’d hide all your wealth from me said Shiva going into Raghu’s house and bringing out a ladder began to climb up onto the roof.
(F) But Raghu’s guesses were incorrect.
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) F
18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
19. Which of the following should be the SIXTH(LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
20. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Read the following sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error in them. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the errors as you answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
21. One should always/ be happy from/ whatever one has/ and should not be greedy.
(a) One should always
(b) be happy from
(c) whatever one has
(d) and should not be greedy
(e) No error
22. My friend lost/ his temper on the /shopkeeper and /slapped him.
(a) My friend lost
(b) his temper on the
(c) shopkeeper and
(d) slapped him.
(e) No error
23. Luxurious and / expensive lights were / imported from/ various countries.
(a) Luxurious and
(b) expensive lights were
(c) imported from
(d) various countries
(e) No error
24. They were unhappy because / the person who had a palace/ had no gold and the person / who had gold had no palace.
(a) They were unhappy because
(b) the person who had a palace
(c) had no gold and the person
(d) who had gold had no palace
(e) No error
25. Despite his / poor financial condition, / the auto-driver remained/ honest and hard work.
(a) Despite his
(b) poor financial condition,
(c) the auto-driver remained
(d) honest and hard work
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of the which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The night fell heavy in the heights of the mountains and one could not see anything. All was black and the moon and the starts were covered by clouds.
As Tom was climbing only a few feet away from the top of the mountain, he (26) and fell in to the air, falling at great speed. he could only see black spots as he went down. He kept failing, when all of a (27) he felt the rope tied to his waist pull at him very hard. His body was hanging in the air. Only the rope was holding him and in that moment of stillness, he had no other (28) but to scream, ‘Help me God’, All of a sudden a deep voice coming from the sky answered. ‘What did you want me to do?’ ‘Save me God,’ said Tom. ‘Do you really think I can save you?’ asked the voice. ‘Of course you can,’ (29) Tom. ‘Then cut the rope tied to your waist,’ said the voice. There was a moment of silence as Tom decided to hold on to the rope with ‘all his (30). The rescue team said that the next day a climber was found dead and frozen, his body hanging from a rope, only one foot away from the ground.
26.
(a) stumbled
(b) talked
(c) tried
(d) slapped
(e) caused
27.
(a) time
(b) instant
(c) sudden
(d) shock
(e) moment
28.
(a) option
(b) person
(c) want
(d) limitation
(e) body
29.
(a) asked
(b) questioned
(c) replied
(d) denied
(e) doubted
30.
(a) strength
(b) feet
(c) family
(d) reason
(e) portions
Part II Reasoning Ability
31. Among five friends-O, P, Q, R and S, each scored different marks in an examination. P scored more than R and Q, but less than O. O did not score the highest marks and did not score the lowest marks. Who amongst the following scored the third highest?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) S
(c) O
(d) Q
(e) O
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Only three people sit between K and L. Only two people sit between L and H. Only three people sit between H and G. J sits second to the right of H. I is one of the immediate neighbours of H. F is neither an immediate neighbour of K nor G.
32. Which amongst the following statements is true regarding F, as per the given arrangement?
(a) None of the given statements is true.
(b) K is one of the immediate neighbours of F.
(c) F sits second to the left of H
(d) F sits third to the right of J.
(e) Only three people sit between F and E.
33. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from E, the positions of how many, excluding E, would remain unchanged?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) None
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) JHG
(b) KIE
(c) GJL
(d) HFJ
(e) ILK
35. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of L?
(a) H
(b) G
(c) I
(d) F
(e) J
36. What is the position of H with respect to E?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Second to the right
(c) To the immediate right
(d) Third to the left
(e) Third to the right
37. In a certain code language, CLUB is coded as ‘FKTE’ and THEN is codes as ‘WGDQ’. In the same code language, ARID will be coded as
(a) DQHG
(b) TQHG
(c) YQKE
(d) DULC
(e) DQLC
38. In a certain code if ‘a fast train’ is coded as ‘1 5 8’ and ‘train to Mumbai’ is coded as ‘9 3 1’, then what is the code for ‘train’ in the given code language?
(a) 8
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 1
(e) Either 3 or 9
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-43) Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven people, namely J, K, L, M, N, O and P watch seven different channels on seven different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. K watches a channel to Saturday. More than two people watch channel between K and N. Only one person watches a channel between N and L. J watches a channel on one of the days before L but not on Wednesday. As many people watch a channel between L and P as between J and L. O watches a channel immediately after P.
39. On which of the following days does M watch a channel?
(a) Friday
(b) Monday
(c) Sunday
(d) Wednesday
(e) Tuesday
40. Which of the following pairs represents the persons who watch a channel immediately before and immediately after K?
(a) J, P
(b) M, J
(c) L, O
(d) P, L
(e) O, M
41. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given arrangement?
(a) All the given statements are true.
(b) Only two people watch a channel after O.
(c) Only two people watch a channel between M and P.
(d) N watches a channel immediately before J.
(e) L watches a channel on Wednesday
42. Who amongst the following watches a channel on Thursday?
(a) M
(b) J
(c) L
(d) O
(e) P
43. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to the that group?
(a) OP
(b) NJ
(c) LP
(d) MK
(e) JK
44. If three is added to each even digit and three is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 254673 and then in the new number thus formed all the digits are arranged in descending order, which of the following will be third from the right?
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 9
(d) 4
(e) 7
Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) In these questions. relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) if both conclusions are true
45. Statement F ≤ L < U = K ≥ E
Conclusions I. U ≥ F II. F < K
46. Statements B ≥ O ≥ N < K ≤ R; N ≥ F
Conclusions I. O < R II. F ≤ B
47. Statement C ≤ D = E > F ≥G
Conclusions I. C ≤ F II. G ≥ D
48. Statements L > A ≥ M > P; R ≤A ≤ N
Conclusions I. M ≤ N II. P > R
49. Statement P ≤Q ≤R = S < T
Conclusions I. P = T II. P < T
50. How many such p airs of letters are there in the word ‘TEACH’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) More than three
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) One
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions.
Y B @ 3 P ⋆ $ 5 T C Z J 4 L 7 R K 8 ⋁ ^ F X Q U π M 6 G N % 9
51. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(a) $5⋆
(b) 6GM
(c) ZJC
(d) 7RL
(e) BY@
52. How many alphabets are there in the English alphabetical series between the sixth element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end of the given arrangement?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than three
53. Which one of the following will come next in the given sequence?
YE3@, ⋆PE5$, ⋆CT, ?
(a) CL4
(b) T4J
(c) 54J
(d) C4Z
(e) 5JZ
54. If all the symbols are deleted from the given arrangement then which of the following will be the ninth element from the right end?
(a) F
(b) K
(c) V
(d) 8
(e) 7
55. How many such alphabets are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number as well as immediately followed by a symbol?
(a) None
(b) Three
(c) More than three
(d) Two
(e) One
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-57) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Marcus, who is standing at Point D, walks 11 m towards South and reaches Point E. He then takes a left turn and walks 7 m. He then takes a left turn. walks 5 m and reaches Point F. Point R is 18 m to the East of Point F. Point S is 6 m to the North of Point R.
56. In which direction is Point R with respect to Point D?
(a) South-West
(b) East
(c) West
(d) North
(e) South-East
57. How far and in which direction is Point S with respect to Point D?
(a) 11 m towards East
(b) 11 m towards West
(c) 17 m towards West
(d) 17 m towards East
(e) 25 m towards East
Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) Study the following information and answer the given questions. S is the father of R. R is the only son of U. U is the daughter of J. J has only two children. K is the son of J.
58. If X is the grand-daughter of J, then how is U related to X?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother-in-law
(c) Grandfather
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) Cannot be determined
59. How is S related to K?
(a) Brother
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Cousin
(d) Father
(e) Uncle
60. How is R related to J?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Son
(c) Nephew
(d) Grandson
(e) Son-in-law
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) The following questions are based on the given 3-digit numbers
821 547 452 935 368
61. The product of the second and the third digit in which of the following numbers is second highest?
(a) 547
(b) 935
(c) 368
(d) 452
(e) 821
62. The difference of the first and the second digits in how many of the given numbers is greater than the third digit of the same number?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) More than three
(d) One
(e) None
63. If all the digits of the given number are arranged in ascending order within the number, what will be the sum of the second and third digits of the second highest number thus formed?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 9
(e) 14
64. If the first digit and the third digit of all the given numbers are interchanged, which of the following will become the second lowest number after performing the said operation?
(a) 452
(b) 547
(c) 935
(d) 368
(e) 821
65. If ‘2’ is added to the second digit of all even numbers and ‘3’ is subtracted from the first digit of all odd numbers, in how many numbers thus formed will a digit appear twice?
(a) None
(b) Three
(c) More than three
(d) Two
(e) One
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
66. The circumference of Circle A is 75 m more than its diameter. If the radius of circle B is 3.5 m more than the radius of circle A, what is the circumference of circle B?
(a) 110 m
(b) 140 m
(c) 163 m
(d) 96 m
(e) 132 m
67. A shopkeeper sold an article at 20% discount and earned a profit of 4%. By what percent the marked price of the article more than the cost price of the article?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 40%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
Directions (Q. Nos. 68-72) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?
68. 89 86 78 63 39 ?
(a) 19
(b) 4
(c) 9
(d) 13
(e) 28
69. 142 70 34 16 ? 2.5
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 12
(e) 8
70. 21 37 40.2 88.2 94.6 ?
(a) 211.6
(b) 224.5
(c) 192.3
(d) 174.6
(e) 182.8
71. 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?
(a) 84
(b) 102.5
(c) 90
(d) 92.5
(e) 72
72. 0.75 ? 6 36 288 2880
(a) 3
(b) 1.5
(c) 2
(d) 4.5
(e) 5
73. Pihu and Rani start a business together by investing Rs 9000 and Rs 6300 respectively. After certain period, Pihu withdrew from the business completely. If at the end of 2 years, the total profit earned was Rs 13050 and Pihu’s share was Rs 6750, after how many months did Pihu withdraw from business?
(a) 23 months
(b) 14 months
(c) 20 months
(d) 18 months
(e) 12 months
74. Jar A contains ‘X’ L of pure milk only. A 27 L mixture of milk and water in the respectively ratio of 4 : 5, is added to jar A. The new mixture thus formed in jar A contains 70% milk, what is the value of X?
(a) 23 L
(b) 30 L
(c) 27 L
(d) 48 L
(e) 28 L
75. The speed of a boat in still water is 500% more than the speed of the current. What is the respective ratio between the speed of the boat downstream and speed of the boat upstream?
(a) 9 : 2
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 9 : 4
(e) 4 : 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Study the table and answer the given questions
76. Number of employees in organization E increased by, what percent from 2003 to 2006?
(a) 105%
(b) 110%
(c) 115%
(d) 102%
(e) 125%
77. Number of employees in organization B and C decreased by 5% and 10% respectively from 2007 to 2008. What was the total number of employees in organization B and together in 2008?
(a) 177
(b) 179
(c) 175
(d) 181
(e) 163
78. What is the difference between total number of employees in organization A in 2003 and 2004 together and that in organization D in the same years together?
(a) 77
(b) 79
(c) 73
(d) 83
(e) 67
79. What is the respective ratio between total number of employees in organizations B and C together in 2004 and total number of employees in organizations D and E together in 2007?
(a) 21 : 22
(b) 23 : 29
(c) 23 : 27
(d) 21 : 25
(e) 21 : 23
80. What is the average number of employees in organization A, B and E in 2005?
(a) 98
(b) 96
(c) 92
(d) 88
(e) 94
81. The average runs of a cricketer in tournament, in which he played 14 matches, are 47. His average runs in the first seven matches are 57 and that in the last five matches are 44. If the runs made by him in 8th match are15, how many runs did he make in 9th match?
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 26
(d) 22
(e) 28
82. An equal amount of sum, Rs P is invested in scheme A and Scheme B. Both the schemes A and B offer simply interest at the rate of 12% and 9% respectively. If at the end of two years total amount received from both the schemes together was Rs 21780, what is the value of P?
(a) Rs 9000
(b) Rs 9600
(c) Rs 12000
(d) Rs 8400
(e) Rs 8000
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-92) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?
83. 5/9 × (225.40 – 45.4) = ?2
(a) 15
(b) 5
(c) 100
(d) 25
(e) 10
84. 80 ÷4 × ? = 600
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 14
(e) 24
85. 57 – 1725 ÷ 69 = 4 × ?
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 7
(e) 8
86. 
(a) 26
(b) 24
(c) 22
(d) 28
(e) 25
87. 
(a) 112
(b) 164
(c) 128
(d) 116
(e) 136
88. 
(a) 15
(b) 225
(c) 16
(d) 256
(e) 289
89. 
(a) 6
(b) 6.4
(c) 8
(d) 4.2
(e) 4
90. 
(a) 3.1
(b) 2.53
(c) 2
(d) 2.48
(e) 3.6
91. 
(a) 18
(b) 324
(c) 14
(d) 144
(e) 196
92. 
(a) 2/3
(b) 2/5
(c) 1/3
(d) 3/5
(e) 4/5
93. The simple interest (@ 6% per annum) received on a principal of Rs X was Rs 482.40 when invested for 3 years in scheme A. If scheme B offered compound interest (compounded annually) at 10% per annum, what was the interest received by investing?
‘X-680’ for 2 years in scheme B?
(a) Rs 420
(b) Rs 490
(c) Rs 530
(d) Rs 540
(e) Rs 650
94. Mary paid 15% of her monthly salary towards an EMI. From the remaining salary, she paid 10% as internet bill and 20% as rent. If after the mentioned expenses she was left with Rs 24990, what was Mary’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs 45000
(b) Rs 48000
(c) Rs 42000
(d) Rs 36000
(e) Rs 40000
95. The sum of 4 consecutive even numbers is 107more than the sum of three consecutive odd numbers. If the sum of smallest odd number and the smallest even number is 55, what is the smallest even number?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 32
(d) 38
(e) 34
96. A, B and C, each working alone, can finish a piece of work in 27, 33 and 45 days respectively. A starts by working alone for 12 days, then B takes over from A and works for 11 days. At this stage C takes over from B and completes the remaining work. In how many days whole work was completed?
(a) 33 days
(b) 31 days
(c) 39 days
(d) 35 days
(e) 37 days
97. A rectangular garden of length 12 m is surrounded by a 2 m wide path. If the area of the garden is 84 m2 and the cost of gravelling is Rs 8 per m2, what is the total cost of gravelling the path?
(a) Rs 780
(b) Rs 742
(c) Rs 724
(d) Rs 775
(e) Rs 736
98. Train A, travelling a S m/sec, can cross a platform double its length in 21 seconds. The same train, travelling at S + 5 m/sec, can cross the same platform in 18 seconds. What is the value of S?
(a) 27.5 m/sec
(b) 32.5 m/sec
(c) 30 m/sec
(d) 35 m/sec
(e) 25 m/sec
99. The present age of Charu is 2.5 times the present age of Harsh. Had Harsh been two years younger and Charu been 13 years older, Charu’s age would have been 3.5 times Harsh’s age. What is Harsh’s present age?
(a) 48 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 28 years
(e) 36 years
100. Divide 27 into two parts so that 5 times the first and 11 times the second together equal to 195. Then ratio of the first and second part is
(a) 17 : 10
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 7
(d) 5 : 4
(e) 5 : 2
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