BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2018
PART-I : PHYSICS
1. Four point charges –Q, −q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of t he square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:
(a) Q = −q
(b) Q = −1/q
(c) Q = q
(d) Q = 1/q
2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the perpendicular line joining the wires and at a distance x from the midpoint is-
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined to Y for a long time. Then, X joined to Z. The maximum charge on C at any later time will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at
(a) 30 cm left
(b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right
(d) 18 cm to the left
5. In Young’s double slit experiment, λ = 500 nm, d = 1 mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the central maximum for which intensity is half of the maximum intensity is
(a) 2.5 × 10−4 m
(b) 1.25 × 10−4 m
(c) 0.625 × 10−4 m
(d) 0.3125 × 10−4 m
6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier, where input resistance is 3 Ω and load resistance 24 Ω, β = 0.6?
(a) 8.4
(b) 4.8
(c) 2.4
(d) 480
7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and moon will be
(a) √6/2
(b) √24
(c) 3
(d) √3/2
8. Given 
The magnitude of their resultant is
(a) √3
(b) 2√3
(c) 3√3
(d) 4√3
9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude a and frequency v. The average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is
(a) 2π2ma2v2
(b) π2ma2v2
(c) 
(d) 4π2ma2v2
10. The dipole moment of the given charge distribution is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
11. At a place, if the earth’s horizontal and vertical components of magnetic fields are equal, then the angle of dip will be
(a) 30°
(b) 90°
(c) 45°
(d) 0°
12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalent to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground state energy of an electron of this ion will be
(a) 3.4 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 54.4 eV
(d) 122.4 eV
13. The binding energy per nucleon of 10X is 9 MeV and that of 11X is 7.5 MeV where X represents an element. The minimum energy required to remove a neutron from 11X is
(a) 7.5 MeV
(b) 2.5 MeV
(c) 8 MeV
(d) 0.5 MeV
14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a) C/g
(b) C/P
(c) PCg
(d) C2/g
15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in capillary tube will be
(a) = H
(b) > H
(c) < H
(d) zero
16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h finds the rain falling vertically. He increase his speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes 30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with respect to the road is
(a) 4√7 km/h
(b) 9√7 km/h
(c) 12√7 km/h
(d) 15√7 km/h
17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a money on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops. Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.
(a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
(d) Can’t be predicted
18. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v collides with a mass m2 at rest, then they get embedded. Just after collision, velocity of the system
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes zero
19. The ratio of the specific heats of a gas is Cp/Cv = 1.66, then the gas may be
(a) CO2
(b) He
(c) H2
(d) NO2
20. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by π, that is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies of the two oscillators is nearest to
(a) 2%
(b) 1%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.25%
21. A juggler keeps on moving four ball in the air throwing the balls after intervals. When one ball leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms−1) the position of other balls (height in m) will be (Take g = 10 ms−2)
(a) 10, 20, 10
(b) 15, 20, 15
(c) 5, 15, 20
(d) 5, 10, 20
22. If a stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown out a window of a train moving at a constant speed of 100 km/h then magnitude of the net force acting on the stone is
(a) 0.5 N
(b) zero
(c) 50 N
(d) 5 N
23. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is
(a) MV
(b) 1.5 MV
(c) 2 MV
(d) zero
24. A hoop rolls down an inclined plane. The fraction of its total kinetic energy that is associated with rotational motion is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
25. Infinite number of masses, each 1 kg are paced along the x-axis is at x = ±1m, ±2m, ±4m, ±8m, ± 16m …. the magnitude of the resultant gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin (x = 0) is
(a) G/2
(b) G
(c) 2G
(d) 4G
26. What of volume 2 litre in a container is heated with a coil of 1 kW at 27° The lid of the container is open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In how much time temperature will rise from 27°C to 77°C?
[Given specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg]
(a) 8 min 20 s
(b) 6 min 2 s
(c) 7 min
(d) 14 min
27. In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas, two adiabates cut two isotherms at T1 = 300 K and T2 = 200 K. The value of VA = 2 unit, VB = 8 unit, VC = 16 unit. Find the value of VD.
(a) 4 unit
(b) < 4 unit
(c) > 5 unit
(d) 5 unit
28. The mass of H2 molecule is 3.32 × 10−24 If 1023 hydrogen molecules per second strike 2 cm2 of wall at a an angle of 45° with the normal, while moving with a speed of 105 cm/s, the pressure exerted on the wall is nearly.
(a) 1350 N/m2
(b) 2350 N/m2
(c) 3320 N/m2
(d) 1660 N/m2
29. The wavelength of two waves are 50 and 51 cm respectively. If the temperature of the room is 20°C then what will be the number of beats produced per second by these waves, when the speed of sound at 0°C is 332 m/s?
(a) 24
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) None of these
30. The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in a double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are marked on five fringes.
The third order bright fringe is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
31. Electric potential at any point is V = −5x + 3y + √15z, then the magnitude of the electric field is
(a) 3√2
(b) 4√2
(c) 5√2
(d) 7
32. Seven resistances, each of value 20 Ω, are connected to a 2V battery as shown in the figure. The ammeter reading will be
(a) 1/10 A
(b) 3/10 A
(c) 4/10 A
(d) 7/10 A
33. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ) with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
34. A copper rod of length ℓ rotates about its end with angular velocity ω in uniform magnetic field B. The emf developed between the ends of the rod if the field is normal to the plane of rotation is
(a) Bωℓ2
(b) 
(c) 2 Bωℓ2
(d) 
35. A 10V battery with internal resistance 1Ω and a 15V battery with internal resistance 0.6 Ω are connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be close to :
(a) 12.5 V
(b) 24.5 V
(c) 13.1 V
(d) 11.9 V
36. 10 forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in such a way that any two nearest tuning forks produce 4 beats/sec. The highest frequency is twice of the lowest. Possible highest and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
(a) 80 and 40
(b) 100 and 50
(c) 44 and 22
(d) 72 and 36
37. A charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field with a certain velocity. The power delivered to the particle by the magnetic field depends on
(a) force exerted by magnetic field and velocity of the particle.
(b) angular speed ω and radius r of the circular path.
(c) angular speed ω and acceleration of the particle.
(d) None of these
38. A resistor and an inductor are connected to an ac supply of 120 V and 50 Hz. The current in the circuit is 3A. If the power consumed in the circuit is 108 W, then the resistance in the circuit is
(a) 12 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 
(d) 360 Ω
39. In an electron gun, the potential difference between the filament and plate is 3000 V. What will be the velocity of electron emitting from the gun?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s
(b) 3.18 × 107 m/s
(c) 3.52 × 107 m/s
(d) 3.26 × 107 m/s
40. A radioactive substance with decay constant of 0.5s−1 is being produced at constant rate of 50 nuclei per second. If there are no nuclei present initially, the time (in second) after which 25 nuclei will be present is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) ln (4/3)
(d) 2 ln(4/3)
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
41. The 25 mL of a 0.15 M solution of lead nitrate, Pb(NO3)2 reacts with all of the aluminium sulphate, Al2(SO4)3, present in 20 mL of a solution. What is the molar concentration of the Al2(SO4)3?
3Pb(NO3)2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 3PbSO4(s) + 2Al(NO3)3(aq)
(a) 6.25 × 10−2 M
(b) 2.421 × 10−2 M
(c) 0.1875 M
(d) None of these
42. 100 mL O2 and H2 kept at same temperature and pressure. What is true about their number of molecules
(a) NO2 > NH2
(b) NO2 < NH2
(c) NO2 = NH2
(d) NO2 + NH2 = 1 mole
43. If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js, the de Broglie wavelength of a particle having momentum of 3.3 × 10−24 kg ms−1 will be
(a) 0.002 Å
(b) 0.5 Å
(c) 2 Å
(d) 500 Å
44. Amongst the elements with following electronic configuration, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy?
(a) [Ne] 3s23p2
(b) [Ar] 3d104s24p3
(c) [Ne] 3s23p1
(d) [Ne] 3s23p3
45. Which of the following is the correct and increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(a) IF7 < IF5 < ClF3 < XeF2
(b) IF7 < XeF2 < ClF2 < IF5
(c) IF7 < ClF3 < XeF2 < IF5
(d) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < ClF3
46. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the magnetic character and bond order is correct regarding O2+
(a) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O2
(b) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2
(c) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O2
(d) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
47. If V is the volume of one molecular of gas under given conditions, the van der Waal’s constant b is
(a) 4V
(b) 4V/N0
(c) N0/4V
(d) 4VN0
48. For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ∆H and ∆S are 40.63 kJmol−1 and 108.8 JK−1 mol−1, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (∆G) for this transformation will be zero, is:
(a) 293.4 K
(b) 273.4 K
(c) 393.4 K
(d) 373.4 K
49. For the reaction taking place at certain temperature
NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then ∆rG° would be
(a) −RT ln 9 – 3RT ln X
(b) RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X
(c) −3RT ln X
(d) None of these
50. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order:
(a) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(b) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(c) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
51. When N2O2 is heated at certain temperature, it dissociates as
N2O5(g) ⇌ N2O3(g) + O2(g); Kc = 2.5. At the same time N2O3 also decomposes as:
N2O3(g) ⇌ N2O3(g) + O2(g). If initially 4.0 moles of N2O5 are taken in 1.0 litre flask and allowed to dissociate. Concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 2.5 M. Equilibrium concentration of N2O5 is :
(a) 1.0 M
(b) 1.5 M
(c) 2.166 M
(d) 1.846 M
52. Consider the reactions
(A) H2O2 + 2Hl → I2 + 2H2O
(B) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl− + O2
Which of the following statements is correct about H2O2 with reference to these reactions?
Hydrogen peroxide is_______.
(a) an oxidizing agent in both (A) and (B)
(b) an oxidizing agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidizing agent in (B)
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)
53. Following are colours shown by some alkaline earth metals in flame test. Which of the following are not correctly matched?
Metal Colour
(i) Calcium Apple green
(ii) Strontium Crimson
(iii) Barium Brick red
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) only
(c) (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iii)
54. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the following similarity is incorrect?
(a) Be forms beryllates and Al form aluminates
(b) Be(OH)2 like Al(OH)3 is basic.
(c) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO3.
(d) Be2C like Al4C3 yields methane on hydrolysis.
55. An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns2np1. The formula and nature of its oxide is
(a) XO3, basic
(b) XO3, acidic
(c) X2O3, amphoteric
(d) X2O3, basic
56. Which of the following is strongest nucleophile
(a) Br−
(b) :OH−
(c) :CN−
(d) 
57. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(a) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
(b) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane
(c) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane
(d) 1, 1-1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol
58. Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?
(a) 2, 3-Dichloropentane
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
59. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
60. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun.
(b) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.
(c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
(d) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the depletion of ozone layer.
61. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic mass of the element is 120 and its density is 6.5 g/cm3, the crystal lattice is : (use NA = 6 × 1023)
(a) primitive
(b) body centered
(c) face centered
(d) end centered
62. Chloroform, CHCl3, boils at 61.7° If the Kb for chloroform is 3.63°C/molal, what is the boiling point of a solution of 15.0 kg of CHCl3 and 0.616 kg of acenaphthalene, C12H10?
(a) 61.9
(b) 62.0
(c) 52.2
(d) 62.67
63. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence, its osmotic pressure at a given temperature TK is
(a) 0.1 RT
(b) 0.11 RT
(c) 1.1 RT
(d) 0.01 RT
64. On passing a current of 1.0 ampere for 16 min and 5 sec through on litre solution of CuCl2, all copper of the solution was deposited at cathode. The strength of CuCl2 solution was (Molar mass of Cu = 63.5; Faraday constant = 96,500 Cmol−1)
(a) 0.01 N
(b) 0.01 M
(c) 0.02 M
(d) 0.2 N
65. A 100.0 mL dilute solution of Ag+ is electrolysed for 15.0 minutes with a current of 1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely. What was the initial [Ag+]?
(a) 2.32 × 10−1
(b) 2.32 × 10−4
(c) 2.32 × 10−3
(d) 1.16 × 10−5
66. The accompanying figure depicts a change in concentration of species A and B for the reaction A → B, as a function of time. The point of inter section of the two curves represents
(a) t1/2
(b) t3/4
(c) t2/3
(d) Data insufficient to predict
67. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 10−3 at 25°C and 2.1 × 10−2 at 60° The activation energy is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
68. Freundlich equation for adsorption of gases (in amount of x g) on a solid (in amount of m g) at constant temperature can be expressed as
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
69. Which of the following feature of catalysts is described in reactions given below?
(a) Activity
(b) Selectivity
(c) Catalytic promoter
(d) Catalytic poison
70. Which of the following is not a member of chalcogens?
(a) O
(b) S
(c) Se
(d) Po
71. Pick out the wrong statement.
(a) Nitrogen the ability to from pπ-pπ bonds with itself.
(b) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental state.
(c) Catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen when compared with other elements of the same group.
(d) Nitrogen has higher first ionization enthalpy when compared with other elements of the same group.
72. Which of the following element do not form complex with EDTA?
(a) Ca
(b) Mg
(c) Be
(d) Sr
73. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behavior?
(a) [Co(CN)6]3−
(b) [Fe(CN)6]3−
(c) [Mn(CN)6] 3−
(d) [Cr(CN)6] 3−
(At. Nos : Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
74. When a aqueous solution of copper (II) sulphate is satuarated with ammonia, the blue compound crystallizes on evaporation. The formula of this blue compound is:
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 ∙ H2O (square planar)
(b) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (Tetrahedral)
(c) [Cu(NH3)6]SO4 (Octahedral)
(d) [Cu(SO4) (NH3)5 (Octahedral)
75. 
Here [Y] is a
(a) single compound
(b) mixture of two compounds
(c) mixture of three compounds
(d) no reaction is possible
76. Following compounds are given:
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3COCH3
(3) 
(4) CH3OH
Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will given iodoform?
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
(c) only (2)
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
77. Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order of their reactivity towards the reaction with HCl.
(CH3)2CH-OH(1), (CH3)3C-OH(2), (C6H5)3C-OH(3)
(a) 1 < 2 < 3
(b) 2 < 1 < 3
(c) 3 < 1 < 2
(d) 2 < 3 < 1
78. Thirty percent of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted from eukaryotic cells is adenine. What percentage of cytosine is present in this DNA?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
79. The blue colour of snail is due to presence of
(a) Albumin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Globulins
(d) Fibrinogen
80. Which of the following is a diamine?
(a) Dopamine
(b) Histamine
(c) Meprobamate
(d) Chlorphenamine
PART-III(A) : ENGLISH PROFICIENCY
81. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Optimistic’.
(a) Favourable
(b) Gloomy
(c) Hopeful
(d) Rude
82. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Drowsy’.
(a) Sleepy
(b) Nodding
(c) Yawning
(d) Wakeful
Direction (83-85): Which of the following phrases (I), (II) and (III) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it i s, mark (d) i.e., “NO correction required” as the answer.
83. He is really feeling under the weather today; he has a terrible cold.
(I) feeling like the weather
(II) feeling over the weather
(III) feeling in the weather
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (III) is correct
(c) Only (II) is correct
(d) No correction required
84. By working part-time and looking after his old mother, he managed to get the best for both worlds.
(I) the best at both worlds
(II) the best of both worlds
(III) the best on both worlds
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (II) is correct
(c) Only (III) is correct
(d) No correction required
85. Hey, Nanny, speak about the devil and you are here.
(I) speak at the devil
(II) speak on the devil
(III) speak of the devil
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (II) is correct
(c) Only (III) is correct
(d) No correction required
DIRECTION (86-90) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The likelihood of at least 600,000 deaths being caused annually in India by find particulate matter pollution in the air is cause for worry, even if the data released by the World Health Organization are only a modeled estimate. The conclusion that so many deaths cold be attributed to particular matter 2.5 micrometres or less in size is, of course, caveated, since comprehensive measurement of PM2.5 is noty et being done and the linkages between pollution, disease and deaths need further study. What is not in doubt is that residents in many urban areas are forced to breathe unhealthy levels of particulates, and the smallest of these – PM10 and less – can penetrate and get lodged deep in the lungs. The WHO Global Burden of Disease study has been working to estimate pollution-linked health impacts, such as stroke and ischaemic heart disease, acute lower respiratory infection and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Data on find particulates in India show that in several locations the pollutants come from burning of biomass, such as coal, fuel wood, farm litter and cow dung cakes. In highly built-up areas, construction debris, road dust and vehicular exhaust add to the problem. The Prime Minister launched an Air Quality Index last year aimed at improving pollution control. The new data, which the WHO says provide the best evidence available on the terrible toll taken by particulates, should lead to intensified action. A neglected aspect of urban air pollution control is the virtual discarding of the Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules, notified to sustainably manage debris that is dumped in the cities, creating severe particulate pollution.
The Environment Ministry has highlighted the role that debris can play as a resource. Municipal and government contracts are, under the rules, required to utilize up to 20 per cent materials made from construction and demolition waste, and local authorities must place containers to hold debris. This must be implemented without delay. Providing cleaner fuels and scientifically designed cookstoves to those who have no option but to burn biomass, would have a big impact on reducing particulate matter in the northern and eastern States, which are the worst-hit during winter, when biomass is also used for heating. Greening the cities could be made a mission, involving civil society, with a focus on landscaping open spaces and paying all public areas to reduce dust. These measures can result in lower PM10 and PM2.5 levels. Comprehensive measurement of these particulates is currently absent in many cities, a lacuna that needs to be addressed.
86. According to the WHO Global Burden of Disease study which of the following is/are pollution linked health impacts?
(I) Infection of the lower respiratory system
(II) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(III) Stroke and ischaemic heart disease
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) All of the above
87. The conclusion regarding the deaths attributed to particulate matter 2.5 micrometers is considered to be caveated because
(a) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 has been done comprehensively
(b) Measurement of all aspects of PM2.5 is not radical.
(c) Relation between pollution, disease and death is complete
(d) None of these
88. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Eastern and Southern states are worst hit in winter by burning of biomass.
(b) The smallest particulate matter PM2.5 penetrates and gets lodged in lungs.
(c) Data on fine particulates in India show that in several locations the pollutants come from the smoke emitted by vehicles.
(d) None is true
89. As per the given passage, which of the following is/are the measures for lowering particulate matter in the atmosphere?
(I) Making cleaner fuels available
(II) Landscaping open areas
(III) Providing cooking stoves designed scientifically
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) All of the above
(d) None of these
90. If sentence (B) “The Finance Ministry’s warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investments area has opened up that few have enough information about.” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after rearrangement?
(A) One of the main reasons for this volatility is speculation and the entry into the market of large number of people lured by the prospect of quick and easy profits.
(B) The Finance Ministry’s warning to potential investors in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies has come at a time when a new, seemingly attractive investment area has opened up that few have enough information
(C) A number of investors, daunted by the high price of bitcoin, have put their money into less well-established and often spurious cryptocurrencies, only to lose it all.
(D) Investment in bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies increased tremendously in India over the past year, but most new users know close to nothing of the technology, or how to verify the genuineness of a particular cryptocurrency.
(E) The price of bitocin, the most popular of all cryptocurrencies, not only shot up by well over 1000% over the course of the last year but also fluctuated wildly.
(F) The government’s caution comes on top of three warnings issued by the Reserve Bank of India since 2013.
(a) CDEFA
(b) EAFDC
(c) DCAEF
(d) ECDAF
91. If sentence (C) “Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organizations (CROs) in India.” is the first sentence, what is the order of other sentences after arrangement?
(A) Such over-volunteering occurs more frequently bioequivalence studies, which test the metabolism of generics in healthy subjects.
(B) Landmark amendments to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act in 2013 led to better protection of vulnerable groups such as illiterate people, but more regulation is needed to ensure truly ethical research.
(C) Clinical trials involving human subjects have long been a flashpoint between bioethicists and clinical research organizations (CROs) in India.
(D) The big problem plaguing clinical research is an over-representation of low-income groups among trial subjects.
(E) While CROs have argued that more rules will stifle the industry, the truth is that ethical science is often better science.
(F) Sometimes CROs recruit them selectively, exploiting financial need and medical ignorance; at other times people overvolunteer for the money.
(a) ABDFE
(b) BDEAF
(c) DFAEB
(d) BEDFA
DIRECTION (92-93) : Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
92. Despite (a)/ a good teacher, (b)/ he has no influence on his pupil. (c)/ No error (d)
93. Yesterday, when we were returning from the party, (a)/ our car met with an accident, (b)/ but we were fortunate to each our home safely.(c)/ No error (d)
94. A group of sheep is known as :
(a) bunch
(b) herd
(c) band
(d) fleet
95. A group of trees is known as:
(a) grove
(b) parliament
(c) heap
(d) hedge
PART-III (B) : LOGICAL REASONING
96. In a code language, if REGAINS is coded as QDFZHMR, then the word PERIODS will be coded as-
(a) ODQNHCR
(b) ODDQHCR
(c) ODQHNCR
(d) ODQHNRC
97. If 5#6 = 121 and 10#8 = 324, then find the value of 23 # 14 = ?
(a) 1369
(b) 1349
(c) 1331
(d) 725
98. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
99. Which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among
Professor, Male and Female.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
100. Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
Distance : Odometer : : ? : Barometer
(a) Humidity
(b) Pressure
(c) Thickness
(d) Wind
101. Find the odd word/letters/number pair/ number from the given alternatives.
(a) 24-1614
(b) 270-569
(c) 120-4325
(d) 162-6930
102. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.
L_NO_ _ MLM _ OO_ML
(a) MNNNO
(b) MONNO
(c) MONON
(d) MONNN
103. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.
22, 26, 53, 69, 194, ?
(a) 230
(b) 260
(c) 250
(d) 245
104. Select the missing number from the given responses.
(a) 888
(b) 788
(c) 848
(d) 842
105. Identify the figure that will complete the pattern.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
PART-IV : MATHEMATICS
106. The domain of the function 
where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is
(a) (0, ∞)
(b) (−∞, 0)
(c) (−∞,∞)
(d) None of these
107. If m sin θ = n sin(θ + 2α) then tan (θ + α) is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
108. Number of solutions of equation sin 9θ = sin θ in the interval [0, 2π] is
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 15
109. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park ABC. If the angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of the park is same, then the foot of the pole is at the
(a) centroid
(b) circumcentre
(c) incentre
(d) orthocentre
110. Let A, B and C are the angles of a plain triangle and 
Then 
is equal to
(a) 7/9
(b) 2/9
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3
111. If the amplitude of z – 2 – 3i is π/4, then the locus of z = x + iy is
(a) x + y – 1 = 0
(b) x – y – 1 = 0
(c) x + y + 1 = 0
(d) x – y + 1 = 0
112. The roots of the equation x4 – 2x3 + x = 380 are :
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
113. Roots of the equation x2 + bx – c = 0(b, c > 0) are
(a) Both positive
(b) Both negative
(c) Of opposite sign
(d) None of these
114. In how many ways can 12 gentlemen sit around a round table so that three specified gentlemen are always together?
(a) 9!
(b) 10!
(c) 3!10!
(d) 3!9!
115. The number of ways in which first, second and third prizes can b e given to 5 competitors is
(a) 10
(b) 60
(c) 15
(d) 125
116. The coefficient of x3 in the expansion of 
is:
(a) 14
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 35
117. If x > 0, the 
(a) x
(b) x2
(c) 2x
(d) √x
118. If a, b, c are in G.P., then
(a) a2, b2, c2 are in GP.
(b) a2(b + c),c2(a + b), b2(a + c) are in GP.
(c) 
(d) None of these
119. The locus of the point of intersection of the lines 
represent (t being a parameter)
(a) circle
(b) parabola
(c) ellipse
(d) hyperbola
120. The equation of the circle which passes through the point (4, 5) and has its centr is (2, 2) is
(a) (x – 2) + (y – 2) = 13
(b) (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 13
(c) (x)2 + (y)2 = 13
(d) (x – 4)2 + (y – 5)2 = 13
121. Eccentricity of ellipse 
if it passes through point (9, 5) and (12, 4) is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
122. Consider the equation of a parabola y2 + 4ax = 0, where a > 0 which of the following is/are correct?
(a) Tangent at the vertex is x = 0
(b) Directrix of the parabola is x = 0
(c) Vertex of the parabola is not at the origin
(d) Focus of the parabola is at (a, 0)
123. The value of 
is equal to:
(a) ∞
(b) 1/2
(c) 2
(d) 0
124. 
is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) ∞
(d) None of these
125. The probability of getting 10 in a single throw of three fair dice is:
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/8
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/5
126. Number of solutions of the equation tan−1(1 +x) + tan−1(1 – x) = π/2 are
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
127. If 
is an orthogonal matrix, then
(a) a = −2, b = −1
(b) a = 2, b = 1
(c) a = 2, b = 1
(d) a = −2, b = 1
128. The points represented by the complex numbers 1 + i, 2 + 3i, 
on the argand plane are
(a) vertices of an equilateral triangle
(b) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(c) collinear
(d) None of these
129. If matrix 
then k is
(a) 7
(b) −7
(c) 15
(d) −11
130. If x, y, z are complex numbers, and 
then ∆ is
(a) purely real
(b) purely imaginary
(c) complex
(d) 0
131. If 
Then the function is
(a) discontinuous at x = nπ + π/4
(b) continuous at x = nπ + π/4
(c) discontinuous at all x
(d) None of these
132. If 
(a) f(x) is continuous at x = 0
(b) f(x) is continuous at x = π
(c) f(x) is continuous at x = 3π/4
(d) f(x) is discontinuous at x = 3π/4
133. The value of c in (0, 2) satisfying the mean value theorem for the function f(x) = x(x – 1)2, x ∈ [0, 2] is equal to
(a) 3/4
(b) 4/3
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3
134. If 
at x = 1 is eqal to
(a) 7/4
(b) 7/8
(c) 1/4
(d) −7/8
135. Let y = e2x. Then 
is
(a) 1
(b) e−2x
(c) 2e−2x
(d) −2e−2x
136. A ball is dropped from a platform 19.6 m high. Its position function is-
(a) x = −4.9t2 + 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 1)
(b) x = −4.9t2 + 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 2)
(c) x = −9.8t2 + 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 2)
(d) x = −4.9t2 − 19.6 (0 ≤ t ≤ 2)
137. The value of the integral 
is:
(a) π
(b) 1/2(b – a)
(c) π/2
(d) b – a
138. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
139. If 
then 
(a) 2m + n
(b) m + 2n
(c) m – n
(d) m + n
140. An integrating factor of the differential equation 
is
(a) sin2x
(b) 2/sin x
(c) log|sin x|
(d) 1/sin2x
141. The expression satisfying the differential equation 
(a) x2y – xy2 = c
(b) (y2 – 1) x = y + c
(c) (x2 – 1)y = x + c
(d) none of these
142. Let 
and 
Then 
depends on
(a) only y
(b) only x
(c) both x and y
(d) neither x nor y
143. If 
are the position vectors of the vertices of a triangle ABC taken in order, then ∠A is equal to
(a) π/2
(b) π/5
(c) π/6
(d) π/3
144. The objection of line joining (3, 4, 5) and (4, 6, 3) on the line joining (−1, 2, 4) and (1, 0, 5) is
(a) 4/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 8/3
(d) 1/3
145. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Every L.P.P admits an optimal solution.
(b) AL.P.P admits a unique optimal solution.
(c) If a L.P.P. admits two optimal solutions, it has an infinite number of optimal solutions.
(d) The set of all feasible solutions of a L.P.P. is not a convex set.
146. If the constraints in a linear programming problem are changed then
(a) The problem is to be re-evaluated.
(b) Solution is not defined.
(c) The objective function has to be modified.
(d) The change in constraints is ignored.
147. In a binomial distribution the mean is 4 and variance is 3. Then its mode is:
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) None of these
148. The sum 
is equal to
(a) ea
(b) 
(c) (a – 1) ea
(d) (a + 1) ea
149. The Boolean expression ~(p ⋁ q) ⋁(~p ⋀ q) is equivalent to:
(a) p
(b) q
(c) ~q
(d) ~p
150. If in a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its mode is approximately
(a) 25.5
(b) 24.0
(c) 22.0
(d) 20.5