Uttar Pradesh P.C.S (Mains) Examination Held on 29-6-2015
General Studies Paper-II
1. Which one of the following salts is found in maximum amount in the humans bones?
(A) Magnesium Chloride
(B) Calcium Carbonate
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Sodium Chloride
2. What is the full form of BMD test?
(A) Bone Marrow Density
(B) Bone Mineral Density
(C) Bone Marrow Deficiency
(D) Bone Marrow Differentiation
3. A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to-
(A) total internal reflection
(B) absorption of light
(C) some inherent property
(D) its molecular structure
4. The number of colours contained in the sunlight is-
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
5. The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is-
(A) Heat liberated during fermentation
(B) Sugar stored in the plants
(C) Solar energy
(D) None of the above
6. Which one of the following substances is used in glazing the pottery?
(A) Alum
(B) Calomel
(C) Zinc chloride
(D) Zinc oxide
7. The maximum density of water is at-
(A) 373 Kelvin
(B) 277 Kelvin
(C) 273 Kelvin
(D) 269 Kelvin
8. Celcius and Fahrenheit thermometers would show same reading at-
(A) −40°
(B) 40°
(C) 100°
(D) 212°
9. Hydrogen bomb was developed by-
(A) Adberd Taylor
(B) Bernor Bon Bron
(C) J. Robert Opan Heemar
(D) Samual Cohen
10. Sea weeds are important source of which one of the following?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine
(D) Iodine
11. Which one of the following is coated on the photographic plate ?
(A) Silver oxide
(B) Silver bromide
(C) Silver chloride
(D) Silver iodide
12. Graphite is used in the nuclear reactor as a-
(A) Fuel
(B) Lubricant
(C) Moderator
(D) None of the above
13. Heavy water is manufactured in India at-
(A) Trombay
(B) Assam
(C) Delhi
(D) Bhilai
14. GPS stands for which one of the following ?
(A) Greenwich Polar Satellite
(B) Global Police Surveillance
(C) Global Positioning System
(D) General Pacific Survey
15. In all bio-compounds the most necessary fundamental element is-
(A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Oxygen
(D) Nitrogen
16. Which one of the following compounds is used to make fire-proof clothing?
(A) Sodium sulphate
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Ferrous sulphate
(D) Aluminium sulphate
17. Which one of the following is not natural polymer?
(A) Wool
(B) Leather
(C) Nylon
(D) Silk
18. Which one of the following is not an explosive ?
(A) Nitrochloroform
(B) TNG
(C) TNT
(D) Potassium chlorate
19. Insulin is a-
(A) Steroid
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Protein
(D) Fat
20. Which one of the following is also known as ‘wood spirit’?
(A) Methyl alcohol
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Ethylene glycol
(D) Glycerol
21. Which one of the following compounds is not stored in human body?
(A) Glycogen
(B) Amino acids
(C) Fat
(D) Tocopherol
22. Which one of the following is the best conductor of electricity ?
(A) Mica
(B) Copper
(C) Gold
(D) Silver
23. Which one of t he following is made up of Carbon only ?
(A) Kevlar
(B) Lexan
(C) Graphene
(D) Spider silk
24. The resistance of a semiconductor on heating-
(A) remains constant
(B) decreases
(C) increases
(D) None of the above
25. The weight of human body is-
(A) Maximum at the poles
(B) Same at every place on the earth’s surface
(C) Maximum at the equator
(D) More on the mountains than planes
26. The missing term (?) in the series 5, 11, 17, 23,, ?, 41 is-
(A) 29
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 37
27. The average of four consecutive odd natural numbers is 26. The largest of these numbers will be-
(A) 35
(B) 31
(C) 29
(D) 27
28. January 12, 1979 was Friday. What among t he following days will be January 12, 1981 ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
29. How many squares and triangles are there in the following figure?
(A) 2 squares, 16 triangles
(B) 3 squares, 14 triangles
(C) 3 squares, 16 triangles
(D) 3 squares, 18 triangles
30. If r means ‘+’, s means ‘×’, t means ‘÷’ u means ‘−‘, then 4 r 5 s 30 t 10 u 7 is equal to-
(A) 12
(B) 20
(C) 54
(D) 90
31. At time 1.10 pm the angle between two arms of a clock is-
(A) 20°
(B) 25°
(C) 30°
(D) 35°
32. P is brother of K; M is sister of K; P is son of R; M is daughter of S. The relation of S with K is-
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Mother or Father
(D) Undefined
33. If ‘MALE’ can be written as 15 + 3 + 14 + 7, then ‘BHEL’ can be written as-
(A) 2 + 6 + 14 + 7
(B) 4 + 10 + 7 + 14
(C) 4 + 12 + 7 + 14
(D) 2 + 6 + 7 + 14
34. What is the next number (?) in the following series ?
1, 7, 31, ?
(A) 73
(B) 120
(C) 121
(D) 127
35. A, B, C, D and E weigh differently. Among them B is heavier than C only. A is heavier than B and E but not than D. Who is the second heaviest among them ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E
36. The missing number in the following table is-
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 6
(D) 4
37. If H.C.F. of two numbers is 8, then which one of the following numbers cannot be L. C. M. of those numbers ?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 56
(D) 60
38. Unit digit in the sum (264)102 + (264)103 is-
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
39. The value of x in the following table is-
(A) 19
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 13
40. The value of x in the following table is-
(A) 25
(B) 32
(C) 17
(D) 28
41. The least number which is divisible by all the natural numbers 1 to 10 is-
(A) 5040
(B) 2520
(C) 1000
(D) 100
42. If the side of a cube is increased by 20%, then its volume will be increased by-
(A) 32.8%
(B) 37.5%
(C) 72.8%
(D) None of the above
43. A is the uncle of B. C is the wife of B. They have a son D whose sister is E. What relation A has with E ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Grandfather’s brother
(C) Father
(D) Grand father
44. The missing number in the following table is-3
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 10
45. A 110 metres long train passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds. It will cross a railway platform 165 metres long in-
(A) 4.5 seconds
(B) 5 seconds
(C) 7.5 seconds
(D) 10 seconds
46. If 
and 
, then A : B : CC is-
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
47. If 1 is added to the numerator of a fraction, it becomes 1/2 and if 1 is added to the denominator, it becomes 1/3, then the fraction is-
(A) 7/16
(B) 2/5
(C) 5/12
(D) 3/8
48. If price of 3 pens, 2 pencils and 4 erasers is Rs 92 and price of 8 pencils and 16 erasers is Rs 68, then price of 24 pens is
(A) Rs 625
(B) Rs 500
(C) Rs 675
(D) Rs 600
49. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is in between F and C, A is in between E and D, F is in the left of D. Then in between A and F is-
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
50. Which one of the following words will be at (?) given below ?
Shout : Whisper : Run : ?
(A) Stay
(B) Stand
(C) Walk
(D) Hop
51. A number is of two digits. The positions of digits are interchanged and the new number is added to the original number. The resultant number will be always divisible by-
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
52. The least non-negative prime integer is-
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
53. A point is selected at random inside a rectangle and perpendiculars are drawn on each side of the rectangle from the point. If the sum of these perpendiculars is 32 cm., then the perimeter of the rectangle will be-
(A) 48 cm
(B) 64 cm
(C) 96 cm
(D) 32 cm
54. Choose odd one from the following-
(A) 5, 12, 13
(B) 6, 8, 10
(C) 5, 13, 17
(D) 12, 35, 37
55. Pointing towards Geeta, Arjun said, “I am the only son of her mother’s son”. How is Geeta related to Arjun?
(A) Paternal aunt
(B) Maternal aunt
(C) Mother
(D) Mother or maternal aunt
56. Three years back the average age of a family of 6 members was 19 years. A baby having being born, the average of the family remains the same. Then the age of baby (in years) is-
(A) 1
(B) 
(C) 2
(D) 3
57. The average of 5 numbers is 8 and the average of last 3 numbers is 6. The average of first two numbers will be-
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) None of the above
58. The pie-chart below gives the expenditure on different items A, B, C, D and E in a household-
The percentage expenditure on A is-
(A) 125/6
(B) 250/9
(C) 125/9
(D) 36
59. The geometric mean of 3, 9, 27, 81, 243 is-
(A) 36
(B) 9√3
(C) 9
(D) 27
60. The mean of a, b, c, d is 50. If A = a – 5, B = b – 10, C = c – 25 and D = d – 40, then the mean of A, B, C, D is-
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 41
(D) 50
61. The harmonic mean of three numbers is 18. If two numbers are 12 and 36, the third number is-
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 14
62. For X’s and Y’s the arithmetic mean are 64 and 57, respectively, then the arithmetic mean of Z = X + 2Y is
(A) 171
(B) 172
(C) 177
(D) 178
63. If in a grouped data median is 50 and each frequency is multiplied by 3, then the new median is-
(A) 300
(B) 150
(C) 50
(D) None of the above
64. The mean of the following series-
X : 7 12 16 22 25
f : 4 5 8 3 2
is-
(A) 16.30
(B) 20
(C) 166/11
(D) None of the above
65. A person travels a distance at the rate of 20 km/hr and comes back at the rate of 15 km/hr. The average speed for the total journey (in km/hr) is-
(A) 17
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
66. According to the pie-charts given below, how many students are enrolled in class X out of 2500 students ?
(A) 375
(B) 525
(C) 750
(D) 850
67. Consider the following table-
The percentage of students obtaining more than 10 less than or equal to 40 marks is-
(A) 15
(B) 65
(C) 69
(D) 74
68. If in a pie-diagram for a given data of 3600 individuals, the angle subtended by a component at the centre is 100°, then the number of individuals in the component will be-
(A) 950
(B) 1000
(C) 1100
(D) 1150
69. It has been observed that four consecutive years, the number of car manufactured by a company has been doubled over the previous years. If the average number of cars manufactured by the company in four years is 750, the number of cars manufactured during the fourth year will be-
(A) 1000
(B) 1200
(C) 1600
(D) 2000
70. If X and Y are two observations on a variable, then which of the following is/are true?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) All of the above
71. A fair coin is tossed thrice. The probability of getting exactly two tails is-
(A) 1/8
(B) 2/8
(C) 3/8
(D) 4/8
72. If ages are noted in completed years, then a child’s age who is 4 years 10 months, will be noted as-
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4.10 years
(D) 4-5 years
73. Which one of the following is the most refined level of measurement ?
(A) Ordinal level
(B) Ratio level
(C) Nominal level
(D) None of the above
74. The mean of the sequence 1, 2, 22, 23, …….., 2n is (2n+1 – 1) K, where K is-
(A) 1
(B) 1/n
(C) 
(D) 
75. If the average of 10% of a number, 25% of that number, 50% of that number and 75% of that number is 24, then the number will be-
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 70
(D) 80
76. The percentage of attendance of a student in first semester was 70% while in second semester it was 80%. What will be percentage of attendance in two semesters taken together?
(A) 75%
(B) more than 75%
(C) less than 75%
(D) Percentage cannot be computed with the given data
77. The number of seats won by different parties in an election are given. Which one of the following cannot be an appropriate chart for the given data ?
(A) Bar chart
(B) Pie chart
(C) Divided bar chart
(D) Histogram
78. A fair die is thrown 3 times and all the times no ‘six’ occurs. The probability of getting a ‘six’ in the fourth throw will be-
(A) 1/6
(B) 5/6
(C) 1/2
(D) 0
79. If the variable X is measured in Kilogram, then the unit of the coefficient of variation is-
(A) Kilogram
(B) (Kilogram)2
(C) unit free
(D) None of the above
80. A frequency polygon can be superimposed on which one of the following?
(A) Bar diagram only
(B) Histogram only
(C) Pie diagram only
(D) All of the above
81. If the income of a household increases, the percentage of expenditure on food is like to-
(A) decrease
(B) increase
(C) remain constant
(D) No definite pattern is likely to occur
82. In a tehsil the numbers of people are as follows-
Children Adults Old
250 450 200
The angle subtended at the centre in a pie-diagram, corresponding to the children is-
(A) 114°
(B) 105°
(C) 100°
(D) 97°
83. The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption of electricity by five cities A, B, C, D and E from 2009 to 2011-
What was the percentage by which the total consumption of electricity by the five cities changed between 2009 to 2011 ?
(A) −4
(B) −4.45
(C) 4
(D) Data given is insufficient to answer
84. In a survey, it was found that people spend 50% on food, 10% on clothes, 10% on house rent, 20% on other items and 10% is saving. If we exclude saving and present the data on expenditure in a pie-chart, then angle for clothes will be-
(A) 36°
(B) 40°
(C) 45°
(D) 50°
85. The data in number of couples using different family planning methods are given. These are to be presented in a chart. The appropriate chart for this will be-
(A) Line diagram
(B) Multiple bar chart
(C) Pie-chart
(D) Histogram
86. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in-
(A) President
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Cabinet
87. Who among the following is the head of the special Investigation Team formed by the Government of India on black money ?
(A) Justice H. L. Dattu
(B) Justice M. B. Shah
(C) Justice Altamas Kabir
(D) Justice Raj Mani Chauhan
88. The Federal Court of India was established in which of the following years?
(A) 1935
(B) 1937
(C) 1946
(D) 1947
89. The current sanctioned strength of judges of Supreme Court of India is-
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 31
90. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India is related to equality before law ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 13
91. Which one of the following is not among the six Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right to protest
(C) Right to against exploitation
(D) Right to freedom of religion
92. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour – Article 23
(B) Protection of interests of minorities – Article 29
(C) Right of constitutional remedies – Article 32
(D) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions – Article 31
93. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India eradicates untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form ?
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 15
(D) Article 28
94. Under the Constitution who among the following is the guardian of the Fundamental Rights?
(A) President
(B) Judiciary
(C) Parliament
(D) Cabinet
95. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional remedies
96. Time of ‘zero-hour’ in Parliament is-
(A) 9 am to 10 am
(B) 10 am to 11 am
(C) 11 am to 12 am
(D) 12 noon to 1.00 pm
97. Which one of the following is empowered to alter the boundaries of States Under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
98. Which one of the following is not the feature of Indian Constitution ?
(A) Parliamentary Government
(B) Presidential Government
(C) Independence of Judiciary
(D) Federal Government
99. A money bill under the Constitution of India is tabled in the-
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously
100. Which one of the following is authorized to prorogue the session of the house of the people?
(A) Speaker
(B) Attorney General
(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) President
101. Which one of the following is not a Standing Committee of Parliament?
(A) Committee on Public Accounts
(B) Estimate Committee
(C) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs
(D) Committee on Public Undertakings
102. The Union Territories get representation in-
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both houses of Parliament
(D) None of the above
103. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on-
(A) 25th October, 1948
(B) 26th November, 1949
(C) 26th November, 1948
(D) 25th October, 1949
104. The report of Public Accounts Committee is presented in the-
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) President’s office
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) Prime Minister’s office
105. A person can remain a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of the Parliament for-
(A) Three years
(B) Two years
(C) One years
(D) Six months
106. According to which one of the following Constitutional Amendments in the Indian Constitution the Right to Property has been abolished?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 43rd Amendment Act, 1977
(C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act, 1979
107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists-
List-I
(a) Article 76
(b) Article 148
(c) Article 75(I)
(d) Article 131
List-II
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
3. Attorney General of India
4. Appointment of Union Ministers
Codes :
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
108. Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with-
(A) Allocation of seats for the Council of States
(B) Political defection
(C) Panchayat System
(D) Languages
109. The joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by-
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President
110. The provision for the representation of Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution of India under-
(A) Article – 221
(B) Article – 222
(C) Article – 331
(D) Article – 223
111. Who among the following was the first Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh?
(A) Justice K. N. Goyal
(B) Justice Bishambhar Dayal
(C) Justice Murtaza Hussain
(D) Justice N. K. Mehrotra
112. Which one of the following States is an exception to the Article 170 as a subject to the provision of the composition of the Legislative Assembly, a State shall consist of not less than sixty members ?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Jammu-Kashmir
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttaranchal
113. Who among the following was the strong supporter of the principles that “Which is morally wrong, can never be politically right ?”
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
114. Who has said it : “I have not to beg pardon in connection with the allegation that in the draft of the Constitution, a major part of the Government of India Act, 1935, has again been reproduced?”
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
115. Who among the following used to say “Wrong means never take us to right ends ?”
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
116. Assertion (A) : The President of India is elected by indirect election.
Reason (R) : There is provision of electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the States.
In the context of above statements select the correct answer-
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) ad (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
117. Which one of the following States was the first to set-up Panchayati Raj institutions in accordance with the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Telangana
118. In Panchayati Raj system the Panchayat Samiti is constituted at the-
(A) Village level
(B) Block level
(C) District level
(D) State level
119. Which one of the following Five Years Plan of India focused on ‘Growth with Social Justice and Equity’?
(A) 9th
(B) 8th
(C) 7th
(D) 6th
120. Mahila Samridhi Yojana was started in India in-
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1994
(D) 1995
121. Mission Indradhansuh Campaign in India is associated with-
(A) Nutrition to pregnant women
(B) Awareness to diabetes
(C) Eradication of blindness
(D) Vaccination of children
122. Akshaypatra Foundation in India is associated with-
(A) Mid-day meal for primary school students
(B) Nutrition for Rural pregnant women
(C) Nutrition for Rural children
(D) Nutrition for Rural oldmen
123. The World Population Day is observed on-
(A) October 4
(B) May 31
(C) July 11
(D) December 10
124. The main strategy adopted in the new economic policy of 1991 was-
(A) Liberalization
(B) Privatization
(C) Globalization
(D) All of the above
125. The term ‘Evergreen Revolution’ has been used for increasing agricultural production in India by-
(A) Norman Barlogue
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) R. K. V. Rao
126. Economic Survey in India is published by-
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Ministry of Commerce
(D) Indian Statistical Institute
127. India became a member of International Monetary Fund in-
(A) 1952
(B) 1951
(C) 1950
(D) 1947
128. Value Added Tax was first introduced in India in-
(A) 2007
(B) 2006
(C) 2005
(D) 2008
129. Which one of the following statements is not true about Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana?
(A) It is a personal accident cover
(B) It is open to anyone between the age of 18 and 50 years
(C) It is open to anyone between the age of 18 to 70 years
(D) Premium payable is Rs 12 per annum
130. The decaded growth rate of population during 2001-11 was maximum in the State of-
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
131. Which one of the following is the most important item of non-plan expenditure of the Central Government during 2015-16 budget?
(A) Interest payment
(B) Subsidies
(C) Defence services
(D) Pensions
132. After deducting grants for the creation of Capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at-
(A) Budgetary deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Primary deficit
(D) Effective Revenue deficit
133. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana was launched in India on-
(A) 26th January, 2015
(B) 28th August, 2014
(C) 5th September, 2014
(D) 8th December, 2014
134. Which one of the following programmes is not employment related ?
(A) MGNREGA
(B) NRLM
(C) RMSA
(D) STEP
135. The focus of Saakshar Bharat Programme is on-
(A) Female literacy
(B) Male literacy
(C) Child literacy
(D) Secondary education
136. ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme has been launched in India in-
(A) April 2015
(B) March 2015
(C) February 2015
(D) January 2015
137. Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) has been launched in India in-
(A) September 2014
(B) October 2014
(C) November 2014
(D) December 2014
138. Which one of the following is not a social development programme of Indian Government ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Look East Policy
(D) Rural Health Mission
139. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists-
List-I
(a) Dutt Committee (1969)
(b) Wanchoo Committee (1971)
(c) Rajmannar Committee (1971)
(d) Chakravarty Committee (1985)
List-II
1. Industrial licencing
2. Direct taxes
3. Centre-States relations
4. Monetary system
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 2
140. Index ‘Residex’ is associated with-
(A) Share prices
(B) Mutual fund prices
(C) Price index
(D) Land prices
141. National Institute of Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development is situated at-
(A) New Delhi
(B) Noida
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Hyderabad
142. When did the Community Development Programme start in India?
(A) In 1958
(B) In 1955
(C) In 1952
(D) In 1951
143. Under the new GDP series, the base year has been shifted from 2004-05 to-
(A) 2011-12
(B) 2010-11
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2007-08
144. Fiscal deficit/GDP ratio has been maximum in the financial year-
(A) 2014-15
(B) 2013-14
(C) 2012-13
(D) 2011-12
145. Who among the following was the Chairman of National Income Committee appointed by Government of India in 1949?
(A) C. R. Rao
(B) P. C. Mahalnobis
(C) V. K. R. V. Rao
(D) K. N. Raj
146. Which one of the following phenomenon is used in optical fibres ?
(A) Interference
(B) Refraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Polarization
147. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ascorbic acid – Lemon
(B) Maltose – Malt
(C) Acetic acid – Curd
(D) Formic acid – Red ant
148. Which one of the following bio-transformations provides maximum energy to human body ?
(A) ADP → AMP
(B) ATP → ADP
(C) ADP → ATP
(D) AMP → ADP
149. Which one of the following fuels produces least environmental pollution ?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Power alcohol
(C) Petrol
(D) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
150. Which one of the following materials is strongest ?
(A) German silver
(B) Brass
(C) Steel
(D) Graphene
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