Combined Defence Services (CDS) (II) Examination Held on 19-11-2017
General Knowledge
1. A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?
(A) By sneezing
(B) By jumping
(C) By running
(D) By rolling
2. In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water HSO4− + H2O H3O+ + SO42− the water acts as-
(A) an acid
(B) a base
(C) a salt
(D) an inert medium
3. How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?
(A) 3.01 × 1022
(B) 1.20 × 1023
(C) 2.40 × 1023
(D) 6.02 × 1022
4. The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called-
(A) bleaching powder
(B) plaster of paris
(C) powder of zinc oxide
(D) lime powder
5. Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments?
(A) Pyrex glass
(B) Soft glass
(C) Hard glass
(D) Flint glass
6. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of-
(A) ionosphere
(B) troposphere
(C) stratosphere
(D) mesosphere
7. What are the main constituents of biogas?
(A) Methane and sulphur dioxide
(B) Methane and carbon dioxide
(C) Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide
(D) Methane and nitric oxide
8. In which who Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
(1) Punjab (2) Haryana
(3) Karnataka (4) Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the code given below –
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
9. Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?
(1) It is the abdication of responsibility.
(2) It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.
(3) It is subject to supvervision and review.
(4) It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
10. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?
(1) Rule of Law
(2) Law-making Procedure
(3) Independence of Judiciary
(4) Parliamentary System
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4
11. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?
(A) Fifth Schedule
(B) Third Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
12. Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016-17 is not correct?
(A) The area under the horticulture crops has increased over previous year
(B) Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year
(C) Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year
(D) The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat
13. The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to-
(A) a sharp decline in total population
(B) an increase in working age population
(C) a decline infant mortality rate
(D) an increase in sex ratio
14. Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India-
(1) Mahalanobis Model
(2) Plan Holiday
(3) Rolling Plan
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 3, 1
(D) 1, 3, 2
15. The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?
(1) Bank rate
(2) Open market operations
(3) Public debt
(4) Public revenue
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of-
(A) domestic goods remain constant
(B) exports become cheaper to importers
(C) imports remain constant
(D) exports rise proportionately
Directions –(Q. 17-21) The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Codes :
(A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(B) Both the statement are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
17. Statements :
(I) Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.
(II) Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.
18. Statements :
(I) The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.
(II) The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.
19. Statements :
(I) Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.
(II) The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.
20. Statements :
(I) The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.
(II) By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.
21. Statements :
(I) The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.
(II) Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.
22. Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy?
(A) Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)
(B) Birasaite Ulgulan (1899-1900)
(C) Pabna Revolt (1873)
(D) Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)
23. Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true?
(A) They brought Jahandar Shah to power
(B) They wielded administrative power
(C) They followed a tolerant religious policy
(D) They reached an agreement with King Shahu
24. Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct?
(1) The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva.
(2) Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.
(3) The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman.
(4) Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
25. Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched?
(A) 1789 : Napoleonic Code
(B) 1791 : Tennis Court Oath
(C) 1792 : National Convention
(D) 1804 : New Constitution of France
26. Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract?
(A) Voltaire
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau
27. Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016?
(A) Shankha Ghosh
(B) Raghuveer Chaudhari
(C) Pratibha Ray
(D) Rehman Rahi
28. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were adopted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year-
(A) 2020
(B) 2030
(C) 2040
(D) 2050
29. Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016 is an exponent in-
(A) Kannada classical vocal
(B) Kajari dance
(C) Bihu dance
(D) Pandavani, a traditional performing art
30. Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?
(A) Nana Patekar
(B) Manoj Kumar
(C) Javed Akhtar
(D) K. Viswanath
31. Which one of the following statements about the All India Services is correct?
(A) The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.
(B) The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.
(C) The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.
(D) The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.
32. Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?
(A) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers
(B) The Union Executives can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments
(C) Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India
(D) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State
33. The National Handloom Day is observed on-
(A) 7th June
(B) 17th July
(C) 7th August
(D) 17th September
34. Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries?
(A) India
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Israel
35. Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?
(A) Green Economy : Does it include you ?
(B) Connecting People to Nature
(C) Think, Eat, Save
(D) Many Species, One Planet One Future
36. The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(A) Fremantle
(B) Lyttelton
(C) Port Stanley
(D) Durban
37. Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?
(A) States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution
(B) GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case
(C) The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment
(D) The GST council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances
38. Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Lahore
(C) Amritsar
(D) Islamabad
39. The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for-
(A) building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods
(B) building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national high-ways
(C) building roads to connect coastal areas
(D) training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level
40. Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’, is not correct?
(A) The size of the project is about USD 25 million
(B) The duration of the project is 15 years
(C) The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund
(D) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project
41. UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation, stands for-
(A) Union Basic Income
(B) Undefined Basic Income
(C) Unconditional Basic Income
(D) Universal Basic Income
42. Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag’ Partner?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority
(B) Telecom Regulatory Authority
(C) National Highways Authority
(D) Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
43. ‘Pragati’ scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for-
(A) higher education of girls
(B) technical education of girls
(C) secondary education of girls
(D) elementary education of girls
44. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)?
(A) It focuses on community participation
(B) It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament
(C) It aims at creating infrastructure for the village
(D) A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat
45. Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Lead
(D) Methane
46. Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?
(A) Harsha
(B) Govindachandra
(C) Lakshmidhara
(D) Kalidasa
47. Who among the following scholars argued that “capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough”?
(A) Bill Warren
(B) Paul Baran
(C) Geoffrey Kay
(D) Lenin
48. Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Godavari
(C) Saraswati
(D) Ganges
49. Which one of the following statement about he Harappan Culture is not correct?
(A) It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent
(B) it marks the first use of script, written from right to left
(C) It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting
(D) It marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting
50. Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to-
(A) Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha
(B) Varman Dynasty of Assam
(C) Nanda Dynasty of North India
(D) None of the above
51. Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh?
(1) Tso Kar (2) Pangong Tso
(3) Tsomgo (4) Tso Moriri
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 only
52. ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?
(A) Potato plant that could grow in high altitude
(B) Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found
(C) New innovative technology to meet global warming
(D) A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise
53. Which of the following statements related to latitude are true?
(1) Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
(2) The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.
(3) Indira Point is located approximately at 6° 45ʹ N latitude.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
(Lake)
(a) Bhimtal (b) Ashtamudi
(c) Gohna (d) Lonar
List-II
(Type of Lake)
(1) Lagoon (2) Landslide
(3) Tectonic (4) Crater
(A) (A) – 3; (B) – 1; (C) – 2; (D) – 4
(B) (A) – 3; (B) – 2; (C) – 1; (D) – 4
(C) (A) – 4; (B) – 2; (C) – 1; (D) – 3
(D) (A) – 4; (B) – 1; (C) – 2; (D) – 3
55. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.
(2) Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.
(3) Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(States of NE India)
(a) Tripura (b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland (d) Manipur
List-I
(Location in Map)
(A) (A) – 2; (B) – 1; (C) – 4; (D) – 3
(B) (A) – 2; (B) – 4; (C) – 1; (D) – 3
(C) (A) – 3; (B) – 1; (C) – 4; (D) – 2
(D) (A) – 3; (B) – 4; (C) – 1; (D) – 2
57. Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?
(A) It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen
(B) The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India
(C) It is not enforceable by any Court
(D) It is not enforceable by Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should b e fundamental in the governance of our country
58. Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Rammohan Roy?
(1) Atmiya Sabha
(2) Brahmo Samaj
(3) Prarthana Samaj
(4) Arya Samaj
Select the correct answer using code given below-
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
(Harapan Site)
(a) Dholavira (b) Rakhigarhi
(c) Bhirrana (d) Bhogavo
List-II
(Modern Name)
(1) Saurashtra (2) Hisar
(3) Kadir Island (4) Haryana
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
60. Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?
(A) Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage
(B) The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property
(C) Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples
(D) Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry
61. The Nobel Prize in Physics the year 2016 was given to-
(A) David J. Thouless
(B) F. Duncan M. Haldane
(C) J. Michael Kosterlitz
(D) All of them
62. Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?
(A) People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance
(B) Manipur Resistance Alliance
(C) Tribal Resistance Party
(D) Revolutionary People’s Party
63. Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?
(A) Sun
(B) Neptune
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Strait)
(a) Bass Strait
(b) Davis Strait
(c) Dover Strait
(d) Florida Strait
List-II
(Countries)
(1) UK and France
(2) Australia and Tasmania
(3) USA and Cuba
(4) Canada and Greenland
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Pass)
(a) Zoji La (b) Shipki La
(c) Lipulekh (d) Nathu La
List-II
(Place)
(1) Himachal Pradesh
(2) Uttarakhand
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Sikkim
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
66. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
(Concern)
(a) TISCO (b) BALCO
(c) BPCL (d) BEL
List-II
(Product)
(1) Chemicals (2) Iron & Steel
(3) Electronics (4) Aluminium
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 2
67. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(National Highway)
(a) NH-2 (b) NH-4
(c) NH-7 (d) NH-8
List-II
(Route)
(1) Delhi-Jaipur-Ahmedabad – Mumbai
(2) Thane – Pune – Bengaluru – Chennai
(3) Delhi – Agra – Allahabad – Kolkata
(4) Varanasi – Jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bengaluru – Madurai – Kanyakumari
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(C) (a) – 1; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 4; (d) – 1
68. One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to-
(A) 100 kg of carbon
(B) 100 kg of carbon dioxide
(C) 1000 kg of carbon
(D) 1000 kg of carbon dioxide
69. An emulsion consists of-
(A) one liquid and one solid
(B) one liquid and one gas
(C) two liquids
(D) two solids
70. Which of the following radioactive substances enters/ enter the human body through food chain and causes/ cause many physiological disorders?
(A) Strontium-90
(B) Iodine-131
(C) Cesium-137
(D) All of the above
71. ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to-
(A) landscaping related to save water
(B) landscaping related to save soil erosion
(C) weathering of rock surface
(D) All of the above
72. Joule-Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can b e categorized as-
(A) isobaric process
(B) isoenthalpic process
(C) adiabatic process
(D) isochoric process
73. Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of-
(A) ferromagnetic material
(B) ferromagnetic material
(C) piezoelectric material
(D) pyroelectric material
74. A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object-(i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the object?
(A) The object will move with acceleration
(B) The object will move with deceleration
(C) The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction
(D) The object will move with constant velocity
75. Consider the following statements :
(1) The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
(2) In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
(3) In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘criticality’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
(4) Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.
Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 1 and 4
76. Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue Mountains’?
(A) Lambadas
(B) Gonds
(C) Jarawas
(D) Todas
77. Who among the following geographers is related to ‘primate city’ concept?
(A) August Losch
(B) Mark Jefferson
(C) Griffith Taylor
(D) W. Christaller
78. Which one of the following islands is the largest?
(A) Borneo
(B) Madagascar
(C) New Guinea
(D) Sumatra
79. Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South-
(1) Dudhwa (2) Panna
(3) Pench (4) Indravati
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
80. Which one of the following proteins gives lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre?
(A) Fibrin
(B) Sericin
(C) Collagen
(D) Nectin
81. Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by contamination of-
(A) nitrite (NO2−)
(B) sulphite (SO32−)
(C) nitrate (NO3−)
(D) sulphate (SO42−)
82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Cell Organelle)
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
List-II
(Function)
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Protein synthesis
(3) Intracellular digestion
(4) ATP formation
(A) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
83. Human insulin molecule is composed of one α-chain having 21 amino acids and one β-chain having 30 amino acids. how many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
84. Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which one of the following is the main constituent of pearl?
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium nitrate
(D) Calcium sulphate
85. A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as-
(A) biome
(B) community
(C) abiotic environment
(D) ecosystem
86. An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?
(A) The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different
(B) The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton
(C) The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron
(D) The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal
87. Two wires are made having same length/and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is a more than that of aluminium. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2
(B) The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1
(C) The resistance of both the wires will be the same
(D) If same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated in both the wires will be the same
88. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect t surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of-
(A) 40°
(B) 100°
(C) 90°
(D) 80°
89. Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which one of the following statements relate to these radiations/light is not correct?
(A) The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation
(B) The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light
(C) The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light
(D) The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light
90. After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to the fact that :
(1) current produces heat in the transformers
(2) hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers
(3) liquid used for cooling gets heated
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
(Type of Deficit)\
(a) Fiscal Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Effective Revenue Deficit
(d) Primary Deficit
List-II
(Explanation)
(1) Total Expenditure-Revenue Receipts & Non-debt capital Receipts
(2) Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
(3) Revenue Deficit-Grants for Creation of Capital Assets
(4) Fiscal Deficit-Interest Payments
(A) (a) – 1; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 1; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 3; (d) – 1
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
92. Consider the following :
(1) Tughlaqabad Fort
(2) Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden
(3) Qutub Minar
(4) Fatehpur Sikri
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of building the above monuments?
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2
(B) 3, 1, 2, 4
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
93. With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among the following scholars argued that “the peculiar feature of the State is Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation”?
(A) Irfan Habib
(B) Satish Chandra
(C) Athar Ali
(D) J. F. Richards
94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Type of Land)
(a) Uravara
(b) Maru
(c) Nadimatrika
(d) Devamatrika
List-II
(Meaning)
(1) Land watered by a river
(2) Fertile land
(3) Land watered by rain
(4) Desert land
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 4; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 2; (d) – 1
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
95. Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1980?
(A) K.T. Telang
(B) Veeresalingam
(C) N. G. Chandavarkar
(D) K. N. Natarajan
96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Industrial Region)
(a) Leipzing (b) Detroit
(c) Lorraine (d) Cumberland
List-II
(Country)
(1) USA (2) UK
(3) France (4) Germany
(A) (a) – 2; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 4
(B) (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 2
(C) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 3; (d) – 2
(D) (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Mountain Range)
(a) Satpura (b) Vindhya
(c) Aravalli (d) Mahadeo
(A) (a) – 4; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 3
(B) (a) – 3; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 4
(C) (a) – 3; (b) – 2; (c) – 1; (d) – 4
(D) (a) – 4; (b) – 1; (c) – 2; (d) – 3
98. Which of the following statements in respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau are correct?
(1) The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.
(2) The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.
(3) The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.
(4) The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaean granite and gneiss rocks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3, and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
99. Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of State in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?
(A) Population
(B) Income distance
(C) Area
(D) Tax effort
100. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
101. Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by-
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 311
(C) Article 312
(D) Article 317
102. A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is-
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Prohibition
103. Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
(A) Constitutional Amendment
(B) CAG Report
(C) Annual Financial Statement
(D) Bill to alter the boundaries of any State
104. The National Commission for Women was created by-
(A) an amendment in the Constitution of India
(B) a decision of the Union Cabinet
(C) An Act passed by the Parliament
(D) an order of the President of India
105. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?
(A) M. Hidayatullah
(B) A. S. Anand
(C) A. M. Ahmadi
(D) P. N. Bhagwati
106. The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial decomposition of-
(A) urea into sulphur dioxide
(B) sugar into carbon dioxide
(C) lipids into methane
(D) urea into ammonia
107. Desalination of sea water is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is-
(A) larger than osmotic pressure
(B) smaller than osmotic pressure
(C) equal to osmotic pressure
(D) equal to atmospheric pressure
108. Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units?
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Cellulose
(D) Rubber
109. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain-
(A) water
(B) acetone
(C) alcohol
(D) potassium iodide
110. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by-
(A) a proclamation of National Emergency
(B) An Act passed by the Parliament
(C) an amendment to the Constitution of India
(D) the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
111. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct?
(1) It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three tier system of Government.
(2) Representatives should be directly elected for five years.
(3) There should be mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 only
112. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills?
(1) Money Bill
(2) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(3) Ordinary Bill
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
113. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.
(2) The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.
(3) Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
114. The President of India is elected by an electoral College comprising of elected members of which of the following?
(1) Both the Houses of the Parliament
(2) The Legislative Assemblies of States
(3) The Legislative Councils of States
(4) The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
115. Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India-
(1) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.
(2) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions
(3) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the State.
(4) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
116. Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes:
(1) Rights of transgenders
(2) Rights of craniopagus twins
(3) Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
117. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) N G. Ayyangar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) B. N. Rau
(D) Muhammad Saadulah
118. Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth century?
(1) The discovery of coal and iron deposits
(2) The discovery of steam power
(3) The introduction of railways
(4) The regular supply of raw materials
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
119. Which of the following indictors have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016-17?
(1) Efficiency enhancer subindex
(2) Innovation and sophistication factors subindex
(3) Life expectancy enhancer subindex
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
120. In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004-05 to-
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2010-11
(D) 2011-12
