Uttar Pradesh Police Sub-Inspector Recruitment Examination Held on December 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

Uttar Pradesh Police Sub-Inspector Recruitment Examination Held on December 2017
Uttar Pradesh Police Sub-Inspector Recruitment Examination Held on December 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

Uttar Pradesh Police Sub-Inspector Recruitment Examination Held on December 2017

Part 1 General Hindi

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Part 2 General Knowledge

41. What are the three pillars of production?

(a)  Land, Market, Labour

(b)  Land, Labour, Capital

(c)  Market, Capital, Labour

(d)  Capital, Land,Market

Answer: (b)

42. The size and shape of the parliamentary constituencies are determined by an independent ………. which aims to create constituencies which have roughly the same population, subject to geographical considerations and the boundaries of the States and administrative areas.

(a)  Planning Commission

(b)  Census Commissioner

(c)  Delimitation Commission

(d)  Election Commission

Answer: (c)

43. Which of the following is true with respect to Indian Penal Code?

(A) The act extends to the whole of India.

(B) Any Indian citizen liable by any Indian law to be tried for an offence committed beyond India shall be dealt with in the same manner as if such act had been committed within India.

(a)  Neither A nor B

(b)  Both A and B

(c)  Only B

(d)  Only A

Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following items is a part of the Concurrent List?

(a)  Post Office Savings Bank

(b)  Removal of prisoners from one State to another State

(c)  Pilgrimages in India

(d)  Lighthouses

Answer: (b)

45. Which of the following areas did India have powers as per the Instrument of Accession of Jammu and Kashmir with India?

(A) Taxation (B) Defence

(C) Education

(a)  A and C

(b)  Only B

(c)  A and B

(d)  B and C

Answer: (b)

46. Which advocate of the Supreme Court is known for pursuing Public Interest Litigations, including Disqualification of convicted representatives as Parliamentarians, Stopping Conversion for Bigamy, etc?

(a)  Pushpa Kapila Hingorani

(b)  Lily Thomas

(c)  Zia Mody

(d)  Indira Jaising

Answer: (a)

47. In the year 2016, which South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) country passed a bill giving its Hindu minority the right to register their marriage?

(a)  Maldives

(b)  Bhutan

(c)  Nepal

(d)  Pakistan

Answer: (d)

48. Who is credited with being the music composer of the National Anthem and also the Indian National Army (INA) marching song ‘Kadam Kadam Badaye Ja’?

(a)  Jhulelal Mansukhwala

(b)  Rambhuj Chaudhary

(c)  Abid Ali

(d)  Ram Singh Thakuri

Answer: (d)

49. Which of the following is true about Electoral Rolls in India?

(A) The electoral roll is normally revised every year to add the names of those who are to turn 18 on the January 1 of that year or have moved into a constituency and to remove the names of those who have died or moved out of a constituency.

(B) The updating of the Electoral Roll only stops during an election campaign, after the nominations for candidates have closed.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Both A and B

(c)  Only B

(d)  Neither A and B

Answer: (b)

50. The industrial organization suggests that firms engage in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) because

(a)  certain assets are worth more under foreign than local control

(b)  there are differences in the cost of capital

(c)  complete ownership of the local firm can harm the country

(d)  a foreign firm tries to prevent the leakages of its technology

Answer: (a)

51. The Indian Police Services (IPS) uses insignia on its shoulder flashes. Which of the following is not amongst insignia for senior IPS officers?

(a)  Ashoka Chakra

(b)  Stars

(c)  Crossed Sword and Baton

(d)  National Emblem

Answer: (a)

52. The objective of ………… passed in 2015 is to empower the government to allocate coal mines on the basis of competitive bidding to ensure continuity in coal mining operations and promote optimum utilization of coal resources.

(a)  Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act

(b)  The Mineral Conservation and Development Act

(c)  Mines Act

(d)  The Coal Mines (Special Provision) Act

Answer: (d)

53. Which of the following is an internet protocol?

(a)  Modem

(b)  HTML

(c)  Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

(d)  Hypertext Preprocessor (PHP)

Answer: (c)

54. In the year 2016, who was appointed as the President of Microsoft India?

(a)  Satya Nadella

(b)  Sundar Pitchai

(c)  Bhaskar Pramanik

(d)  Anant Maheshwari

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following is a member of the Strategic Policy Group of the National Security Council?

(A) Foreign Secretary

(B) Home Secretary

(C) Chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes

(a)  Only B

(b)  All of these

(c)  A and B

(d)  B and C

Answer: (b)

56. What does this traffic symbol mean?

(a)  Blockage ahead

(b)  heavy vehicles not allowed

(c)  divided road ahead

(d)  tunnel ahead

Answer: (c)

57. Cardamom hills is located in which mountain range?

(a)  Aravalli Range

(b)  Western Ghats

(c)  Pirpanjal Range

(d)  Eastern Ghats

Answer: (b)

58. In which city was India’s first police station for cybercrimes inaugurated in 2001?

(a)  Chennai

(b)  Hyderabad

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Bengaluru

Answer: (d)

59. As on November 30, 2017 who was the Chairperson of the Minority Commission of India?

(a)  Farida Abdulla Khan

(b)  Ajaib Singh

(c)  Ghayurul Hasan

(d)  Dadi E. Mistry

Answer: (c)

60. Which of the following scams exposure is said to be due to use of the Right of Information (RTI) Act?

(A) Adarsh Housing scam

(B) 4G scam

(C) Coal blocks scam

(a)  B and C

(b)  All of these

(c)  A and B

(d)  A and C

Answer: (d)

61. Spahn tax is a type of

(a)  Bank Transaction Tax

(b)  Currency Transaction Tax

(c)  Automated Payment Transaction Tax

(d)  Securities Transaction Tax

Answer: (b)

62. Who was Mahatma Gandhi’s preferred presidential candidate in 1939 Indian National Congress (INC) Tripura session?

(a)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(b)  Pattabhi Sitharamayya

(c)  Jawaharlal Nehru

(d)  Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (b)

63. Who is responsible for the administration of a Union Territory, which do not have their own elected Legislative Assembly?

(a)  Lieutenant-Governor

(b)  Governor

(c)  Government of the nearest State

(d)  President

Answer: (d)

64. The smallest Vidhan Sabha in India, in terms of number of Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs), is

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Goa

(c)  Sikkim

(d)  Puducherry

Answer: (d)

65. ………… is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(a)  The Vice-President of India

(b)  The President of India

(c)  The Prime Minister

(d)  The Speaker of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: (a)

66. Changes in nature made by people is also called as

(a)  Anthropogenic

(b)  Hydropogenic

(c)  Areopogenic

(d)  Theopogenic

Answer: (a)

67. …………. was a landmark case in Indian environmental law. In the case, the Supreme Court of India held that certain resources like air, sea, waters and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly unjustified to make them a subject of private ownership.

(a)  Indian Express vs Span Motels

(b)  MC Mehta vs Kamal Nath

(c)  Secretary, Forest, government of Himachal Pradesh vs Rameshwar Singh

(d)  Ashoka Kumar Thakur vs Union of India

Answer: (b)

68. Name the vaccine used for the treatment of measles.

(a)  MKR

(b)  MRR

(c)  MPM

(d)  MMR

Answer: (d)

69. Which committee was set-up by the centre to look into the need for a separate State of Telangana from Andhra Pradesh and which had accorded highest priority to a non-separation of the State?

(a)  Dandekar Committee

(b)  Bhagwati Committee

(c)  Punchhi Commission

(d)  Srikrishna Committee

Answer: (d)

70. Deductions from income are allowed under which section of the Income Tax Act?

(a)  Section-100

(b)  Section-80

(c)  Section-20

(d)  Section-40

Answer: (b)

71. Panama Canal connects

(a)  Caribbean Sea and Pacific Ocean

(b)  Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

(c)  Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean

(d)  Baltic Sea and North Sea

Answer: (c)

72. The Lokpal Bill has been introduced a total of ………. times in the Parliament of Indian since 1968.

(a)  seven

(b)  five

(c)  eight

(d)  eleven

Answer: (d)

73. Every workplace in India have to implement the guidelines prescribed under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, if the workplace has more than ……….

(a)  8

(b)  50

(c)  10

(d)  20

Answer: (c)

74. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty of a citizen as mentioned in the Constitution of India?

(a)  To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

(b)  To raise voice against injustice

(c)  The cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom

(d)  To abide by the Constitution and respect ideals and institutions, the National Flag and National Anthem

Answer: (b)

75. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court sentence two British nationals to six-years rigorous imprisonment after they were acquitted by the Bombay High Court (pedophilia case)?

(a)  The Anchorage case

(b)  PA Inamdar vs Statte of Maharashtra

(c)  Shreya Singhal vs Union of India

(d)  ADM Jabalpur vs Shukla

Answer: (a)

76. Who was the de facto ruler after Jahangir before Shah Jahan took control?

(a)  Prince Shahryar

(b)  Sher Afghan

(c)  Prince Rahim

(d)  Prince Khusrau

Answer: (a)

77. On which day was the handwritten Constitution signed by 284 members of the Constituent Assembly?

(a)  November 26, 1949

(b)  January 24, 1950

(c)  January 26, 1950

(d)  January 30, 1950

Answer: (b)

78. The study of fruit culture a branch of horticulture is termed as

(a)  Harvest technology

(b)  Oleri culture

(c)  Pomology

(d)  Flori culture

Answer: (c)

79. Which type of mirrors are used in solar cooker to focus the infrared rays of the Sun at a single point?

(a)  Concave Mirror

(b)  Plane Mirror

(c)  Parabolic Convex Mirror

(d)  Convex Mirror

Answer: (a)

80. In case of an epidemic, the government may restrict the Fundamental ……… and can impose restrictions in the interest of the general public.

(a)  Cultural and Educational Rights

(b)  Right to Equality

(c)  Right to Freedom

(d)  Right against Exploitation

Answer: (c)

Part 3 Numerical and Mental Ability

81. If y = 3 + 2√2, find the value of √2(y2 – y2). (approx.)

(a)  96

(b)  24

(c)  48

(d)  28

Answer: (c)

82. There are three bells which ring at regular intervals of 30, 45 and 60 seconds respectively. If all of them ring together at 1 : 00 PM, at what time will they ring together again?

(a)  1 : 03 PM

(b)  1 : 24 PM

(c)  1: 30 PM

(d)  1 : 12 PM

Answer: (a)

83. When a number is divided by 8, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when the same number is divided by 2?

(a)  0

(b)  3

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

84. What is the downstream speed of a boat when the speed of the boat in still water is 10 m/sec and the speed of the river is 20% of the speed of the boat?

(a)  8 m/sec

(b)  12 m/sec

(c)  4 m/sec

(d)  9 m/sec

Answer: (b)

85. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs 1260 in 2 years and Rs 1350 in 5 years. Find the approximate rate of interest.

(a)  4.50%

(b)  2.50%

(c)  1.50%

(d)  3.50%

Answer: (b)

86. A sum of Rs 250000 is deposited for 3 years compounded annually at 4%, 5% and 6% for the first, second and third year respectively. What will be the amount at the end of the three years?

(a)  Rs 301400

(b)  Rs 256590

(c)  Rs 325680

(d)  Rs 289380

Answer: (d)

87. If 50% of a number is equal to another number, then their ratio will be

(a)  4 : 3

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  3 : 2

Answer: (b)

88. What is the remainder when 201202203204205206……….260 is divided by 9?

(a)  4

(b)  2

(c)  8

(d)  6

Answer: (d)

89. What percentage must be added to the cost price of goods so that a profit of 20% is obtained after allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price?

(a) 

(b)  50%

(c)  70%

(d)  25%

Answer: (a)

90. The average age of a group of n people increases by 12 if Tarun and Arun are excluded. The total age of two new people, Rohit and Mohit, is the same as that of Tarun and Arun. If Rohit and Mohit are added to the group of n people, the average age decrease by 4. Find n?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  2

Answer: (a)

91. What is the largest number that can exactly divide 52, 65 and 143?

(a)  11

(b)  3

(c)  15

(d)  13

Answer: (d)

92. There are two similar triangles. The sides of the first triangle are 2 cm 3 cm, and 4 cm. The perimeter of the second triangle is 81 cm. Find the corresponding sides of the other triangle (in cm).

(a)  18, 36, 27

(b)  27, 18, 36

(c)  18, 27, 36

(d)  36, 27, 18

Answer: (c)

93. Anand and Ravi can complete a piece of work in 12 days. Ravi and Chinmay can complete the same work in 16 days while Chinmay and Anand can complete the same work in 48 days. In how many days can Ravi alone complete the work?

(a)  18 days

(b)  46 days

(c)  10 days

(d)  16 days

Answer: (d)

94. Himanshu received a coded message : CHANGTANGSANG, which he as to decipher by forming a single word. He knows the correct position of all the A’s. Find the probability that he is able to decode the message correctly?

(a)  0.50

(b)  3!3!/10!

(c)  1/31

(d)  36/101

Answer: (b)

95. If  then what is the value of xx?

(a)  16

(b)  256

(c)  0

(d)  32

Answer: (b)

96. A train running at a speed of 60 km/h takes 24 seconds to pass a tunnel. Also it takes 15 seconds to pass a man walking at 6 km/h in the same direction in which the train is going. Find the length of the train and the length of the tunnel.

(a)  220 m and 230 m

(b)  225 m and 175 m

(c)  225 m and 150 m

(d)  180 m and 150 m

Answer: (b)

97. Two friends X and Y are 500 km apart. X takes his car and move towards B at a speed of 60 km/h and Y takes his Bike and moves towards A at 50 km/h. If X started at 9 am and Y started an hour later, at what time do they meet?

(a)  3 pm

(b)  12 noon

(c)  1 Pm

(d)  2 PM

Answer: (d)

98. The radius and the height of a cylinder are increased by 50% and 75% respectively. Express the original volume as a percentage of the volume obtained.

(a)  88.75%

(b)  25.39%

(c)  28.75%

(d)  48.75%

Answer: (b)

99. On selecting a 3 digit number at random, what is the probability of selecting a number which is divisible by both 5 and 9?

(a)  2/15

(b)  1/45

(c)  7/90

(d)  3/45

Answer: (b)

100. Express 0.222 ………. as a fraction.

(a)  2/9

(b)  1/5

(c)  1/12

(d)  1/7

Answer: (a)

101. A trader goes to a wholesaler to buy 500 kg of merchandise. The wholesaler has a weighing balance that reads 1200 gm for a kg. Later, the trader seels 5 kg to customer after marking up his cost price by 25% (without realizing that he was cheated by the wholesaler). What is the net gain or loss percent for the trader (approximately)?

(a)  0%

(b)  20% gain

(c)  3% loss

(d)  4.17% gain

Answer: (b)

102. The average of three consecutive numbers is 15 more than one-third the first number. Find the largest number.

(a)  21

(b)  19

(c)  23

(d)  22

Answer: (c)

103. Amin, Basha and Chaz can do a piece of work in 90, 40 and 12 days respectively. But they decide to work one at a time each day and receive Rs 240 towards their remuneration. Find the amount each person gets?

(a)  Rs 34, Rs 64, Rs 142

(b)  Rs 24, Rs 74, Rs 142

(c)  Rs 24, Rs 54, Rs 162

(d)  Rs 14, Rs 64, Rs 162

Answer: (c)

104. If March 5, 2012 was Wednesday, what was the day on November 5, 2014?

(a)  Saturday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Wednesday

(d)  Friday

Answer: (d)

105. If x/(y + z – x) = y/(z + x – y) = z/(x + y – z) = r, then r cannot take any value except

(a)  −1/2

(b)  1

(c)  1 or −1/2

(d)  −1 or 1/2

Answer: (c)

106. Find the nature of the roots of the question 3x2 + 5x + 3 = 0.

(a)  real and imaginary

(b)  imaginary

(c)  real and unequal

(d)  real and equal

Answer: (b)

107. In a group of 65 people, 40 people like only cricket and 10 people like both cricket and tennis. Everyone in the group like at least one of the two games. How many people like only tennis?

(a)  35

(b)  60

(c)  70

(d)  25

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 108-110) Please refer to the given diagram to answer the following questions.

108. Find the two sectors whose combined aggregate exceeds 25%, but is less than 50% of the total allocation in the year where the allocation of Rural Development and Other Sector are equal?

(a)  Agriculture and Industrial

(b)  Medical and Education

(c)  Agriculture and Medical

(d)  Medical and Industrial

Answer: (c)

109. For the sector which records maximum percentage increase in allocation as compared to the previous year, the difference between the outlay for the two years is

(a)  Rs 65000

(b)  Rs 40000

(c)  Rs 5000

(d)  Rs 50000

Answer: (a)

110. Total outlay in the year 1992 on agriculture and medicine together was how much percentage more than total outlay in the year 1991 on industrial and medicine together.

(a)  25%

(b)  100%

(c)  20%

(d)  50%

Answer: (d)

111. Two trains are running in same direction on parallel tracks at 25 mph and 30 mph respectively. If the first train leaves an hour earlier than second, how long will it take for the faster train to catch up with the slower train?

(a)  5 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  11 h

(d)  3 h

Answer: (a)

112. Find the percentage of population whose birthday falls on the last day of February in a leap year, assuming the number of births each day is the same.

(a)  0.2732%

(b)  2.74%

(c)  0.024%

(d)  0.0684%

Answer: (a)

113. A milkman makes a profit of 20%. If he adds 10% water to the original quantity of milk, then what will be his profit percentage?

(a)  32%

(b)  64%

(c)  128%

(d)  100%

Answer: (a)

114. Find the altitude of a right prism for which the area of the lateral surface is 143 sq. cm and the perimeter of the base is 13 cm.

(a)  22 cm

(b)  11 cm

(c)  16 cm

(d)  15 cm

Answer: (b)

115. An archer can hit the target at a certain percentage of accuracy. If the weather gets windy, his accuracy reduces by 20%. If he can hit the target 196 times out of 350 shots when the weather is windy what is his strike rate with 250 shots under normal conditions?

(a)  300 shots

(b)  200 shots

(c)  175 shots

(d)  250 shots

Answer: (c)

116. A solution contains vinegar and water in the ratio 5 : 3. What part of the solution should be replaced with water so that the new solution contains vinegar and water in equal quantities?

(a)  1/5

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/3

(d)  1/4

Answer: (a)

117. A sum of Rs 312 was divided among a group of 100 students in such a way that each boy got Rs 3.60 and each girl got Rs 2.40. Find the number of girls.

(a)  65

(b)  60

(c)  40

(d)  35

Answer: (c)

118. What is the value of 1/(1 × 2) + 1/(2 × 3) + 1/(3 × 4) + ………1/(49 × 50) upto 2 decimal places?

(a)  0.97

(b)  0.98

(c)  0.96

(d)  0.99

Answer: (b)

119. Shreya completes a work in one day 6 hours while Shridha completes the same work in 2 days and 12 hours. How long will they take to complete the work if they work together?

(a)  10 h

(b)  20 h

(c)  15 h

(d)  5 h

Answer: (b)

120. If the mode of the following data is 62, find the missing term.

21, 21, 22, 22, 213, 60, 60, 60, 63, 63, 63, 63, 63, 62, 62, 62, 62, 62, x

(a)  63

(b)  62

(c)  64

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (b)

Part 4 Reasoning Ability

121. A piece of paper is cut as shown in the following figure, in which a part of the picture is missing. From the given answer figures, select the appropriate part which is missing?

Answer: (b)

122. K is the mother-in-law of P. P is married to S. K has only one daughter. L is the daughter of P. How is S related to K?

(a)  Daughter

(b)  Son-in-law

(c)  Son

(d)  Mother

Answer: (a)

123. A piece of paper is cut as shown in the following figure, in which a part of the picture is missing. From the given answer figures, select the appropriate part which is missing?

Answer: (c)

124. Select the option which is different from the other given alternatives.

Answer: (b)

125. Select the option which is different from the given alternatives.

England, New Zealand, Wales, Scotland

(a)  Wales

(b)  Scotland

(c)  England

(d)  New Zealand

Answer: (d)

126. Read the following statement and answer which of the following arguments is strong.

Statement Should medical entrance test be made compulsory?

Arguments

(I) Yes, we have to ensure high quality of medical education to meet the demands of rapidly advancing medical field.

(II) No. This will keep medical education out of the reach of large number of rural and urban deprived children.

(a)  Neither argument I nor II is strong.

(b)  Only argument II is strong.

(c)  Only argument I is strong.

(d)  Both arguments I and II are strong.

Answer: (d)

127. In a certain code language, the word ‘HEAD’ is written as ‘IFBE’ and ‘IRON’ is written as ‘JSPO’. How is the word ‘JANE’ be written in that code?

(a)  KBOF

(b)  BFOB

(c)  KOBF

(d)  KBFO

Answer: (a)

128. Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among

Nucleus, Protons, Neutrons

Answer: (d)

129. Select the relative word for the second pair from the given options which will replace the question mark following the same relation as in the first pair.

CHURCH : TEMPLE : : CEMETERY : ?

(a)  CREMATORIUM

(b)  CORPSE

(c)  MORTUARY

(d)  MORGUE

Answer: (a)

130. A piece of paper is cut as shown in the following figure, in which a part of the picture is missing. From the given answer figures, select the appropriate part which is missing?

Answer: ()

131. The question given below consists of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then consider the two assumption together and decide which of them logically follow(S) beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement Good teachers develop good students.

Assumptions

(I) Strict teachers give quality education.

(II) Students like knowledgeable teacher.

(a)  Only assumption II is implicit.

(b)  Only assumption I is implicit.

(c)  Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

(d)  Both assumption I and II are implicit.

Answer: (c)

132. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.

95-15, 185-30, 305-50, 160-25

(a)  95-50

(b)  305-50

(c)  160-25

(d)  185-30

Answer: (c)

133. The question below consists of two statement labeled I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer.

How is man in the photograph related to Arjun?

(I) Pointing to the photograph, Arjun said, “He is the father of may father’s wife’s only daughter-in-law’s daughter’

(II) Pointing to the photograph, Arjun said, ‘He is the husband of my sister’s paternal grandmother’s husband’s one only daughter-in-law.’

(a)  Data in either statements I alone or II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  Data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (a)

134. Pointing at a lady in a photograph, a man said ‘She is niece of my only son.’ How is the man related to that lady?

(a)  Paternal grandfather

(b)  Brother-in-law

(c)  Maternal grandfather

(d)  Uncle

Answer: (c)

135. K T O * M A C $ T V @ S L G # U D P ! L V.

A Series is formed based on the sequence given above. What should come in place of question mark in the series ? O*M, C$T, @SL, #UD, ?

(a)  D P !

(b)  U D P

(c)  P ! L

(d)  ! L V

Answer: (d)

136. Latha starts from point A and walks for 2 km towards North, then turns to her right and walks for 2 km, then again turns to her right and walks for another 2 km In which direction is she facing now?

(a)  West

(b)  South

(c)  North

(d)  East

Answer: (b)

137. A person starts from his home for collecting money from various shops A, B, C, D and E. After collecting money from shop A, he reaches shop B which is 12 m to the West of shop A. Then he took a left turn to reach shop C, which is 5 m from shop B. Again he took two consecutive left turns, where he gets to go through the midpoint of shop A and shop B. Finally he reaches the shop E which is 3 m North from the midpoint of shop A and shop B.

What is the distance between shop C and shop E?

(a)  8 m

(b)  11 m

(c)  10 m

(d)  14 m

Answer: (c)

138. The question below consists of two statements labeled I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer.

What is the distance between the points A and D?

(I) Point A is 8 km to the West of point B, which is 7 km to the North of point C.

(II) Point A is 5 km to the North-East of point D. Point C is 7 km to South of point B.

(a)  Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(c)  Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

139. Read the following statements and answer which of the following arguments is strong.

Statement Should computer knowledge be made compulsory for all school students?

Arguments

(I) Yes, India is aiming at digitalizing its villages and starting computer education at school level will facilitate this.

(II) Yes, This will help the youth to be better equipped to seek jobs as computer knowledge is considered as an essential skill.

(a)  Only argument I is strong.

(b)  Only argument II is strong.

(c)  Neither argument I nor II is strong.

(d)  Both argument I and II are strong.

Answer: (d)

140. Find the odd man out of the given numbers.

32, 498, 108, 256

(a)  108

(b)  256

(c)  498

(d)  32

Answer: (c)

141. What will come in place of the question mark in the following letter series?

BDF, GIK, ?, QSU, VXZ

(a)  LNP

(b)  XZU

(c)  KGI

(d)  PLN

Answer: (a)

142. Praveen’s house is 300 m away in the South-East direction of Rajiv’s house. Joseph’s house is 300 m away in the North-East direction of Rajiv’s house. Gopal’s house is 300 m away in the North-West direction of Joseph’s house. Kavin’s house is located 300 m away is the South-West direction of Gopal’s house.

What is the position of Kavin’s in relation to that of Praveen?

(a)  South-East

(b)  South-West

(c)  North-West

(d)  North-East

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 143-145) Following are the conditions for the selection of Head Coach for Indian Cricket Team. The conditions are

(1) Candidate should have successfully coached a cricket team of any of the member countries of the ICC, at the first class or at the international level.

(2) Candidate should be qualified through a certification/assessment programme conducted by any of the full member countries and should currently passess such a valid certification.

(3) Communication skills benefitting the coach of an international team are mandatory along with the ability to effectively convey the right message and must demonstrate proficiency in English.

(4) Candidate should have an impeccable personal record, devoid of any past or current disputes, with any of the member boards of the ICC or its affiliates.

A person is selected as Head Coach of Indian Cricket team, if he fulfils the above criteria except.

(A) If the candidate does not fulfill anyone of the criteria and his name is asked to be included by all of the 3 cricket Advisory Committee members then he can be selected as Head Coach.

(B) Candidate doesn’t have any coaching experience, but he was captain of International Cricket Council (ICC) world cup winning team then he may be referred to the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) secretary.

(C) Candidate doesn’t have proficiency in English, but he is able to communicate in Hindi and other regional Indian Languages then he may referred to the Cricket Advisory committee members.

143. What is the decision to be taken in his case?

Jaffer has coached the Indian Railways team in the first class cricket and has the certification of the ICC and is well versed in English communication and he has no records of disputes.

(a)  Data inadequate

(b)  The candidate is not to be selected.

(c)  The candidate is to be selected.

(d)  Referred to the cricket advisory committee members/BCCI secretary

Answer: (c)

144. What is the decision to be taken in his case?

Pandey is a player in Indian team and has no experience in coaching any of the team. But his name is included by all of the 3 cricket advisory committee members.

(a)  Referred to the cricket advisory committee members/BCCI secretary

(b)  The candidate is not to be selected.

(c)  Data inadequate

(d)  The candidate is to be selected.

Answer: ()

145. What is the decision to be taken in his case?

Surya Rahul has coached Mumbai team in the domestic cricket and has the certification of the ICC and he doesn’t have proficiency in English, but he is able to communicate in Hindi and regional languages.

(a)  The candidate is not to be selected.

(b)  The candidate is to be selected.

(c)  Data inadequate

(d)  Referred to the cricket advisory committee members/BCCI secretary

Answer: (c)

146. In the following question, there are two statements followed by two conclusion. Read the conclusions and decide which of the conclusion (s) logically follow (s) the statements.

Statements No feeling is Joy.

No gram is quintal.

Conclusions

(I) No Joy is feeling.

(II) Some gram is quintal.

(a)  Only II follows

(b)  Both I and II follow

(c)  Only I follows

(d)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 147-149) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

(Number wherever they appear are two-digit numbers)

Input Sold data 19 2 4 from 92 then 40

Step I Data sold 19 24 from 92 then 40

Step II Data 92 sold 19 24 from then 40

Step III Data 92 from sold 19 24 then 40

Step IV Data 92 from 40 sold 19 24 then

Step V Data 92 from 40 sold 24 19 then

Step VI Data 92 from 40 sold 24 then 19

and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.

147. As per the rules followed in the above steps, which word/number is second to the right of fourth from the right end in the fourth step of the input given below?

Input Year 41 stock 48 honest for 93 5

(a)  93

(b)  honest

(c)  48

(d)  stock

Answer: (d)

148. As per the rules followed in the above steps, How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement for the input given below?

Input Year 41 stock 48 honest for 93 55

(a)  V

(b)  III

(c)  IV

(d)  VI

Answer: (d)

149. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.

If step II of an input is ‘highest 70 store paid 35 44 14 there’, which of the following will be step VI?

Input Year 41 stock 48 honest for 93 55

(a)  There will be no such step

(b)  Highest to paid 35 44 store 14 there

(c)  Highest to paid 44 store 35 there 14

(d)  Highest to paid 44 store 35 14 there

Answer: (a)

150. Surya is the mother of Akhil who has only two daughter Suji and Suvitha. How is Surya related to Suji?

(a)  Mother

(b)  Grandmother

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Sister

Answer: (b)

151. If in a certain code language, JEANS is coded as RLXAE, what will be the code for BOUND?

(a)  CLRXW

(b)  CLRKY

(c)  CLRKV

(d)  CLRKW

Answer: (d)

152. Select the option which is different from the given alternatives

Duck, Swan, Cuckoo, Deer

(a)  Cuckoo

(b)  Swan

(c)  Duck

(d)  Deer

Answer: (d)

153. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

6, 7, 20, ?, 34, 19

(a)  17

(b)  23

(c)  13

(d)  27

Answer: (c)

154. Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Library, Book, Pages

Answer: (d)

155. If in a certain code language, CONDITION is coded as PQEWLGRSM, what will be the code for SELECTION?

(a)  NHVWGHRGM

(b)  NGUWFHRSM

(c)  MHVWGHRGN

(d)  MIVGGURGN

Answer: (b)

156. If ‘÷’ is coded as $, ‘+’ is coded as @, ‘×’ is coded as #, ‘−’ is coded as © and if the value of following equation is 90, find which should replace the question mark in the equation?

(a)  12

(b)  4

(c)  8

(d)  16

Answer: (b)

157. In the following question, there are three statements followed by two conclusions. Read the conclusions and decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) the statements.

Statements No peanut is dawn.

Some dawns are cots.

All cylinders are wheels.

Conclusions

(I) Some cots are not peanuts.

(II) All dawns are wheels.

(a)  Only II follows

(b)  Only I follows

(c)  Both I and II follow

(d)  Neither I nor II follows

Answer: (b)

158. The question below consist of two statements labeled I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer.

There are five individuals called P, Q, R, S, and T. Who earns the third highest salary amongst them?

(I) T earns more than only one person, who is not P.

(II) R earns more than three persons, Q earns the highest.

(a)  Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(b)  Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

(c)  Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

(d)  Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Answer: (c)

159. The question given below consist of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then consider the two assumptions together and decide which of them logically follow(S) beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement Now a days harassment of women in public is increasing day by day.

Assumptions

(I) Easy access to media such as internet results in the corruption of the minds of the youth.

(II) Moral education is not properly imparted in the school and college levels.

(a)  Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

(b)  Only assumption II is implicit.

(c)  Both assumptions I and II are implicit.

(d)  Only assumption I is implicit.

Answer: (b)

160. Select the relative word for the second pair from the given options, which will replace the question mark following the same relation as in the first pair.

SUGARCANE : ETHANOL : : JATROPHA : ?

(a)  BIODIESEL

(b)  MANURE

(c)  PETROL

(d)  NATURAL GAS

Answer: (a)

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