Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Recruitment Examination-2015 Held on November 1, 2015
Part I General Intelligence
1. If in a certain code ONE is coded as 231, FIVE is coded as 9641, then how will be NINE coded?
(a) 3316
(b) 3361
(c) 3613
(d) 3631
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-10) In the following questions, find out the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives
2. Find out the odd pair.
(a) Crayon-Chart
(b) Pencil-Lead
(c) Pen-Ink
(d) Brush-Paint
3. Find out the odd number pair.
(a) (54, 216)
(b) (61, 244)
(c) (24, 96)
(d) (27, 135)
4. Find out the odd word.
(a) Rin
(b) Hamam.
(c) Pears
(d) Cinthol
5. Find out the odd letters
(a) PET
(b) CAP
(c) RFD
(d) TIW
6. Find out the odd letters.
(a) RQPA
(b) STUA
(c) MLKA
(d) HGFA
7. Find out the odd number.
(a) 368127
(b) 876321
(c) 742956
(d) 564327
8. Find out the odd word.
(a) Humming bird
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Crane
(d) Sparrow
9. Find out the odd number pair.
(a) 57-75
(b) 34-43
(c) 15-41
(d) 12-21
10. Find out the odd letters.
(a) LORU
(b) IMQU
(c) WZCF
(d) ADGJ
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-12) In the following questions, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
11. b_ac_cc_cb_ab_ac
(a) cbaba
(b) abbbc
(c) bbaac
(d) aabba
12. _zy_zxy_yxzx_zyx_xy
(a) yxzyz
(b) zxyzy
(c) xyzzy
(d) yzxyx
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-21) In the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
13. Governor : State :: President : ?
(a) Country
(b) Organization
(c) Constituency
(d) District
14. Car :Garrage :: ? : Hangar
(a) Truck
(b) Bus
(c) Train
(d) Aeroplane
15. HIJK : GFED :: NOPQ : ?
(a) FDEC
(b) MLKJ
(c) EFGH
(d) BCDE
16. Heart : Cardiologist : : Brain : ?
(a) Ophthalmologist
(b) Nephrologist
(c) Neurologist
(d) Gyanecologist
17. 235 : 587 : : 435 : ?
(a) 789
(b) 788
(c) 989
(d) 988
18. 17 : 102: : 23 : ?
(a) 216
(b) 413
(c) 112
(d) 138
19. GFEH : RQPS : : LKJM : ?
(a) ONMP
(b) VUWX
(c) LKNM
(d) IHJG
20. CEIM : DGLQ : : FGIO : ?
(a) GLIS
(b) GILS
(c) GMIS
(d) GMSI
21. 4 : 36 :: ? : 49
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Directions (Q. Nos. 22-24) In the following questions, arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
22. (1) P late (2) Plane
(3) Plaster (4) Plasma
(5) Plastic
(a) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
(b) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
23. (1) Intervention (2) Intertwine
(3) Interview (4) Intervene
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
24. (1) Smoulder (2) Smother
(3) Smuggle (4) Smudge
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
25. Raghu jogged 2 km southwards, then the turned right and walked 5 km. He again turned right and walked and jogged 8 km. In which direction was he seen moving last?
(a) West
(b) South
(c) East
(d) North
26. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below :
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-29) In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
27. 1, 16, 81, 256, 625, ?
(a) 1225
(b) 4163
(c) 2225
(d) 1296
28. 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, 61, ?
(a) 85
(b) 81
(c) 77
(d) 91
29. EZ FY XG ?
(a) WH
(b) GW
(c) WG
(d) GW
30. If a means +, b means ×, c means ÷ d means −, then 20a10b45c5d12 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 88
(c) 74
(d) 98
31. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-35) In the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.
32. 
(a) 50
(b) 25
(c) 75
(d) 100
33. 
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 12
34. 
(a) 8
(b) 19
(c) 12
(d) 5
35. 
(a) 5
(b) 1
(c) 10
(d) 12
36. Select the set of symbols which can be fitted correctly in the equation.
5_3_8_4_2 = 21
(a) −, ×, + ÷
(b) +, ×, −, ÷
(c) ×, +, −, ÷
(d) +, ×, +, ÷
37. Identify the answer figure from which pieces given in the question figure have been cut.
38. A watch reads 4 : 30. If the minute hand points East in which direction will the hour hand point?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) North
39. If PNLJ : 2468, then QOKL : ?
(a) 1276
(b) 1367
(c) 1376
(d) 3591
40. In five years, Rs 5000 amounts to Rs 9000. In what time at the same rate will Rs 600 amounts to Rs 900?
(a) 2 yr
(b) 3yr
(c) 6yr
(d) 5yr
41. In the question, two statements are given. You have to answer considering the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Statements
(I) Plants grow from seeds.
(II) Seeds are produced by flowers.
Conclusions
(a) Flowers and seeds are produced by plants.
(b) Seeds are produced by plants.
(c) Plants grow from flowers.
(d) Flowers are produced by plants.
42. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., M can be represented by 01, 10 etc., and A can be represented by 56, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘ROD’.
(a) 58, 66, 78
(b) 56, 66, 86
(c) 67, 96, 57
(d) 58, 69, 65
43. Five students are standing one behind the other in the playground facing the instructor, Malini is behind Anjana, but in front of Gayathri. Meena is in front of Shena, but behind Gayathri. What is the position of Meena?
(a) Extreme last
(b) Extreme first
(c) Second from last
(d) Second from first
44. Find out the incorrect term in the series.
2, 5, 10, 3, 6, 18, 4, 7, 30
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 6
(d) 7
45. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48) In the following questions, unscramble the letters to form a meaningful word. Then find out the correct numerical position of the letters.
47. N I T I F E I N
2 4 5 4 3 6 4 2
(a) 3 2 4 3 5 2 4 6
(b) 4 2 3 4 2 4 5 6
(c) 2 4 3 2 4 2 5 6
(d) 3 2 5 3 5 2 4 6
48. H N R C A B
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 6 5 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 1 5 6 2 3
(c) 6 3 5 2 4 1
(d) 3 5 6 4 1 2
49. In the question, two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements
Creative persons are learned people.
Some doctors are creative persons.
Conclusions
(I) Some creative persons are learned people.
(II) Some learned people are doctors.
(a) Only II
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) Only I
(d) I and II
50. Four positions of a dice are given below :
Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing 4.
(a) 5
(b) 1
(c) 6
(d) 3
Part II English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-54) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given words.
51. Mammoth
(a) Stupendous
(b) Prodigious
(c) Minute
(d) Monumental
52. Abhor
(a) Miss
(b) Hate
(c) Mad
(d) Love
53. Cautious
(a) Thoughtful
(b) Watchful
(c) Careless
(d) Alert
54. Dubious
(a) Assured
(b) Double
(c) Easy
(d) Demise
Directions (Q. Nos. 55-58) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase.
55. A wild goose chase
(a) A desperate effort
(b) A useless effort
(c) A baseless effort
(d) A good effort
56. Men like Vidyasagar and Bhagat Singh are the salt of the Earth.
(a) famous men
(b) makers of the Earth
(c) hardworking men
(d) ideal men
57. There was a definite element of fabrication in the story, but he believed the account hook, line and sinker.
(a) not wholly
(b) a little bit
(c) completely
(d) hardly
58. To eat humble pie.
(a) To pretend to be
(b) To starve humble
(c) To act apologetically
(d) To have a low estimate of oneself
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.
59. The maid confessed to the police that it was she who had taken the diamond ring.
(a) The police were told, “I have taken the diamond ring.”
(b) The maid said, “It is I who took the diamond ring.”
(c) The maid said, “I have stolen the diamond ring.”
(d) The maid told the police. “It is I who have taken the diamond ring.”
60. My father said to me, “Go now”.
(a) My father ordered me to go later.
(b) My father ordered me to go then.
(c) My father ordered me to go now.
(d) My father ordered to go now.
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) In the questions given below the in the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Did the Earth always (i) as it does today? No, (ii) its origin about 4.8 billion years ago, our planet has (iii) a lot of changes. The initial ball of fire (iv) down and the surface slowly (v) solid. Today we (vi) that the Earth’s crust is divided (vii) several plates, (viii) move continuously. Entire continents (ix) been displaced and mountains, islands (x) new seas have been formed or have disappeared.
61. (v)
(a) turned
(b) turning
(c) has turned
(d) turn
62. (ix)
(a) are
(b) had
(c) has
(d) have
63. (ii)
(a) from
(b) since
(c) before
(d) after
64. (x)
(a) but
(b) so
(c) or
(d) and
65. (i)
(a) looking
(b) look
(c) looked
(d) looks
66. (viii)
(a) whose
(b) who
(c) whom
(d) which
67. (vii)
(a) on
(b) to
(c) in
(d) into
68. (iii)
(a) undergo
(b) undergone
(c) undergoes
(d) underwent
69. (vi)
(a) had known
(b) have known
(c) know
(d) knew
70. (iv)
(a) cools
(b) cool
(c) cooled
(d) cooling
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-74) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with on appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate the appropriate answer.
71. The doctor ……………. The woman that her son would recover.
(a) assumed
(b) insured
(c) assured
(d) ensured
72. I have no ………… riches.
(a) desirous of
(b) desire of
(c) desire to
(d) desire for
73. A warm reception was …………. Him.
(a) allied to
(b) accorded to
(c) given for
(d) allotted to
74. He is only an ……… director in the organization but he does hid word sincerely.
(a) honorific
(b) honour
(c) honourable
(d) honorary
Directions (Q. Nos. 75-78) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given words.
75. Luxuriant
(a) Lush
(b) Lovely
(c) Luxurious
(d) Class
76. Malady
(a) Lady
(b) Disease
(c) Parody
(d) Melody
77. Despair
(a) Discourage
(b) Distress
(c) Disrupt
(d) Hopeless
78. Languid
(a) Spirited
(b) Lethargic
(c) Lively
(d) Luxurious
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-80) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
79. Was the question answered?
(a) Did the question get answered?
(b) Did they answer the question?
(c) Was the answer to the question given?
(d) Were they answering the question?
80. He may have left a message for me.
(a) A message may have been left for me.
(b) He might have left a message for me.
(c) A message may have been left for me by him.
(d) A message might be left for me by him.
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-84) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
81. A place where arms and weapons are stored.
(a) Tannery
(b) Arsenal
(c) Kiln
(d) Granary
82. A partner in crime
(a) Assistant
(b) Helper
(c) Accomplice
(d) Alibi
83. A general act of forgiveness or pardon.
(a) Benediction
(b) Emancipation
(c) Amnesty
(d) Gratification
84. One who sells articles at public sales.
(a) Auctioneer
(b) Juggler
(c) Teller
(d) Milliner
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-88) In the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the ‘No improvement’ option.
85. Let you and I go together.
(a) me
(b) my
(c) No improvement
(d) mine
86. He summarily dismissed what his son told him in a fit of rage.
(a) He summarily dismissed in a fit of rage what his son told him.
(b) No improvement
(c) What his son told in a fit of rage he summarily dismissed.
(d) In a fit of rage he summarily dismissed what his son told him.
87. Each and everyone of you are guilty of some crime or the other.
(a) No improvement
(b) Each and each of you are guilty
(c) Everyone are guilty
(d) Each and everyone of you is guilty
88. There were times in his life when he struggled for one square meal a day.
(a) he struggled with one square meal a day.
(b) he keeps struggling for meals.
(c) he struggled one day for food.
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-92) In the following four questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, choose the ‘No error’ option.
89. The flower and the vine are growing well.
(a) are growing well
(b) The flower
(c) and the vine
(d) No error
90. Forty minutes later James return to his family bearing an important piece of news.
(a) Forty minutes later
(b) James return to his family
(c) bearing an important piece of news
(d) No error
91. Tutankhamun’s death mask is still untarnished after thirty four centuries.
(a) Tutankhamun’s death mask
(b) after thirty four centuries
(c) No error
(d) is still untarnished
92. I jumped with the opportunity of going to Kashmir.
(a) No error
(b) with the opportunity
(c) I jumped
(d) of going to Kashmir
Directions (Q. Nos. 93-96) In the following questions, the first and the last part of a sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
93. (1) A social network is
(P) provides a clear way of analyzing
(Q) a set of actors and the
(R) a social structure made up of
(S) dyadic ties between the se actors
(6) the structure of whole social entities.
(a) PQRS
(b) QSPR
(c) RQSP
(d) SPRQ
94. (1) The pilgrimage to Mecca
(P) giving alms
(Q) recognizing Allah as the only God
(R) is one of the five religious duties of each Muslim
(S) along with praying five times a day
(6) and fasting four weeks once a year.
(a) RQPS
(b) RSQP
(c) SQRP
(d) SPQR
95. (1) Some people seem to imagine
(P) and that when you have filled it with anything
(Q) and it becomes as empty
(R) that the human mind is like a bottle\
(S) you pour it out again
(6) as it was before
(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) RSPQ
(d) PRSQ
96. (1) England’s Cath Webb
(P) with her resolution\
(Q) to make sponge cake very day for a year
(R) hit the headlines in January
(S) and give it to a friend, family member or stranger
(6) just to make then smile.
(a) RQSP
(b) RPQS
(c) SPRQ
(d) SRPQ
Directions (Q. Nos. 97-100) In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
97.
(a) Occurrence
(b) Occurance
(c) Ocurrance
(d) Occurrance
98.
(a) Bouganvella
(b) Bougainvillea
(c) Bougenvillea
(d) Bougainvilla
99.
(a) Courteus
(b) Courtoeus
(c) Corutious
(d) Courteous
100.
(a) Dimenutive
(b) Diminutiv
(c) Diminutive
(d) Diminuitive
Part III Quantitative Aptitude
101. A man spends his three months income in four months time. If his monthly income is Rs 1000, then his annual saving is
(a) Rs 3000
(b) Rs 9000
(c) Rs 6000
(d) Rs 4000
102. The length of two parallel chords of a circle of radius 5 cm are 6 cm and 8 cm in the same side of the centre.
(a) 1.5 cm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 2 cm
103. After deducting a commission of 5%, a TV set costs Rs 9595. Its marked price is
(a) Rs 10000
(b) Rs 10074.75
(c) Rs 12000
(d) Rs 10100
104. One-fifth of half of a number is 20. Then 20% of that n umber is
(a) 60
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 80
105. The sum of 
is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
Directions (Q. Nos. 106-109) Study the following histogram and answer the questions.
106. The total number of students on whom this survey was made is
(a) 220
(b) 190
(c) 200
(d) 210
107. The number of students securing marks in the range 90-100, is
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) 20
108. The percentage of students securing marks less than 50, is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
109. The range of marks obtained by maximum number of students, is
(a) 60-70
(b) 80-90
(c) 50-60
(d) 30-40
110. The weight of a container completely filled with water is 2.25 kg. The container weights 0.77 kg when its 0.2 part is filled with water. The weight of the container when 0.4 part of it is filled with water, is
(a) 0.74 kg
(b) 1.14 kg
(c) 1.88 kg
(d) 0.40 kg
111. BE, CF are two medians of ∆ABC and G is their point of intersection. EF cuts AG at O. Ratio of AO : OG is equal to
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
Directions (Q. Nos. 112-116) Read it carefully and answer the questions.
Total cost of production of a firm is Rs 250 lakh. Following pie-charts shows the percentage of costs of production in different purposes.
Letters A, B, C, D represent the following :
A = Cost of raw materials
B = Cost of packing materials
C = Cost of labour
D = Maintenance cost
112. If the production increases to five times of the present cost, then the percentage increase of the cost is
(a) 50%
(b) 500%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
113. If the total maintenance cost increases from Rs 12.5 lakh to Rs 50 lakh, then the percentage increase of the maintenance cost is
(a) 400%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 300%
114. Cost of packing materials and raw materials together amounts to
(a) Rs 137.5 lakh
(b) Rs 162.5 lakh
(c) Rs 87.5 lakh
(d) Rs 175 lakh
115. If the cost of production doubles in a period of three years, then the corresponding maintenance cost will be
(a) Rs 25 lakh
(b) Rs 125 lakh
(c) Rs 12.5 lakh
(d) Rs 75 lakh
116. If the packing cost increases by 2%, then the new packing cost will be
(a) Rs 5 lakh
(b) Rs 62.5 lakh
(c) Rs 1.25 lakh
(d) Rs 63.75 lakh
117. A cand do half of a piece of work in 1 day, whereas B can do full. B can do half the work as C in 1 day. The ratio of their efficiencies of work, is
(a) 2 : 1 : 4
(b) 4 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 2 : 4
118. A bag contains coins of Rs 1.50 paise and 25 paise in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the total value of these coins is Rs 228, then the number of 50 paise coins in that bag was
(a) 96
(b) 112
(c) 124
(d) 144
119. The value of (cos 0° + sin 45° + sin 30°) (sin 90° − cos 45° + cos 60°) is
(a) 3/2
(b) 7/4
(c) 5/4
(d) 3/4
120. If x = a sec θ + b tan θ and y = a tan θ + b sec θ (a ≠ b), then the value of 
is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 1/2
121. The value of sec4A(1− sin4A) – 2tan2 A is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 2
122. AB is a diameter of a circle having centre at O. P is a point on the circumference of the circle. If ∠POA = 120°, then measure of ∠PBO is
(a) 68°
(b) 60°
(c) 75°
(d) 70°
123. If 5 tan A = 4, then the value of 
is
(a) 9/14
(b) 5/6
(c) 7/9
(d) 5/14
124. A low land, 48 m long and 31.5 m broad is raised to 6.5 dm. For this, Earth is remove from a cuboidal hole, 27 m long and 18.2 m broad, dug by the side of the land. The depth of the hole will be
(a) 3 m
(b) 2.2 m
(c) 2.5 m
(d) 2 m
125. Base of a prism of height 10 cm is square. Total surface area of the prism is 192 sq cm. The volume of the prism is
(a) 640 cm3
(b) 160 cm3
(c) 90 cm3
(d) 120 cm3
126. Arvind deposited a sum of money with a bank on January 1, 2012 at 8% simple interest per annum. He received an amount Rs 3144 on August 7, 2012. The money he deposited with the bank was
(a) Rs 3100
(b) Rs 3000
(c) Rs 3080
(d) Rs 2500
127. 15 men can finish a work in 20 days, however it takes 24 women to finish it in 20 days. If 10 men and 8 women undertake to complete the work, then they will take
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 20 days
128. Simplify 
(a) 1.25
(b) 1/5
(c) 0
(d) 2.4
129. Divide 27 into two parts so that 5 times the first and 11 times the second together equal to 195. Then ratio of the first and second parts is
(a) 17 : 10
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 2 : 7
(d) 5 : 4
130. The time required for a sum of money of amount of four times itself at 15% simple interest per annum will be
(a) 30 yr
(b) 20 yr
(c) 10 yr
(d) 15 yr
131. In 2 kg mixture of copper and aluminium, 30% is copper. How much aluminium powder should be added to the mixture so that the proportion of copper becomes 20%?
(a) 800 gm
(b) 1200 gm
(c) 1000 gm
(d) 900 gm
132. A vendor purchased 40 dozen bananas for Rs 250. Out of these 30 bananas were rotten and could not be sold. At what rate per dozen should he sell the remaining bananas to make a profit of 20%?
(a) Rs 10
(b) Rs 6
(c) Rs 12
(d) Rs 8
133. A discount series of 10%, 20% and 40% is equal to single discount of
(a) 60.28%
(b) 56.8%
(c) 60%
(d) 50%
134. If 
then the value of (1 – a +a2) (1 + a – a2)
(a) 4
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) −4
135. Which one of the following is true?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
136. The average marks of 14 students was 71. It was later found that the marks of one of the students has been wrongly entered as 42 instead of 56 and another as 74 instead of 32. What is the correct average?
(a) 67
(b) 68
(c) 69
(d) 71
137. The radii of a sphere and a right circular cylinder are 3 cm each. If their volumes are equal, then curved surface area of the cylinder is (Assume π = 22/7)
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
138. A man rows 12 km in 5 hours against the stream, the speed of current being 4 km/h. What time will be taken by him to row 15 km with the stream?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
- If x = 5, then the value of the expression x2 – 2 + 1/x2 is
(a) 24/5
(b) 625/24
(c) 24/25
(d) 576/25
140. A right prism has triangular base. If v be the number of vertices, e be the number of edges and f be the number of a faces of the prism. The value of 
is
(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
141. A man rows to a place 60 km distant and back in 13 hours 30 minutes. He finds that he can row 5 km with the stream in the same time as he can row 4 km against the stream. Find the rate of the stream.
(a) 8 km/h
(b) 1/2 km/h
(c) 1 km/h
(d) 10 km/h
142. If x = 2, y = 1 and z = −3, then x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz is equal to
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 0
143. The LCM of two numbers is 12 times their HCF. The sum of the HCF and LCM is 403. If one of the number is 93, then the other is
(a) 120
(b) 124
(c) 116
(d) 112
144. If 2 sin2θ – 3 sin θ + 1 = 0, θ being positive acute angle, then the values of θ are
(a) 45°, 50°
(b) 60°, 55°
(c) 60°, 45°
(d) 30°, 90°
145. Ram, Rahim and Robert started a partnership business investing Rs 30000, Rs 50000 and Rs 40000 respectively. If they made an annual profit of Rs 18504, then the share of Rahim is
(a) Rs 7510
(b) Rs 7710
(c) Rs 7170
(d) Rs 7010
146. ABC is a triangle in which ∠A = 90°. Let P be any point on side AC. If BC = 10 cm, AC = 8 cm and BP = 9 c, then AP =
(a) 2√3 cm
(b) 3√5 cm
(c) 3√3 cm
(d) 2√5 cm
147. Average age of seven persons in a group is 30 years, the average age of five persons of this group is 31 years. What is the average age of the other two persons in the group?
(a) 55 yr
(b) 15 yr
(c) 26 yr
(d) None of these
148. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB is the diameter of the circle. If ∠ACD = 50°, the measure of ∠BAD is
(a) 40°
(b) 140°
(c) 130°
(d) 50°
149. (x3 + y6) (x3 – y6) is equal to
(a) x6 – y12
(b) x9 + y36
(c) x9 – y36
(d) x6 + y12
150. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5, then the measure of the least angle of the triangle is
(a) 18°
(b) 20°
(c) 90°
(d) 36°
Part IV General Awareness
151. According to which Article, State Legislative Council can be created or abolished?
(a) Article-168
(b) Article-170
(c) Article-167
(d) Article-169
152. Television was invented by
(a) JL Baird
(b) Louis Braille
(c) Lawrence
(d) RA Millikan
153. Breath analyzers used by police to test drunken drivers works on the chemical basis of
(a) complexation reactions
(b) acid-base reactions
(c) precipitation reactions
(d) redox reactions
154. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?
(a) Sarod
(b) Veena
(c) Sitar
(d) Violin
155. Which scientist wrote a book called “A brief History of Time”?
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) JL Baird
(d) Pasteur
156. Which country earned the title “The Queen of Seas”?
(a) Italy
(b) Britain
(c) Germany
(d) France
157. Mercury thermometer was invented by
(a) Fahrenheit
(b) Priestley
(c) Galileo
(d) Newton
158. Which gas is responsible for depletion of ozone layer around Earth which protect us from harmful ultra-violet rays?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Chlorofluro carbons
(d) Oxygen
159. Who is the founder of Homeopathy?
(a) Domagk
(b) Hahnemann
(c) Wakesman
(d) Lainnec
160. The Earth is nearest to the Sun on
(a) September 23
(b) March 21
(c) January 3
(d) July 4
161. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution?
(a) Lichen
(b) Pteridophyte
(c) Bryophyte
(d) Algae
162. The first national Park of India is
(a) Simlipal National Park
(b) Corbett National Park
(c) Dachigam Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Hazaribagh National Park
163. The hard enamel layer of teeth is
(a) calcium phosphate
(b) calcium oxide
(c) calcium hydroxy apatite
(d) calcium hydroxide
164. Centre for Ecological Sciences is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Allahabad
(d) Karnal
165. ‘ICMP’ is used for
(a) forwarding
(b) error reporting
(c) addressing
(d) multicasting
166. The two components of an ecosystem are
(a) biotic and abiotic
(b) plants and animals
(c) weeds and microorganisms
(d) plants and light
167. The last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate was the
(a) Khilji dynasty
(b) Slave dynasty
(c) Lodi dynasty
(d) Syed dynasty
168. There are only two metals that are non-silver in colour they are
(a) copper and gold
(b) nickel and zinc
(c) sodium and magnesium
(d) palladium and platinum
169. The lowest temperature is recorded by
(a) alcohol thermometer
(b) maximum reading thermometer
(c) mercurial thermometer
(d) minimum reading thermometer
170. To whom did Allauddin Khilji entrust the mission to conquer South?
(a) Malik Kafur
(b) Shaji Malik
(c) Khizra Khan
(d) Ulugha Khan
171. A plane glass slab is kept over coloured letters, the letter which appears least raised is
(a) green
(b) violet
(c) red
(d) blue
172. Who was the first Delhi Sultan to break the power of the Turkish nobles known as the Chahalgani or the Forty?
(a) Raziya
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(d) Balban
173. Which is the final Appellate Court of Justice?
(a) Civil Court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) District Court
174. Where is Brabourne stadium located?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Kolkata
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
175. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic?
(a) January 26, 1949
(b) November 26, 1951
(c) November 26, 1930
(d) November 26, 1949
176. Of the following rapeseed belongs to
(a) pepper
(b) coffee
(c) linseed
(d) mustard
177. When is Human Rights Day celebrated?
(a) October 10
(b) December 9
(c) December 10
(d) December 12
178. Which of the following is observed as Sports Day every year?
(a) October 2
(b) July 26
(c) August 29
(d) April 22
179. A defect of vision in which the points in one plane of an object appear in focus while those in another plane are out of focus is called
(a) Myopia
(b) Astigmatism
(c) Distortion
(d) Hypermetropia
180. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
181. An electronic path, that sends signals from one part of computer to another, is
(a) Serial Port
(b) Bus
(c) Logic Gate
(d) Modem
182. What is Hawala?
(a) Full details of a subject
(b) Tax evasion
(c) Illegal transactions of foreign exchange
(d) Illegal trading of shares
183. Which of the following regulates the working of share market in India?
(a) MRTP Act
(b) BIFR
(c) FERA
(d) SEBI
184. Mass number is the sum of
(a) Electrons and neutrons
(b) Only protons
(c) Electrons and protons
(d) Protons and neutrons
185. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in
(a) 1945
(b) 1949
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
186. The Great Bath was found at
(a) Lothal
(b) Chanhudaro
(c) Harappa
(d) Mohenjodaro
187. Which of the following species is locally extinct in India?
(a) Siberian Crane
(b) White Bellied Heron
(c) They Gyps vulture
(d) Forest Owlet
188. India’s first Hi-speed Rural Broadband Network has been commissioned in a district of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Telangana
189. Vitamin which provides immunity, is
(a) C
(b) E
(c) A
(d) K
190. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high
(d) low
191. Who was the first to use the term ‘Micro’ and ‘Macro’ in Economics in 1933?
(a) Ragnar Frisch
(b) I. Fischer
(c) James Tobin
(d) Gurly
192. Which of the following works on the basis of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) Helicopter
(b) Aeroplane
(c) Rocket
(d) Jet
193. Penicillin was discovered by
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Ian Fleming
(c) Edward Jenner
(d) Louis Pasteur
194. A sufficiently large scale map indicating the detailed surface features of an area including relief is called
(a) wall map
(b) topographical map
(c) chorographical map
(d) relief map
195. In marine whales, the limbs are modified as
(a) flappers
(b) flippers
(c) slippers
(d) grippers
196. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on
(a) June 16
(b) June 5
(c) August 6
(d) April 7
197. The most stable measure of central tendency is
(a) mean
(b) mode
(c) range
(d) median
198. The system in which the few govern many is known as
(a) oligarchy
(b) autocracy
(c) plutocracy
(d) monarchy
199. Respiration is controlled by …………. part of brain.
(a) olfactory lobes
(b) hypothalamus
(c) medulla oblongata
(d) cerebellum
200. Aggregate Monetary Resources is
(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4
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