## BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2021

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle of ABCDA as shown in the p-V diagram.

The work done during the cycle is

(a)   pV

(b)   2pV

(c)   pV/2

(d)   zero

2. The initial speed of a body of mass 2.0 kg is 5 m/s. A force acts for 4 s in the direction of motion of the body, as shown in force-time graph. The impulse of force is

(a)   8.50 Ns

(b)   8 Ns

(c)   5.5 Ns

(d)   6 Ns

3. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the object’s volume (∆V/V) and its bulk modulus B are related as

4. A shunt is connected in parallel with a galvanometer. Why?

(a)   To prevent galvanometer from strong current

(b)   To convert galvanometer into ammeter

(c)   To increase the range of ammeter

(d)   All of the above

5. The phase difference between the Vout­ and V­in of CE-amplifier circuit is

(a)   90°

(b)   180°

(c)   0°

(d)   270°

6. If nth division of main scale coincides with (n + 1)th divisions of vernier scale. The least count of the vernier is (Given, one main scale division is equal to a units)

7. A uniform rod AB of length L = 1 m is sliding along two mutually perpendicular surfaces OP and OQ as shown in figure.

When the rod subtends an angle θ = 30° with OQ, then the end B has a velocity √3 m/s. The velocity of end A at that time is

(a)   1 m /s

(b)   0.5 m/s

(c)   √3 m/s

(d)   1/√3 m/s

8. A tray of mass (M) 12 kg is supported by a spring as shown in figure.

When the tray is pressed down and released, it executes SHM with a period of 1.5 s. When a block of mass m placed on the tray, then the period of SHM changes to 3.0 s. The mass of block is

(a)   36 kg

(b)   48 kg

(c)   12 kg

(d)   24 kg

9. The phasor diagram of a load represents which circuit?

(a)   Purely capacitive

(b)   Purely inductive

(c)   R-L-C circuit with XL more than XC

(d)   R-L-C circuit with XL less than XC

10. The equation of progressive wave is given by  Which one of the following is correct?

(a)   υ = 5 cm/s

(b)   λ = 18 cm

(c)   A = 0.04 cm

(d)   f = 50 Hz

11. The property of light used in optical fibre cable is

(a)   total internal reflection

(b)   refraction

(c)   interference

(d)   polarization

12. A man walks in a straight line for 5 mine with a velocity of 45 m/s. What is the speed with which he has to move in order to comeback to its original position in 1.5 min?

(a)   90 m/s

(b)   150 m/s

(c)   135 m/s

(d)   115 m/s

13. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, spherical portion of radius R/2 is removed as shown in the figure.

Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = ∞, the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is

(a)   −GM/2R

(b)   −GM/R

(c)   −2GM/3R

(d)   −2GM/R

14. Four charges equal to +Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge (−q) is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium, then the value of –q is

15. A force F = a + bx acts on a particle in the x-direction, where a and b are constants. The work done by this force during a displacement from x =0 to x = d is

16. A proton has kinetic energy E = 100 eV which is equal to that of a photon. The wavelength of photon is λ2 and that of proton is λ1. The ratio λ21 is proportional to

(a)   E2

(b)   E1/2

(c)   E−1

(d)   E1/2

17. A block of mass 10 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.1. The friction force on the block is

(a)   4.9 N

(b)   49√3 N

(c)   49 N

(d)   0.1 × 49√3 N

18. Which of the following graphs show the correct relation between conductivity and temperature for a metallic conductor?

19. The radius of a muonic hydrogen atom is 2.5 × 1013 The total atomic volume (in m3) of a mole of such hydrogen atoms is

(Take, π = 3.14)

(a)   3.94 × 1014

(b)   3.09 × 1014

(c)   4 × 1014

(d)   3.9 × 1014

20. The angular momentum of a body placed at origin of mass 1 kg and having position vector  is

(a)   time dependent

(b)

(c)

(d)   0

21. If the earth stops rotating about its axis, then what will be the change in the value of g at a place in the equatorial plane?

(Radius of earth = 6400 km)

(a)   3.7 cm/s2

(b)   9.8 m/s2

(c)   0

(d)   3.4 cm/s2

22. Two cars approach a stationary observer from opposite sides as shown in the figure.

The observer hears to beats. If the frequency of the horn of the car B is 504 Hz, then the frequency of the horn of the car A will be

(a)   529.2 Hz

(b)   440.5 Hz

(c)   295.2 Hz

(d)   None of these

23.

In the following circuit, assuming point A to be at zero potential, then what is the potential at point B?

(a)   1 V

(b)   2 V

(c)   4 V

(d)   3 V

24. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other as shown in the figure.

A ray of light is incident at an angle 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times, the ray undergoes reflection (excluding the first one) before it emerges out is

(a)   28

(b)   34

(c)   30

(d)   29

25. A projectile is given an initial velocity of  where  is along the ground and  is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, then the equation of its trajectory is

(a)   y = x  + 5x2

(b)   y = x – 5x2

(c)   y = x2 + 5x

(d)   y = x2 – 5x

26. Two drops of equal radius R coalesce to form a bigger drop. What is the ratio of surface energy of bigger drop to smaller one?

(a)   21/3; 1

(b)   22/3 : 1

(c)   1 : 1

(d)   21/2 : 1

27. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively, are having same charge and moving on same plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles are vA and v respectively and the trajectories are as shown in figure. Then,

(a)   mA = mB and vA = vB

(b)   mAvA > mB­vB

(c)   mA < mB and vA < υB

(d)   mAvA < mBvB

28. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is decreased. As a result, in the emitted radiation,

(a)   the intensity increases

(b)   the intensity decreases

(c)   the minimum wavelength increases

(d)   the minimum wavelength decreases

29. The ratio of the specific heats  in terms of degrees of freedom n is given by

30. A cyclist speeding at 6 m/s in a circle of 18 m radius makes an angle θ with the vertical. The minimum possible value of coefficient of friction between the tyres and the ground is

(a)   12.041

(b)   0.2041

(c)   11.32

(d)   10.020

31. Three particles each of mass m are kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side b. Moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centroid and perpendicular to its plane is

(a)   3 mb2

(b)   mb2

(c)   mb2/3

(d)

32. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° in a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience

(a)   torque only

(b)   translational force only in the direction of the field

(c)   translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(d)   torque as well as a translational force

33. Two coils A and B have a mutual inductance 0.001 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the equation i = i0 sin ωt, where i0 = 10A and ω = 10π rads1. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is

(a)   0.01 π V

(b)   1 πV

(c)   0.1 π V

(d)   0.05 π V

34. The current in the circuit will be

(a)   0.125 A

(b)   0.1 A

(c)   0.5 A

(d)   0.25 A

35. The bob of a pendulum of length 2m lies at P, when it reaches Q, it loses 10% of its total energy due to air resistance.

The velocity of bob at Q is

(a)   6 m/s

(b)   1 m/s

(c)   2 m/s

(d)   8 m/s

36. A particle executes SHM with a frequency f. The frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is

(a)   f/2

(b)   f

(c)   2f

(d)   4f

37. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per min. After 5 min, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per min. Then, the disintegration constant (per min) is

(a)   0.4 loge 2

(b)   0.2 loge 2

(c)   0.1 loge 2

(d)   0.8 loge 2

38. The separation between two parallel plates of capacitor is 1 mm. What is the electric potential generates between the plates of capacitor, when electric field of 2000 N/C is applied on it?

(a)   2 V

(b)   2000 V

(c)   0.2 V

(d)   200 V

39. Choose the correct statement.

(a)   The speed of light in the meta-material is υ = c|n|.

(b)   The speed of light in the meta-material is υ = c/|n|.

(c)   The speed of light in the meta-material is υ = c.

(d)   The wavelength of the light in the meta-material (λm) is given by λm = λair|n|.

40. A T-shaped object with dimensions shown in figure, is lying on a smooth floor. A force F is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that the object has only the translational motion without rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C.

PART II

Chemistry

41. The most volatile compound among the given option is

(a)   o-nitrophenol

(b)   p-nitrophenol

(c)   m-nitrophenol

(d)   can’t say

42. What is the magnetic moment of Ti2+?

(Given : Atomic number = 22)

(a)   √8

(b)   √10

(c)   √6

(d)   √9

43. Why only Xe can form compounds with fluorine among noble gases?

(a)   Large size

(b)   Low electronegativity

(c)   High ionization energy

(d)   Low electron gain enthalpy

44. Which of the following inert gas is used as cryogenic agent?

(a)   He

(b)   Ne

(c)   Ar

(d)   Kr

45. For the following reaction,

2A + 3B → 3C + 4D

Expression for rate of reaction is

46. Cyclohexanol on reacting with H2SO4 and then heating gives

(a)   cyclohexene

(b)   cyclohexanone

(c)   cyclohexanol

(d)   None of these

47. The major product obtained on reaction of 3-methylbutene with HCl is

(a)   2-chloro-2-methylbutane

(b)   3-chloro-2-methylbutane

(c)   1-chloro-2-methylbutane

(d)   3-chloro-3-methylbutane

48. If Rydberg constant is same for all elements, the angular momentum and energy of Li2+ of which orbital is equal to angular momentum and energy of 1s-orbital of hydrogen atom?

(a)   3s

(b)   4s

(c)   2p

(d)   3d

49. Sodium iodide reacts with ammonia to give

(a)   [Na(NH3)4]I

(b)   [Na(NH3)4]I3

(c)   [Na(NH3)I3]I

(d)   [Na(NH3)3I]

50. In photography, which compound is used as a fixing agent

(a)   sodium thiosulphate

(b)   ammonium thiosulphate

(c)   sodium chloride

(d)   Both (a) and (b)

51. The compound formed on reaction of epoxy ethane with NH3 and H2O is

(a)   mono-ethanol amines

(b)   di-ethanol amines

(c)   tri-ethanol amines

(d)   All of these

52. The process of removal of excess electrolyte from colloidal solution is

(a)   coagulation

(b)   dialysis

(c)   ultra-filtration

(d)   peptisation

53. Maltase converts maltose into

(a)   glucose

(b)   sucrose

(c)   fructose

(d)   starch

54. Starch is a polymer of

(a)   glucose

(b)   fructose

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   None of these

55. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using

(a)   Fehling solution

(b)   Schiff’s reagent

(c)   Sodium hydroxide and iodine

(d)   Phthalein fusion test

56. Sodium stearate (C17H35COONa+) is

(a)   anionic soap

(b)   cationic detergent

(c)   anionic detergent

(d)   Non-ionic soap

57. Which is not an anti-fluorite structure

(a)   Rb2S

(b)   BaF2

(c)   K2O

(d)   Li2O

58. The structure of ClF3 is

(a)   T-shape

(b)   bent shape

(c)   linear

(d)   trigonal planar

59. Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature?

(a)   O2

(b)   O22

(c)   N22+

(d)   B2

60. The correct order of bond order in SO2, SO3, SO42, SO32 is

(a)   SO32 > SO42 > SO3 = SO2

(b)   SO42 > SO3 > SO2 > SO32−

(c)   SO2 = SO3 > SO42 > SO32

(d)   Can’t say

61. Ionisation energy for H+ ion is proportional to rn, then value of n is

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   2

(d)   −2

62. Role of BHA in food industries

(a)   prevent oxidation

(b)   prevent reduction

(d)   None of these

63. Permanganate ion (MnO4) is dark purple coloured though Mn is in +7 oxidation state with d0 This is due to

(a)   d – d transition

(b)   charge transfer from metal to ligand

(c)   charge transfer from ligand to metal

(d)   All of the above

64. Rutherford model could not explain

(a)   electronic structure of an atom

(b)   stability of an atom

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   None of the above

65. Which is true in case of [Ni(CO)4]?

(a)   Hybridization of Ni is sp3

(b)   Hybridization of Ni is dsp2

(c)   Paramagnetic

(d)   Square planar

66. SI unit of Boltzmann’s constant is

(a)   JK1

(b)   eVK1

(c)   ergK−1

(d)   JK

67. Acetone does not undergo which type of reaction?

(a)   Substitution reaction

(b)   Polymerization reaction

(c)   Condensation reaction

68. Magnetic moment of Co in [CoF6]2 of unpaired electron is

(a)   √35

(b)   √45

(c)   √40

(d)   √30

69. Some statement about heavy water are given below

(1) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear

(2) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.

(3) Heavy water in more effective solvent than ordinary water.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a)   1 and 2

(b)   1, 2 and 3

(c)   2 and 3

(d)   1 and 3

70. CH3−CHCl−CH2−C3 has a chiral centre, which of the following represents its R configuration?

71. In Victor Meyer’s method 0.2 g of an organic substance displaced 56 mL of air at STP the molecular weight of the compound is

(a)   56

(b)   112

(c)   80

(d)   28

72. For the complete combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1364.47 kJ mol1 at 25° Assuming ideality the enthalpy of combustion, ∆HC, for the reaction will be

(R = 8.314 JK1 mol1)

(a)   −1366.95 kJ mol1

(b)   −1361.95 kJ mol1

(c)   −1460.50 kJ mol1

(d)   −1350.50 kJ mol1

73. The incorrect expression among the following is

(a)

(b)   In isothermal process,

(c)

(d)

74. The solubility of Pb(OH)2 in water is 6.7 × 106 Its solubility in a buffer solution of pH = 8 would be

(a)   1.2 × 102

(b)   1.6 × 103

(c)   1.6 × 102

(d)   1.2 × 103

75. The density (in g mL1) of a 60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 (molar mass = 98 g mol1) by mass will be

(a)   1.64

(b)   1.88

(c)   1.22

(d)   1.45

76. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution containing non-volatile solute is 0.0125. The molality of the solution is about

(a)   0.70

(b)   0.50

(c)   0.90

(d)   0.80

77. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25° The fraction of the total pressure exerted by oxygen is

(a)   2/3

(b)

(c)   1/3

(d)   1/2

78. The molar conductivities of KCl NaCl and KNO3 are 152, 128 and 111 S cm2 mol1 What is the molar conductivity of NaNO3?

(a)   101 S cm2 mol1

(b)   87 S cm2 mol1

(c)   −101 S cm2 mol1

(d)   −391 S cm2 mol1

79. The approximate time duration in hours to electroplate 30 g of calcium form molten calcium chloride using a current of 5 A is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)

(a)   80

(b)   10

(c)   16

(d)   8

80. Given, the reduction potential of Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Ag+ as

The least stable oxide is

(a)   Ag2O

(b)   Al2O3

(c)   MgO

(d)   Na2O

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.

81. Decay is an immutable factor of human life.

(a)   important

(b)   unique

(c)   unchangeable

(d)   awful

82. It was an ignominious defect for the team.

(a)   shameful

(c)   unaccountable

(d)   worthy

83. His conjecture was the better than mine.

(a)   guess

(b)   fact

(c)   surprise

(d)   doubt

Directions (Q. Nos. 84-86) Fill in the blanks.

84. Freedom and equality are the ………. Rights of every human.

(a)   inalienable

(b)   inscrutable

(c)   incalculable

(d)   institutional

85. Pradeep’s face spoke …………. of the happiness he was feeling.

(a)   elegantly

(b)   tons

(c)   volumes

(d)   much

86. His speech was disappointing : it …………. All the major issues.

(a)   projected

(b)   revealed

(c)   skirted

(d)   analysed

Directions (Q. Nos. 87-89) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the given italicized word.

87. Hydra is biologically believed to be immortal.

(a)   undying

(b)   perishable

(c)   ancient

(d)   eternal

88. The Gupta rulers patronized all cultural activities and thus Gupta period was called the golden era in Indian History.

(a)   criticized

(b)   rejected

(c)   opposed

(d)   spurned

89. This is a barbarous

(b)   good

(c)   civilized

(d)   exemplary

Directions (Q. Nos. 90-92) In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

90. A person who does not believe in any religion

(a)   Philatelist

(b)   Rationalist

(c)   Atheist

(d)   Pagan

91. A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good

(a)   Stoic

(b)   Hedonist

(c)   Epicure

(d)   Sensual

92. One who loves mankind

(a)   Anthropologist

(b)   Philanthropist

(c)   Seismologist

(d)   Optometrist

Directions (Q. Nos. 93-95) Choose the order of the sentence marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.

93. (A) Tasty and healthy food can help you bring out their best.

(B) One minute they are toddlers and next you see them in their next adventure.

(C) Your young ones seem to be growing so fast.

(D) Being their loving custodians, you always want to see them doing well.

(E) Their eyes sparkle with curiosity and endless questions on their tongues.

Codes

(a)   DBCEA

(c)   CBEDA

(d)   ECABD

94. (A) It is hoping that overseas friends will bring in big money and lift the morale of the people.

(B) But a lot needs to be done to kick start industrial revival.

(C) People had big hopes from the new government.

(D) So far government has only given an incremental push to existing policies and programmes.

(E) Government is to go for big time reforms, which it promised.

Codes

(a)   BCDAE

(c)   DABEC

(d)   CDEAB

95. (A) However, women hiring is catching up at a slow and steady rate in the recent times.

(B) Gender ratio has been inclined more towards male employees.

(C) As a result, recent reports have highlighted the rise in demand for women employees.

(D) Women constitute a little over half of world’s total population.

(E) But, their contribution to measured economic activity is far below the potential.

Codes

(a)   DEBAC

(b)   CDAEB

(c)   BCDEA

(d)   AEDBC

(b) Logical Reasoning

96. Choose the correct answer figure which will make a complete square on joining with the problem figure.

97. In the following question, five figures are given. Out of them, find the three figures that can be joined to form a square.

98. Choose the answer figure which completes the problem figure matrix.

99. From the given four positions of a single dice, find the colour at the face opposite to the face having red colour.

100. In the following questions, one or more dots are placed in the figure marked as (A). The figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options contains region(s) common to the circle, square, triangle, similar to that marked by the dot in figure (A).

101. Complete the series by replacing ‘?’ mark.

G4T, J9R, M20P, P43N, S90L, ?

(a)   S90L

(b)   V185J

(c)   M20P

(d)   P43N

102. Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

(a)   10 m, East

(b)   10 m, South-East

(c)   10 m, West

(d)   10 m, North-East

103. The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 yrs. when one of them whose age is 20 yr is replaced by a new man. What is the age of the new man?

(a)   28 y r

(b)   36 yr

(c)   34 yr

(d)   35 yr

104. Shikha is mother-in-law of Ekta who is sister-in-law of Ankit. Pankaj is father of Sanjay, the only brother of Ankit. How is Shikha related to Ankit?

(a)   Mother-in-law

(b)   Aunt

(c)   Wife

(d)   Mother

105. In a row of forty children, P is thirteenth from the left end and Q is ninth from the right end. How many children are there between P and R, if R is fourth to the left of Q?

(a)   12

(b)   13

(c)   14

(d)   15

PART IV

Mathematics

106. If Re(z + 2) = |z – 2|, then the locus of z is

(a)   parabola

(b)   circle

(c)   ellipse

(d)   hyperbola

107. If a ∈ R, b ∈ R, then the equation

x2 – abx – a2 = 0 has

(a)   one positive root and one negative root

(b)   Both positive roots

(c)   Both negative roots

(d)   Non-real roots

108. If a + 2b + 3c = 12 (a, b, c ∈ R+), then the maximum value of ab2c3 is

(a)   23

(b)   24

(c)   26

(d)   25

109. Sum of n terms of the infinite series

1.32 + 2.52 + 3.72 + … ∞ is

110. If log7 5 = a, log5 3 = b and log3 2 = c, then the logarithm of the number 70 to the base 225 is

111. The maximum number of points of intersection of 10 circles is

(a)   80

(b)   90

(c)   85

(d)   95

112.

(a)   120

(b)   260

(c)   210

(d)   180

113. If p ≠ q ≠ r and  then the value of x which satisfy the equation is

(a)   x = p

(b)   x = q

(c)   x = r

(d)   x = 0

114. Matrix  if xyz = 60 and 8x + 4y + 3z = 20, then A(adj A) is equal to

115. If f(x) = 4x – x2, x ∈ R, and f(a + 1) – f(a – 1) = 0, then a is equal to

(a)   0

(b)   2

(c)   1

(d)   3

116. Which of the following is not an equivalence relation in z?

(a)   aRb ⇔ a + b is an even integer

(b)   aRb ⇔ a − b is an even integer

(c)   aRb ⇔ a < b

(d)   aRb ⇔ a = b

117. Which of the following is always true?

(a)   (~ p ˅ ~ q) ≡ (p ˄ q)

(b)   (p → q) ≡ (~ p → ~ p)

(c)   ~(p → ~ q) ≡ (p ˄ ~ q)

(d)   ~(p ⟷ q) ≡ (p → q) → (q → p)

118. The solution of the inequation 4x + 0.5 – 7.2x < 4, x ∈ R is

(a)   (−2, ∞)

(b)   (2, ∞)

(c)   (2, 7/2)

(d)   None of these

119. If  is identity in x, then

(a)   a3 = 3/8, a2 = 0

(b)   n =6, a1 = 1/2

(c)   n = 5, a1 = 3/4

(d)   ∑am = 1/4

120. Total number of solutions of  x ∈ [0, 3π] is equal to

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   0

121. The minimum value of (sin1 x)3 + (cos1 x)3 is equal to

(a)   π3/32

(b)   5π3/32

(c)   9π3/32

(d)   11π3/32

122. The origin is shifted to (1, 2). The equation y2 – 8x – 4y + 12 = 0 changes to y2 = 4ax, then a is equal to

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   −2

(d)   −1

123. The equations of the bisector of the angles between the straight lines 3x + 4y + 7 = 0 and 12x + 5y – 8 = 0 are

(a)   7x + 9y + 17 = 0, 99x + 77y + 51 = 0

(b)   7x – 9y – 17 = 0, 99x + 77y – 51 = 0

(c)   7x – 9y + 17 = 0, 99x + 77y + 51 = 0

(d)   None of the above

124. Equation of circle which passes through the points (1, −2) and (3, −4) and touch the X-axis is

(a)   x2 + y2 + 6x + 2y + 9 = 0

(b)   x2 + y2 + 10x + 20y + 25 = 0

(c)   x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y + 9 = 0

(d)   None of the above

125. If x = 9 is the chord of contact of the hyperbola x2 – y2 = 9, then the equation of the corresponding pair of tangent is

(a)   9x2 – 8y2 + 18x – 9 = 0

(b)   9x2 – 8y2 – 18x + 9 = 0

(c)   9x2 – 8y2 – 18x – 9 = 0

(d)   9x2 – 8y2 + 18x + 9 = 0

126. The points with position vectors  and  are collinear, if a is

(a)   −8

(b)   4

(c)   2

(d)   82/9

127. Let a, b, c be vectors of lengths 3, 4, 5 respectively and a be perpendicular to (b + c), to (c + a) and c to (a + b), then the value of (a + b + c) is

(a)   2√5

(b)   2√2

(c)   10√5

(d)   5√2

128. For non-zero vectors, a, b, c; |(a × b) ∙ c| = |a| |b| |c| holds if and only if

(a)   a ∙ b = 0, b ∙ c = 0

(b)   b ∙ c = 0, c ∙ a = 0

(c)   c ∙ a = 0, a ∙ b = 0

(d)   a ∙ b = b ∙ c = c ∙ a = 0

129. Angle between the diagonals of a cube is

(a)   π/3

(b)   π/2

(c)   cos1(1/3)

(d)   cos1(1/√3)

130. Consider the two lines

The unit vector perpendicular to both the lines L1 and L2 is

131. The distance between the line  and the plane  is

(a)   10/9

(b)   10/3√3

(c)   10/3

(d)   None of these

132. Two cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that either both are red or both are kings?

(a)   7/13

(b)   63/221

(c)   55/221

(d)   3/26

133. If A and B are two independent events such that P(A) = 1/2 and P(B) = 1/5, then which of the following is correct?

134. Box 1 contains 5 red and 2 blue balls, while box II contains 2 red and 6 blue balls. A fair coin is tossed. If it turns up head, a ball is drawn from box I, else a ball is drawn from box II. The probability ball drawn is from box I, if it is blue, is

(a)   27/56

(b)   8/29

(c)   21/29

(d)   29/56

135. For a random variable X, E(X) = 3 and E(X2) = 11. The variable of X is

(a)   8

(b)   5

(c)   2

(d)   1

136. The sum of 10 items is 12 and the sum of their squares is 18, then the standard deviation will be

(a)   −3/5

(b)   6/5

(c)   4/5

(d)   3/5

137. The height of the chimney when it is found that on walking towards it 50 m in the horizontal line through its base, the angle of elevation of its top changes from 30° to 60° is

(a)   25 m

(b)   25√2 m

(c)   25√3 m

(d)   None of these

138. The value of  is

(a)   1/2

(b)   2

(c)   √2

(d)   None of these

139. If  is differentiable at x = 1, then

(a)   a = 1, b = 1

(b)   a = 1, b = 0

(c)   a = 2, b = 0

(d)   a = 2, b = 1

140. The slope the tangent to the curve x = t2 + 3t – 8 y = 2t2 – 2t – 5 at the point t = 2 is

(a)   7/6

(b)   5/6

(c)   6/7

(d)   1

141. is equal to

142. is equal to

143. The area of one curvilinear triangle formed by curves y = sin x, y = cos x and X-axis, is

(a)   2 sq units

(b)   (2 + √2) sq units

(c)   (2 – √2) sq units

(d)   None of the above

144. Solution of  given that y = 1 when x = 1 is

145. If  is

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)

(d)

146. The maximum value of the function y = x(x – 1)2, is

(a)   0

(b)   4/27

(c)   −4

(d)   None of these

147. The solution of  satisfying y(1) = 0, is

(a)   tan y = (x – 2)ex log x

(b)   sin y = ex(x – 1) x1

(c)   tan y = (x – 1)ex x3

(d)   sin y = ex(x – 1)x3

148. The runs of two players for 10 innings each are as follows

The more consistent player is

(a)   player A

(b)   player B

(c)   both player A and B

(d)   None of the above

149. The linear programming problem minimize z = 3x + 2y subject to constraints x + y ≥ 8, 3x + 5y ≤ 15, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, has

(a)   one solution

(b)   no feasible solution

(c)   two solutions

(d)   infinitely many solution

150. Find the area enclosed by the loop in the curve 4y2 = 4x2 – x3.

(a)   128/5

(b)   15/128

(c)   130/17

(d)   17/130

## BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2020 With Answer Key

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2020

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. Three solenoid coils of same dimensions, same number of turns and same number of layers of winding are taken. Coil 1 has inductance L1 wounded by Mn wire of resistance 6 Ωm1, coil 2 with inductance L2 wounded by similar wire but in reverse direction in each layer. Coil 3 with inductance L3 wounded by a superconducting wire. The relation between their self inductances will be

(a)   L1 = L2, L3 = 0

(b)   L1 = L2 = L3

(c)   L1 = L3, L2 = 0

(d)   L1 > L2 > L3

2. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected as shown in the figure below. If capacitor C3 breaks down electrically, then the change in total charge on the combination of capacitors, is

3. A black body radiates energy at the rate EWm2 at high temperature T K. When the temperature is reduced to (T/4) K, then the new radiant energy is

(a)   E/256

(b)   4E

(c)   E/4

(d)   E/16

4. The length of the rectangle is l = 15.2 cm and breadth is b = 2.9 cm and the minimum possible measurement by scale = 0.1 cm. Then, the area of the rectangle is

(Taking, significant figures into consideration)

(a)   44.08 cm2

(b)   24.8 cm2

(c)   44 cm2

(d)   94.008 cm2

5. In an adiabatic process, where pressure is decreased by 3/4%, if  then the volume increases by

(a)   3/4%

(b)   9/16%

(c)   16/9%

(d)   4/3%

6. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both ends are represented by the equation

where, x and y are cm and t is in second. Calculate the velocity of the particle at x = 7.5 cm and t = 0.25 s.

(a)   4  m/s

(b)   Zero

(c)   16 m/s

(d)   9.8 m/s

7. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of XY-axes as shown in the figure. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

8. The hydrogen-like element that has a spectrum whose lines have wavelength four times shorter than those of atomic hydrogen is

(a)   lithium

(b)   helium

(c)   berilliyum

(d)   potassium

9. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +20 μC and −40 μC respectively and placed at a distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is

(a)   1 : 4

(b)   8 : 1

(c)   −8 : 1

(d)   1 : 8

10. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency between 600 K to 300 K and 1600 K to x K, then the value of x is

(a)   1600 K

(b)   800 K

(c)   819 K

(d)   900 K

11. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is thrown up with initial speed 16 ms1 and reaches maximum height of 9 m. How much energy is dissipated by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent?

(a)   199 J

(b)   19.9 J

(c)   20.9 J

(d)   9.9 J

12. In the circuit shown, if the 10 Ω resistor is replaced by a resistor of 15 Ω, then what is the amount of current drawn from the battery?

(a)   100 A

(b)   10 A

(c)   1 A

(d)   2.4 A

13. A time dependent force F(= 8t) acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. If the particle starts form rest, the work done by the force during the first 1 s will be

(a)   0.4 J

(b)   4 J

(c)   19 J

(d)   4.5 J

14. If L, R, C and V represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and potential difference respectively, then dimensions L/RCV are the same as those of

(a)   current

(b)   1/current

(c)   charge

(d)   1/charge

15. The magnetic field of a beam emerging from a fitter facing a flood light is given by

B = 10 × 108 sin(1 × 107 z – 3.6 × 1015 t)T. The average intensity of the beam is

(a)   1.82 W/m2

(b)   1.19 W/m2

(c)   1.18 W/m2

(d)   1.17 W/m2

16. From the velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line, the distance travelled and the average velocity in the time interval t = 0 to t = 20 s are, respectively,

(a)   0, 0

(b)   120 m, 60 m

(c)   60 m, 0

(d)   0, 60 m

17. A thin equi-convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and its focal length is 0.2 m. If it acts as a concave lens of focal length 0.5 m when dipped in a liquid, the refractive index of the liquid is

(a)   17/8

(b)   15/8

(c)   13/8

(d)   9/8

18. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 60 Ω and it indicates full deflection on passing a current of 4.5 mA. A voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a 4.5 kΩ The maximum voltage, that can be measured using this voltmeter, will be close to

(a)   21 V

(b)   20.5 V

(c)   20 V

(d)   19.5 V

19. The combination of the gates shown in following figure yields

(a)   NAND gate

(b)   OR gate

(c)   NOT gate

(d)   XOR gate

20. A vessel contains one mole of O2 gas (molar mass 32) at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is p. An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has a pressure of

(a)   p/8

(b)   p

(c)   2p

(d)   8p

21. The acceleration of a particle in m/s2 is given by a = (3t2 – 2t + 1), where t is in second. If the particle starts with a velocity v = 1 m/s at t = 1s, then velocity of the particle at the end of 4s is

(a)   40 m/s

(b)   52 m/s

(c)   48 m/s

(d)   84 m/s

22. The figure shows graphs of pressure (p) versus density (d) for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2, then

(a)   T1 > T2

(b)   T1 < T2

(c)   T1 = T2

(d)   None of these

23. Two spheres of the same material and same radii r are touching each other. The gravitational force between the spheres is proportional to

(a)   1/r2

(b)   r2

(c)   1/r4

(d)   r4

24. A spherical lens of power −4 D is placed at a distance of 15 cm from another spherical lens of power 5 D. A beam of parallel light falls on the first spherical lens. The final image formed is

(a)   real and at a distance of 40 cm from the lens of power 5 D

(b)   real and at a distance of 10 cm from the lens of power −4 D

(c)   virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from the lens of power −5 D

(d)   None of the above

25. The wheel of a car, accelerated uniformly from rest, rotates through 5 rad during the first second. The angle (in rad) rotated during the next second is

(a)   15

(b)   7.5

(c)   12.5

(d)   20

26. Lights of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1.5 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be

(a)   3 : 2

(b)   2 : 3

(c)   √3 : √2

(d)   √2 : √3

27. When a body is dropped from a height h, then it hits the ground with a momentum p. If the same body is dropped from a height which is three times more than previous height, the percentage change in momentum when it hits the ground is

(a)   25%

(b)   50%

(c)   75%

(d)   100%

28. The reading of the ammeter for a germanium diode in the given circuit is

(a)   0.94 A

(b)   0

(c)   2.8 A

(d)   5 A

29. The decay constants of two radioactive substances X and Y are 4λ and λ At t = 0, a sample has the same number of two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of number of nuclei to become 1/e3 will be

(a)   1/3λ

(b)   1/2λ

(c)   2/3λ

(d)   3/2λ

30. The magnitude of the force vector acting on a unit length of a thin wire carrying a current I = 10 A at a point O, if the wire is bent in the form of a semi-circle (shown below) with radius R = 20 π cm, is

(a)   30 μN/m

(b)   40 μN/m

(c)   50 μN/m

(d)   60 μN/m

31. A long cylindrical iron core of cross-sectional area 5 cm2 is inserted into a long solenoid having 4000 turns/metre and carrying a current 5 A. The magnetic field inside the core is π Find the pole strength developed.

(a)   1000 A-m

(b)   1240 A-m

(c)   882 A-m

(d)   760 A-m

32. A plane requires for take off a speed of 72 kmh1, the run on the ground being 50 m. The mass of the plane is 10000 kg and the coefficient of friction between the plane and the ground is 0.2. Assume that the plane accelerates uniformly during take off. The minimum force required by the engine of the plane for take off is

(a)   4.43 × 104 N

(b)   5.96 × 104 N

(c)   2.25 × 104 N

(d)   3.45 × 104 N

33. In a fluorescent lamp choke, 120 V of reverse voltage is produced when the choke current changes uniformly 0.50 A to 0.20 A in a duration of 0.030 ms. The self inductance of the choke (in mH) is estimated to be

(a)   12 H

(b)   12 × 103 mH

(c)   12 × 103 H

(d)   0

34. A man grows into a giant such that his linear dimensions increase by a factor of 8. Assuming that his density remains same, the stress in his leg will change by a factor of

(a)   1/8

(b)   8

(c)   36

(d)   64

35. When 2 moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with 3 moles of a diatomic gas, the value of adiabatic exponent for the mixture is

(a)   15/16

(b)   7/5

(c)   31/21

(d)   38/59

36. A simple pendulum is placed inside a lift, the lift is moving with a uniform acceleration. If the time periods of the pendulum, while the lift is moving upwards and downwards are in the ratio of 1 : 3, then the acceleration of the lift is

[Take, acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2]

(a)   4 m/s2

(b)   6 m/s2

(c)   8 m/s2

(d)   10 m/s2

37. A satellite is moving around the earth with speed υ in a circular orbit of radius r. If the orbit radius is decreased by 2%, its speed will increase by

(a)   1%

(b)   2%

(c)   1.5%

(d)   1.414%

38. In the circuit shown in figure, the AC source has angular frequency ω = 2000 rad s1. The amplitude of the current will be nearest to

(a)   2.85 A

(b)   3 A

(c)   0.5 A

(d)   3.625 A

39. The work done by a force acting on a body is as shown in the following graph. The total work done in covering an initial distance of 40 m is

(a)   500 J

(b)   600 J

(c)   400 J

(d)   800 J

40. A potential wire, 10 m long, has a resistance of 40 Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance box and a 4 V storage cell. If the potential gradient along the wire is 0.4 mVcm1, the resistance unplugged in the box is

(a)   220 Ω

(b)   360 Ω

(c)   760 Ω

(d)   848.3 Ω

PART II

Chemistry

41. In a set of reactions, m-bromobenzoic acid gives a product D. Identify the product D.

42. A volume of 50.00 mL of a weak acid of unknown concentration is titrated with 10 M solution of NaOH. The equivalence point is reached after 39.30 mL of NaOH solution h as been added. At the half equivalence point (19.65 mL) the pH is 4.85. Thus, initial concentration of the acid and its pKa values are

[HA]                pKa

(a)   0.1 M          4.85

(b)   0.079 M      4.85

(c)   0.1 M          3.70

(d)   0.097 M      2.93

43. 1-phenyl-1, 3-dibromopropane on treatment with alc. KOH gives diastereomeric mixture in which compound (A) is major product. (A) gives the following reaction

44. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a)   α-D-fructose and β-D-fructose are enantiomers of each other.

(b)   D-glyceraldehyde and L-glyceraldehyde are enantiomers of each other.

(c)   The reserve carbohydrate of animals is glycogen.

(d)   Aldohexoses which react with phenyl hydrazine to give identical osazones are C-2 epimers.

45. Which of the following is not a mixed pair of oxides?

(a)   Mn3O4 and Co3O4

(b)   Co3O4 and Pb3O4

(c)   Pb3O4 and Mn3O4

(d)   Fe3O4 and Fe2O3

46. A solution of copper sulphate is electrolyzed between copper electrodes by a current of 10.0A passing for one hour. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the changes that occur at the electrodes and in the solution?

(a)   11.84 g of copper will deposit on the cathode

(b)   11.84 g of copper will deposit on the anode

(c)   11.84 g copper will deposit on the anode as well as on the cathode

(d)   copper will not deposit on any of the electrode

47.

Identify structure of compound (D).

48. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)   ∆S for  is positive.

(b)   ∆E < 0 for combustion of CH4 (g) in a sealed container with rigid adiabatic system.

(c)   ∆G is always zero for a reversible process in a closed system.

(d)   ∆G° for an ideal gas reaction is a function of pressure.

49. Which of the following statements on critical constants of gases are correct?

(I) Larger the Tc/pc value of a gas, larger would be the included volume.

(II) Critical temperature (Tc) of g as is greater than its Boyle  temperature (TB).

(III) At the critical point in the van der Waal’s gas isotherm,

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)   Both I and II

(b)   Both I and III

(c)   Both II and III

(d)   I, II and III

50. In the given reaction,

Product (D) is

(a)   a positional isomer of X

(b)   identical to X

(c)   chain isomer of X

(d)   an oxidation product of X

51.

(B) is identified by the characteristic colour of the flame. (A) and (B) are respectively.

(a)   H3BO3 and Na2B4O7

(b)   B(OC2H5)3 and H3BO3

(c)   NaBO2 and H3BO3

(d)   H3BO3 and B(OC2H5)3

52. How many mL of perhydrol is required to produce sufficient oxygen which can be used to completely convert 2 L of SO2 gas?

(a)   10 mL

(b)   5 mL

(c)   20 mL

(d)   30 mL

53. At the top of a mountain the thermometer reads 0°C and the barometer reads 710 mm Hg. At the bottom of the mountain the temperature is 30°C and the pressure is 760 mm Hg. The ratio of the density of air at the top to that of the bottom is

(a)   1 : 1.04

(b)   0.4 : 1

(c)   1.04 : 1

(d)   1 : 04

54. Match the following columns.

Codes

(a)   A-5; B-4; C-3; D-2; E-1

(b)   A-5; B-3; C-4; D-2; E-1

(c)   A-5; B-3; C-4; D-1; E-2

(d)   A-4; B-3; C-5; D-2; E-1

55. Most acidic hydrogen is present in

56. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to the

(a)   increase in concentration of insecticide in H2O

(b)   increase in concentration of fluoride ion in H2O

(c)   reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in water.

(d)   attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate

57. Ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The wavelengths of the spectral line emitted when an electron in Be3+ comes from 5th energy level to 2nd energy level is

(a)   43.5 nm

(b)   4350 nm

(c)   4.35 nm

(d)   435 nm

58. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide in excess of oxygen at 298 K and constant pressure are −5 kJ/mol and −280.0 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of formation of carbon monoxide at constant volume is

(a)   +111.7 kJ/mol

(b)   −1111.7 kJ/mol

(c)   −111.7 kJ/mol

(d)   −11.7 kJ/mol

59. If the quantum number l could have the value n also then, Sc(21) would have electronic configuration as (other rules strictly followed)

(a)   1s2 1p6 2s2 2p6 2d3 3s2

(b)   1s2 1p6 2s2 2p6 3s2 2d3

(c)   1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2

(d)   1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3

60. 1.1 mole of A mixed with 2.2 moles of B and the mixture is kept in a 1 L flask and the equilibrium, A + 2B ⇌ 2C + D is reached. If at equilibrium 0.2 mole of C is formed then the value of KC will be

(a)   0.1

(b)   0.01

(c)   0.001

(d)   1

61. Choose the correct chemical reaction among the following:

(a)   CaCN2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 + NH3

(b)   2NH3 + CaSO4 + CO2 + H2O → CaCN2+(NH4)2SO4

(c)   CaCl2 + Na2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2NaCl

(d)   CaC2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + 2NaCl

62. Which of the following reactions represents disproportionation?

(a)   CrO5 → Cr3+ + O2

(b)   IO3 + I + H+ → I2

(c)   CrO2Cl2 + NaOH → Na2CrO4 + NaCl + H2O

(d)   Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + SO2 + S8 + H2O

63.

Compound C is

64. On the basis of Ellingham diagram, which of the following is not correct?

(a)   Entropy change for all metal oxides is roughly same.

(b)   Below the boiling point, T∆S factor is same irrespective of metal.

(c)   Above ∆G = 0 line, oxide decomposes into metal and oxygen.

(d)   If randomness increases the slope increases.

65. Which of the following is not explained by adsorption?

(a)   When acetic acid solution is shaken with charcoal the concentration of acid decreases.

(b)   The white ppt. of Mg(OH)2 attains blue colour when precipitated in the presence of magneson reagent.

(c)   An aqueous solution of NaOH attains pink colour with a drop of phenolphthalein.

(d)   When animal charcoal is shaken with coloured methylene blue solution, the solution turns colourless.

66. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction

67. An element occurs in two crystalline forms α and β. The α-from has an fcc with a = 3.68 Å and β form has a bcc with a = 2.92 Å. Calculate the ratio of their densities.

(a)   1 : 1

(b)   1 : 2

(c)   2 : 1

(d)   2 : 3

68. The molar heat of vaporization of water at 100°C is 40.585 kJ/mol. The temperature at which a solution containing 5.60 g of Al2(SO4)3 per 1000 g of water boil is …. . (Assuming the degree of ionization of salt to be 1).

(a)   1000.042°C

(b)   10.0042°C

(c)   100.042°C

(d)   105°C

69. An organic base C8H11(X) reacts with nitrous acid at 0°C to give a clear solution. Heating the solution with KCN and cuprous cyanide followed by continued heating with conc. HCl gives a crystalline solid. Heating this solid with alkaline potassium permanganate gives a compound which dehydrates on heating to an anhydride (C8H4O3). Compound X is

70. The final product of the following reaction is/are

71. The correct order of pseudohalide, polyhalide and interhalogen is

(a)   BrI2, OCN, IF5

(b)   IF5, BrI2, OCN

(c)   OCN, IF2, BrI2

(d)   OCN, BrI2, IF5

72. An inorganic halide (A) reacts with water to form two acids (B) and (C). (A) also reacts with NaOH to form two salts (D) and (E) which remain in solution. The solution gives white precipitate with both AgNO3 and BaCl2 solutions respectively. (A) is a useful organic reagent. The compound (A) is

(a)   SOCl2

(b)   SO2Cl2

(c)   S2Cl2

(d)   SF4

73. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity to the alkali metals and the halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

(a)   The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group.

(b)   In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.

(c)   Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.

(d)   In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.

74. According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as

(a)   sodiumpentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(b)   sodiumpentacyanonitrosylferrate (III)

(c)   Sodiumnitroferricyanide

(d)   Sodiumnitroferrocyanide

75. A(g) → P(g) + Q(g) + R(g),

Follow first order kinetics with a half-life of 69.3 s at 500°C. Starting from the gas ‘A’ an container at 500°C and at a pressure of 0.4 atm, the total pressure of the system after 230 s will be

(a)   1.15 atm

(b)   1.32 atm

(c)   1.22 atm

(d)   1.12 atm

76. Which of the following gives paracetamol on acetylation?

77. In qualitative analysis when H2S passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dilute HCl, a black ppt. is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of NH3 to this solution gives

(a)   deep blue ppt. of Cu(OH)2

(b)   deep blue solution of [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(c)   deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2

(d)   deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2 ∙ Cu(NO3)2

78. Titration of 0.1467 g of primary standard Na2C2O4 required 28.85 mL of KMnO4 Calculate the molar concentration of KMnO4 solution.

(a)   0.01518 M

(b)   0.001518 M

(c)   0.15180 M

(d)   1.5180 M

79. Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong?

(a)   The complex involves d2sp3 hybridization and its octahedral in shape.

(b)   The complex is paramagnetic.

(c)   The complex is an outer orbital complex.

(d)   The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.

80. Sulphuric acid is a diabasic acid. It ionizes in two stages and hence, has two dissociation constants Ka1 and Ka2. Which of the following is the correct observation regarding Ka1and Ka2?

(a)   Ka1 > Ka2

(b)   Ka1 < Ka2

(c)   Ka1 = Ka2

(d)   Ka1 = 1.2 × 102, Ka2 > 10

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-83) In the following questions, find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, mark part (d) as your answer.

81. The road a./to famous monument b./ passes through a forest. c./ No error d

82. The master did not known a./who of the servants b./broke the glass c./No error d

83. Had I come a./to know about his difficulties b./I would have certainly helped c./No error d

Directions (Q. Nos. 84 and 85) Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition from the alternatives given under each sentence.

84. He trekking was net ……………. Obstacles.

(a)   with

(b)   from

(c)   by

(d)   of

85. She has not got ….. the shock of losing her father.

(a)   over

(b)   at

(c)   from

(d)   with

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-88) Select the word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the italicized word or phrase.

86. Yuvraj Singh is suffering from a BENIGN cancer.

(a)   Unfriendly

(b)   Friendly

(c)   Fatal

(d)   Malignant

87. He is a NOTED figure of film industry.

(a)   Known

(b)   Unknown

(c)   Famous

(d)   Infamous

88. SAGACIOUS decisions taken at right time in one’s career has long effects.

(a)   Foolish

(b)   Intelligent

(c)   Thoughtful

(d)   Intuitive

Directions (Q. Nos. 89 and 90) Choose the word nearest in meaning to the italicized word.

89. The actor got PEEVISH on asking personal questions.

(a)   Irritated

(b)   Happy

(c)   Shy

(d)   Satisfied

90. The engineer ROUGHED OUT his ideas on a piece of paper while he talked.

(a)   Shaped soughly

(b)   Rejected

(c)   Drew a quick plan

(d)   Describe inaccurately

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Centre and the States must become partners in the planning process to determine national priorities together. The process of planning would undergo a change in view of the changes in domestic economic situation and momentous trends emerging in the world. The development of human resource and the building up of an institutional framework would have to receive priority attention. The role of the government would also have to be examined so as to fully involve the people in the process of nation-building. The main task would be to ensure that the real initiative is transferred to the people. The private sector which would register expansion hereafter should keep this objective firmly in view. The need for an effective population policy is an urgent necessity in the country’s planning strategy. The family welfare programme should not be treated as the Centre’s responsibility alone. The States should evolve a suitable mechanism for closer involvement of the Government agencies, Zilla Parishads and Panchayats for making the family welfare programme a success.

91. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)   Effective family welfare programme is Centre’s responsibility alone.

(b)   Population policy and planning process are interlinked.

(c)   Family welfare programme should be left to the State Governments alone.

(d)   The State Government should use punitive measures to control population.

92. What should be given priority attention?

(a)   Role of the Government

(b)   Decentralization of power

(c)   Involvement of people in labour welfare

(d)   Human resource and institutional framework

93. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a)   Role of the government in nation-building should be examined.

(b)   Real initiatives should be transferred to the people.

(c)   There should be no role for the government as far as planning is concerned.

(d)   The Centre and the States must become equal partners in the planning process.

94. What would force the planning process to undergo a change?

(a)   Free market forces

(b)   Domestic economic situation and world trends

(c)   Domestic compulsions

(d)   International pressures

95. Which of the following is implied by the expression ‘momentous trends’?

(a)   GDP growth of the country

(b)   Memorable historical events

(c)   Important changes in the international scene

(d)   Improvement of foreign exchange reserves

(b) Logical Reasoning

96. Find out the wrong number.

2, 6, 12, 72, 865, 62208

(a)   72

(b)   12

(c)   62208

(d)   865

97. Each of P, Q, T, A and B has different heights. T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest, who is the tallest?

(a)   A

(b)   Q

(c)   A or Q

(d)   P or B

98. Identify the missing part of the question figure and select it from given answer figures.

99. Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Mechanic : Spanner : : Carpenter : ?

(a)   tree

(b)   wood

(c)   furniture

(d)   saw

100. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(a)   8

(b)   18

(c)   17

(d)   20

101. In the following question find the odd letters/group from the given alternatives.

(b)   JILK

(c)   NMPO

(d)   VUWX

102. Find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?

103. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut out pieces given below in the question figures?

104. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicates how it will appear when opened.

105. In the following question three dots are placed in the figure marked as (A). The figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One out of these four options contains region(s) common to the circle, square, triangle, similar to that marked by the dot in figure (A).

PART IV

Mathematics

106. If A = {x : x2 = 1} and B = {x : x4 = 1}, then A ∆ B is equal to

(a)   {−i, i}

(b)   {−1, i}

(c)   {−1, 1, −i, i}

(d)   None of these

107. If 2f(xy) = (f(x))y + (f(y))x for all x, y ∈ R and f(1) = a (≠1). Then  is equal to

(a)   (an – 1)/(a – 1)

(b)   a(an – 1 – 1)/(a – 1)

(c)   a(an – 1)/(a – 1)

(d)   (an – 1)/a + 1

108. Let f(x) = x – 3 and g(x) = 4 – x. Then the set of values of x for which

|f(x) + g(x)| < |f(x)| + |g(x)| is true, is given by:

(a)   R

(b)   R – (3, 4)

(c)   R – [3, 4]

(d)   None of these

109. If a1, a2, a3, …., a20 are AM’s between 13 and 67 then the maximum value of a1 ∙ a2 ∙ a3 …, a20 is

(a)   (20)20

(b)   (40)20

(c)   (60)20

(d)   (80)20

110. If p, q, r are in AP and the positive, the roots of the quadratic equation px2 + qx + r = 0 are all real for

(a)

(b)

(c)   All p and r

(d)   No p and r

111. The value of  is equal to

(a)   47C6

(b)   52C5

(c)   52C4

(d)   None of these

112. The number of numbers divisible by 3 that can be formed by four different even digits is

(a)   36

(b)   18

(c)   0

(d)   None of these

113. If n(A) = 1000, n(B) = 500, n (A ∩ B) ≥ 1 and n (A ∪ B) = P, then

(a)   500 ≤ P ≤ 1000

(b)   1001 ≤ P ≤ 1498

(c)   1000 ≤ P ≤ 1498

(d)   1000 ≤ P ≤ 1499

114. is equal to

(a)   R – {0}

(b)   R – {0, 1, 3}

(c)   R – 3{0, −1, −3}

(d)   R – {0, −1, −3, 1/2}

115. Let f(x) be a polynomial function of second degree. If f(1) = f(−1) and a, b, c are in AP, then f ꞌ(a), f ʹ(b) and f ʹ(c) are in

(a)   AP

(b)   GP

(c)   Arithmetic-Geometric progression

(d)   None of the above

116. The value of  is

(a)   5 – 2log 2

(b)   4 – 2log 2

(c)   3 – 2log 2

(d)   2 – 2log 2

117. The coefficient of x8 in the polynomial (x – 1) (x – 2) ….(x – 10)

(a)   2640

(b)   1320

(c)   1370

(d)   2740

118. If  then z14 is

(a)   27

(b)   27i

(c)   (−2)7

(d)   (−2)7i

119. The solution of the equation  is

(a)   2y = sin y(1 – 2cx2)

(b)   2x = cot y(1 + 2cx2)

(c)   2x = sin y(1 – 2cx2)

(d)   2x sin y  = 1 – 2cx2

120. The value of the definite integral

(a)   1 – π/4

(b)   1 + π/4

(c)   π + 1/4

(d)   None of these

121. If a and b are two vectors such that |a| = 1, |b| = 4 and a ∙ b = 2, if c = (2a × b) – 3b, then angle between b and c

(a)   π/6

(b)   π/3

(c)   2π/3

(d)   5π/6

122. Let x1 and x2 be the real roots of the equation x2 – (k – 2)x + (k2 + 3k + 5) = 0, then maximum value of x12 + x22 is

(a)   19

(b)   22

(c)   18

(d)   17

123. Circle centered at origin and having radius π units is divided by the curve y = sin x in two parts. Then area of upper parts equals to

(a)   π2/2

(b)   π3/4

(c)   π3/2

(d)   π3/8

124. The root of the equation 2(1 + i)x2 – 4(2 – i)x – 5 – 3i = 0, where i = √−1, which has greater modulus, is

125. The equation (cos β – 1)x2 + (cos β)x + sin β = 0 in the variable x has real roots, then β lies in the interval

(a)   (0, 2π)

(b)   (−π, 0)

(c)   (−π/2, π/2)

(d)   (0, π)

126. A ordered pair (α, β) for which the system of linear (1 + α)x + βy + z = 2, αx + (1 + β)y + z = 3 and αx + βy + 2z = 2 has a unique solution.

(a)   (1, −3)

(b)   (−3, 1)

(c)   (2, 4)

(d)   (−4, 2)

127. A bird is sitting on the top of a vertical pole 20 m high and its elevation from a point O on the ground is 45°. If flies off horizontally straight way from the point O. After one second, the elevation of the bird from O is reduced to 30°, then the speed (in m/s) of the bird is

(a)   40(√2 – 1)

(b)   40(√3 – √2)

(c)   20√2

(d)   20(√3 – 1)

128. If one GM, g and two AM’s p and q are inserted between two numbers a and b, then (2p – q) (p – 2q) is equal to

(a)   g2

(b)   −g2

(c)   2g

(d)   3g2

129. When x100 is divided by x2 – 3x + 2 the remainder is (2k+1 – 1)x – 2(2k – 1), then k is

(a)   97

(b)   99

(c)   100

(d)   101

130. The mean of five observation is 5 and their variance is 9.20. If three of the given five observation are 1, 3 and 8, then a ratio of other two observations is

(a)   4 : 9

(b)   6 : 7

(c)   5 : 8

(d)   10 : 3

131. How many three digit number satisfy the property that the middle digit is arithmetic mean of the first and the last digit.

(a)   41

(b)   45

(c)   43

(d)   44

132. If z = reiθ, then arg(eiz) is

(a)   −r sin θ

(b)   r cos θ

(c)   er sin θ

(d)   −r cos θ

133. If 4 dice are rolled, then the number of ways of getting the sum 10 is

(a)   56

(b)   64

(c)   72

(d)   80

134. Distance of point A(1, 2) measured parallel to the line 3x – y = 10 from the line x + y + 5 = 0, is

(a)   2√5

(b)   2√10

(c)   4√5

(d)   4√10

135. Let f(x) = a0 + a1x2 + a2x4 + a3x6 + … + anx2n be a polynomial in a real variable x with 0 < a1 < a2 < a3 < … < an, the function f(x) has

(a)   neither a maxima nor a minima

(b)   only one maxima

(c)   both maxima and minima

(d)   only one minima

136. If f(x) = 2x3 + x4 + log x and g is the inverse of f, then g’(3) is equal to

(a)   1/9

(b)   1/7

(c)   1/11

(d)   1/8

137. A line passing through P(3, 7, 1) and R(2, 5, 7) meet the plane 3x + 2y + 11z – 9 = 0 at Q. Then PQ is equal to

(a)   5√41/59

(b)   √41/59

(c)   50√41/59

(d)   25√41/59

138. equals to

139. If  then find z component of a vector r, which is coplanar with a and b, r ∙ b = 0 and r ∙ a = 7.

(a)   0

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   5/2

140. If x, y, z are three consecutive positive integers, x – z + 2 = 0, then  is equal to

(a)   loge x

(b)   loge y

(c)   loge z

(d)   None of these

141. The solution of differential equation (xy5 + 2y)dx – xdy = 0, is

(a)   9x8 + 4x9y4 = 9y4C

(b)   9x8 – 4x9y4 – 9y4C = 0

(c)   x8(9 + 4y4) = 10y4C

(d)   None of these

142. The solution set of  is

(a)   [0, 1] ∪ (3, 4)

(b)   [0, 1] ∪ [3, 4]

(c)   [−1, 1] ∪ (3, 4]

(d)   None of these

143. Let  the  is

144. If  then  is equal to

(a)   50

(b)   47

(c)   44

(d)   53

145. The number of distinct solutions of the equation  in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a)   8

(b)   10

(c)   6

(d)   15

146. If the tangent at a point  to the ellipse 16x2 + 11y2 = 256 is also a tangent to x2 + y2 – 2x = 15, then ϕ equals

(a)   π/3

(b)   π/6

(c)   − π/6

(d)   π/4

147. The distance of point of intersection of the tangents to the parabola x = 4y – y2 drawn at the points where it is meet by Y-axis, from its focus is

(a)   11/4

(b)   17/4

(c)   13/4

(d)   3

148. The value of the sum  is

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   3

(d)   2

149. A curve passes through (2, 0) and the slope of the tangent at P(x, y) is equal to  then the equation of the curve is

(a)   y = x2 – 2x

(b)   y = x3 – 8

(c)   y2 = x2 + 2x

(d)   y2 = 5x2 – 6

150. Consider matrix  if A1 = αI + βA, when α, β ∉ R, then (α + β) is equal to (where A1 denotes the inverse of matrix A)

(a)   1

(b)   4/3

(c)   5/3

(d)   1/3

## BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2022

PART-I

PHYSICS

1. The stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (v) of a graph of photoelectric effect in a metal. From the graph, the planck’s constant (h) is.

(a)   6.60 × 1034 J-s

(b)   6.69 × 1034 J-s

(c)   6.62 × 1034 J-s

(d)   6.63 × 1034 J-s

2. In a resonance column first and second resonance are obtained at depths 24 cm and 78 cm the third resonance will be obtained at depth.

(a)   160 cm

(b)   132 cm

(c)   131 cm

(d)   152 cm

3. A submarine A travelling at 17 m/s is being chased along the line of its velocity by another submarine B travelling at 34 m/s. B sends a sonar signal of 600 Hz to detect A and receives a reflected sound of frequency v. The of v is

[Speed of sound in water = 1500 ms1]

(a)   613.7 Hz

(b)   6137 Hz

(c)   62 Hz

(d)   539 Hz

4. Transverse waves of the same frequency are generated in two steel wires A and B. The diameter of A is twice that of B and the tension in A is half that in B. The ratio of the velocities of the waves in A and B is

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   1 : √2

(c)   1 : 2√2

(d)   3 : 2√2

5. In the diagram shown below, both the strings AB and CD are made of same material and have same cross-section. The pulleys are light and frictionless. If the speed of wave in string AB is v1 and in CD is v2, then v1/v2 is

(a)   1

(b)   √2

(c)   2

(d)   1/√2

6. What will be the acceleration due to gravity at a depth d, where g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth?

7. A direct current of 6 A is superimposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin ωt flowing through a wire. The effective value of t he resulting current will be

(a)   5√2

(b)   5√3

(c)   9.27

(d)   8.37

8. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric potential with distance r from the centre of a non-conducting charged sphere of radius R?

9. For an insulator, the forbidden energy gap is

(a)   Zero

(b)   1eV

(c)   2eV

(d)   5eV

10. A machine gun fires 300 bullets per min if the mass of each bullet is 10 g and the velocity of the bullets is 600 ms1, the power (in kW) of the gun is

(a)   43200

(b)   9

(c)   72

(d)   7.2

11. Four holes of radius 5 cm are cut from a thin square plate of 20 cm and mass 1 kg. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion about Z-axis is

(a)   15 kg-m2

(b)   0.37 kg-m2

(c)   0.0017 kg-m2

(d)   0.08 kg-m2

12. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity υ at an angle θ with the horizontal. At its highest point, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass, one of the piece continue to move on the original trajectory, then the velocity of second piece is.

(a)   2 v cos θ

(b)   v cos θ

(c)   3 v cos θ

(d)

13. In the circuit shown assume the diode to be ideal. When Vi increases from −2V to 6V, the change in current is (in mA)

(a)   Zero

(b)   20

(c)   25/8

(d)   32

14. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity  is equal to the wavelength of photon. The ratio of the kinetic energies of electron and photon is

(a)   1 : 4

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   1 : 2

(d)   2 : 1

15. In the circuit shown in the figure, the AC source gives a voltage V = 20 cos (2000 t) neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading will be

(a)   0V, 0.47 A

(b)   2.82 V, 1.41 A

(c)   1.41 V, 0.47 A

(d)   1.5 V, 8.37 A

16. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along X-axis. At x = 1 cm and t = 18s, its electric vector |E| = 8 V/m, then the magnitude of its magnetic vector is

(a)   2.66 × 108

(b)   3 × 107

(c)   3.14 × 108

(d)   3.16 × 107

17. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance between X and Y is …….. Ω

(a)   5

(b)   12

(c)   16

(d)   20

18. A monoatomic gas of molar mass m is kept in a insulated container. Container is moving with velocity v. If the container is suddenly stopped, then the change in the temperature of the gas is

(a)   mv2/4R

(b)   mv2/2R

(c)   mv2/R

(d)   mv2/3R

19. A projectile is projected with the velocity of  The horizontal range of the projectile will be

(a)   1.2 m

(b)   2.4 m

(c)   3.6 m

(d)   4.5 m

20. A transistor is connected in common-emitter (CE) configuration. The collector supply is 8V and the voltage drop across a resistor is 500 Ω in the collector circuit is 0.6 V. If the current gain factor α is 0.96, find the base current

(a)   25 μA

(b)   50 μA

(c)   20 μA

(d)   35 μA

21. A solid sphere of 80 kg radius 15 m moving in a space becomes a circular disc of radius 20 m in 1 h. The rate of change of moment of Inertia in this process is ………

22. If the B – H curves of two samples of X and Y of iron are as shown below, then which one of the following statement is correct?

(a)   Both X and Y are suitable for making electromagnets.

(b)   Both X and Y are suitable for making permanent magnet.

(c)   X is suitable for making permanent magnet and Y for making electromagnet.

(d)   X is suitable for making electromagnet and Y is suitable for permanent magnet.

23. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1, is A1 and at a later time t2, it is A2. If the decay constant of the material is λ, then

24. A mosquito O is sitting infront of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 40 cm. The image would be formed at

(a)   40 cm left

(b)   infinity

(c)   20 cm to the right

(d)   15 cm to the left

25. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a process as shown in the figure. The molar specific heat of the gas in the process is

(a)   3R/2

(b)   R/2

(c)   5R/2

(d)   7R/2

26. A capillary tube is attached horizontally to a constant heat arrangement. If the radius of the capillary tube is increased by 25%, then the rate of flow of liquid will change nearly by

(a)   100%

(b)   112%

(c)   124%

(d)   144%

27. In the arrangement shown in figure, when the switch S2 is open, the galvanometer, shows no deflection of l = 50 cm when the switch S2 is closed, the galvanometer shows no deflection for l = 0.416 m. The internal resistance (r) of 6 V cell is

(a)   2 Ω

(b)   3 Ω

(c)   5 Ω

(d)   9 Ω

28. In a young’s double slit arrangement frings are produced using light of wavelength 4000 Å. One slit is covered by a thin plate of glass of refractive index 1.4 and the other with another glass plate of same thickness but of refractive index 1.7. By doing so the central bright shifts to original sixth fringe from centre. Thickness of glass plate is ………. .

(a)   2 μm

(b)   8 μm

(c)   11 μm

(d)   16 μm

29. An electric current I enters and leaves a uniform circular wire of radius r through diametrically opposite points. A charged particle q moves along the axis of circular wire passes through its centre at speed v. The magnetic force on the particle when it passes through the centre has a magnitude.

30. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of +5D. The power of converging lens is +6D. The ratio of the dispersive power of the convergent and divergent lenses is

(a)   3 : 7

(b)   2 : 3

(c)   1 : 5

(d)   5 : 3

PART II

Chemistry

31. Which one of the following is correct or3der of given isotopes?

(I) T2 > D2 > P2 (order of boiling point)

(II) T2 > D2 > P2 (order of bond energy)

(III) T2 = D2 = P2 (order of bond length)

(IV) T2 < D2 < P2 (order of reactivity with Cl2)

(a)   I and II

(b)   III and IV

(c)   II, III and IV

(d)   All of these

32. Ninhydrin gives yellow colour in paper chromatography with which amino acid?

(a)   Tryptophan

(b)   Proline

(c)   Alanine

(d)   Tyrosine

33. How will raise in temperature affects the viscosity of liquids and gases?

(a)   Both increases

(b)   Both decreases

(c)   In case of liquids, decreases and in case of gases increases.

(d)   In case of liquid, increases and in case of gases, decreases.

34. Which of the following compounds is thermodynamically is the most stable?

(a)   BaCO3

(b)   MgCO3

(c)   SrCO3

(d)   CaCO3

35. Glucose reacts with X number of molecules of phenyl hydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is,

(a)   three

(b)   two

(c)   one

(d)   four

36. Nylon-6, 6 is obtained from

(a)   adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine

(b)   tetrafluoroethylene

(c)   vinyl cyanide

(d)   vinyl benzene

37. What is the hybridization of [CrF6]3?

(a)   sp3d

(b)   sp3d2

(c)   d2sp3

(d)   d2sp

38. OF an F2 can be compared in terms of

(a)   OF is paramagnetic while F2 is diamagnetic

(b)   OF is more stable towards dissociation into atoms

(c)   Both (a) and (b) are correct

(d)   None of the above is correct

39. ortho and para form of hydrogen have

(a)   different physical and chemical properties

(b)   identical physical properties but different chemical properties

(c)   identical chemical properties but different physical properties

(d)   identical chemical and physical properties

40. The structure of H2O2 is

(a)   planar, linear

(b)   non-planar, linear

(c)   planar, non-linear

(d)   non-planar, non-linear

41. Match the species in Column I with their types in Column II.

Codes

(a)   A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1

(b)   A→1, B→2, C→3, D→1

(c)   A→2, B→3, C→1, D→4

(d)   A→3, B→1, C→2, D→4

42. In which pair or pairs is the stronger bond found in the first species?

(I) O22, O2;       (II) N2, N2+;     (III) NO+, NO

(a)   I only

(b)   II only

(c)   I and II only

(d)   II and III only

43. Select the correct statement about the complex [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br.

(a)   Its ionization isomer is [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4.

(b)   It gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3.

(c)   Its ionization isomer give while precipitate with BaCl2­.

(d)   All the above are correct statements.

44. A certain metal sulphide, MS2, is used extensively as a high temperature lubricant. If MS2 is 40.06% by mass sulphur, metal M has atomic mass.

(a)   160 u

(b)   64 u

(c)   40 u

(d)   96 u

45.

X and Y are

(a)   benzene, benzaldehyde

(b)   toluene, benzaldehyde

(c)   toluene, benzoic acid

(d)   benzene, benzoic acid

46. Ge(II) compounds are powerful reducing agents whereas Pb(IV) compounds are strong oxidants. It can be because

(a)   Pb is more electropositive than Ge.

(b)   ionization potential of lead is less than that of Ge.

(c)   ionic radii of Pb2+ and Pb4+ are larger than that of Ge2+ and Ge4+

(d)   more pronounced inert pair effect in lead has.

47. Which compound has antifluorite structure?

(a)   MnO4

(b)   Na2O

(c)   Na2O2

(d)   Li2O2

48. 100 mL of 2 M of formic acid (pK­a = 3.74) is neutralize by NaOH, at the equivalence point pH is

(a)   7

(b)   6

(c)   9.5

(d)   8.87

49. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr produces

50. The number of 3C−2e bonds present in diborane is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

51. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY2 are 60, 40 and 50 JK1 mol1, respectively. For the reaction,  to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be

(a)   1250 K

(b)   500 K

(c)   750 K

(d)   1000 K

52. The total number of P−OH bonds for pyrophosphoric acid

(a)   4

(b)   5

(c)   6

(d)   8

53. Using the standard electrode potential, find out the pair between which redox reaction is not feasible.

E values Fe3+/Fe2+ = +0.77; I2/I = + 0.54 Cu2+/Cu = +0.34; Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V

(a)   Fe3+ and I

(b)   Ag+ and Cu

(c)   Fe3+ and Cu

(d)   Ag and Fe3+

54. What is [NH4+] in a solution that is 0.02 M NH301 M KOH ? [Kb(NH3) = 1.8 × 105]

(a)   3.6 × 105 M

(b)   1.8 × 105 M

(c)   0.9 × 105 M

(d)   7.2 × 105 M

55. For an isomerization reaction A ⇋ B, the temperature dependence of equilibrium constant is given by

The value of ∆S° at Hook is, therefore

(a)   4R

(b)   5R

(c)   400R

(d)   2000R

56. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surrounding. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following.

(a)   q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, W = 0

(b)   q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, W = 0

(c)   q = 0, ∆T = 0, W = 0

(d)   q = 0, ∆T < 0, W ≠ 0

57. The given graph represents the variation of compressibility factor (Z) = pV/nRT, for three real gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect statement.

(a)   For the gas A, a = 0 and the dependence on p is linear at all pressure.

(b)   For the gas B, b = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all pressure.

(c)   For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which neither, a nor b = 0. By knowing the minima and point of the intersection, with Z = 1, a and b can be calculated.

(d)   At high pressure the slope is positive for all real gases.

58. Which one of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

(a)   3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals all have the same energy.

(b)   3s and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than 3d-orbital.

(c)   3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital.

(d)   3s-orbital is lower in energy than 3p-orbital.

59. In the molecules CH4, NF3, NH4+ and H2O

(a)   number of lone pairs are same

(b)   all have same hybridization of centre of atom

(c)   the bond angles are same

(d)   number of bond pairs are same

60. 0.20 g of an organic compound gave 0.12 g of AgBr By using Carius method, the percentage of bromine in the compound will be

(a)   34.06%

(b)   44.04%

(c)   54%

(d)   25%

PART III

(a) English Proficiency

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-64) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the  underlined word in the sentence.

61. Forthrightness in speech may not always be a desirable quality.

(a)   Outspokenness

(b)   Obliqueness

(c)   Mendacity

(d)   Equivocation

62. The inexorable demands of the workers brought the company to a closure.

(a)   Unreasonable

(b)   Relentless

(c)   Monetary

(d)   Violent

63. Select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Then her face was bowed.

(a)   Then she was being bowed her face.

(b)   Her face was bowed by them.

(c)   Then she bowed her face.

(d)   Then her face has been bowed.

64. The complex form of the sentence given below would be

Spare the rod and spoil the child.

(a)   The child is spoiled if the rod is spared.

(b)   The child becomes spoiled when the rod is spared.

(c)   The child is spoiled whenever the rod is spared.

(d)   The child is spoiled when the rod is spared.

Directions (Q. Nos. 65-66) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the given italicized word.

65. The attack on the freedom of the press is a retrograde

(a)   progressive

(b)   stubborn

(c)   punitive

(d)   aggressive

66. The leader might have had some covert reason for the change of his political affiliations.

(a)   Unjustifiable

(b)   Obvious

(c)   Inexplicable

(d)   Flimsy

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-68) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

67. Regard for others as a principle of action or selflessly.

(a)   Gynicism

(b)   Nepotism

(c)   Philanthropy

(d)   Altruism

68. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence is

(a)   Formalism

(b)   Statesmanship

(c)   Protocol

(d)   Hierarchy

Directions (Q. Nos. 69-70) Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C and D to form a logical paragraph.

69. (A) Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

(B) In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition, using protected and regulated domestic markets.

(C) The trend is irreversible.

(D) Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges, and to avoid being swept away.

(b)   BDCA

(c)   BDAC

(d)   CDBA

70. (A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale them out.

(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.

(C) To fulfill the social objectives laid down by the masters of nationalization, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.

(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum of losses showed at Rs. 3,369 crores.

(a)   BACD

(b)   DABC

(b) Logical Reasoning

71. Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

72. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

If, P – K × Y – J ÷ S + R, then which of the following statement is not correct?

(a)   K is husband of S

(b)   Y is son of S

(c)   J is daughter of P

(d)   P is paternal uncle of R

73. Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘6’.

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   5

(d)   3

74. Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded (rotation is now allowed).

75. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

TULG, WRPC, ZOTY, CLXU, ?

(a)   FIBQ

(b)   FICR

(c)   FJCQ

(d)   GIAQ

76. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a)   33

(b)   18

(c)   31

(d)   29

77. The average marks of 50 students in a class was found to be 64. If the marks of two students were incorrectly entered as 38 and 42 instead of 83 and 24, respectively, then what is the correct average?

(a)   64.54

(b)   62.32

(c)   61.24

(d)   61.86

78. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right of the figure.

79. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing the centre. A sits second to the right of B, E sits second to the left of C. B doesn’t sit adjacent to E. D does not sit opposite to E or C. Who sits to the immediate left of E?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   B

(d)   C

80. Five friends A, B, C, D and E bought cars which were priced differently. B’s car was costlier than C’s car but was less costly than E’s car. A’s car was costlier than D’s car but less costly than C’s car. Whose car was the 2nd costliest?

(a)   E

(b)   A

(c)   B

(d)   C

81. In the following questions, complete the missing segment by selecting the appropriate figure from the given alternatives, (a), (b), (c) and (d).

82. In each of the following question, find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?

Directions (Q. No. 83-84) In the following questions two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(c) Both conclusions I and II follow

(d) Either conclusion I or II follows

83. Statements 60% of government employees went on strike.

Mr. Gopal is government employee.

Conclusions

(I) Mr. Gopal went on strike.

(II) Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

84. Statements

Lawyers marry only fair girls.

Shobha is very fair.

Conclusions

(I) Shobha is marked to a lawyer.

(II) Shobha is not married to a lawyer.

85. In the question given below, find out which of the figures can be formed from the pieces given in the problem figure.

86. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

Barometer : Pressure

(a)   Ammeter : Current

(b)   Thermometer : Volume

(c)   Voltmeter : Heat

(d)   Scale : Seconds

87. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given set of words.

Cat : Lion : Jaguar

(a)   Shark : Dolphin : Bat

(b)   Sport; Athlete : Javelin

(c)   Monkey : Chimpenzee : Gorilla

(d)   Reptile : Snake : Toad

88. ‘Needle’ is related to ‘Sew’ in the same way as ‘Microscope’ is related to ‘……….’.

(a)   Laboratory

(b)   Lens

(c)   Science

(d)   Magnify

89. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

14 : 289 : : 17 : 400 : : 21 : ?

(a)   576

(b)   504

(c)   570

(d)   441

90. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

TXB, QWE, NVH, KUK, ?

(a)   ITM

(b)   JTM

(c)   HTN

(d)   HSN

PART IV

Mathematics

91. If α be a root of the equation 4x2 + 2x – 1 = 0, then the other root of the equation is

(a)   4α3 + 2α

(b)   4α2 – 2α

(c)   4α3 – 3α

(d)   4α3 + 3α

92. If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4}. And,

B + { x : x is a multiple of 6}, then A ∩ B consist of multiple of

(a)   16

(b)   12

(c)   8

(d)   4

93. If |w| = 2, then the set of points  is contained in or equal to the set of points z satisfying

(a)   Im(z) = 0

(b)   |Im(z)| ≤ 1

(c)   |Re(z)| ≤ 2

(d)   |z| ≤ 3

94. The value of  is

(a)   1/6

(b)   1/8

(c)   1/10

(d)   1/12

95. Let a1, a2, ….. a40 be in AP and h1­, h2, …. H10 be in HP. If a1 = h1 = 2 and a10 = h10 = 3, then a4h7 is

(a)   2

(b)   3

(c)   5

(d)   6

96. The number of terms in the expansion of (1 + 5√2x)9 + (1 – 5√2x)9, is

(a)   5

(b)   7

(c)   9

(d)   10

97. The number of different seven-digit numbers that can be written using only the three digit 1, 2 and 3 with the condition that the digit 2 occurs twice in each number is

(a)   7C225

(b)   7p225

(c)   7C252

(d)   None of these

98. Given 2x – y + 2z = 2, x – 2y + z = −4, x + y + λz = 4, then the value of λ such that the given system of equation has no solution is

(a)   −3

(b)   1

(c)   0

(d)   3

99. Let  and 10  If B is the inverse of A, then the value of α is

(a)   4

(b)   −4

(c)   3

(d)   5

100. If x ∈ (0, π/2), then the value of  is equal to

(a)   x − cos1 (7 cos x)

(b)   x + sin1 (7 cos x)

(c)   x + cos1 (6 cos x)

(d)   x + cos1 (7 cos x)

101. A running track of 440 ft is to be laid out enclosing a football field, the shape of which is a rectangle with a semi-circle at each end. If the area of the rectangular portion is to be maximum, then the lengths of its side are

(a)   70 ft and 110 ft

(b)   80 ft and 120 ft

(c)   35 ft and 110 ft

(d)   35 ft and 120 ft

102.  find general solution

(a)   y = tan x(log|cosec x – cot x| + cos x + c)

(b)   y = sec2 x + tan x + c

(c)   y = log|sec x + tan x| + cosec x + c

(d)   y = tan2 x + sin x + c

103. If the straight line y = mx + c touches the parabola y2 – 4ax + 4a3 = 0, then c is

104. A normal is drawn at the point P to the parabola y2 = 8x, which is inclined at 60° with the straight line y = 8. Then the point P lies on the straight line

(a)   2x + y – 12 – 4√3 = 0

(b)   2x – y – 12 + 4√3 = 0

(c)   2x – y – 12 – 4√3 = 0

(d)   None of these

105. The value of  is

106. The area of the region bounded by the parabola (y – 2)2 = (x – 1), the tangent to the parabola at the point (2, 3) and the X-axis is

(a)   3

(b)   6

(c)   9

(d)   12

107. are two non-collinear unit vectors such that  Then the value of  is equal to

108. A six faced die is a biased one. It is thrice more likely to show an odd numbers than show an even number. It is thrown twice. The probability that the sum of the numbers in two throws is even, is

(a)   5/9

(b)   5/8

(c)   1/2

(d)   None of these

109. The sum of all the solution of the equation  θ ∈ [0, 6π]

(a)   15π

(b)   30π

(c)   100π/3

(d)   None of these

110. Let α be the solution of  in (0, π/4). If the shadow of a vertical pole is 1/√3 of its height, then the altitude of the sun is

(a)   α

(b)   α/2

(c)   2α

(d)   α/3

111. For each parabola y = x2 + px + q, meeting coordinate axes at 3-distinct points, if circles are drawn through these points, then the family of circles must pass through

(a)   (1, 0)

(b)   (0, 1)

(c)   (1, 1)

(d)   (p, q)

112. The number of ways of arranging letters of the word HAVANA so that V and N do not appear together is

(a)   40

(b)   60

(c)   80

(d)   100

113. Let a1, a2, a3 …. Be a harmonic progression with a1 = 5 and a20 = 25. The least positive integer n for which an < 0, is

(a)   22

(b)   23

(c)   24

(d)   25

114. If the plane 3x + y + 2z + 6 = 0 is parallel to the line  then the value of 3a + 3b is

(a)   1/2

(b)   3/2

(c)   3

(d)   4

115. Let a, b be the solutions of x2 + px + 1 = 0 and c, d be the solution of x2 + qx + 1 = 0. If (a – c) (b – c) and (a + d) (b + d) are the solution of x2 + ax + β = 0, then β is equal to

(a)   p + q

(b)   p – q

(c)   p2 + q2

(d)   q2 – p2

116. If  then

(a)   a = 1, b = 1

(b)   a = sin 2θ, b = cos 2θ

(c)   a = cos 2θ, b = sin 2θ

(d)   None of these

117. The value of  is

(a)

(b)

(c)   e/24

(d)   None of these

118. The locus of the mid-point of the chord if contact of tangents drawn from points lying on the straight line 4x – 5y = 20 to the circle x2 + y2 = 9 is

(a)   20(x2 + y2) – 36x + 45y = 0

(b)   20(x2 + y2) + 36x – 45y = 0

(c)   36(x2 + y2) – 20x + 45y = 0

(d)   36(x2 + y2) + 20x – 45y = 0

119. Let  and f(0) = 0, then the value of f(1) be

(a)   log(1 + √2)

(b)

(c)

(d)   None of these

120. The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2. If three of these observations are 1, 2 and 6, then the other two are

(a)   2 and 9

(b)   3 and 8

(c)   4 and 7

(d)   5 and 6

121. In a sequence of 21 terms, the first 11 terms are in AP with common difference 2 and the last 11 terms are in GP with common ratio 2. If the middle term of AP be equal to the middle term of the GP, then the middle term of the entire sequence is

(a)   −10/31

(b)   10/31

(c)   32/31

(d)   −31/32

122. If p ≠ a, q ≠ b, r ≠ c and the system of equations

px + ay + az = 0

bx + qy + bz = 0

cx + cy + rz = 0

has a non-trivial solution, then the value of  is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   1/2

(d)   0

123. If g(x) = x2 + x – 2 and  then f(x) is equal to

(a)   2x – 3

(b)   2x + 3

(c)   2x2 + 3x + 1

(d)   2x2 – 3x + 1

124. The smallest positive integral value of n such that  is purely imaginary, is equal to

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   2

(d)   8

125. A house subtends a right angle at the window of a opposite house and the angle of elevation of the window from the bottom of the first house is 60. If the distance between two houses be 6 m, then the height of the first house is

(a)   8√3 m

(b)   6√3 m

(c)   4√3 m

(d)   None of these

126. A spherical balloon is filled with 4500π cubic meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72π cubic meters per minute then the rate (in meters per minute) at which the radius of the balloon decreases 49 min after the leakage began is

(a)   9/7

(b)   7/9

(c)   2/9

(d)   9

127. If in a ∆ABC, 2b2 = a2 + c2, then  is equal to

128. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of (x + y)n is 1024, then the value of greatest coefficient in the expansion is

(a)   356

(b)   252

(c)   210

(d)   120

129. The area enclosed by the curves y = sin x + cos x and y = |cos x – sin x| over the interval [0, π/2] is

(a)   4(√2 – 1)

(b)   2√2(√2 – 1)

(c)   2(√2 + 1)

(d)   2√2(√2 + 1)

130. If α, β, γ ∈ [0, π] and if α, β, γ are in AP, then  is equal to

(a)   sin β

(b)   cos β

(c)   cot β

(d)   2 cos β

## BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2019

PART-I : PHYSICS

1. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of electric field with distance r from the centre of a charged spherical conductor of radius R?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. If  are the electric and magnetic field vectors of e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e.m. wave is along the direction of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   None of these

3. The young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r Y N/m2. If the length and radius are reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its young’s modulus will be

(a)   Y/2

(b)   Y

(c)   2Y

(d)   4Y

4. Twelve resistors each of resistance 16 Ω are connected in the circuit as shown. The net resistance between A and B is

(a)   1 Ω

(b)   2 Ω

(c)   3 Ω

(d)   4 Ω

5. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become

(a)   10 hours

(b)   80 hours

(c)   40 hours

(d)   20 hours

6. Two rains are moving towards each other with speeds of 20 m/s and 15 m/s relative to the ground. The first train sounds a whistle of frequency 600 Hz. The frequency of the whistle heard by a passenger in the second train before the train meets, is (the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s)

(a)   600 Hz

(b)   585 Hz

(c)   645 Hz

(d)   666 Hz

7. You are asked to design a having mirror assuming that a person keeps it 10 cm from his face and views the magnified image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 25 cm. The radius of curvature of the mirror would then be:

(a)   60 cm

(b)   −24 cm

(c)   −60 cm

(d)   24 cm

8. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination ‘α’. The incline is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then ‘a’ is equal to

(a)   g cosec α

(b)   g/tan α

(c)   g tan α

(d)   g

9. With the increase in temperature, the angle of contact

(a)   decreases

(b)   increases

(c)   remains constant

(d)   sometimes increases and sometimes

10. Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage

(a)   increases potential barrier

(b)   cancels the potential barrier

(c)   is equal to 1.5 volt

(d)   None of these

11. Number of significant figures in expression  is

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   3

(d)   5

12. The ratio of the specific heats  in terms of degrees of freedom (n) given by

(a)   (1 + n/3)

(b)   (1 + 2/n)

(c)   (1 + n/2)

(d)   (1 + 1/n)

13. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. The horizontal distance covered by its fall to ground is maximum when the angle θ is equal to

(a)   0°

(b)   30°

(c)   45°

(d)   90°

14. A ball of mass 150 g, moving with an acceleration 20 m/s2, is his by a force, which acts on it for 0.1 sec. The impulsive force is

(a)   0.5 N

(b)   0.1 N

(c)   0.3 N

(d)   1.2 N

15. A man drags a block through 10 m on rough surface (μ = 0.5). A force of √3 kN acting at 30° to the horizontal. The work done by applied force is

(a)   zero

(b)   7.5 kJ

(c)   5 kJ

(d)   10 kJ

16. A force of  acts on a body for 4 second, produces a displacement of  The power used is

(a)   9.5 W

(b)   7.5 W

(c)   6.5 W

(d)   4.5 W

17. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv, where v is its escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. The value of f is

(a)   1/3

(b)   1/2

(c)   √2

(d)   1/√2

18. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of areal velocity of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a)   Energy

(b)   Angular momentum

(c)   Linear momentum

(d)   None of these

19. Water is flowing through a horizontal tube having cross-sectional areas of its two ends being A and A’ such that ratio A/A’ is 5. If the pressure difference of water between the two ends is 3 × 105 N m2, the velocity of water with which it enters the tube will be (neglect gravity effects)

(a)   5ms1

(b)   10 ms1

(c)   25 ms1

(d)   50√10 ms1

20. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to B along ACB and is brought back to A along BDA as shown in the PV diagram. The net work done during the complete cy cle is given by the area

(a)   P1ACBP2P1

(b)   ACBB’A’A

(c)   ACBDA

21. A boat crosses a river from port A to port B, which are just on the opposite side. The speed of the water is Vw and that of boat is VB relative to still water. Assume Vw = 2Vw. What is the time taken by the boat, if it has to cross the river directly on the AB line (D = width of the river]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. Two springs, of force constants k1 and k2 are connected to a mass m as shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k1 and k2 are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation becomes

(a)   2f

(b)   f/2

(c)   f/4

(d)   4f

23. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is proportional to

(a)   √V

(b)   V

(c)   √T

(d)   T

24. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes (1/3rd) in 2 seconds. If its amplitude after 6 seconds is 1/n times the original amplitude, the value of n is

(a)   32

(b)   33

(c)   ∛3

(d)   23

25. The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is

(a)   directly proportional to n

(b)   inversely proportional to √n

(c)   inversely proportional to n2

(d)   inversely proportional to n3

26. In the given figure, the charge on 3 μF capacitor is

(a)   10 μC

(b)   15 μC

(c)   30 μC

(d)   5 μC

27. Two bodies A and B are placed in an evacuated vessel maintained at a temperature of 27° The temperature of A is 327°C and that of B is 227°C. The ratio of heat loss from A and B is about

(a)   2 : 1

(b)   1 : 2

(c)   4 : 1

(d)   1 : 4

28. If a rigid body is rotating about an axis with a constant velocity, then

(a)   Velocity, Angular velocity of all particles will be same

(b)   Velocity, Angular velocity of all particles will be different

(c)   Velocity of all particles will be different but angular velocity will be same.

(d)   Angular velocity of all particles will be different but velocity will be same.

29. The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe has same frequency as first overtone of a closed organ pipe. If speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the length of closed organ pipe is

(a)   41 cm

(b)   30 cm

(c)   45 cm

(d)   35 cm

30. In Young’s experiment, the distance between the slits is reduced to half and the distance between the slit and screen is doubled, then the fringe width

(a)   will not change

(b)   will become half

(c)   will be doubled

(d)   will become four times

31. If a rolling body’s angular momentum changes by 20 SI units in 3 seconds, by a constant torque. Then find the torque on the b ody

(a)   20/3 SI units

(b)   100/3 SI units

(c)   20 SI units

(d)   5 SI units

32. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic spheres having radii x and 2x such that both spheres have equal surface charge density, then charge on large sphere is

(a)   4Q/5

(b)   Q/5

(c)   3Q/5

(d)   5Q/4

33. In an LR circuit f = 50 Hz, L = 2 H, E = 5 volts, R = 1 Ω then energy stored in inductor is

(a)   50 J

(b)   25 J

(c)   100 J

(d)   None of these

34. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field induction 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is

(a)   2.4 N

(b)   1.2 N

(c)   3.0 N

(d)   2.0 N

35. A man drives a car from station B towards station A at speed 60 km/h. A car leaves station A for station B every 10 min. The distance between A and B is 60 km. The car travels at the speed of 60 km/h. A man drives a car from B towards A at speed of 60 km/h. If he starts at the moment when first car leaves the station B, then how many cars would be meet on the route?

(a)   4

(b)   7

(c)   9

(d)   12

36. In rotatory motion, linear velocities of all the particles of the body are

(a)   same

(b)   different

(c)   zero

(d)   cannot say

37. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and the acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion of time period T, then, which of the following does not change with time?

(a)   aT/x

(b)   aT + 2πv

(c)   aT/v

(d)   a2T2 + 4π2v2

38. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD are

(a)   B to A and D to C

(b)   A to B and C to D

(c)   A to B and D to C

(d)   B to A and C to D

39. Find the acceleration of block A and B. Assume pulley is massless.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40. The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones?

(a)   34Se74, 31Ga71

(b)   38Sr84, 38Sr86

(c)   42Mo92, 40Zr92

(d)   20Ca40, 16S32

PART-II : CHEMISTRY

41. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that follows Arrhenius equation is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

42. 3.6 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of metal powder. What volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 273 K?

(a)   0.19 L g1

(b)   1 L g1

(c)   2.1 L g1

(d)   None of these

43. In the purification of impure nickel by Mond’s process, metal is purified by:

(a)   Electrolytic reduction

(b)   Vapour phase thermal decomposition

(c)   Thermite reduction

(d)   Carbon reduction

44. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of sodium iodide in the presence of chloroform, a violet colouration is obtained. ON adding more the chlorine water and vigorous shaking, the violet colour disappears. This shows the conversion of ….. into ….

(a)   I2, HIO3

(b)   I2, HI

(c)   HI, HIO3

(d)   I2, HOI

45. In the clathrates of xenon with water, the nature of bonding between xenon and water molecule is

(a)   covalent

(b)   hydrogen bonding

(c)   coordinate

(d)   dipole-include dipole

46. The electronic configurations of Eu(Atomic No. 63), Gd(Atomic No. 64) and Tb(Atomic No. 65) are

(a)   [Xe]4f76s2, [Xe]4f8 6s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2

(b)   [Xe]4f75d16s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f96s2

(c)   [Xe]4f65d16s2, [Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2

(d)   [Xe]4f76s2, [Xe]4f75d1 6s2 and [Xe]4f96s2

47. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C – O bond?

(a)   [Mn(CO)6]+

(b)   [Cr(CO)6]

(c)   [V(CO6]

(d)   [Fe(CO)5]

48. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2-methyl butane?

(a)   8

(b)   2

(c)   4

(d)   6

49. How many chiral compounds are possible in the reaction of excess of CH3MgBr with C6H5COOC2H5 to make 2-phenyl-2-propanol?

(a)   A and B

(b)   A, B and C

(c)   A and C

(d)   B and C

50.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

51. Which of the following is the strongest base?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

52. Which of the following does not reduce Benedict’s solution?

(a)   Glucose

(b)   Fructose

(c)   Sucrose

(d)   Aldehyde

53. General formula of solid in zinc blende structure is

(a)   AB2

(b)   AB3

(c)   AB

(d)   A2B

54. Glycine in alkaline solution exists as ______ and migrates to

(a)   Cation, cathode

(b)   Neutral , anode

(c)   Zwitter ion, cathode

(d)   anion, anode

55. Product on reaction of ethanamide with phosphorus pentoxide is

(a)   ethanamine

(b)   acetonitrile

(c)   ethanol

(d)   ethane isonitrile

56. Ka of HX is 105, then find concentration of H3O+ when equal volumes of 0.25M HX and 0.05 M NaOH are mixed.

(a)   4 × 105 M

(b)   6 × 105 M

(c)   8 × 103 M

(d)   2 × 105 M

57. Net cell reaction of Pt|H2(640 mm)|HCl|H2(510 mm)|Pt.

(a)   0.89V

(b)   0.93V

(c)   2.91 × 103 V

(d)   2.5 × 102 V

58. Which of the following has zero net dipole moment?

(a)   XeF4

(b)   BrF3

(c)   ClF3

(d)   SF4

59. Which of the following element has the highest ionization enthalpy?

(a)   Boron

(b)   Aluminium

(c)   Germanium

(d)   Thallium

60. Out of the elements with atomic number 7, 8, 9, 13 which has the smallest size and highest ionization enthalpy?

(a)   7

(b)   8

(c)   9

(d)   13

61. Which one is classified as a condensation polymer?

(a)   Dacron

(b)   Neoprene

(c)   Teflon

(d)   Acrylonitrile

62. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?

(a)   Phenelzine

(b)   Ranitidie

(c)   Aluminium hydroxide

(d)   Cimetidine

63. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(a)   0.1770

(b)   0.0177

(c)   0.0344

(d)   1.7700

64. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)   trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

(b)   cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-penten

(c)   trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

(d)   cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

65. Most stable carbocation among the following is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

66. Which is correct for the following changes?

(a)   X is Lindlar Catalyst, B is cis-2-butene

(b)   A is 2-butyne, X is Na-liq. NH3

(c)   B is trans-2-butene, X is Na-liq. NH3

(d)   A is 2-butene, X is SeO2

67. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, ln and Tl increases in the sequence :

(a)   Ga < In < Al < Tl

(b)   Al < Ga < ln < Tl

(c)   Tl < In < Ga < Al

(d)   In < Tl < Ga < Al

68. Which of the following alkaline earth metal hydroxide is amphoteric in character?

(a)   Be(OH)2

(b)   Ca(OH)2

(c)   Sr(OH)2

(d)   Ba(OH)2

69. Which reaction show oxidizing nature of H2O2?

(a)   H2O2 + 2KI → 2KOH + I2

(b)   Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2

(c)   H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2

(d)   NaClO + H2O2 → NaCl + H2O + O2

70. aK2Cr2O7 + bKCl + cH2SO4 → xCrO2Cl2 + yKHSO4 + zH2O

The above equation balances when

(a)   a = 2, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3

(b)   a = 4, b = 2, c = 6 and x = 6, y = 2, z = 3

(c)   a = 6, b = 4, c = 2 and x = 6, y = 3, z = 2

(d)   a = 1, b = 4, c = 6 and x = 2, y = 6, z = 3

71. For the reactions

A ⇌ B; Kc = 2

B ⇌ C; Kc = 4

C  ⇌ D; Kc = 6

Kc for the reaction A ⇌ D is

(a)   2 × 4 × 6

(b)

(c)   2 + 4 + 6

(d)

72. Which of the following will always lead to a non-spontaneous change?

(a)   ∆H and ∆S both +ve

(b)   ∆H is –ve ∆S both +ve

(c)   ∆H and ∆S both -ve

(d)   ∆H is +ve ∆S both -ve

73. The densities of two gasses are in the ratio of 1 : 16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is

(a)   16 : 1

(b)   4 : 1

(c)   1 : 4

(d)   1 : 16

74. In the reaction, 2PCl5 ⇌ PCl4+ + PCl6, the change in hybridization is from

(a)   sp3d to sp3 and sp3d2

(b)   sp3d to sp2 and sp3

(c)   sp3d to sp3d2 and sp3d3

(d)   sp3d2 to sp3 and sp3d

75. The group having isoelectronic species is:

(a)   O2−, F, Na+, Mg2+

(b)   O, F, Na, Mg+

(c)   O2−, F, Na, Mg2+

(d)   O, F, Na+, Mg2+

76. 100 mL O2 and H2 kept at same temperature and pressure. What is true about their number of molecules

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

77. If mA gram of a metal A displaces mB gram of another metal B from its salt solution and if the equivalent mass are EA and EB respectively then equivalent mass of A can be expressed as:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

78. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for 4p electron?

(a)   n = 4, l = 1, m = −1, ms = +1/2

(b)   n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, ms = +1/2

(c)   n = 4, l = 1, m = 2, ms = +1/2

(d)   n = 4, l = 1, m = −1, ms = −1/2

79. Which of the following radial distribution graphs correspond to l = 2 for the H atom?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

80. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(a)   B2

(b)   C2

(c)   N2

(d)   F2

PART-III(A): ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-83): In the following questions below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

81. Garrulous

(a)   Talkative

(b)   Sedative

(c)   Cocative

(d)   Positive

82. Tinsel

(a)   Tinkle

(b)   Decoration

(c)   Tin

(d)   Colourful

83. Labyrinth

(a)   Meandering

(b)   Rotating

(c)   Pacing

(d)   Wriggling

DIRECTIONS(Qs .84-86) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

84. Knack:

(a)   Talent

(b)   Dullness

(c)   Dexterity

(d)   Balance

85. Pernicious:

(a)   Prolonged

(b)   Ruinous

(c)   Ruthless

(d)   Beneficial

86. Opulence :

(a)   Luxury

(b)   Transparency

(c)   Wealth

(d)   Poverty

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 87-90) : Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate circle [•].

Like watering a plant, we grow our friendships [and all our relationship) by running them, Friendships need the same attention as other relationships. If they are to continue. These relationships can be delightfully non-judgemental, supportive, understanding and fun.

Sometimes a friendship can bring out the positive side that you never show in any other relationship. This may be because the pressure of playing a ‘role’ (daughter, partner or child) is removed. With friend you are to be yourself and free to change. Of course, you are free to do this in all other relationships as well, but in friendships you get to have lats of rehearsals and discussion about changes as you experience them. It is an unconditional experience where you receive as much as you give. You can explain yourself to a friend openly without the fear of hurting a family member. How do friendships grow? The answer is simple. By revealing yourself; being attentive: remembering what is most showing empathy; seeing the world through the eyes of  your friend, you will understand the value of friendship. All this means learning to accept a person from a completely different family to your own or perhaps someone from a completely different cultural background. This is the way we learn tolerance. In turn we gain tolerance and acceptance for our own differences.

87. In good friendships, we

(c)   only give

88. Empathy means

(a)   someone else’s misfortunes

(b)   the ability to share and understand another feelings.

(c)   skill and efficiency

(d)   ability to do something

89. Through strong friendships, we gain

(a)   only acceptance.

(b)   only attention.

(c)   acceptance and tolerance.

(d)   only tolerance.

90. Friendships and relationships grow when they are

(a)   compared

(b)   divided

(c)   favoured

(d)   nurtured

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91-92) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

91. There are not solitary, free-living creatures; every form of life is ______other forms.

(a)   dependent on

(b)   parallel to

(d)   segregated from

92. I’ll take _____ now as I have another’s appointment some where else.

(a)   departure

(c)   permission

(d)   leave from work

DIRECTIONS(Qs. 93-95) : In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d). i.e., No error.

93. When one hears of the incident (a)/about the plane crash(b)/ he feels very sorry. (c)/ No error (d)

94. I went there (a)/ with a view to survey (b)/ the entire procedure. (c)/No error (d)

95. It had laid(a)/in the closet(b)/ for a week before we found it. (c)/ No error(d)

PART-III(B) : LOGICAL REASONING

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96 & 97) : In the following questions, which answer figure will complete the question figure?

96.

97.

98.

99. Select the related word from the given alternatives:

Medicine : Patient : Education :?

(a)   Teacher

(b)   School

(c)   Student

(d)   Tuition

100. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

A3E, F5J, K7O,_____

(a)   Q11T

(b)   Q9V

(c)   P9T

(d)   P11T

101. Which one of the following numbers lacks the common property in the series?

81, 36, 25, 9, 5, 16

(a)   5

(b)   9

(c)   36

(d)   25

102. In a certain code language, “TIRED” is written as “56” and “BRAIN” is written as “44”> How is “LAZY” written in that code language?

(a)   64

(b)   61

(c)   58

(d)   43

103. Select the missing number from the given response.

(a)   66

(b)   87

(c)   78

(d)   76

104. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Human Society – Youth Club, Political Party and Youths?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

105. Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of Sharat, who is loved most by his uncle Mithun. The head of the family is Ram Lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopoal and Mohan. Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

(a)   Uncle

(b)   Son

(c)   Brother

(d)   No relation

PART-IV : MATHEMATICS

106. If x cos α + y sin α = P is a tangent to the ellipse  then

(a)   a cos α + b sin α = P2

(b)   a sin α + b cos α = P2

(c)   a2 cos2 α + b2sin2 α = P2

(d)   a2sin2 α + b2cos2 α = P2

107. If a1, a2, a3 …….., an are in A.P. where a1 > 0 for all i, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   none of these

108. In order to solve the differential equation  the integrating factor is:

(a)   x cos x

(b)   x sec x

(c)   x sin x

(d)   x cosec x

109. Equation of two straight lines are  and  . Then

(a)   The lines are non-coplanar

(b)   The lines are parallel and distinct

(c)   The lines intersect in unique point

(d)   The lines are coincident

110. The equation of the curve passing through the point (a, −1/a) and satisfying the differential equation  is

(a)   (x + a) (1 + ay) = −4a2y

(b)   (x + a) (1 − ay) = 4a2y

(c)   (x + a) (1 − ay) = −4a2y

(d)   None of these

111. The locus of the mid-point of a chord of the circle x2 + y2 = 4, which subtends a right angle at the origin is

(a)   x + y = 2

(b)   x2 + y2 = 1

(c)   x2 + y2 = 2

(d)   x + y = 1

112. With the usual notation  is equal to

(a)   4 + √2 − √3

(b)   4 − √2 + √3

(c)   4 − √2 – √3

(d)   none of these

113.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

114. If

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

115. If f(x) = 3x4 + 4x3 – 12x2 + 12, then f(x) is

(a)   increasing in (–∞,–2) and in (0, 1)

(b)   increasing in (–2, 0) and in (1, ∞)

(c)   decreasing in (–2, 0) and in (0, 1)

(d)   decreasing in (–∞,–2) and in (1, ∞)

116. Consider  Then number of possible solutions are :

(a)   Zero

(b)   Unique

(c)   Infinite

(d)   None of these

117. The distance of a point (2, 5 –3) from the plane  is

(a)   13

(b)   13/7

(c)   13/5

(d)   37/7

118. The value of definite integral  is

(a)   0

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/2

(d)   π

119. For the following feasible region, the linear constraints are

(a)   x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≥ 12, x + 3y ≥ 11

(b)   x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x + 3y ≥ 11

(c)   x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x + 3y ≤ 11

(d)   None of these

120. The general solution of differential equation (ex + 1) ydy = (y + 1) ex dx is

(a)   (y + 1) = k(ex + 1)

(b)   y + 1 = ex + 1 + k

(c)   y = log {k(y + 1) (ex + 1)}

(d)

121. What is the slope of the normal at the point (at2, 2at) of the parabola y2 = 4ax?

(a)   1/t

(b)   t

(c)   −t

(d)   −1/t

122. is equal to

(a)   π2/32

(b)   π2/16

(c)   π/32

(d)   None of these

123. If  , then what is x equal to?

(a)   3

(b)   2

(c)   1

(d)   0

1. The limit

(a)   is equal to 1/2

(b)   is equal to −1/2

(c)   is equal to 2

(d)   does not exist

125. If 2 cos2 x + 3 sin x – 3 = 0, 0 ≤ x ≤ 180°, then x = 0

(a)   30°, 90°, 150°

(b)   60°, 120°, 180°

(c)   0°, 30°, 150°

(d)   45°, 90°, 135°

126. If the number of available constraints is 3 and the number of parameters to be optimized is 4, then

(a)   The objective function can be optimized

(b)   The constraint are short in number

(c)   The solution is problem oriented

(d)   None of these

127. If  then y'(1) is equal to

(a)   0

(b)   1/2

(c)   −1

(d)   −1/4

128. The maximum area of rectangle inscribed in a circle of diameter R is

(a)   R2

(b)   R2/2

(c)   R2/4

(d)   R2/8

129. If A and B are two events, such that P (A ⋃ B) = 3/4, P(A ⋂ B) = 1/4, P(Ac) = 2/3 where A° stands for the complementary event of A, then P(B) is given by:

(a)   1/3

(b)   2/3

(c)   1/9

(d)   2/9

130. If  then

(a)   f is continuous at x, when k = 0

(b)   f is not continuous at x = 0 for any real k.

(c)

(d)   None of these

131.  is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   None of these

132. The equation of chord of the circle x2 + y2 = 8x bisected at the point (4, 3) is

(a)   x = 3

(b)   y = 3

(c)   x = −3

(d)   y = −3

133. x and y are positive number. Let g and a be G.M. and Am of these numbers. Also let G be G. M. of x + 1 and y + 1. If and g are roots of equation x2 – 5x + 6 = 0, then

(a)   x = 2, y = 3/4

(b)   x = 3/4, y = 12

(c)   x = 5/2, y = 8/5

(d)   x = y = 2

134. The co-efficient of xn in the expansion of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

135. A pair of tangents are drawn from the origin to the circle x2 + y2 + 20(x + y) + 20 = 0, then the equation of the pair of tangent are

(a)   x2 + y2 – 5xy = 0

(b)   x2 + y2 + 2x + y = 0

(c)   x2 + y2 – xy + 7 = 0

(d)   2x2 + 2y2 + 5xy = 0

136. If the sum of a certain number of terms of the A.P. 25, 22, 19, …..is 116. then the last term is

(a)   0

(b)   2

(c)   4

(d)   6

137. If 1, a and P are in A.P. and 1, g and P are in G.P., then

(a)   1 + 2a + g2 = 0

(b)   1 + 2a – g2 = 0

(c)   1 – 2a – g2 = 0

(d)   1 – 2a + g2 = 0

138. If y = sin x + ex, then is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   (−sin x + ex)1

139. The foci of the hyperbola 4x2 – 9y2 – 1 = 0 are

(a)   (±√13, 0)

(b)   (±√13/6, 0)

(c)   (0, ±√13/6)

(d)   None of these

140. From the top of a cliff 50 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 45°. The height of tower is

(a)   50 m

(b)   50√3 m

(c)   50(√3 – 1)m

(d)

141. The coefficient of x2 tem in the binomial expansion of  is:

(a)   70/243

(b)   60/423

(c)   50/13

(d)   none of these

142. The value of λ, for which the circle x2 + y2 + 2λr + 6y + 1 = 0 intersects the circle x2 + y2 + 4x + 2y = 0 orthogonally, is

(a)   11/8

(b)   −1

(c)   −5/4

(d)   5/2

143. The value of  is

(a)

(b)

(c)   1

(d)   None of these

144. If f(x) = a – xn)1/n, where a > 0 and n ∈ N, then fof(x) is equal to:

(a)   a

(b)   x

(c)   xn

(d)   an

145. Sum of n terms of the series 8 + 88 + 888 + … equals

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)   None of these

146. The modulus of the complex number z such that |z + 3 – i| = 1 and arg(z) = π is equal to

(a)   3

(b)   2

(c)   9

(d)   4

147. Bag P contains 6 red and 4 blue balls and bag Q contains 5 red and 6 blue balls. A ball is transferred from bag P to bag Q and then a ball is drawn from bag Q. What is the probability that the ball drawn is blue?

(a)   7/15

(b)   8/15

(c)   4/19

(d)   8/19

148. The number of 4-digit number that can be formed with the digits, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in which at least 2 digits are identical, is

(a)   505

(b)   45 – 5!

(c)   600

(d)   None of these

149. Consider the system of linear equations;

x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3

2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3

3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1

The system has

(a)   exactly 3 solutions

(b)   a unique solution

(c)   no solution

(d)   infinite solutions

150.  What is the value of y so that the line through (3, y) and (2, 7) is parallel to the line through (−1, 4) and (0, 6)?

(a)   6

(b)   7

(c)   5

(d)   9

## BITSAT Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

BITSAT SOLVED PAPER-2018

PART-I : PHYSICS

1. Four point charges –Q, −q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of t he square. The relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:

(a)   Q = −q

(b)   Q = −1/q

(c)   Q = q

(d)   Q = 1/q

2. Two long parallel wires carry equal current i flowing in the same direction are at a distance 2d apart. The magnetic field B at a point lying on the perpendicular line joining the wires and at a distance x from the midpoint is-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3. In the circuit shown, the symbols have their usual meanings. The cell has emf E. X is initially joined to Y for a long time. Then, X joined to Z. The maximum charge on C at any later time will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

4. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at

(a)   30 cm left

(b)   infinity

(c)   1 cm to the right

(d)   18 cm to the left

5. In Young’s double slit experiment, λ = 500 nm, d = 1 mm, D = 1m. Minimum distance from the central maximum for which intensity is half of the maximum intensity is

(a)   2.5 × 104 m

(b)   1.25 × 104 m

(c)   0.625 × 104 m

(d)   0.3125 × 104 m

6. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier, where input resistance is 3 Ω and load resistance 24 Ω, β = 0.6?

(a)   8.4

(b)   4.8

(c)   2.4

(d)   480

7. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1/6 that on the surface of earth and the diameter of the moon is one-fourth that of earth. The ratio of escape velocities on earth and moon will be

(a)   √6/2

(b)   √24

(c)   3

(d)   √3/2

8. Given  The magnitude of their resultant is

(a)   √3

(b)   2√3

(c)   3√3

(d)   4√3

9. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude a and frequency v. The average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is

(a)   2π2ma2v2

(b)   π2ma2v2

(c)

(d)   4π2ma2v2

10. The dipole moment of the given charge distribution is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11. At a place, if the earth’s horizontal and vertical components of magnetic fields are equal, then the angle of dip will be

(a)   30°

(b)   90°

(c)   45°

(d)   0°

12. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalent to hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground state energy of an electron of this ion will be

(a)   3.4 eV

(b)   13.6 eV

(c)   54.4 eV

(d)   122.4 eV

13. The binding energy per nucleon of 10X is 9 MeV and that of 11X is 7.5 MeV where X represents an element. The minimum energy required to remove a neutron from 11X is

(a)   7.5 MeV

(b)   2.5 MeV

(c)   8 MeV

(d)   0.5 MeV

14. If C, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of

(a)   C/g

(b)   C/P

(c)   PCg

(d)   C2/g

15. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in capillary tube will be

(a)   = H

(b)   > H

(c)   < H

(d)   zero

16. A boy running on a horizontal road at 8 km/h finds the rain falling vertically. He increase his speed to 12 km/h and finds that the drops makes 30° with the vertical. The speed of rain with respect to the road is

(a)   4√7 km/h

(b)   9√7 km/h

(c)   12√7 km/h

(d)   15√7 km/h

17. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a money on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel of the gun, the monkey drops. Pick the correct statement regarding the situation.

(a)   The bullet will never hit the monkey

(b)   The bullet will always hit the monkey

(c)   The bullet may or may not hit the monkey

(d)   Can’t be predicted