Union Public Service Commission
Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner Exam
2016 Question Paper (Full Solved)
General Ability Test
1. Walking at 3/4th of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes late. What is the time taken by him to reach the office at his usual speed?
(a) 80 minutes
(b) 70 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 50 minutes
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana:
1. It is applicable for all bank account holder sup to the age of 60 years.
2. It is a life insurance over.
3. It is an accident insurance cover.
4. The insurance covers death and permanent disability due to accident.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
3. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of 50 m and still beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs at 8 km/h, what is the speed of B?
(a) 4.4 km/h
(b) 5.4 km/h
(c) 6.4 km/h
(d) 7.4 km/h
4. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and B can beat C by 50 m. With how much distance can A beat C in a 0.5 km race?
(a) 42 m
(b) 43 m
(c) 44 m
(d) 45 m
5. In an office, 40% of the employees are men and the rest women. Half of the employees are tall and half short If 10% of the employees are men and, short, and 40 employees are women and tall, the number of tall men employees is
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 40
(d) 30
6. Which of the following were the main aspects of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. To take part in the then forthcoming Simla Conference.
3. Pay taxes for the period of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
4. Release of Political Prisoners.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
7. Which of the following is not an absolute measure of dispersion?
(a) Range
(b) Mean Deviation
(c) Quartile Deviation
(d) Coefficient of Variation
8. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25 kg of rice worth Rs. 32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth Rs. 35/kg and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit. What is the selling price of the mixed rice?
(a) Rs. 35.40/kg
(b) Rs. 38.33/kg
(c) Rs. 36.50/kg
(d) Rs. 37.42/kg
9. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD on open ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m wide along BC. Concreted pathways are intended to be laid on the inside of the plot all around the sides. The pathways along BC and DA are each 4 m wide. The pathways along AB and DC will mutually be of equal widths such that the un-concreted internal plot will measure three-fourth of the original area of the plot ABCD. What will be the width of each of these pathways along AB and DC?
(a) 3 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 6 m
10. At a dinner party, every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of dal among them and every four guests used a bowl of curd among them. There are altogether 65 bowls. What is the number of guests p resent at the party?
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
11. Social Security may provide cash benefits to persons faced with
1. Sickness and disability.
2. Unemployment
3. Crop failure
4. Loss of the marital partner
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. If 5 men or 9 women can finish a piece of work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in
(a) 12 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 15 days
13. If the radius of a circle is reduced by 50%, its area will be reduced by
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
14. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 covers factors like
1. Factories and establishments with 10 or more employees.
2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to employees and their families.
3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness and maternity.
4. Monthly payments in case of death or disablement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana :
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age group of 18 years.
2. The premium is deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto debit facility’.
3. The life insurance worth is decided by the account holder and he has to pay the annual premium accordingly.
4. The life insurance amount is given to the family after the death of the subscriber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
16. In an examination paper where maximum marks are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got 25% marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less than D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
(a) 65%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Directions (Qs. 17 to 20) : Each of these questions consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
17. Statement (I) : The effects of an income tax on consumption, saving and investment are micro effects.
Statement (II) : Income tax is an example of direct tax.
18. Statement (I) : Trade between two countries takes place on account of difference in costs.
Statement (II) : Different countries have different factor endowments.
19. Statement (I) : Foreign investments may effect a country’s export performance.
Statement (II) : Inflow of foreign exchange may cause appreciation of local currency leading to a rise in the price of export commodities.
20. Statement (I) : Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
Statement (II): Members of Parliament, eminent persons from industry and trade are the members of the Public Accounts Committee.
21. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and their respective average marks are found to be 55 and 58. The average marks of the entire class are
(a) 56.5
(b) 56.6
(c) 56.7
(d) 56.8
22. Consider an industry with the following features:
• Budgeted month fixed cost – Rs. 2,20,000
• Normal monthly output = Rs. 12000 per standard labour hour
• Standard variable overhead rate = Rs. 25 per labour hour
What would be the total factory overhead rate?
(a) Rs. 40.33 per labour hour
(b) Rs. 41.67 per labour hour
(c) Rs. 42.67 per labour hour
(d) Rs. 43.33 per labour hour
23. Acid rain is due to
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pesticide pollution
(d) Dust particles in the atmosphere
24. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used for the detection of
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Disputed parentage
(c) AIDS
(d) Yellow fever
25. There are four identically sized and shaped b alls in a box, with only its top open. Each ball is of a different colour, these being: Green, Red, White and Blue, only one bal of each colour. Without looking into the box, one ball is randomly picked out and its colour is noted; then it is returned to the box. What are the chances that, in two successive draws, one may get the white ball and the red ball-in whichever order?
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
26. Consider the following programmes:
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
2. Micro Finance Programme
3. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme
4. Cluster Development Programme
What is common in the above programmes?
(a) They are related to improving agriculture
(b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(c) They are programmes to improve large scale industries
(d) They are programmes to improve the traditional cottage industries
27. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately
(b) A search engine
(c) An activity of the user
(d) A command initiated by the sender
28. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36π cubic metres of water, and is filled to half of its capacity. When the cylindrical tank is placed upright on its circular base on level ground, the height of the water in the tank is 4 metres. But when this tank is placed on its side on level ground what will be the height of the surface of the water above the ground?
(a) 9 metres
(b) 6 metres
(c) 3 metres
(d) 1 metres
29. Data regarding inventory of a particular item of usage in the production activities of an organisation are: the quantity in stock is 1500 units and the value of this stock is Rs. 1,27,500. (This works out to an average unit cost of Rs. 85.) During the ensuing year X, an additional 300 units are purchased at unit cost of Rs. 95. Consumption in production processes during the y ear X has been 600 units. Working by the First-In-First-Out basis, the value of the residual inventory of the item at the end of the year X will be
(a) Rs. 1,00,000
(b) Rs. 1,02,500
(c) Rs. 1,05,000
(d) Rs. 1,07,500
30. Consider the following statements about All India Radio:
1. It is governed by the Prasar Bharati Board.
2. It was so named in 1936.
3. It does not provide DTH services.
4. FM Rainbow and FM Gold are its subsidiary channels.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. The famous ‘Giri’ approach in Industrial Relations in India espouses the cause of
(a) Adjudication
(b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
(c) Conciliation
(d) Arbitration
32. In a race, the first four winners are to be awarded points. Each winner’s points must be 5 more than that of the next position winner. Total sum of the points to be awarded is 50. What will be the points for the third position winner?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
33. Which of the following trends in FDI inflows are correct?
1. In 2003-04, the FDI Equity inflow percentage growth was negative.
2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows were very high and positive.
3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were positive, but had decreased relative to the previous year.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
34. In raising an object to a given height by means of an inclined plane, as compared with raising the object vertically, there is a reduction in
(a) Force to be applied
(b) Work required
(c) Distance covered
(d) Friction force
35. The mean and standard deviation of a set of 16 non-zero positive numbers in an observation are 26 and 3.5,m respectively. The mean and standard deviation of another set of 24 non-zero positive numbers without changing the circumstances of both sets of observations, are 29 and 3, respectively. The mean and standard deviation of their combined set of observations will respectively be
(a) 27.8 and 3.21
(b) 26.2 and 3.32
(c) 27.8 and 3.32
(d) 26.2 and 3.21
36. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on a string. Any point on the string moves in
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that of the wave
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of the wave
(c) Uniform circular motion with the same angular speed as that of the wave
(d) Uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than that of the wave
37. The devices that work with computer systems as soon as they are connected are described as
(a) Hot Swapping
(b) Bay Swap
(c) Plug-N-Play
(d) USB Swapping
38. Which one of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(a) Database
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Graphics package
(d) Document processor
39. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):
1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements:
Cellular technology evolves in stages called Generation (G), where
1. A Generation represents the number of subscribers; higher Generation has more subscribers.
2. 2G technology has two standards CDMA and GSM.
3. 2G technology has CDMA standard and 3G has GSM standard.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
41. Which of the following statements reflect the distinctive features about 6th century BCE Ganas or Sanghas?
1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies.
2. The ancient Indian Ganas were non-monarchical states.
3. Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avanti were the most powerful States of that era.
4. The procedures of the Buddhist monastic order (Sangha) were patterned on the Sangha politics.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
42. What is the chronological sequence of the following development?
1. Decline in the export of Indian cotton
2. Cotton boom in India
3. Civil War in America
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 1 and 3
43. Which of the following are the typical differences between the private insurance programmes and the social insurance programmes?
1. Adequacy versus Equity
2. Voluntary versus Mandatory Participation
3. Contractual versus Statutory Rights
4. Funding
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. ‘Unbalanced’ Growth is hypothesised when
(a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on several growth routes.
(b) Supply of labour is fixed
(c) Supply of capital is unlimited
(d) Active sectors need to, and do energise sluggish sectors
45. Which of the following are incorporated in the Government approved National Telecom Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum download speed of two megabits per second.
2. India’s rural tele-density to be improved from 39% to 70% in the next five years.
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
46. Which of the following is one of the Millennium Development Goals fixed by the UNO?
(a) Halving extreme poverty and halting the spread of HIV/AIDS
(b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains which can ensure bumper crops
(c) To ensure that population does not increase in the least developed countries
(d) Develop procedures towards adequate and timely forewarning on hurricanes and tsunamis?
47. The term ‘Carbon footprint’ means
(a) A region which is rich in coal mines
(b) The amount of reduction in the emission of CO2 by a country
(c) The use of Carbon in manufacturing industries
(d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by our day-to-day activities.
48. Amongst the following, who is the latest recipient of the ‘Bharat Ratna’ award?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
49. ‘Green Revolution’ in India was expeditiously feasible in zones of
(a) High rainfall
(b) Moderate rainfall
(c) Assured irrigation
(d) Higher population density
50. What is Apartheid?
(a) An international organisation of peace
(b) A medical term
(c) A trade charter
(d) A policy of racial segregation
51. Transportation plays a great role in any economy. Which of the following modes of transportation has the highest elasticity?
(a) Air
(b) Rail
(c) Road
(d) Water
52. How does an expansionary monetary policy affect the rate of interest and level of income?
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level of income
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level of income
53. In a medium-size township, the trend of annual immigration is an addition of 20% of the population as it was t the beginning; also 15% of the population as it was at the beginning is estimated to relocate elsewhere every year. If the current population is 80000, what is the likely population three years hence?
(a) 90000
(b) 91200
(c) 92000
(d) 92610
54. ‘The Problem of Rupee; was whose D.Sc. Thesis?
(a) Sri Aurobindo
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
55. What is the correct sequence of tributaries of the river Ganga from West to East?
(a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son, and Kosi
(d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
56. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2(r1 < r2). The area of the bigger circle is 
The difference of their circumferences is 22 cm. What is the sum of the diameters of the two circles?
(a) 17.5 cm
(b) 22 cm
(c) 28.5 cm
(d) 35 cm
57. Numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, …, a24 are in arithmetic progression and a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225. The value of a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + … a23 + a24 is
(a) 525
(b) 725
(c) 850
(d) 900
58. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitutions is supreme.
2. There is a clear division of powers between the Union and the State Governments.
3. Amendments to the Constitution have to follow the prescribed procedure.
4. Parliament and the State Legislatures are sovereign.
5. The Preamble to the Constitution cannot be invoked to determine the ambit of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
59. When the Government ownership in Public Sector Undertakings is diluted, it is called
(a) Privatisation
(b) Public-Private Partnership
(c) Disinvestment
(d) Deflation
60. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 provides for education to every child in the age group
(a) 5 – 13 years
(b) 8 – 16 years
(c) 7 – 15 years
(d) 6 – 14 years
61. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks covering different areas. Their first alphabets L, W and M respectively stand for
(a) Local, World and Middle
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
62. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as its width. If 360 m of fencing including gates will totally enclose this garden, what is the length of the garden?
(a) 120 m
(b) 130 m
(c) 140 m
(d) 150 m
63. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to
(a) A set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic
(b) Many computers that are interconnected through wireless networks and satellites
(c) A distributed computer architecture that provides software, infrastructure and platforms just as required by applications/users
(d) A futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform computing
64. Consider the following statements for Nano-technology:
1. It is the technology of creating material and devices atom-by-atom.
2. Physical properties change at the nanometer scale.
3. Chemical properties change at the nanometer scale.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
65. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the CERN project is a particle accelerator locate on the border between
(a) Spain and France
(b) France and Germany
(c) Spain and Switzerland
(d) France and Switzerland
66. The method of communication in which transmission can take place in both directions, but happens only in one direction at a time, is called
(a) Duplex
(b) Half Duplex
(c) Full Duplex
(d) Simplex
67. A collection of programs that controls how the computer system runs and processes information is called
(a) Compiler
(b) Operating System
(c) Linker
(d) Assembler
68. SMPS is the acronym for
(a) Store Mode Power Supply
(b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply
(d) Start Mode Power Supply
69. USB is the acronym for
(a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
(b) Unique Solution Bus
(c) Universal Serial Bus
(d) Universal Service Broadcasting
70. In a chess tournament, each of the six players will p ay with every other player exactly once. What is the number of matches that will be played during the tournament?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
71. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, (M.B. Act) provides for how many weeks’ wages during the maternity period?
(a) 11 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 13 weeks
(d) 14 weeks
72. Which of the following are the instruments or providing social security in India?
1. Income Tax
2. Employees’ Provident Fund
3. General Sales Tax
4. LIC
5. National Pension Scheme
6. Postal Provident Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 3, 4, 5 and 6
73. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells them at 8 times that price per hundred. What percentage does the gain or lose?
(a) 4% profit
(b) 6% profit
(c) 4% loss
(d) 6% loss
74. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise of population the same for the following data?
Period Population
1970 40,000
1980 50,000
1990 60,000
2000 72,000
2010 80,000
(a) 1970 – 80 and 1980 – 90
(b) 1980 – 90 and 1990 – 2000
(c) 2000 – 2010 and 1990 – 2000
(d) 1980 – 90 and 2000 – 2010
75. Four quantities are such that their arithmetic mean (A.M.) is the same as the A.M. of the first three quantities. The fourth quantity is
(a) Sum of the first three quantities
(b) A.M. of the first three quantities.
(c) 
(d) 
76. If the difference of two numbers is greater than the sum of the n umbers, then
(a) Both the numbers are negative
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is negative
(c) At least one of the numbers is negative
(d) None of the above
77. A palindrome is a number which reads the same from left as well as from right, for example, 23732. What is the number of palindromes between 10 and 1010?
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 99
(d) 90
78. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many times is the digit 1 used?
(a) 160
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 110
79. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both included in the sequence. The arithmetic average of these numbers will be
(a) 61.5
(b) 61.
(c) 60.5
(d) 60
80. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal Pension Yojana:
1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 0 years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he attains the age of 60 years.
3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse continues to receive the pension.
4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
81. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of the Rajya Sabha
(a) He can make statements only in the Rajya Sabha
(b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lok Sabha
(d) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a non-confidence motion.
82. Which one of the following formed the basic premise for developing the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The US Constitution
(c) The British Constitution
(d) The UN Charter
83. The Malimath Committee (2003) looked at ways to reform the
(a) Educational System in India
(b) Criminal Justice System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India
84. What are the disadvantages of Provident Fund Scheme?
1. Money in inadequate for risks occurring early in working life.
2. Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
3. It generates forces saving that can be used to finance national development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
85. Besides resistance to pests, what are the other prospects for which plants have been genetically engineered?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Consider the following items:
1. Consumer goods and services
2. Gross private domestic investment
3. Goods and services produced by the Government
4. Net income from abroad
Which of the above items are included in GNP?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Which of the following statements best describes the content of the theory of distribution?
(a) The distribution of income among different individuals in the economy
(b) The distribution of income between the Centre, and the State Governments
(c) The principle of just distribution of wealth and income
(d) The distribution of income between the owners of factor resources
88. The demand for a factor of production is said to be derived demand because
1. It is a function of the profitability of an enterprise
2. It depends on the supply of complementary factors
3. It stems from the demand for the final product
4. It arises out of means being scarce in relation to wants.
Which of the above reasons is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area, they abolish all restrictions on trade among themselves and
(a) They established a common external tariff on imports from outside countries.
(b) They abolish all restrictions on imports from outside countries.
(c) They abolish all restrictions on imports from other Free Trade Areas.
(d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs and quotas on imports from outside countries.
90. Which of the following are the functions of Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the proposals for foreign investment
2. To review periodically the implementation of the proposals cleared by the Board.
3. The undertake all other activities for promoting and facilitating FDI as considered necessary from time to time.
4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted separately by the Ministry of Industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
91. The term ‘Dear Money’ refers to
(a) Low rate of interest on housing loans
(b) Value of money at the recession stage
(c) High rate of interest
(d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of interest on housing loans
92. A certain sequence of integers is constructed as follows :
Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their sums, i.e. 1. This process of constructing the next number by the sum of the last two constructed numbers continues. Taking these numbers 0, 1, 1, as the first, second and third numbers in the sequence what will be the 7th and 10th respectively?
(a) 6 and 30
(b) 7 and 33
(c) 8 and 34
(d) 10 and 39
93. The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested that
1. The percentage of equity to be divested should be no more than 49% for industries explicitly reserved for the public sector and it should be either 74% or 100% for others.
2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment should be maintained.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a) With the consent of all the States
(b) With the consent of majority of the States
(c) With the consent of the States concerned
(d) Without the consent of any State
95. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter
(b) Sulphur Particulate Matter
(c) Solid Particulate Matter
(d) Suspended Particulate Matter
96. Which of the following industries were first established during the British Rule in India?
(a) Cotton Textile Industry; and Jute Industry
(b) Jute Industry; and Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Textile Industry; and Chemical Industry
(d) Jute Industry; and Chemical Industry
97. Which of the following are roles of the Finance Commission in India?
1. The distribution of money collected through taxes
2. Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
3. Evolve principles based on which funds are allotted among States
4. To develop Five-Year Plans
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
98. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
1. India is founder member of the IMF.
2. India’s quota in the IMF is more than 4 percent.
3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on the IMF.
4. IMF conducts regular review of India’s economic status under Article IV.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. A firm is purchasing two items; both on credit on the same day. The credit term offered for the first item is 
net 30; and the credit term offered, for the second item is 3/5, 2/15, net 30. The declared purchase coast of item 1 is Rs. 60,000 and that of item 2 is Rs. 1,40,000. If both credits can be settled on the 14th day, what will be the total amount to be paid out?
(a) Rs. 1,97,200
(b) Rs. 1,97,500
(c) Rs. 1,96,600
(d) Rs. 1,98,400
100. What was the position held by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, before he became the Vice-President of India?
(a) Ambassador to the USA
(b) Chairman, UGC
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union
Directions (Qs. 101 to 110) : The following ten (10) items are on English Language; therefore, these items do not have Hindi version.
101. What is the indication out of the sentence :
‘I gave him a piece of my mind?
(a) Appreciation
(b) Warning
(c) Greeting
(d) Scolding
102. What is the meaning of the expression : Blue blood?
(a) Polluted industrial waste water
(b) Sap of teak wood
(c) An aristocrat
(d) A costly object
103. ‘He was hoist by his own petard’ refers to
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to hurt others
(b) He was high up on the pole
(c) He would usually run away from trouble
(d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
104. What is a Ballad ?
(a) A novel
(b) A historical narration
(c) A popular story of folktale in verse
(d) Musical comedy
105. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
(b) It is a sort of political philosophy
(c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in playing Holi
(d) It is presenting the work of someone else as one’s own.
106. Rivalry between the two clans has become water under the bridge means
(a) The rivalry continues
(b) It has become a thing of the past
(c) It connect the two clans
(d) It is not forgotten
107. Consider the sentence :
1 2 3 4 5 6
where the words are numbered for convenience of reference. Consider also the insertion of a single word ‘only’ into this sentence to indicate a desired emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the emphasis is to be
(i) On the recipient
(ii) On the uniqueness of the item given
(iii) On the giver respectively (only one at a time)?
(a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6; (iii) Between 2-3
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1
(c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) After 1
(d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between 1-2
108. What is the meaning of the term ‘diabetic’?
(a) Intended to be inspirational
(b) Teaching a moral lesson
(c) Received as comical
(d) Sharing an informative experience
109. Consider the statement : ‘The message of peace and brotherhood permeated the address by the Chief Guest.’ Which the following is meant by ‘Permeate’ in this statement?
(a) To advocate
(b) To spread all over
(c) To anchor and stabilise
(d) To leave a permanent impression
110. Arrange the following to form grammatically correct sentence :
1. Einstein was
2. although a great scientist
3. weak an Arithmetic
4. right from his schooldays
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
111. What is the chronological sequence of the following events?
1. First Battle of Panipat
2. Vietnam War
3. French Revolution
4. First Gulf War
5. World War I
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4
(b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2
(d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4
112. A branch of scholarship that flourished in Europe, particularly from the fifteenth to the eighteenth centuries, and was devoted to the appreciation, chronicling and classification of historic and non-organic relics, monument and old texts refers to
(a) Archaeology
(b) History
(c) Architecture
(d) Antiquarianism
113. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Stridhana’?
1. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman on various occasions during her lifetime.
2. Various types of movable property gifted to a woman at the time of her first marriage.
3. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her children and husband.
4. One the woman’s death, this wealth could be inherited by her natural legally adopted children, with none of the sons-in-law, having any claim on any part thereof.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
114. What is the number of States and Union Territories in India?
(a) 29 and 6
(b) 28 and 7
(c) 29 and 7
(d) 28 and 6
115. Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats?
(a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ In 2012
(b) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world.
(c) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
(d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves
116. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which river?
(a) Falgu
(b) Ganga
(c) Sarayu
(d) Yamuna
117. The Khilafat Committee accepted Mahatma Gandhi’s suggestion for a non-violent non-cooperation protest against the Government in its meeting at
(a) Bombay
(b) Nagpur
(c) Allahabad
(d) Kanpur
118. What is Know India Programme (KIP)?
(a) A programme for children aged 12-15 years from rural areas to make them aware of different aspects of India
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of rural teachers to different parts of the country
(c) An outreach programme of the Ministry of External Affairs to build closer ties with India’s neighbourhood
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to promote awareness among them about different aspects of India
119. What is the perimeter of the figure shown below?
AJ = 10 cm, JI = 12 cm, AB = x,
CD = x + 1, EF= x + 2,
GH = x + 3,
BC = DE = FG = HI = y
(a) 44 cm
(b) 48 cm
(c) 54 cm
(d) 58 cm
120. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to
(a) Generate additional economic activity throughout the country
(b) Beautify suburban areas
(c) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
(d) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources
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