SSC Sub-Inspector (Delhi Police/BSF/SSB/CRPF/ITBP) and Assistant Sub-Inspector (CISF) Preliminary Examination Held on July 7, 2017
Part A General Intelligence and Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
1. Pen : Write : : ? : ?
(a) Erase : Rubber
(b) Cup : Liquid
(c) Pencil : Wood
(d) Knife : Cut
2. Create : Destroy : : ? : ?
(a) Thin : Small
(b) Long : Short
(c) Fat : Huge
(d) Long : Topmost
3. SNOP : ONSP : : CLAY : ?
(a) ALCY
(b) LCYA
(c) LYCA
(d) ACLY
4. PAN : TDM : : ? : ?
(a) GIL : KMG
(b) HOT : KLG
(c) MAN : PAM
(d) SIP : WLO
5. 23: 72 : : 38 : ?
(a) 110
(b) 117
(c) 123
(d) 112
6. 62 : 145 : : ? : ?
(a) 79 : 168
(b) 119 : 226
(c) 167 : 291
(d) 34 : 122
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-11) In the following questions, select the odd word/letters/number from the given alternative.
7.
(a) sea
(b) River
(c) Ocean
(d) Swimming Pool
8.
(a) Red
(b) White
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
9.
(a) NQTW
(b) PSVZ
(c) WZCF
(d) BEHK
10.
(a) XTCG
(b) NJMQ
(c) EAUZ
(d) SOHL
11.
(a) 61
(b) 51
(c) 97
(d) 89
12. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives
(a) 13-2028
(b) 11-12110
(c) 7-336
(d) 9-648
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-14) Arrange the given words in the sentence in which they occur in the dictionary.
13. Mobile 2. Mandate 3. Mandarin 4. Monkey 5. Master
(a) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
(d) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
14. 1. Drink 2. Drinking 3. Drive 4. Dictionary 5. Dracula
(a) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
(c) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(d) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
15. In the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
………ml…..nl……….mlm……. I …. mlmn ……..
(a) nnmmll
(b) nmlnml
(c) mnlnlm
(d) nmnnnl
16. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
FGC, HHA, JIY, ?
(a) KKW
(b) LJW
(c) LKX
(d) KJX
Directions (Q. Nos. 17-18) In the following questions, select the missing number from the given series.
17. 2 6 4 9 8 13 16 18 32 ?
(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 22
(d) 28
18. 534 543 559 584 620 ?
(a) 648
(b) 676
(c) 669
(d) 671
19. The ratio of present ages of Sumit and Amit is 3 : 4. If the age of Sumit 20 years hence will be 62 years, then what is the present age of Amit?
(a) 56 yr
(b) 64 yr
(c) 60 yr
(d) 52 yr
20. In al line of boys Aman is 12th from top and Baman is 18th from bottom. If there are 6 boys between Aman and Baman, then how many maximum boys are there in the row?
(a) 34
(b) 36
(c) 35
(d) 37
21. 6 boys, P, Q, R, S, T and U are standing in a row facing North. P and Q cannot be either at 1st or 2nd place. R and S will always be together and R must be at one of the ends. R doesn’t have S to his right. Who is standing on the West end?
(a) S
(b) S or U
(c) T
(d) T or U
Directions (22-23) In the following questions, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
22. BLENDING
(a) BLEND
(b) BALD
(c) LEND
(d) BINGE
23. TRADITIONAL
(a) NATIONAL
(b) TRAIN
(c) LAND
(d) RATION
24. In a certain code language, UPDATE is written a FRWCRY and GREATS is written as GTIQRY. How is BLENDY written in that code language?
(a) DMGWBL
(b) CJZAFP
(c) ZJCPFA
(d) GNDWBL
25. In a certain code language, FRAME is written as OUGVH and STONY is written as IVUXU. How is RESTS written in that code language?
(a) CBYIT
(b) ABDHS
(c) EAZHS
(d) EAZIT
26. If + denotes ‘multiplied by’, − denotes ‘added to’, × denotes ‘divided by’ and ÷ denotes ‘subtracted from’, then which of the following equation is true?
(a) 30 ÷ 8 × 4 – 6 + 1 = 32
(b) 8 + 5 – 20 × 4 ÷ 6 = 41
(c) 12 – 12 ÷ 6 × 6 + 3 = 21
(d) 6 + 7 ×3 – 4 ÷ 6 = 26
27. In the following question, by using which mathematical operators will the expression become correct?
35 ? 5 ? 10 ? 15 ? 4
(a) ÷, +, = and ×
(b) ×, ÷, > and ×
(c) ÷, ×, > and ×
(d) ÷, ×, < and +
28. If 34 × 15 = 495 and 43 × 12 = 504, then 98 × 17 = ?
(a) 1649
(b) 1683
(c) 1763
(d) 1751
29. If 26(52) 8 and 48(192) 16, then what is the value of ‘A’ in A (175) 14?
(a) 50
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 40
30. If 64 + 7 = 460 and 25 +8 = 212, then 43 + 8 = ?
(a) 360
(b) 376
(c) 332
(d) 356
31. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from the given alternatives.
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 8
32. Find the missing number from the given options :
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 19
33. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 15
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-35) In each of the following questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusion. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
34. Statements I. All gapes are green.
II. Some green are hard.
Conclusions
I. Some green are grapes.
II. Some hard are grapes.
III. No grape is hard.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) conclusions I and II follow
(c) conclusions I and III follow
(d) All conclusions follow
35. Statements
I. All cars are black.
II. No black is shining.
Conclusions
I. Some cars are shining.
II. No car is shining.
III. No shining is car.
(a) conclusions I and II Follow
(b) conclusions II and III follow
(c) conclusions I and III follow
(d) All conclusions follow
36. Two position of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘9’?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 4 or 6
37. Which number is wrong in the give series?
7, 56, 447, 3584, 28672
(a) 3584
(b) 56
(c) 7
(d) 447
38. Find the missing number of series from the given alternatives.
1, 4, 2, 3, 2, ?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4
Directions (39-40) Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
39. Tree, Branches, Root
40. Shirt, Trouser, Clothes
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-42) Which answer figure will complete will complete the pattern in the question figure?
41. Question Figure
Answer Figure
42. Question Figure
Answer Figure
Directions (Q. Nos. 43-44) From the given answer figure, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
43. Question Figure
Answer Figure
44. Question Figure
Answer Figure
Directions (45-46) A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown be answer figures, indicate how it willow in the question figures. From the given appear when opened?
45. Question Figures
Answer Figures
46. Question Figures
Answer Figures
47. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figured.
Question Figure
48. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
49. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 10, 22, etc., and ‘O’ can be represented by 56, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘HALT’.
(a) 40, 03, 76, 24
(b) 21, 41, 68, 13
(c) 12, 14, 69, 00
(d) 34, 41, 87, 31
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘V’ can be represented by 31, 44, etc., and ‘D’ can be represented by 67, 86 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘GLOW’.
(a) 56, 89, 01, 04
(b) 68, 78, 21, 42
(c) 87, 65, 22, 41
(d) 95, 57, 13, 33
Part B General Knowledge and General Awareness
51. Which among the following comes under tertiary sector of Indian Economy?
(a) Cloth Industry
(b) Transport of goods
(c) Diary
(d) Sugar Industry
52. ……….. publishes Economic Survey in India.
(a) Government of India
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Prime Minister of India
53. In which economic system the government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society?
(a) Socialist
(b) Mixed
(c) Capitalist
(d) Traditional
54. 1 Rupee note bears the signature of whom?
(a) Government of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Finance Secretary of India
(d) Prime Minister of India
55. Which five years plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Eight Five Year Plan
(d) Ninth Five Year Plan
56. A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of the normal administration justice is called as
(a) Coup
(b) Strike
(c) Martial law
(d) Political prisoner
57. Who among the following is the most important political institution in a democratic country?
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
58. Which kind of decisions are usually based on careful calculation of gains and losses?
(a) Moral
(b) Socialist
(c) Prudential
(d) Ethnic
59. Emergency provisions in Indian Constitution has been taken from
(a) British Constitution
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) Japanese Constitution
60. Match the following
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3
(c) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1
(d) A – 3; B – 1; C – 2
61. Which of the following can be amended by special majority?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Rules of Procedure in Parliament
(c) Admission of new State
(d) Use of English language in Parliament
62. For how much time Financial Emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) 6 months
(b) 12 months
(c) 24 months
(d) No maximum period
63. Which among the following do not participate in election of the President?
(a) Elected members of both the houses
(b) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of State
(c) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry
(d) Nominated members of State Legislative Assemblies
64. In which year (in AD) did Babar invaded India?
(a) 1530
(b) 1520
(c) 1526
(d) 1550
65. Which among the following metal was not found in Harappan civilization?
(a) Gold
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Iron
66. Who built Red Fort?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
67. In whose reign Hiuen-Tsang visited India?
(a) Jalauddin
(b) Harshvardhana
(c) Jahangir
(d) Pandayas
68. Set events in choronological order in which they happened.
1. Sepoy mutiny
2. Vasco-da-Gama Reached India
3. Babur started mughal dynasty
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1
69. Which of the following planet is farthest from Sun?
(a) Saturn
(b) Jupiter
(c) Neptune
(d) Uranus
70. In ocean, where is ‘Benthos’ found?
(a) at bottom of ocean
(b) at upper surface of ocean
(c) in an enclosed area of ocean
(d) along the shore
71. In which continent ‘Great Dividing Range’ is located?
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) Australia
72. ‘Jog falls’ is located on which river?
(a) Narmada
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Sharavati
73. For a time difference of two hours, the longitudinal distance will be equal to
(a) 15°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
74. Where does Amoeba digests its food?
(a) Pseudopodia
(b) Nucleus
(c) Food Vacuole
(d) Cell membrane
75. What are female gametes called as?
(a) Zygote
(b) Ova
(c) Sperms
(d) Embryo
76. Which of the following cell organells are present only in plant cell?
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Plastids
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Mitochondria
77. Muscles are connected to bones by connective tissue called as
(a) Tendon
(b) Ligament
(c) Neuron
(d) Adipose
78. India’s first digitalized Panchayat ward situated in which state?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
79. Neurons are part of which system of human body?
(a) Circulatory system
(b) Excretory system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Nervous system
80. Which contact force is responsible for changing the State of motion of an object?
(a) Magnetic force
(b) Frictional force
(c) Muscular force
(d) Electrostatic force
81. According to law of reflection
(a) Angle of incidence is greater than angle of reflection
(b) Angle of incidence is smaller than angle of reflection
(c) Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection
(d) Both angles are always unequal
82. What is the unit of relative density?
(a) kg/m3
(b) g/cm3
(c) mg/mm3
(d) No unit
83. Which law/principle States that when a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it?
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles law
(c) Archimedes principle
(d) Pascal’s law
84. Which among the following is/are not an input devices?
1. Scanner 2. Joystic
3. Plotter
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Both 1 and 2
85. Protocol used for receiving an email is
(a) HTTP
(b) FTP
(c) POP-3
(d) SSH
86. Tartaric Acid is not found in
(a) Tamarind
(b) Grapes
(c) Unripe mangoes
(d) Spinach
87. What is the chemical name of quick lime?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Calcium oxide
(d) Calcium sulphate
88. What is the common name of CaOCl2?
(a) Washing soda
(b) Bleaching powder
(c) Baking powder
(d) Baking soda
89. In a periodic table, while moving from left to right in a period, number of ……… remains same.
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) shells
(d) neutrons
90. Which among the following is an Abiotic component of environment?
(a) Green plants
(b) Non-Green plants
(c) Water
(d) Parasites
91. Cellulose fibers are organic pollutant mainly produced by which Industry/Industries?
1. Mining Industry
2. Soap and detergent Industry
3. Paper and Pulp Industry
(a) Only1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Both 2 and 3
92. Which among the following is not a Rabi crop?
(a) Barley
(b) Wheat
(c) Groundnut
(d) Mustard
93. For which disease, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched ‘Test and Treat’ policy?
(a) Chicken pox
(b) HIV
(c) Polio
(d) Tuberculosis
94. Laser was invented by
(a) AH Taylor
(b) TH Maiman
(c) Lee De Forest
(d) Thomas Edison
95. Twiddle is associated with
(a) Table Tennis
(b) Lawn Tennis
(c) Golf
(d) Swimming
96. ‘Madhubani’ is a famous folk painting form of which Indian State?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
97. Who among the following has been designated as UN messenger of peace?
(a) Gururaja Bhat
(b) Shrinivas Khulkarni
(c) Malala Yousafzai
(d) Emma Watson
98. ‘The Red Sari’ is written by
(a) Mamta Banerjee
(b) Javier Moro
(c) Malala Yousafzai
(d) Neel Mukherjee
99. Which country will host 9th BRICS summit?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) India
100. Which of the following is not a member of Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Mauritius
(c) Afghanistan
(d) India
Part C Quantitative Aptitude
101. How many factors of 108 is/are prime number?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
102. Which of t he following expression (s) is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) All expressions are true
103. Which of the following expression(s) is/are true?
1. 337 is a prime number
2. The number 12 has 6 positive factors.
3. 32724 is completely divisible by 9.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All expressions are true.
104. If the product of two positive numbers be 1575 and their ratio is 7 : 9, then the greater number is
(a) 35
(b) 63
(c) 45
(d) 135
105. What is the value of (1004)2 – (998)2?
(a) 11012
(b) 12012
(c) 120012
(d) 1212
106. A and B together can complete a work in 15 days. They started together but after 5 days A left the work. If the remaining work is completed by B in 15 more days, then A alone can complete the entire work in how many days?
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 35
(d) 45
107. P is 20% more efficient than Q. If Q alone can finish a work in 10 days, then in how many days P alone will finish the work?
(a) 7 days
(b) 8.5 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 12 days
108. The ratio of marked price and cost price of an article is 6 : 5. If 15% discount is given, then how much is the profit?
(a) 4%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 2%
(d) 1%
109. Out of the following, which is the best discount for a customer?
1. 50% + 50% off
2. 60% + 40% off
3. 70% + 30% off
Buy 1 get 4
(a) 1 and 4
(b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
110. If the average of eight consecutive even number be 93, then the greatest number among them is
(a) 86
(b) 98
(c) 100
(d) 102
111. In a mixture, milk and water are in ratio of 2 : 3. Some milk is added to the mixture because of which ratio of milk and water becomes 2 : 1. How much milk was added as a percentage of initial mixture?
(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 80%
(d) 50%
112. The average of marks obtained by A and B is 15 less than that of average marks obtained by B and C. If the marks obtained by C is 65, what is the marks obtained by A?
(a) 35
(b) 50
(c) 65
(d) 80
113. What is the average of squares of first 10 natural numbers?
(a) 55.5
(b) 45.6
(c) 38.5
(d) 40.5
114. Cost price and selling price of an article are in ratio 13 : 9. If the loss incurred on article is Rs 320, what is the sum of cost and selling prices?
(a) Rs 1480
(b) Rs 1620
(c) Rs 1500
(d) Rs 1760
115. By selling 64 apples for Rs 60 a person gains 25%. In order to have 40% loss, how many apples shall he sell for Rs 36?
(a) 80
(b) 70
(c) 60
(d) 50
116. A mixture contains 18% copper by weight. How much mixture is required to obtain 81 kg of copper?
(a) 350 kg
(b) 300 kg
(c) 450 kg
(d) 250 kg
117. A person spends 30% of his income on food, 20% on children’s education and 60% of remaining on house rent. What percent of income is left with him?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 25
118. A man rides his vehicle at the rate of 36 km/h but stops for 12 minutes, to change parts at the end of every 14th km. What will be the timed taken to cover a distance of 90 km?
(a) 6 h 12 min
(b) 2 h 30 min
(c) 3 h 42 miin
(d) 5 h 42 min
119. A walks at a uniform speed of 8 km/h and 8 hours after his start, B starts on his cycle after him at speed of 24 km/h. How far from the starting point will B catch A?
(a) 72 km
(b) 96 km
(c) 120 km
(d) 144 km
120. What is the rate (in percent) of simple interest at which a sum of money becomes three times of itself in 50 years?
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 5%
(d) 8%
121. A sum of Rs 3100 is lent out at simple interest in two parts. One at 8% per annum and another at 6% per annum. If the total annual interest is Rs 212, then what is the money lent at rate of 8%?
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 1250
(c) Rs 1300
(d) Rs 1400
Directions (Q. Nos. 122-125) The bar chart representing the number of first year B.com students of st. Xavier’s college using different companies smartphones. Study bar chart and answer the questions given below.
122. The ratio of number of boys to the number of girls using the smartphones of Samsung and Sony together is
(a) 12 : 13
(b) 13 : 12
(c) 14 : 11
(d) 11 : 14
123. What percentage of boys are using the smartphones of Samsung
(a) 16.52%
(b) 17.52%
(c) 18.52%
(d) 15.52%
124. What percentage of girls are using the smartphones of Nokia
(a) 33.58%
(b) 32.58%
(c) 30.58%
(d) 31.58%
125. The difference between the total number of students using smart phones of Samsung combined together and the total number of students using smart phones of Sony taken together is
(a) 20
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 40
126. If length and breadth of a cuboid is increased by 20%, then by how much percent the height should be reduced to keep the volume same?
(a) 40%
(b) 44%
(c) 36%
(d) 38%
127. The volume of a conical tent is 154 cm3 and the area of its base is 38.5 cm2. What is the length of canvas required to build the tent, if the canvas is 2 cm in width?
(a) 71.35 cm
(b) 68.75 cm
(c) 73.25 cm
(d) 75.75 cm
128. A metallic sphere is melted and moulded to form conical shaped bullets. If radius of the bullet is a twice of its height and radius of bullet is half of the radius of the metallic sphere, then what is the numbers of bullet formed?
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 128
(d) 64
129. A chord of length 24 cm is drawn in a circle of diameter 40 cm. Another chord of length 32 cm is drawn in the same circle parallel to 24 cm long chord. What is the minimum distance between them?
(a) 4 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 3 cm
130. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 50%, then by how much percent its breadth should be reduced to keep the area the same?
(a) 50%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 35%
(d) 40%
131. If 
then x is equal to
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
132. If 
then 
is equal to
(a) 4/3
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 5/3
133. If x3 + 6x2 + 12x = 19, then what is the value of x3?
(a) 8
(b) 27
(c) −1
(d) 1
134. One root of the quadratic equation 5x2 – 6x + 1 = 0 is equal to
(a) 2/5
(b) 3/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 1/5
135. If x2 + 16 = −4x, then what is the value of x3 – 64?
(a) 128
(b) 0
(c) 64
(d) 256
136. PQRS is a rectangle, A , B, C and D are the mid points of sides PQ, QR, RS and PS respectively. If area of ∆PQR is 48 cm2, then what is the area of ∆BCD?
(a) 24 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 16 cm2
(d) 12 cm2
137. If PA is the median of the triangle PQR and G be the centroid, then what is the ratio of (PA + GA) : (PG – GA)?
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 2
138. In a ∆PQR, PD is the median and G is centroid, If PG = 24, then what is the length of PD?
(a) 48 cm
(b) 36 cm
(c) 60 cm
(d) 72 cm
139. The tangents drawn at the point P and Q of a circle centered at O meet at A. If ∠POQ = 120°, then what is the ratio of ∠PAQ : ∠PAO?
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 5 : 2
140. ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB = CD and AD | | BC. AD = 10 cm. If the area of ABCD is 70 cm2, then what is the value of CD?
(a) 5 cm
(b) √29 cm
(c) √41 cm
(d) 6 cm
141. What is the value of sin (30 + x) – cos(60 – x)?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1/2
142. What is the least value of 15 cos2θ + 17sin2θ?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 2
(d) 18
143. If cos x + cos2 x = 1, (sin12 x + 3 sin10 x + 3 sin8 x + sin6 x – 1)
(a) −1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1
144. sinθ cos θ = 1/2, (sin θ = cos θ)2
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
145. α + β = 90° and α : β = 2 : 1, tan α : tan β =
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 1
Directions (146-150) The given pie chart shows the monthly expenditure on various items and monthly saving of a household. The same distribution is followed for all the months of the year.
146. If monthly income is Rs 50000, then how much is spent on fuel?
(a) Rs 12000
(b) Rs 10000
(c) Rs 13500
(d) Rs 15000
147. If monthly income is Rs 65000, then what is the difference between expenditure on household items and Clothing?
(a) Rs 5200
(b) Rs 6500
(c) Rs 7200
(d) Rs 4500
148. If Rs 2400 are saved per month, then what is the monthly salary of the household?
(a) Rs 24000
(b) Rs 20000
(c) Rs 30000
(d) Rs 18000
149. If the difference in monthly expenditure on Fuel and Bills is Rs 4800, then what is the annual income of household?
(a) Rs 660000
(b) Rs 600000
(c) Rs 540000
(d) Rs 480000
150. If the difference in monthly expenditure on clothing and education is Rs 9000, then what is the difference in yearly saving and yearly expenditure on Bills?
(a) Rs 64000
(b) Rs 76000
(c) Rs 36000
(d) Rs 48000
Part D English Comprehension
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error the answer is d i.e., No error (Ignore the error of punctuation if any)
151. Ritu was explain the (a)/ benefits of doing yoga at (b) / least four times a week. (c) No error (d)
152. After 70 years of independent many (a) / socio-economic problem is still (b) /remaining to be solved in India. (c) No error (d)
153. Gurgaon is full of tall buildings which is (a) / its strength as well as weakness (b) / depending upon how one looks at it. (c)/ No error (d)
154. Unless you do not (a) / give up bad habits (b) / you will suffer. (c) No error (d)
155. Vegetables as well as fruits (a) / have fallen considerably (b) / in prices in recent days. (c) No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160) In the following questions, a sentence is given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.
156. Everyone was greatly amazed ……… Rsoshni’s awkward behaviour during the wedding ceremony.
(a) on
(b) at
(c) of
(d) for
157. Deepak agreed …………. all my views but his parents did not.
(a) of
(b) with
(c) on
(d) to
158. It is very hot, you ……… your jackets.
(a) need not bring
(b) need not have brought
(c) need not brought
(d) need not had been brought
159. I do not know where Akansha lives because I have been ……… of touch for quite sometime.
(a) out
(b) hardly
(c) scarcely
(d) her
160. Rahul was ………. with a natural talent for painting.
(a) given
(b) entrusted
(c) showered
(d) endowed
Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the given word in bold.
161. Fatuous
(a) Prudent
(b) Irrational
(c) Senile
(d) Renewal
162. Bustle
(a) Quiet
(b) Fragile
(c) Haste
(d) Gloomy
163. Sauciness
(a) Assistance
(b) Impudence
(c) Meekness
(d) Venerate
164. Congruous
(a) Absurd
(b) Balanced
(c) Hidden
(d) Diligent
165. Contradiction
(a) Sanction
(b) Repose
(c) Despicable
(d) Confrontation
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170) In the following questions out of the four alternatives select the word opposite in meaning to the word given in bold.
166. Trivial
(a) Shallow
(b) Profound
(c) Immature
(d) Reckless
167. Flagitious
(a) Immoral
(b) Virtuous
(c) Profligate
(d) Displease
168. Abridge
(a) Stretch
(b) Curtail
(c) Pacify
(d) Violate
169. Solicit
(a) Sanctity
(b) Scorn
(c) Prohibit
(d) Disguise
170. Substantial
(a) Doubtful
(b) Reliable
(c) Florid
(d) Enormous
Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
171. A green horn
(a) An inexperienced man
(b) A dangerous man
(c) Suspicious man
(d) A wise person
172. To paddle once own canoe
(a) Thoughtful
(b) Manage independently
(c) To praise oneself
(d) Working vigorously
173. To keep the pot
(a) To sharper my wits
(b) To be cautious
(c) To keep controversy alive
(d) To repent
174. To beat the air
(a) To settle a dispute
(b) To gamble
(c) To make efforts that are useless
(d) To try to do the impossible
175. Threw a spanner
(a) Reverie
(b) Disinterested
(c) Sabotage
(d) Boasting
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-180) Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
176. Sunil didn’t pay any heed to his superior’s instruction, (I did neither).
(a) nor did I
(b) neither didn’t I
(c) I either did
(d) No improvement
177. The Arabian Nights (have been written) by Edward William Lane.
(a) are being written
(b) has been written
(c) have written
(d) No improvement
178. Ashina (hesitated to listen to) what her elder sister was saying.
(a) hesitating to listen to
(b) hesitates in listening to
(c) hesitate listened to
(d) No improvement
179. Nitin assured Ankit that he (would look at) his work while he was on leave.
(a) would over look
(b) would look after
(c) will look
(d) No improvement
180. (When the weather was) cold, I wear monkey cap.
(a) When weather is
(b) Why the weather is
(c) While the weather was
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.
181. Life less objects
(a) Amateur
(b) Inanimate
(c) Alien
(d) Amnesty
182. A court or open space usually rectangular and enclosed by a building
(a) Quadragenarian
(b) Quadrilateral
(c) Quadrangle
(d) Quadruped
183. Bringing about gentle and painless death from incurable disease
(a) Euthanasia
(b) Sty
(c) Canicide
(d) Suicide
184. One who lives on fish
(a) Carnivorous
(b) Baccivorous
(c) Aurivorous
(d) Piscivorous
185. Line at which the Earth or sea and sky seem to meet
(a) Nadir
(b) Zenith
(c) Horizon
(d) Trivet
Directions (Q. Nos. 186-190) In the following questions, four words are given out which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.
186.
(a) Stratagem
(b) Repentence
(c) Corrigendum
(d) Alliteration
187.
(a) Napthalene
(b) Impeccable
(c) Stupefy
(d) Psychiatrist
188.
(a) Fulfil
(b) Wilful
(c) Skelful
(d) Shameful
189.
(a) Sergant
(b) Pedestal
(c) Scavenger
(d) Luminescent
190.
(a) Mellifluence
(b) Centenarian
(c) Plebisite
(d) Analysable
Directions (Q. Nos. 191-195) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.
A …………… is made, not born. The process begins when someone hits upon a bright new way of stating a ………. experience. At what point the remark is an ………….. But it is particularly ……….. as well as catchy, the saying receives wide circulation as verbal coin. Soon it is likely to be ………. from overwork.
191. A ………… is made, not born.
(a) nuance
(b) coinage
(c) cliche
(d) current
192. New way of starting a ………. experience.
(a) common
(b) authentic
(c) mental
(d) rational
193. The remark is an ………….
(a) epigram
(b) epitaph
(c) epilogue
(d) epicenter
194. It is particularly ……….. as well as catchy
(a) vague
(b) apt
(c) ingenuine
(d) emotional
195. Likely to be ……… from overwork.
(a) judged
(b) suffering
(c) overlooked
(d) inducing
Directions (Q. Nos. 196-200) A passage is given with five questions following it. Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given four alternatives.
The rural economy is an important segment of the ecosystem and accounts for around 70% of employment and 50% of GDP with agriculture being the main driver followed by services and manufacturing. It is largely unorganized and hence those working in rural India or consuming in this economy are a different category of economic agents driven by different factors. The economy is quite complex in so far as the fact that cash dominates in terms of transactions and while there has been some intrusion of the use of credit (Kishan) and debit cards and ATMs, dependence on technology driven payments system is limited.
This has hence also become a haven four routing black money both in terms of seeking tax exemptions by channeling funds, to convert to legitimate funds. But a lot of black money gets into land and ‘apparent rural activity’.
Now consider some aspects of this economy and the cash conundrum. Almost all transactions in the mandis (there are above 7000 organized ones and over double the number that is unorganized), are based on cash as it is easy to use. The farmers prefer to receive cash and while some do take in cheques there is a sense of doubt if the counter party in unknown. Hence one reason why electronic mandis is a good idea is that payments can also be made through the electronic mode as all transactions would be e-enabled. The recent demonetization has caused significant distortions as farmer are unable to sell their goods. This has happened just when we are in middle of the kharif harvest which involved rice, soybean, cotton, maize, sugarcane, bajra, besides fruits and vegetables which are all year through. The second issue Indian agriculture is the rabi season which has begun where farmers start sowing their seeds. The issue here is less serious as a large part is backed by credit where the prevalent cash crunch may not matter. It would only be at the margin that farmers may be impacted, and hence the pain here would be secondary.
196. According to the passage, which among the following is the major contributor to India’s GDP growth?
(a) Services
(b) Agriculture
(c) Manufacturing
(d) FDIs
197. What has become a haven for routing black money in India?
(a) Cash transactions over digital cash transactions
(b) Intrusion of credit cards
(c) Prevailing debit cards
(d) Technology driven payment
198. Which among the following is not a kharif crop?
(a) Bajra
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
199. Why does demonetization has lesser impact onto the rabi season?
(a) Due to tax exemptions
(b) Due to digital payments
(c) Due to credit payments
(d) Huge margins
200. Which of the following is not true in regards to rural economy?
(a) It account for major percent in employmenting the people of the country.
(b) It has a technology driven mandis.
(c) Major transactions are based on cash.
(d) Demonetization has caused significant distortions in rural economy especially to farmers.
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