ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Vertical velocity often equals or exceeds horizontal velocity in mesoscale meteorological systems.
Reason (R) : Rising thermals are susceptible to undergo non-hydrostatic processes such as buoyant acceleration or acceleration through a narrow mountain pass.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
2. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Geostrophic wind velocity is independent of latitude.
Reason (R) : Geostrophic wind velocity is determined by pressure gradient force only.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
3. Mixing height during night is typically in the range
(1) < few hundred metres
(2) 1 km – 2 km
(3) 2 km – 3 km
(4) 3 km – 4 km
4. At a given urban location, the temperature at an elevation of 25 m above ground is 15 °C. If the inversion conditions prevail and the environmental lapse rate is 1.25 °C per 100 m, the temperature at an elevation of 200 m will be
(1) 12.5 °C
(2) 17.5 °C
(3) 12.75 °C
(4) 17.25 °C
5. When the temperature of the atmosphere falls at a rate greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, the atmosphere is
(1) stable
(2) highly stable
(3) unstable
(4) conditionally unstable
6. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is
(1) net rate of carbon gain by the plant after respiration losses.
(2) total energy used to convert the sugar during growth.
(3) photosynthetic fixation rate of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
(4) rate of release of oxygen through respiration of a plant.
7. The oxygen atom species, which reacts with water to form hydroxyl radical, is produced by the photodissociation of
(1) O2
(2) O3
(3) NO2
(4) H2O
8. Match the List – I and List – II given below :
9. Identify the incorrect statement about carbon isotopes :
(1) C-13 is less abundant in vegetation than in oceans.
(2) C-12 is most abundant in nature.
(3) C-14 is absent in fossil fuels.
(4) C-13 is used for carbon-dating.
10. Among the following insecticides, which one is relatively more soluble in water ?
(1) Aldicarb
(2) Carbaryl
(3) Malathion
(4) Aldrin
11. At 25 °C, hydrogen ion concentration in an environmental aqueous solution is found to be 5 × 10–4 mol L–1. This implies that the concentration of hydroxyl ions is
(1) 2 × 10–3 mol L–1
(2) 1 × 10–7 mol L–1
(3) 2 × 10–11 mol L–1
(4) 2 × 10–19 mol L–1
12. Identify the incorrect statement about humus.
(1) Humus acts as a reservoir of nitrogen for plants.
(2) By decaying, humus supplies nitrogen to plants.
(3) Its rate of decay and rate of nitrogen release follow plant growth.
(4) Rate of nitrogen release to plants is slow during warm growing season and fast during winter months.
13. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
14. A textile industry effluent containing 1 × 10–6 mol L–1 of an organic dye has 0.6 absorbance in a cell of 1.0 cm path length. The molar extinction coefficient of the dye is
(1) 6 × 104 L mol–1 cm–1
(2) 6 × 10–7 L mol–1 cm–1
(3) 1.66 × 10–5 L mol–1 cm–1
(4) 6.0 × 106 L mol–1 cm–1
15. Characteristics of successful invasive plant species are :
a. Rapid growth and early flowering.
b. High phenotypic plasticity
c. Production of large number of seeds
Choose the correct answer :
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) b and c only
(4) a, b and c
16. Drugs that prevent the formation of bacterial cell wall are
(1) Quinolones
(2) Beta-lactams
(3) Tetracyclines
(4) Aminoglycocides
17. As a result of El Nino, it has been observed that phytoplankton productivity increases in Eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia and Gulf of Mexico. This increase is probably due to
(a) Increased rainfall
(b) More nutrient inflow
(c) Turbulence in surface waters
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
18. Vermi composting process depends on
(a) Quality of organic resources
(b) Types of earthworms
(c) Moisture content of the organic wastes
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
19. Photosynthesis in plants is associated with
(a) decrease in entropy
(b) increase in entropy
(c) increase in Gibbs free energy
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
20. The predominant bioparticulate allergens in the air are
(1) Insect debris and house dust mites
(2) Pollen grains and fungal spores
(3) Animal dander and house dust
(4) Wool particles and cockroach calyx
21. The enhancement of the fitness of a recipient individual by acts that reduce the evolutionary fitness of the donor individual is
(1) Amensalism
(2) Altruism
(3) Commonsalism
(4) Parasitism
22. The greater proportion of the edges in a national park indicates a
(a) less functional habitat
(b) highly functional habitat
(c) degraded habitat
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and
(c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
23. The change in species composition that is imposed by factors external to the biotic community is known as
(1) Autogenic succession
(2) Allogenic succession
(3) Xerarch
(4) Hydrarch
24. Which ecosystem type produces maximum litter mass ?
(1) Tropical rain forest
(2) Tropical seasonal forest
(3) Temperate deciduous forest
(4) Boreal forest
25. Cyclomorphism is a phenomenon observed in certain planktonic crustaceans and is generally attributed as a response to
(a) changes in environmental variables of water.
(b) ensure adaptive significance.
(c) growth, reproduction and sudden genetic change
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
26. Microbes in the environment are likely to be
I. living in biofilms on surfaces.
II. non-culturable
III. living solitary and planktonic lines
Choose the correct code :
(1) I only
(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I and II only
27. Which magma type contains the greatest amount of silica ?
(1) Basaltic
(2) Andesitic
(3) Rhyolitic
(4) Peridotic
28. Match the List – I and List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
29. Which group of following factors determine the discharge of a stream ?
(1) Width, length and depth
(2) Width, length and velocity
(3) Width, depth and velocity
(4) Length, depth and run-off
30. Which among the following zones has the highest erosion rate in the journey of a river ?
(1) Head water
(2) Potamon
(3) Mouth
(4) Sediment transforming zone
31. In the decreasing order of hardness on Moh’s scale, choose the correct sequence from the following :
(1) Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite, Talc
(2) Feldspar, Calcite, Talc, Quartz
(3) Talc, Quartz, Feldspar, Calcite
(4) Quartz, Calcite, Feldspar, Talc
32. Wind transport of materials entails the following processes :
I. Saltation
II. Reptation
III. Suspension
IV. Creep
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I, II, III, IV
(2) II, III and IV only
(3) III and IV only
(4) I and II only
33 . According to Darcy’s law for ground water movement, velocity is proportional to
(1) Hydraulic gradient.
(2) Square of hydraulic gradient.
(3) Square root of hydraulic gradient,
(4) Reciprocal of hydraulic gradient.
34. Which of the following types of coal has maximum ash content (%) ?
(1) Anthracite
(2) Sub-Bituminous
(3) Lignite
(4) High volatile Bituminous
35. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The amount of energy available in a single fusion event is small compared to a fission event.
Reason (R) : Isotopes of hydrogen are much lighter than uranium.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
36. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The thermal efficiency of nuclear reactors is lower than that of fossil fuelled steam plants.
Reason (R) : Temperature of water generating stream in a nuclear reactor has relatively lower values compared to fossil fuelled steam plants.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
37. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Natural gas contributes less to smog formation than gasoline.
Reason (R) : Unburnt CH4 molecules are considerably less reactive with respect to the free radical chemistry for smog than the hydrocarbon molecules with more than one C atom.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
38. Consider ocean waves of amplitude 2.0 m and wavelength 200 m. Assuming the gravity to be the only active force, the power available per metre perpendicular to the propagation of the wave is
(1) 86.24 kW m–1
(2) 172.48 kW m–1
(3) 344.90 kW m–1
(4) 800.00 kW m–1
39. A wind mill has cross-sectional area 25.0 m2. The wind speed is 6.0 m/s. What will be the power generated by the wind mill in the Betz limit ?
(1) ~ 2.064 kW
(2) ~ 3.483 kW
(3) ~ 11.162 kW
(4) ~ 18.321 kW
40. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The power output from an OTEC system installed at a tropical site is steady.
Reason (R) : At tropical sites, the temperatures of warm surface water and cold water in the depth of ocean hardly vary from season to season.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
41. An electric power plant based on solar energy uses collectors with concentrators which can achieve temperature of about 700 °C to operate a heat engine to generate electricity. If the solar insolation is 1 kW/m2, how much total collector area will be required to supply on average 10 MW of electricity ? (Take ambient air temperature to be 25 °C)
(1) 5.15 × 103 m2
(2) 1.44 × 103 m2
(3) 3.18 × 103 m2
(4) 10.61 × 103 m2
42. The potency factor of CHCl3 is 6.1 × 10–3 kg-day/mg. The concentration in drinking water that would result in 2 × 10–6 risk for a 70-kg man, who drinks 2L/day throughout of his life, is
(1) 11.4 μg/L
(2) 20.6 μg/L
(3) 6 μg/L
(4) 25 μg/L
43. Which of the following compounds used for disinfection of water is not stable but is prepared in situ ?
(1) Cl2
(2) Ca(OCl)2
(3) NaOCl
(4) HOCl
44. Identify the incorrect statement from the following regarding soil pollution by heavy metals :
(1) Soils act as a sink for heavy metals.
(2) Humic materials have great affinity for heavy metal cations.
(3) Humic materials extract heavy metals from soil water by forming complexes.
(4) Complexes formed by humic acids are normally water soluble.
45. A point source of noise produces a sound of 60 dB at a distance of 10 m from it. If the sound is measured at a distance of 40 m, what will be its value ?
(1) 48 dB
(2) 54 dB
(3) 57 dB
(4) 44 dB
46. Identify the incorrect statement with regard to water purification by coagulation.
(1) Particles suspended in water are in colloidal form.
(2) Suspended particles carry a positive charge.
(3) Suspended particles due to similar charge repel each other.
(4) When alum is added it works as a coagulant.
47. In relation to drinking water source without conventional treatment but after disinfection, water parameters and their permissible values are given in the lists given below :
Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Ozone depletion is much less over arctic stratosphere than over Antarctic stratosphere.
Reason (R) : Antarctic atmosphere is on an average about 10 °C cooler than the arctic stratosphere.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
49. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
50. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The ecological restoration is a difficult proposition both in principle and in practice.
Reason (R) : Identity and population sizes of plants and animals once present at a particular site are largely unknown.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
52. During the EIA process under the EIA notification of September 14, 2006, no public hearing is required for
(a) all A’ category projects
(b) all ‘B1’ category projects
(c) all ‘B2’ category projects
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (c) only
53. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Evaporation of surface water is reduced due to black carbon in atmosphere.
Reason (R) : Presence of aerosols having black carbon is responsible for dimming effect.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
54. Match the List – I and List – II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
55. In environmental Impact Assessment, the baseline studies describe the
(1) socio-economic mapping of the area.
(2) consequences of the development activity.
(3) assessment of the risk involved during project implementation.
(4) environmental setting existing in the project area.
56. An ecosystem restoration project should have the outcomes which are
I. Specific
II. Measurable
III. General
IV. Realistic
V. Time bound
Choose the correct code :
(1) I, II, III, V
(2) I, II, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV, V
(4) I, II, III, IV
57. When applied to field populations, Lotka-Volterra equations suffer from the following :
I. Competition coefficients are assumed to be constant.
II. Carrying capacity is assumed to be constant.
III. There are no time lags.
IV. Maximal rate of increase is assumed to be constant.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
58. In a city, the daily per capita inhalation (m3) values of contaminated air over a period of 5 days are 6.3, 6.3, 6.2, 6.4 and 5.8, respectively. The sample mean with standard deviation of the data is
(1) 6.2 + 0.02
(2) 6.2 + 0.23
(3) 6.0 + 0.15
(4) 6.2 + 0.18
59. The population (N) of fish in a pond follows the logistic equation
What is the maximum sustainable yield ?
(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 25
(4) 200
60. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For power stations and polluting industries, tall stacks are installed.
Reason (R) : The maximum ground level concentration of a pollutant released from a stack is inversely proportion to the height of the stack.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
61. Consider a box model for an airshed over a city and assume that the initial concentration of a pollutant is zero and that the air entering the box is clean. If the length of the box is 10 km and the wind speed along the length of the box is 5 m/s, what is the time taken for the pollutant concentration to reach ~ 95% of its final value ?
(1) 1 h 40 minutes
(2) 1 h 7 minutes
(3) 33 minutes 20 seconds
(4) 2 h 13 minutes 20 seconds
62. For a sample size n = 16, the mean
value and standard deviation (S) are found to be 5.667 and 0.934, respectively. If the population mean is μ = 5.2, then t – statistic is
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.47
(3) 1.76
(4) 2.0
63. Which of the following are sources of the greenhouse gas methane (CH4) ?
(a) Coal mining areas
(b) Ruminants
(c) Wetlands
(d) Low land paddy
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
64. Which of the following convention/protocols/treaties is legally binding on the signatory countries ?
(1) Basel Convention
(2) Montreal Protocol
(3) Kyoto Protocol
(4) Paris Agreement
65. For untreated municipal wastewater, BOD/COD ratio is in the range
(1) 1.3 – 3
(2) 0.3 – 0.8
(3) 3.0 – 6.5
(4) > 10
66. Organic wetland soils have
I. High porosity
II. Low density
III. High Ion exchange capacity
IV. Low nutrient availability
Choose the right answer :
(1) I, II, III, IV
(2) II, III, IV only
(3) III, IV only
(4) I, II only
67. Consider following statements about the ozone hole ?
I. Ozone formation and destruction keeps on happening.
II. Ozone destruction rate is higher than its formation rate.
III. Ozone destruction rate is equal to its formation rate.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) I and III only
(4) III only
68. Consider following statements about an estuary :
I. Estuary is the ecotonal region between fresh water and oceanic water.
II. This area is highly productive.
III. This area is highly unproductive.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) III only
(4) I and III only
69. The ionic species, O+, O2+ and N2+are found generally in
(1) Troposphere
(2) Stratosphere
(3) Mesosphere
(4) Heterosphere
70. As part of recently signed international agreement on phasing out synthetic hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), India will start phasing them out from the year
(1) 2019
(2) 2024
(3) 2028
(4) 2032
71. In the tropospheric ozone formation reaction sequence, which of the following chemical species does not act as a catalyst ?
(1) OH
(2) HO2
(3) NO2
(4) O2
72. Which of the following are useful indicators of pollution potential of organic effluents ?
(a) Total Organic Carbon (TOC)
(b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(c) Turbidity
(d) Conductivity
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
73. Which of the following power plants releases radioactive materials as well as hazardous metals such as lead and arsenic under normal operating conditions ?
(1) Nuclear power plant
(2) Solar power installations
(3) Hydro power
(4) Coal based thermal power plants
74. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
75. Match the List-I and List-II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
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