Union Bank of India
Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (1st Shift)
Held on 06-02-2011
Test I
Reasoning Ability
1. In a certain code ‘TRICKS’ is coded as ‘IRTSKC’ and ‘IMAGES’ is coded as ‘AMISEG. How ill ‘PLACED’ be coded in the same code?
(1) ALPECD
(2) APLDEC
(3) APLECD
(4) ALPEDC
(5) ALPDEC
2. The positions of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in the word GATHER is rearranged in the alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
ZXW USR PNM ? FDC
(1) LJI
(2) MKJ
(3) LKI
(4) KIH
(5) MLJ
4. ‘3’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is added to each even digit in the n umber 4972863 and all the numbers thus formed are arranged in ascending order from left to right. Which of t he following digits will be exactly in the middle of the new number thus formed?:
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 7
(5) 9
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Silk
(2) Nylon
(3) Jute
(4) Cotton
(5) Wool
6. If all the letters of the word UTOPIAN are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then each vowel in the word is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will be third from the right?
(1) M
(2) I
(3) J
(4) N
(5) O
7. Amit correctly remembers that last year Asif’s birthday was after 17th but before 28th of May. Devek correctly remembers that last year Asif’s birthday was after 9th but before 19th of May. On which of the following days was Asif’s birthday last year?
(1) 29th
(2) 16th
(3) 15th
(4) 18th
(5) None of these
8. Akash started from Point A and walked 18 m towards North. He then took two consecutive left turns and walked 5 m after taking each turn. He again took a left turn, walked 5 m and reached point B. How far is point A from point B?
(1) 15 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 13 m
(4) 23 m
(5) Cannot be determined
9. Among H, J, K and L, each having different heights, K is taller than L and H. J is not the shortest. Who amongst them is the tallest?
(1) J
(2) K
(3) H
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters UTB using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
H, J, K. L, M and P are sitting in a straight line (not necessarily in the same order) facing North.
(i) H sits third to the left of P.
(ii) P does not sit at an extreme end of the line.
(iii) Only one person sits between M and K.
(iv) K is not an immediate neighbour of H.
(v) J is not an immediate neighbour of H or M.
11. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
12. How many persons sit to the right of H?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Five
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) PL
(2) MP
(3) JP
(4) KM
(5) MH
14. Who sits at the extreme left hand corner of the line?
(1) L
(2) H
(3) J
(4) K
(5) None of the above
15. What is the position of J with respect to M?
(1) Third to the right
(2) Second to the left
(3) Immediately to the right
(4) Third to the left
(5) Second to the right
Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five combinations of number/symbol codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
Letter : F D H U T K A C W R M E Q B P
Number/symbol
code : % 6 # 5 @ 7 3 ⋆ β 8 $ 2 © 9 4
Conditions
(i) If both the second and the fourth elements are vowels, both these are to be coded as the code for the fourth vowel.
(ii) If the group of letters contains only one vowel, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(iii) If first element is a vowel and the last a consonant, then that vowel is to be coded as the code for the letter following it.
16. MFQBEK
(1) 7%92©$
(2) 7%©92$
(3) $%©927
(4) 7%©92$
(5) 7%©927
17. HEQAFK
(1) #3©3%7
(2) #2©%27
(3) #2©37%
(4) 72©3%7
(5) #3©2%7
18. UTDARM
(1) @@638@
(2) @@6$83
(3) $@638@
(4) @@638$
(5) $$638$
19. RPCUDH
(1) 44⋆568
(2) #4⋆568
(3) #46⋆58
(4) #4⋆56#
(5) 84⋆56#
20. AUWDBE
(1) 95β992
(2) 25β693
(3) 3596β2
(4) 35β629
(5) 35β692
Directions (Q. Os. 21 to 25) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below.
C U A B D B C E D E D U A B U A C D E D A D B C A B C E B A B
21. If all the Bs are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from right end of the above arrangement?
(1) E
(2) U
(3) A
(4) D
(5) None of these
22. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in BOLD in the above arrangement each of which has many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
23. How many meaningful words can be formed with the alphabets which are second, fifth and eighth from the left end of the above arrangement?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than five
24. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
(5) More than five
25. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the eighteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
(1) C
(2) U
(3) B
(4) E
(5) A
Directions (Q. Nos. 26 to 30) Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below.
591 462 318 675 924
26. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the difference between the numbers which are second from the left and third from the right?
(1) 144
(2) 462
(3) 129
(4) 357
(5) 84
27. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, how many even numbers will be formed?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
28. If one is added to the third digit of each of the numbers, h ow many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
29. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in ascending order within the number, which of the following will form the highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
(1) 591
(2) 462
(3) 318
(4) 375
(5) 924
30. What will be the resultant if the first digit of the lowest number is multiplied with the third digit of the second highest number?
(1) 15
(2) 27
(3) 20
(4) 56
(5) 24
Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.
31. Statements No post is a mail. All mails are letters. Some posts are offices.
Conclusions
I. Some offices are letters.
II. No letter is a post.
32. Statements All numbers are digits. Some digits are letters. All letters are alphabets.
Conclusions
I. All numbers are alphabets.
II. Atleast some alphabets are digits.
33. Statements Some cells are tissues. All tissues are bones. No bone is a ligament.
Conclusions
I. No ligament is a cell.
II. Atleast some bones are cells.
34. Statements Some schools are colleges. No school is a nursery. All nurseries are playgrounds.
Conclusions
I. No playground is a school.
II. Atleast some colleges are playgrounds.
35. Statements All metals are plastics. All plastics are cloth. All cloth are threads.
Conclusions
I. All metals are threads.
II. All plastics are threads.
Directions (Q. Nos. 36 to 40) Read the information/ statement given in each question carefully and answer the questions.
36. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘H < J’ be definitely true?
(1) G < H ≥ I = J
(2) H > G ≥ I = J
(3) J = I ≥ G > H
(4) H ≥ G > I < J
(5) None of these
37. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘K ≥ L > M ≥ N’ is definitely true?
(1) N ≤ K
(2) K = M
(3) K < N
(4) L ≥ N
(5) None is true
38. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression ‘M ≥ K < T = Q’ is definitely true?
(1) Q < K
(2) M ≥T
(3) M < Q
(4) T = M
(5) None is true
39. Which of the following expressions may not be true if the expression ‘Z ≥Y = W ≤ X’ is definitely true?
(1) W ≤ Z
(2) X ≥Z
(3) Y ≤X
(4) Only (2) and (3)
(5) All are true
40. In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘A > D’ hold true?
(1) A = B < C ≤ D
(2) D ≥ B > C > A
(3) B = D > C ≥ A
(4) A ≥ C > B = D
(5) D ≤ B > A > C
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Test II
Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 75) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
51. 1010 ÷ 10 ÷ 100 = ?
(1) 1.01
(2) 10100
(3) 11.01
(4) 101.1
(5) None of these
52. 62% of 888 – ?% of 350 = 361.56
(1) 54
(2) 64
(3) 36
(4) 48
(5) None of these
53. 106 × 121 – 9423 = ?
(1) 3572
(2) 3413
(3) 3527
(4) 3430
(5) None of these
54. (64)4 × (8)5 ÷ 512 = (8)?
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 12
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. 5% of 720 = ?
(1) 232.6
(2) 226.8
(3) 246.6
(4) 218.8
(5) None of these
56. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
57. 6660 ÷ (48 ×5) = ?
(1) 10
(2) 12.5
(3) 10.1
(4) 11.1
(5) None of these
58. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
59. 6462 + 6022 = ? × 25
(1) 499.36
(2) 494.63
(3) 449.36
(4) 492.63
(5) None of these
60. 22168 + 3142 – 2466 = ? × 40
(1) 517.1
(2) 571.1
(3) 517.7
(4) 571.7
(5) None of these
61. 5 × 14.4 × 7.3 = ?
(1) 1820.68
(2) 1028.68
(3) 1208.88
(4) 1280.88
(5) None of these
62. 4 × ? = 2424 ÷ 5
(1) 212.2
(2) 122.2
(3) 121.2
(4) 112.2
(5) None of these
63. 17% of 333 + ? = 330
(1) 237.93
(2) 237.39
(3) 273.93
(4) 273.39
(5) None of these
64. 23 + 143.35 + 111.11 = ?
(1) 373.96
(2) 377.96
(3) 367.69
(4) 376.79
(5) None of these
65. ?% of 455 – (7)2 = 233.1
(1) 54
(2) 62
(3) 66
(4) 52
(5) None of these
66. 
(1) (13)2
(2) √13
(3) −11
(4) (169)2
(5) None of these
67. ? ÷ 25 × 15 = 5091
(1) 8585
(2) 8455
(3) 8855
(4) 8485
(5) None of these
68. 
(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 256
(4) 4
(5) None of these
69. 46257 – 4325 – 6204 = ?
(1) 37878
(2) 35872
(3) 37528
(4) 35782
(5) None of these
70. 
(1) 1362
(2) 1623
(3) 1326
(4) 1263
(5) None of these
71. 
(1) √64
(2) 64
(3) (64)2
(4) 8
(5) None of these
72. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
73. (36.5 × 4 × 12) ÷ 24 – 27 = ?
(1) 38
(2) 46
(3) 64
(4) 52
(5) None of these
74. 5055 ÷ ? = 337
(1) 25
(2) 18
(3) 12
(4) 20
(5) None of these
75. 
(1) 2401
(2) 49
(3) 7
(4) 14
(5) None of these
76. The area of a square is four-third the area of a rectangle. If area of the square i s 1024 sq cm and the length of the rectangle is 64 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 18 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm
(5) None of these
77. A truck covers a certain distance in 8 h at the speed of 63 km/h. What is the average of a car which travels a distance of 120 km more than the truck in the same time?
(1) 78 km/h
(2) 72 km/h
(3) 84 km/h
(4) 88 km/h
(5) None of these
78. Find the average of the following set of scores.
304, 208, 162, 110, 154, 316, 242, 216
(1) 214
(2) 222
(3) 232
(4) 206
(5) None of these
79. The average age of a man and h is son is 27 yr. The ratio of their ages is 8 : 1 respectively. What will be the son’s age after 6 yr?
(1) 6 yr
(2) 14 yr
(3) 12 yr
(4) 8 yr
(5) None of these
80. In an examination, it is required to get 64% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 440 marks and is declared failed by 9% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(1) 850
(2) 780
(3) 900
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
81. The simple interest accrued in 10 yr on a principle of Rs. 15500 is 120% of the principle. What is the rate of interest per cent per annum?
(1) 12
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
82. What would be the area of a circle whose diameter is 182 cm?
(1) 20662 sq cm
(2) 24184 sq cm
(3) 26026 sq cm
(4) 25864 sq cm
(5) None of these
83. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D respectively is 74. What is product of A and C?
(1) 5183
(2) 5325
(3) 5467
(4) 5775
(5) None of these
84. The average height of four boys was recorded as 156 cm. If the average of the heights of three boys out of the four was 152 cm. What was the height of the fourth boy?
(1) 158 cm
(2) 164 cm
(3) 174 cm
(4) 162 cm
(5) None of these
85. The sum of 25% of a number and 15% of the same number is 144. What is 45% of that number?
(1) 180
(2) 174
(3) 162
(4) 158
(5) None of these
86. 4 women alone can complete a piece of work in 8 days, whereas 4 children alone take 20 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 2 women and 15 children together take to complete the piece of work?
(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 4
(5) None of these
87. Satish got 54 marks in Hindi, 44 marks in Science, 58 marks in Sanskrit, 46 marks in Maths and 42 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 60. How much approximate overall percentage of marks did Satish get?
(1) 72
(2) 87
(3) 68
(4) 75
(5) 81
88. Out of the fractions 
what is the sum of the largest and smallest fractions?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
89. Dipankar sold an item for Rs. 6150 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 25%?
(1) Rs. 8200
(2) Rs. 9850
(3) Rs. 10250
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
90. Bipin’s monthly income is three-fourth Bhushan’s monthly income. Bhushan’s annual income is Rs. 628800. What is Bipin’s annual income? (In some cases, monthly income and in some cases, annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 468600
(2) Rs. 525400
(3) Rs. 448200
(4) Rs. 516800
(5) None of the above
91. Mahesh walks 160 m everyday. How many kilometers will he walk in 4 weeks?
(1) 3.36
(2) 4.48
(3) 6.02
(4) 5.12
(5) None of these
92. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?
(1) 8
(2) 14
(3) 6
(4) 12
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 93 to 95) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
93. 2222 1374 950 738 632 (?)
(1) 569
(2) 583
(3) 597
(4) 579
(5) None of these
94. 8 12 28 64 128 (?)
(1) 272
(2) 228
(3) 186
(4) 192
(5) None of these
95. 14 20 31 47 68 (?)
(1) 88
(2) 94
(3) 98
(4) 86
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 96 to 100) In each of these questions, an equation is given with a question mark (?) in place of a correct symbol. Based on the values on the right hand side and the left hand side of the question mark, you have to decide which of the following symbols will come in place of the question mark.
Give answer (1) if > (greater than)
Give answer (2) if = (equal to)
Give answer (3) if < (lesser than)
Give answer (4) if ≥ (either greater than or equal to)
Give answer (5) if ≤ (either lesser than or equal to)
96. 
97. [276 – {36 – 48}] ? [(12)2 × 2]
98. 
- –[{78 ÷ 156} ÷25] ? – [(2.9 ÷ 2) × 0.5]
100. 
Test III
General Awareness
101. India has recently offered about Rs. 2.5 crore to which of the following countries for improvement of its water bodies?
(1) Sudan
(2) Myanmar
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) Nepal
102. Indian citizen will be able to sell their products in “Broder Haats” to be set up in near future on India’s border with
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Myanmar
(3) Nepal
(4) Bhutan
(5) Bangladesh
103. Which of the following is one of the Important “rates/ratios” decided by the RBI during its periodic policy reviews?
(1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(2) Base Rate
(3) Deposit Rate
(4) Exchange Rate
(5) Deposit to Credit Ratio
104. India recently got elected a non-permanent member of which of the following organizations after a gap of 19 yr?
(1) UNESCO
(2) United Nations Security Council
(3) UNCTAD
(4) World Trade Organization
(5) None of the above
105. Which of the following banks writes in its advertisements “Good people to bank with”?
(1) UCO Bank
(2) United Bank of India
(3) Bank of India
(4) State Bank of India
(5) None of these
106. What is the full form of the abbreviation ‘MFI’, which is mentioned vey frequently in newspapers?
(1) Major Financial Issue
(2) Modified Financial Instructions
(3) Monetary Federations in India
(4) Major Financial Institutions
(5) Micro Finance Institutions
107. Some banks sometimes offer a low market rate of interest on an adjustable rate mortgage to entice borrowers, for some period and subsequently on raise it to market level rates. In Banking sector, this type of double interest rate is popularly known as
(1) Prime lending rate
(2) Below market rate
(3) Bridge loan rate
(4) Teaser rate
(5) None of these
108. Pankaj Advani is a famous
(1) politician
(2) journalist
(3) author
(4) playback singer
(5) sportsman
109. As, we all known ‘Economic Survey’ is presented in the parliament every year, just few days ahead of presentation of the annual budget. Which of the following agencies/organizations compiles ‘Economic Survey’?
(1) Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
(2) Budget Division, Ministry of Finance
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Central Statistical Organization
(5) None of the above
110. Nicolas Sarkozy who was on visit to India is the current President of
(1) Italy
(2) Russia
(3) South Africa
(4) France
(5) Portugal
111. How many Gold Medals India won in XVI Asian Games held in China in November 2010?
(1) 30
(2) 25
(3) 65
(4) 14
(5) None of these
112. Who amongst the following is not a player/sports person?
(1) Manjeet Kaur
(2) Mausam Khatri
(3) Priyanka Chopra
(4) Sushil Kumar
(5) Somdev Devvarman
113. Loans given by banks to Self Help Groups are known as
(1) Business loan
(2) Micro credit
(3) Farm loan
(4) Real estate loan
(5) None of these
114. Which of the following is the capital of Bhutan?
(1) Thimpu
(2) Kathmandu
(3) Seol
(4) Chukha
(5) Naypyidaw
115. Erapalli AS Prasanna’s name is associated with the game of
(1) Hockey
(2) Cricket
(3) Badminton
(4) Golf
(5) Chess
116. David Cameron is the Prime Minister of
(1) Italy
(2) France
(3) United Kingdom
(4) Canada
(5) Russia
117. India recently signed an FTA with the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN). What is FTA?
(1) Fast Trade Agreement
(2) Free Tax Allocation
(3) Free Trade Agreement
(4) Formal Tax Awards
(5) None of the above
118. ‘Ayodhya’ is situated on the bank of which of the following rivers?
(1) Sarayu
(2) Gomati
(3) Ganga
(4) Yamuna
(5) Betwa
119. After recent general election of the Bihar Assembly, who is the new Chief Minister of Bihar?
(1) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(2) Ramvilas Paswan
(3) Nitish Kumar
(4) Rajnath Singh
(5) None of these
120. Which of the following terms is not used in banking?
(1) Advance
(2) Velocity
(3) Blank Cheque
(4) Demand Deposit
(5) Discount
121. Miss Universe Context 2010 was organized in
(1) India
(2) South Korea
(3) USA
(4) China
(5) Vietnam
122. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan alongwith others got Nobel Prize in 2009 for his contribution in the field of
(1) Chemistry
(2) Physics
(3) Literature
(4) Economics
(5) Peace
123. ‘Cryogenic Engines’ are used in the field of
(1) Medical Science
(2) Civil Aviation
(3) Space Research
(4) Nuclear Energy
(5) None of these
124. A major flood caused by Indus river few months back affected about 20 million people mostly by destruction of property, livelihood and infrastructure. This disastrous incidence took place in
(1) Nepal
(2) China
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Pakistan
(5) Myanmar
125. Name of Shobha De is associated with the field of
(1) films
(2) sports
(3) literature
(4) politics
(5) banking
126. Smt Pratibha Patil became the President of India in the year
(1) 2005
(2) 2006
(3) 2007
(4) 2009
(5) 2010
127. Aung San Suu Kyi who was released recently after a long house arrest is a citizen of
(1) China
(2) Myanmar
(3) North Korea
(4) Indonesia
(5) Taiwan
128. Banks in India do not allow a person to deposit which of the following types of money?
(1) Money earned as wages in a foreign country
(2) Money received as gift/donation
(3) Money earned through illegal sources
(4) Foreign currency earned as consultancy charges
(5) All of the above
129. An Indian citizen can become the member of the Lok Sabha if he/she completed minimum age of
(1) 18 yr
(2) 20 yr
(3) 45 yr
(4) 50 yr
(5) None of these
130. YV Reddy retired in September 2008, as the
(1) Financial Advisor to the Prime Minister
(2) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(3) India’s Permanent Representative to UNO
(4) India’s Representative to IMF
(5) Governor, RBI
131. Which of the following is the custodian of the Foreign Exchange of India?
(1) All nationalized banks
(2) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(3) President of India
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) All of the above
132. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Imagining India”?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) RK Narayan
(3) MS Ahluwalia
(4) Nandan Nilekani
(5) Bill Gates
133. Which one of the following is the fastest mean for Bank to Bank transfer of funds?
(1) Demand Drafts
(2) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(3) ATM Service
(4) Pay order
(5) All of the above
134. Which of the following combinations of the musicians and the instrument they play is not correct?
(1) Ram Narain – Violin
(2) Zakir Hussain – Sarod
(3) Shivkumar Sharma – Santoor
(4) Hariprasad Chourasia – Flute
(5) Ravishankar – Sitar
135. Which of the following is not an agricultural product?
(1) Alum
(2) Jute
(3) Sorghum
(4) Ginger
(5) Aloe Vera
136. In the game f Cricket, the person who is given the responsibility of starting and ending the game, giving rulings and all the decisions on the field is called
(1) Umpire
(2) Twelfth man
(3) Goalkeeper
(4) Referee
(5) Manager
137. Who amongst the following was a famous English Poet of good old days?
(1) Einstein
(2) Vasco-da-Gama
(3) Edmund Hillary
(4) Columbus
(5) John Milton
138. Which of the combinations of the author and the book he/she wrote is correct?
(1) Arundhoti Roy – Valley of Dolls
(2) Chetan Bhagat – War and Peace
(3) RK Narayan – God of Small Things
(4) Vikram Seth – A Suitable Boy
(5) VS Naipaul – Story of My Life
139. Which of the following is the capital of Germany?
(1) Paris
(2) Moscow
(3) Berlin
(4) Rome
(5) Frankfort
140. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to provide single point electric connection to people living Below Poverty Line?
(1) ASHA
(2) Kutir Jyoti
(3) MGNREGA
(4) SABLA
(5) None of these
141. The annual budget of which of the following ministries is presented in the Parliament separately from the General Budget of India?
(1) Home Affairs
(2) Commerce
(3) Rural Development
(4) Defence
(5) Railway
142. Which of the following acids is found in milk?
(1) Citric Acid
(2) Acetic Acid
(3) Folic Acid
(4) Lactic Acid
(5) All of these
143. Which of the following is the smallest State in India (area wise)?
(1) Sikkim
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Kerala
(4) Goa
(5) None of these
144. A general increase in the prices of goods and services, in technically known as
(1) Inflation
(2) Gross value
(3) Deflation
(4) Service charge
(5) Product cost
145. Which of the following group of industries is the owner of ‘Hindalco’, a major private sector’s aluminium company in India?
(1) Aditya Birla
(2) Tata
(3) Mittal
(4) Jindal
(5) Goenka
146. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey?
(1) Half Nelson
(2) Centre forward
(3) LBW
(4) Checkmate
(5) Love
147. Who amongst the following is the Chief Justice of India at present?
(1) Justice Sarosh Homi Kapadia
(2) Justice KC Balakrishnan
(3) Justice RS Pathak
(4) Justice HS Bhalla
(5) None of the above
148. Census in India is conducted after a gap of how many years?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20
(5) No fixed term
149. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(1) Rogers Cup
(2) Merdeka Cup
(3) Nehru Cup
(4) DCM Cup
(5) Ranji Trophy
150. What does the letter ‘P’ denotes in the abbreviation ‘PAN’ allotted by the Income Tax Department?
(1) Personal
(2) Private
(3) Peculiar
(4) Payment
(5) Permanent
Test IV
English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 151 to 165) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Long ago, there lived a monkey on a jamun tree by the side of a river. The tree was always full of fruits, which were as a sweet as nectar. The monkey used to eat fruits from the tree. The monkey was happily passing his days jumping from one tree to another. Once, a crocodile came out of the waters and took rest under the tree on which the monkey lived. The monkey who was sitting high on a branch, saw the crocodile taking rest under the tree. Since the monkey had no friend, she was very eager to talk to the crocodile and make friends with him. Addressing the crocodile, the monkey said “As you are taking rest under the tree, you’re my guest and it is my duty to offer you food”. The monkey gave the crocodile jamuns to eat. The crocodile ate them to his fill. He thanked the monkey for his generosity and went home.
Ever since that day the crocodile started coming ashore everyday and enjoyed the fruits offered by the monkey. Soon they become good friends. One day, the crocodile asked the monkey for some jamuns to take for his wife. The monkey happily gave the fruits to the crocodile. The crocodile took the fruits cheerfully to his wife and narrated the whole story to her. After eating the fruits, the crocodile’s wife was overjoyed and said to her husband. “Dear, if these fruits are so tasty, then the monkey who eats these fruits must be ten times tastier. Why don’t you bring the heart of this monkey home and I will cook you a meal with it?” The crocodile was stunned to hear such words from his wife. He replied, “Sweetheart, the monkey is my friend. It would not be fair to take h is heart”. The crocodile’s wife was shrewd and pleaded with her husband to bring the monkey’s heart for her. The crocodile was unwilling to deceive his friend, but then his wife insisted on not eating anything till he brought her the monkey’s heart.
The crocodile was left with no other option and so he devised a plan and rushed to the monkey. Reaching ashore, the crocodile said to the monkey, “My wife and I invite you to our home for dinner. My wife is very angry with me for not having invited you earlier”. He stated that his wife would be happy to meet such a nice friend.
The poor monkey didn’t know about the plan and believed the crocodile’s story. He said to the crocodile, “I accept your invitation, but how ill I go with you? I don’t know how to swim?” The crocodile replied, ‘Don’t worry, come and sit on my back. I’ll take you to my house.” The monkey happily sat on the back of the crocodile and they began their journey. The crocodile entered into the deep waters with an intention to kill the monkey. The monkey got scared to see water all around and asked the crocodile to move slowly.
The crocodile though that now he could reveal his real intentions to the monkey, as it was impossible for him to escape from the middle of the river. The crocodile gullibly said to the monkey, “I am taking you to my home to please my wife. She wants to eat your heart. The monkey was taken aback to hear these words.
He kept cool and aid wittingly, ‘Oh dear! Why didn’t you tell me earlier? It would be my privilege to offer my heart to your charming wife. I usually keep my heart safely in the burrow of the tree. In order to serve my heart to your wife, I have to go back to get my heart.”
The foolish crocodile swiftly swam back to the tree where the monkey lived. ON reaching the bank, the monkey quickly jumped off the crocodile’s back and climbed up the tree. The crocodile was in a hurry and realized that the monkey was taking too long to get his heart. Impatiently he asked, “What is the delay? We are getting late for dinner”. The monkey laughed and answered, “My dear foolish friend, can anyone take out his heart and keep it in a burrow. It was all a trick to save my life and teach you a lesson, now go away and don’t ever come back.”
151. Why did the crocodile invite the monkey to his house?
(1) His wife was curious about his monkey friend
(2) His wife had never met a monkey before
(3) The crocodile wanted to treat the monkey for h is kindness
(4) He wanted the monkey to taste the dish his wife had prepared with the jamuns, the crocodile brought home
(5) His wife wanted to consume the heart of the monkey
152. Why was the crocodile’s wife adamant on having the monkey home?
A. She imagined that the monkey would be tastier than the jamuns.
B. She wanted to lay a feast for the monkey.
C. She wanted to kill the monkey herself.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) None of these
153. Why did the crocodile finally succumb to his wife’s request?
(1) He wanted to have a taste of the monkey’s heart too
(2) He did not want to deprive his wife of the monkey’s heart
(3) He did not care for his friend
(4) His wife refused to eat until the crocodile brought home the monkey’s heart
(5) None of the above
154. Why did the crocodile agree to turn back to the shore?
(1) So that the monkey could go and get his heart from the burrow in the tree
(2) So that the monkey could get him another monkey’s heart
(3) He felt sorry for the monkey
(4) He remembered the monkey’s kindness towards him and could not hurt him
(5) The monkey was scared of drowning into the deep waters as he could not swim
155. Why did the monkey make friends with the crocodile?
A. He wanted to share the fruits of the jamun
B. He was hoping the crocodile would teach him how to swim.
C. He was lonely and had no friends.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
(5) None of the above
156. Which of the following is not true with reference of the passage?
(1) The monkey was lonely
(2) The crocodile and the monkey were best of friends
(3) The crocodile and the monkey more than his wife
(4) The crocodile wanted to please his wife
(5) The crocodile deceived the monkey
157. What trick did the monkey use in order to get away from the crocodile?
(1) He claimed that he already had a dead monkey’s heart in his house
(2) He said that he was scared of the river
(3) He told the crocodile that he left behind the jamuns that he h ad kept ready for the trip
(4) He said that he left behind his heart in a burrow in the tree
(5) None of the above
158. What could be an appropriate moral for this story?
(1) Presence of mind always pays well
(2) The importance of friendship
(3) Generosity always pays back
(4) You get what you deserve
(5) Honesty is the best policy
159. Why did the crocodile reveal is true intention to the monkey before they reached the house?
(1) He wanted the monkey to know that the was going to die
(2) He wanted to make sure that the monkey had a heart
(3) He was sure that the monkey could not escape when he was in the deep waters
(4) He wanted to ask the monkey for forgiveness
(5) He wanted to know if his friend was willing to die for him
160. How did the monkey fell about the crocodile after being deceived by him?
(1) He forgave the crocodile for his ill intentions
(2) He felt that the crocodile was very shrewd
(3) He felt that he should not have extended his friendship to the crocodile
(4) He felt that the crocodile had no mind of his own
(5) He wanted to have nothing to do with the crocodile again
Directions (Q. Nos. 161 to 163) Choose the word which is nearly the same in meaning as the words printed in bold as used in the passage.
161. Fill
(1) Satisfaction
(2) Contend
(3) Brim
(4) Enjoyment
(5) Ease
162. Taken aback
(1) Disappointed
(2) Pleased
(3) Hurt
(4) Shocked
(5) Justified
163. Shrewd
(1) Rude
(2) Deliberate
(3) Cunning
(4) Cautious
(5) Persistent
Directions (Q. Nos. 164 to 166) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the words printed in bold as used in the passage.
164. Poor
(1) Rich
(2) Generous
(3) Fortunate
(4) Lucky
(5) Thrift
165. Eager
(1) Reluctant
(2) Restless
(3) Despair
(4) Provoked
(5) Depressed
Directions (Q. Nos. 166 to 175) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), ie, ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
166. The government propose (1) / to build a dam (2) / for electricity generation and (3) / irrigation purposes. (4) / No Error (5)
167. As soon as the sun (1) / touches the horizon (2) / darkness begins to settle (3) / to the scene. (4) / No Error (5)
168. Have you been less rash, (1) / the party would (2) / not have ended (3) / in a fiasco. (4) / No Error (5)
169. The archers were (1) / a great artist (2) / unless he applies (3) / himself continuously to his art. (4) / No Error (5)
170. No man can become (1) / a great artist (2) / unless he applies (3) / himself continuously to his art. (4) / No Error (5)
171. One of the boys (1) / from the village (2) / was send out into the fields (3) / to look after the sheep. (4) / No Error (5)
172. Once upon a time (1) / there lived a king (2) / who had a favourite (3) / jester in his court. (4) / No Error (5)
173. It is the mad (1) / craze for speed (2) / that is responsible (3) / for much motor accidents. (4) / No Error (5)
174. The king immediately (1) / to give orders that (2) / the thief be (3) / imprisoned for life. (4) / No Error (5)
175. It is useless (1) / to offer bread (2) / to a man who (3) / is dying to thirst. (4) / No Error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 176 to 180) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. The policeman, running with all his speed, was ……….. able to catch the thief.
(1) sparingly
(2) barely
(3) best
(4) graciously
(5) judiciously
177. The curator of the museum ………….. us some ancient coins.
(1) displayed
(2) explained
(3) find
(4) showed
(5) viewed
178. ………… being fined, he was sentenced to a term of imprisonment.
(1) Although
(2) For
(3) Besides
(4) In spite
(5) Though
179. Helen of Troy was ……… beautiful than any other woman.
(1) more
(2) also
(3) as
(4) most
(5) just
180. The country men were ………….. from entering the village.
(1) prohibited
(2) stop
(3) warned
(4) disgraced
(5) plotting
Directions (Q. Nos. 181 to 185) In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5), ie, “All Correct” as the answer.
181.
(1) Gesture
(2) Indicpensable
(3) Explorer
(4) Excuse
(5) All Correct
182.
(1) Field
(2) Journal
(3) Compose
(4) Confidant
(5) All Correct
183.
(1) Centre
(2) Justise
(3) Compromise
(4) Beneficial
(5) All Correct
184.
(1) Coming
(2) Jocking
(3) Tribute
(4) Scene
(5) All Correct
185.
(1) Relaxation
(2) Commute
(3) Jewelery
(4) Decision
(5) All Correct
Directions (Q. Nos. 186 to 190) Rearrange the following six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form, a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. One day the landlord came to collect the rent from Raman.
B. “Oh, I’m not worried about the hymns,” said Raman. “But what if it decided to kneel down and worship him?
C. Raman once lived in a rented house.
D. “Don’t let that worry you, “said the landlord, airily. “Those noises are nothing but he praises the old building is singing to the Almighty.”
E. The building was old and whenever there was a strong wind, its rafters would creak and squeak.
F. Raman took the opportunity to tell him about the alarming noises that the building was making.
186. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) E
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E
(5) D
188. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) A
(5) F
189. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) E
(3) B
(4) F
(5) D
190. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) C
(2) D
(3) F
(4) A
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 191 to 200) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the most appropriate word in each case.
It was the height of summer and everyone was (191) about the heat. Some men actually shook their fists at the sun. This made the sun very angry and he (192) from the world.
The earth (193) cold and dark. People begged the sun’s forgiveness and pleaded with him to come out again, but he (194). The birds decided to send their own emissary and (195) a hen for the mission.
The Hen went to the sun’s palace and (196) him about the hardships everyone was facing because of his absence in the sky. But the sun was unmoved.
“I will never traverse the skies again,” he said.
“You can tell everyone that.”
“That means I will have to go back home in the dark,” said the Hen, (197) defeat. “I’m sure the jungle at is lying in wait for me. I will crow if she attacks me. Please come to my rescue.”
The Hen went some distance and started crowing as loudly as he could. The sun rushed out. He went in (198) of the Hen across the sky but the bird was (199) to be seen. He had hidden himself.
The sun (200) to come out when the Hen crows at dawn. He goes in search of the bird across the word but never finds him.
191.
(1) confident
(2) anxious
(3) tired
(4) awaiting
(5) complaining
192.
(1) withdrew
(2) missing
(3) declined
(4) backwards
(5) backed
193.
(1) stood
(2) feels
(3) became
(4) turns
(5) saw
194.
(1) admitted
(2) decline
(3) revived
(4) refused
(5) rejected
195.
(1) delivered
(2) secured
(3) said
(4) took
(5) chose
196.
(1) say
(2) told
(3) announced
(4) tell
(5) said
197.
(1) cautioning
(2) threatening
(3) enhancing
(4) feeling
(5) admitting
198.
(1) anticipation
(2) solitude
(3) hunting
(4) search
(5) look
199.
(1) nowhere
(2) hardly
(3) disguised
(4) somehow
(5) unworthy
200.
(1) only
(2) continues
(3) still
(4) resurrects
(5) starts
Test V
Computer Knowledge
201. The Internet allows you to
(1) send electronic you to
(2) view Web pages
(3) connect to servers all around the world
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
202. Most application software today comes with an interface called a(n)
(1) graphical user interface
(2) character user interface
(3) icon user interface
(4) button user interface
(5) None of the above
203. Manipulating data to create information is known as
(1) feedback
(2) programming
(3) processing
(4) analysis
(5) None of these
204. A graphic presentation of the sequence of steps needed to solve a programming problem is called a
(1) program flowchart
(2) step chart
(3) rule diagram
(4) program graph
(5) None of the above
205. What happens when you boot up a PC?
(1) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory
(2) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory into Disk
(3) Portions of the operating system are complied
(4) Portions of the operating system are emulated
(5) None of the above
206. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(1) Platform
(2) Interface
(3) Root directory
(4) Device driver
(5) None of these
207. With word wrap, when you type a word that extends into the _________ margin, both the insertion point and the word move automatically to the next line.
(1) top
(2) bottom
(3) right
(4) left
(5) None of these
208. Something which has easily understood instructions is said to be
(1) user friendly
(2) information
(3) word processing
(4) icon
(5) None of these
209. In addition to keying data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a(n)
(1) input form
(2) table
(3) field
(4) data dictionary
(5) None of these
210. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called
(1) information engines
(2) search engines
(3) web browsers
(4) resource locators
(5) None of these
211. ________ shows the files, folders and drives on your computer, making it easy to navigate from one location to another within the file hierarchy.
(1) Microsoft Internet Explorer
(2) Windows Explorer
(3) My Computer
(4) Folders Manager
(5) None of the above
212. What is the most common way to get a virus in your computer’s hard disk?
(1) By installing games from their CD ROMS
(2) By uploading pictures from mobile phones to the computer
(3) By opening emails
(4) By sending emails
(5) None of the above
213. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ______ command.
(1) Replace
(2) Find
(3) Lookup
(4) Search
(5) None of these
214. In order to email, a Word document from within Word
(1) Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient
(2) Save the file as an email attachment
(3) Start Outlook and attach the file while
(4) This is an impossible operation open in Word
(5) None of the above
215. Hardware includes
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage
(5) None of the above
216. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the
(1) Recycle bin
(2) Floppy disk
(3) Clipboard
(4) Motherboard
(5) None of these
217. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as
(1) pulling
(2) pushing
(3) downloading
(4) transferring
(5) None of these
218. What type of software is most useful for the creation of brochures, posters and newsletters?
(1) Spreadsheet software
(2) Web authoring software
(3) Multimedia authoring software
(4) Desktop publishing software
(5) None of the above
219. In order to save an existing document with a different name you need to
(1) Retype the document and give it a different name
(2) Use the Save as………. command
(3) Copy and paste the original document to a new document and then save
(4) Use Windows Explorer to coy the document to a different location and then rename it
(5) None of the above
220. A(n)________ is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(1) application
(2) utility
(3) network
(4) operating system
(5) None of the above
221. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network is
(1) desktop
(2) network station
(3) network client
(4) network server
(5) None of the above
222. Arithmetic operations
(1) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to or less than the other item
(2) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order of descending order
(3) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(4) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(5) None of the above
223. A chat is
(1) an Internet standard that allows users to upload and download files
(2) a typed conversation that takes place on a computer
(3) an online area in which users conduct written discussions about a particular subject
(4) the transmission of messages and files via a computer network
(5) None of the above
224. _________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(1) GUIs
(2) Icons
(3) Menus
(4) Windows
(5) None of these
225. The Internet is _______
(1) a large network of networks
(2) an internal communication system for a business
(3) a communication system for the Indian government
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
226. The __________ key and the ________ key can be used combination with other keys to perform shortcuts and special tasks.
(1) control, alt
(2) function, toggle
(3) delete, insert
(4) caps lock, num lock
(5) None of the above
227. Each _________ on a menu performs a specific action.
(1) client
(2) server
(3) node
(4) command
(5) None of these
228. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks expect______.
(1) hackers
(2) spam
(3) viruses
(4) identity theft
(5) None of the above
229. What is the backup?
(1) Restoring the information backup
(2) An exact copy of a system’s information
(3) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
230. A(n) ____________ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(1) command-based user interface
(2) GUI
(3) system utility
(4) API
(5) None of the above
231. The __________ becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.
(1) active tab
(2) insertion point
(3) mouse pointer
(4) ribbon
(5) None of these
232. _________ are symbols that represent any character or combination of characters.
(1) Playing cards
(2) Wildcards
(3) Private keys
(4) Public keys
(5) None of these
233. The _________ allows you to access objects and start programs.
(1) Default menu
(2) XP menu
(3) Start menu
(4) Stop menu
(5) None of these
234. A ________ includes the file name and possibly a directory or folder.
(1) file information packet
(2) file button
(3) file directory
(4) file specification
(5) None of the above
235. A(n) _______ is a special visual and audio effect applied to text or content.
(1) animation
(2) flash
(3) wipe
(4) dissolve
(5) None of these
236. The _____ provides easy access to frequently used commands.
(1) Command toolbar
(2) Quick Access toolbar
(3) Standard toolbar
(4) Shortcut toolbar
(5) None of the above
237. The _________ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(1) documentation
(2) programming
(3) technical
(4) user
(5) None of these
238. The ________ feature in Word automatically corrects certain spelling, typing, capitalization or grammar errors.
(1) Auto Fix
(2) Auto Spell
(3) Auto Mark
(4) Auto Correct
(5) None of these
239. Which of the following is TRUE?
(1) Byte consist one digit in binary number
(2) Bit represents the grouping of digital numbers
(3) Eight digit binary number is called byte
(4) Eight digit binary number is called bit
(5) None of the above
240. What is dumb terminal?
(1) Micro computer
(2) Terminal with no intelligence
(3) Central computer
(4) Terminal with CPU
(5) None of the above
241. Which of the following deals with the use of data collecting and sing about persons?
(1) Access
(2) Privacy
(3) Accuracy
(4) Property
(5) None of these
242. What is device driver?
(1) Tynee Power Card for External Storage devices
(2) Specialist, who know to maximize the function of devices.
(3) Small program with special purpose
(4) Most internal parts of operating system
(5) Substitute of Operating Systems
243. It is an special program, which processes the statements written in a particular programming language and change that into machine language or code, used b y the computer processor.
(1) Compiler
(2) Loader
(3) Instruction
(4) Problem program
(5) Logic gate
244. Which is used to store a large number of files in a small space?
(1) Compatibility
(2) Width
(3) Compression
(4) Instruction set
(5) None of these
245. Which is the biggest unit of storage?
(1) GB
(2) KB
(3) MB
(4) TB
(5) None of these
246. When a hard disk crashes, which type of computer protection danger is this called?
(1) Natural danger
(2) Criminal
(3) Failure of technology
(4) Civil dispute
(5) None of these
247. What is called content of disk, that is recorded during its creation and which cannot be changed or deleted b y the user?
(1) Memory only
(2) Write only
(3) Read only
(4) Run only
(5) None of the above
248. It is a medium to capture image (drawing or photo), which can be stored in computer.
(1) Modem
(2) Software
(3) Scanner
(4) Key Board
(5) Mouse
249. Which process examines to ensure that the components of computer are operating and connected properly?
(1) Booting
(2) Processing
(3) Saving
(4) Editing
(5) None of these
250. The process to copy software programme into hard disk from a secondary storage media is called?
(1) Configuration
(2) Download
(3) Storage
(4) Upload
(5) Installation
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