Loyola College Question Paper 2003

Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 Tourism (With Special Reference To India) Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIEDhistory

FourTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

ht 4801 / h 1016  –  TOURISM (with special reference to India)

 

16.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                     Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following in 100 words each.

 

  1. Define Tourism
  2. IATA
  3. ITC Tours
  4. Adventure Tourism
  5. Dakshinchitra
  6. Public Relations in Tourism

 

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following in 300 words each.

 

  1. Identify the various sales support techniques in tourism?
  2. Briefly narrate the significance of advertising in tourism.
  3. Trace the functions of tourist offices.
  4. Explain the employment opportunities in tourism industry.

 

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following in 1200 words each.

 

  1. Assess the classification and categorisation of hotel industry and point out their significance.
  2. Examine the role of Travel Agency in promotion of tourism.
  3. Discuss the concept and importance of Eco-
  4. Critically evaluate the socio-economic and cultural impact of tourism.
  5. What are the prospects and problems of Indian and Third World Tourism?

 

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 Social And Cultural History Of Tamil Nadu Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIED HISTORY

FIRST SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

HT 1801 / H 716  –  social and cultural history of tamil nadu

 

07.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                     Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following not exceeding 100 words each.

 

  1. Madras Mahajana Sabha and social awakening in Tamil Nadu.
  2. Muthulakshmi Reddy.
  3. V. Swaminatha Iyer.
  4. Land reforms under K.Kamaraj.
  5. Anti-Hindi Agitation’s in Tamil Nadu.
  6. Self-Respect Movement.

 

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following in not more than 300 words each.

 

  1. Write a note on the role of Christian missionaries in promoting education in Tamil Nadu.
  2. Highlight the role of Tamil press in arousing national consciousness.
  3. Critically evaluate the role and functions of the Justice party in the social sphere.
  4. Discuss the schemes introduced by the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam during 1969 –

 

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following not exceeding 1200 words each.

 

  1. Discuss the factors that led to Tamil renaissance and its contribution to society.
  2. Estimate the contribution of Periyar in strengthening the Dravidian Movement.
  3. Give a critical estimate of Thiru. C.N.Annadurai.
  4. Describe the achievements of the AIADMK Government in the social and cultural spheres
  5. Evaluate the role of films on the Tamil society and culture.

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 Modern India And World Affairs Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIED history

SECOND SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

ht 2802 / h 817  –  MODERN INDIA AND WORLD AFFAIRS

 

24.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                    Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following in 100 words each.

 

  1. Non-
  2. Indo-Soviet Treaty of peace, friendship and cooperation.
  3. CTBT – India’s position.
  4. Jimmy Carter and India.
  5. Tashkent Meet, 1966.
  6. Simla Agreement 1972.

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following in 300 words each.

 

  1. Enumerate the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
  2. What was India’s stand during the Iraq war of 1990-91?
  3. Examine India’s role in the UNO.
  4. Why does India continue to be part of commonwealth even after attaining Independence?

 

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following in 1200 words each.

 

  1. Examine the causes of conflict between India and Pakistan.
  2. Describe Indo-US relations since 1947.
  3. Elucidate the objectives and structures of SAARC and examine India’s contribution to SAARC.
  4. Explain NAM and point out its relevance in a world full of military alliances and war strategis.
  5. Discuss the various phases in Indo-Russian relations between 1947-

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 Indian National Movement Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIED HISTORY

FIRST SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

HT 1802 / H  717  –  INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT

 

08.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                     Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following in not more than 100 words each.

 

  1. DADHABHAI NAOROJI
  2. SURAT SPLIT
  3. MINTO – MORLEY REFORMS
  4. ANNIE BESANT
  5. DANDI MARCH
  6. INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following in not more than 300 words each.

 

  1. Enumerate the causes for the rise of Nationalism.
  2. Examine Critically the Khilfat Movement.
  3. Evaluate the objectives of the Non-Co-Operation Movement launched by Ganghiji.
  4. What was the nature of the Quit India Movement?

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following in not more than 1200 words each.

 

  1. Discuss the ideology, methods and the achievements of the Moderates in the Indian National Congress.
  2. Compare the provisions of the Government of India Acts of 1919 and 1935.
  3. Identify the factors responsible for the growth of Extremism in the Indian National Congress.
  4. Describe the emergence of Muslim Nationalism in the first half of the 20th century India.
  5. Explain the aims, course and results of the Civil Dis-obedience Movement.

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 History Of Labour And Peasant Movements Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIED HISTORY

second SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

HT 2800 / H 815  –  HISTORY OF LABOUR AND PEASANT MOVEMENTS

 

10.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                     Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following in not more than 100 words each.

 

  1. Write a note on B.P. Wadia and the Madras Labour Union.
  2. Briefly evaluate the achievements of the INTUC.
  3. Describe the role of Women in Trade Unionism.
  4. What were the causes of the Tebhaga Movement.
  5. Bring out the weaknesses of the Eka Movement.
  6. The peasants of the Champaran were led by the intelligentsia. Explain.

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following in not more than 300 words each.

 

  1. Meerat trial was a costly affair for the British. Elaborate.
  2. Trace the developments in the Trade Union Movement between 1935 and 1939.
  3. Explain the role of the Communist Party in the insurrection of Telengana.
  4. The Congress assumed the mask of ‘working for the masses’ in Oudh during 1920-22 and 1930-

 

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following in not more than 1200 words each.

 

  1. The period between 1875 and 1918 is termed as the ‘Social Welfare Period’ in the Trade Union Movement. Discuss.
  2. Describe the growth of the Trade Union Movement in India from 1924 to 1934.
  3. The Mappila Uprising was a rebellion which was initially directed against landlordism and imperialism but later assumed a Communal Colour. Do you agree. Discuss in detail.
  4. The Indigo riots are Considered as the first Non-co-operation Movement in Modern Indian History. Elaborate.
  5. Trace the causes course and results of the Maratha (Deecan)uprising of 1875.

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History April 2003 Changing Europe After-II World War Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034.

M.A. DEGREE EXAMINATION – APPLIED history

SECOND SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

ht 2803 / h 818  –  CHANGING europe AFTER-II WORLD WAR (1945-1995)

 

28.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                                    Max : 100 Marks

                                                                PART – A                                         (4´ 5=20 marks)

      Answer any FOUR of the following in about 100 words each.

 

  1. European Parliament
  2. ANZUZ Pact
  3. Council of Europe 1949
  4. Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS)
  5. Nicolae Ceausescu
  6. Maastrict Treaty of 1991

 

 

                                                                PART – B                                       (2´ 10=20 marks)

      Answer any TWO of the following questions, each answer in about 300 words.

 

  1. Write an account on the success of Solidarity party led by Lech Walesa on Poland.
  2. Examine the origin and development of Cold War in Europe.
  3. Evaluate the objectives of the European Common Market.
  4. Estimate the efforts taken by Gorbachev in transforming and revitalising Soviet Union.

 

 

                                                               PART – C                                         (3´20=60 marks)

Answer any THREE of the following questions, each answer in about 1200 words.

 

  1. Critically analyse the efforts made to reconstruct Europe after the Second World War.
  2. Define ‘disarmament’ and describe the various steps taken to promote disarmament in Europe since 1945.
  3. Examine the ethnic conflict in Yogoslavia with special emphasis on Bosnian crisis.
  4. Analyse the impact of the Second World War on Germany and enumerate the events that led to unify the divided Germany.
  5. Evaluate the successive enlargement of the European Community and the introduction of ‘Euro’.

 

 

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History Nov 2016 History Of Constitutional Growth In India Question Paper PDF Download

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Loyola College M.A. Applied History Nov 2016 Archival Management Question Paper PDF Download

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology April 2003 Physiology Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION  – ZOOLOGY

third SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ZO 3500/ zoo 504 – physiology                           

04.04.2003

1.00 – 4.00                                                                                           Max : 100 Marks

 

 

PART – A                       (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

 

Answer ALL the following questions.

 

  1. What is the function of syrinx?
  2. Comment on positive water balance.
  3. What are polysaccharides?
  4. Define Nucleo protein.
  5. How fatty acids are formed?
  6. Name the antisterilitic vitamin.
  7. Comment on osmoconformer.
  8. Define ureotelism?
  9. Name two muscle proteins.
  10. Define the term reflex action.

 

 

PART – B                         (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)                    

         Answer any four of the following

 

  1. What are respiratory pigments? Explain.
  2. Give an account of fat soluble vitamins.
  3. Explain different excretory organs in mammals.
  4. Give an account on functions of gut.
  5. Explain the importance of water.
  6. Describe composition and functions of blood.

 

PART – C                       (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

        Answer any two of the TWO of the following

 

  1. Write an essay on methbolism of carbohydrate.
  2. Give an account of respiratory organs in various animals.
  3. Explain osmotic and ionic regulations in animals.
  4. Describe muscle proteins and energetics of contraction.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology April 2003 Invertebrata Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION  – ZOOLOGY

first SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ZO 1500  ZOO 500 invertebrata

05.04.2003

1.00 -4.00                                                                                           Max: 100 Marks

 

PART – A                             (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

 

Answer ALL the questions in each two or three sentences:

 

  1. What is cyclosis?
  2. How are corals reefs formed?
  3. What is parapodium? Mention the functions.
  4. What is Hirudin?
  5. What is petasma?
  6. What is radula?
  7. What is nephridium?
  8. Comment on ink sac.
  9. What is cysticercus?
  10. What is pedipalp and mention its function?

 

 

 

PART – B                              (4´ 10 = 40 Marks)

 

Answer any FOUR of the following

 

  1. Draw neat diagrams of T.S of Nereis and Leech and label the parts.
  2. Explain the different types of reproduction in Paramecium.
  3. Discuss briefly the life history of Ascaris.
  4. Explain the characteristics of Peripatus and its significance.
  5. Explain with suitable diagram two types of mouth parts in insects.
  6. Explain the respiratory mechanism in Pila.

 

           

PART – C                          (2´ 20 = 40 Marks)                   

Answer any two of the following

 

17.  What is alternation of generation? Explain with a suitable example.

  1. Discuss the structure and function of water vascular system in starfish.
  2. Write an essay on metamerism in Annelida.
  3. Give an account of nematode parasites of man.

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology April 2003 Environmental Biology Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION  – ZOOLOGY

fourth SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ZO 4501/ ZOO 507 environmental  biology    

16.04.2003

9.00 – 12.00                                                                                        Max : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION – A                                (10 ´ 2 = 20 marks)

  1. Answer ALL the following questions.

 

  1. Distinguish phototaxis from photokinesis.
  2. What is Division of Labour? Give an example.
  3. Define the term Ecological niche with an example.
  4. What is Ecotone?
  5. Distinguish holoplankton from meroplankton.
  6. What is biological magnification?
  7. What is synergism? Give an example
  8. What is global warming?
  9. What is Pedology?
  10. What is Cyclomorphosis?

 

SECTION – b                                 (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

answer any four of the following.

  1. Give an account of biological effects of temperature.
  2. What are ecological pyramids? Describe the different pyramids.
  3. Explain the biological attributes of animal population.
  4. Describe the nitrogen cycle with a flow chart.
  5. Give an account of sanctuaries and national parks of India.
  6. a) What is Chronobiology? Explain
  7. What is food chain? Describe

 

SECTION– C                                 (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

Answer any TWO of the following.

 

  1. What is Interspecific Relationship? Classify them with suitable examples.
  2. Describe components of an ecosystem with pond as an example.
  3. What are pollutants? Explain in detail air pollution and its effects on biota.
  4. Give an account of adaptations of rocky shore fauna.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology April 2003 Embryology And Evolution Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION   – zoology

fourth SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ZO 4500/ZOO 506 – embRyology and evolution      

11.04.2003

9.00 -12.00                                                                                                        Max : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION – A                               (10 ´ 2 = 20  Marks)

Answer ALL questions

  1. Define the term ‘vitellogenesis’.
  2. What is spermiogenesis?
  3. Comment on neural crest cells.
  4. With one suitable example explain embryonic induction.
  5. What do you mean by transgenic animals?
  6. Differentiate organic evolution from inorganic evolution.
  7. What are homologous organs? Give one example.
  8. List any four vestigial organs in man
  9. Comment on Mesozoic era.
  10. Define the law of Adaptive Radiation.

 

            Section – B                                 (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

Answer any FOUR questions.

 

  1. Write notes on nuclear transplantation.
  2. Categorise the eggs of chordates. Illustrate your answer.
  3. What are fate maps? Explain the fate maps of frog and chick.
  4. Explain the naturally available fossil records.
  5. With suitable diagrams explain evolutionary convergence and parallelism.
  6. Mention the contributions of any four 4 Neol

 

 

SECTION – C                                  (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

answer any TWO questions.

 

  1. Write an essay on fertilization and mention the theories on fertilization.
  2. Explain the development of brain in vertebrates with illustrations.
  3. Discuss the role of isolating mechanisms in speciation.
  4. Trace evidences from physiology and biochemistry in favour of the theory of organic evolution.

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology April 2003 Chordata Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION  – ZOOLOGY

SECOND  SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ZO 2500/ ZOO 502 – CHORDATA

23.04.2003

9.00 -12.00                                                                                       Max : 100 Marks

 

 

PART – A                                       (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

 

  1. Answer ALL the following questions.

 

  1. Give the outline classification of class Reptilia.
  2. Draw a neat labelled pectoral girdle of varanus.
  3. What is a wheel organ?
  4. Comment on placoid scale.
  5. List four flightless birds.
  6. Give the dental formula of dog and man.
  7. What is a synsacrum?
  8. What are accessory respiratory organs? Give two examples.
  9. Comment on Hippocampus.
  10. Give the modifications of Draco volans.

 

PART – B                                        (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

II   Answer any FOUR of the following.

 

  1. Explain the arterial system of shark.
  2. Briefly explain jaw suspensions.
  3. What is retrogressive metamorphosis? Explain with reference to Ascidia.
  4. Illustrate the male and female urinogenital systems of Calotes.
  5. Describe the venous system of rat.
  6. Briefly explain the different types of respiration in frog.

 

 

PART – C                                       (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

III  Answer any TWO of the following

 

  1. Explain the organisation and affinities of Amphioxus.
  2. Write an essay on migration of birds.
  3. Parental care is exhibited by amphibians –
  4. a) Give the key to identification of poisonous and non poisonous snakes?

b)Give an account on snakevenom and biting mechanism.

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology Nov 2003 Genetics Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI– 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION  –     ZOOLOGY

fifth SEMESTER  – NOVEMBER 2003

ZO 5501/ ZOO  510   genetics

05.11.2003                                                                                        Max: 100 Marks

1.00  – 4.00

 

PART – A                            

Answer ALL questions                                                            (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

 

  1. Define a) gene      b) Chromosome
  2. What is erythroblastosis soetalis?
  3. Write a note on a) cistron    b) recon
  4. Define a) antigen    b) antibody
  5. What is a plasmid?
  6. Write any two advantages of outbreeding.
  7. Define a) genotype     b) phenotype
  8. Give any two principles of bioinformatics.
  9. What is amnioentesis
  10. What is a Lysogenic bacteria?

 

PART – B

Answer any four questions                                                  (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

  1. Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment with an example.
  2. Explain in detail the maternal inheritance.
  3. Give an account on genetic counselling and planned genotypes.
  4. Give an account of Hardy – Weinberg’s equilibrium with a suitable example.
  5. Explain antigen-antibody reaction.
  6. Give an account on phage infection.

PART – C                             (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

Answer any two questions

  1. Define multiple alleles.   Explain multiple alleles in detail

with suitable examples.

 

  1. Write an essay on microbial genetics.
  2. Give an account of inherited metabolic disorders in man.
  3. Write an essay on interaction of genes with examples.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology Nov 2003 Chordata Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI– 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION  –     ZOOLOGY

SECOND SEMESTER  – NOVEMBER 2003

ZO 2500/ ZOO 502  CHORDATA

01.11.2003                                                                                       Max: 100 Marks

1.00 – 4.00

 

 part – a   

I        Answer ALL the following questions                               (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

  1. Give the characteristic features of chordates.
  2. List four flightless birds.
  3. Comment on Narcine.
  4. Draw a neat labelled pectorlal girdle of varanus.
  5. What is  synsacrum?
  6. Give the adaptations of Draco volans.
  7. What is Hatchek’s pit?
  8. What are accessory respiratory organs?  Give an example.
  9. Comment on cycloid scale.
  10. Give the dental formula of rabbit and man.

 

PART – B

II       Answer any four of the following                               (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

 

  1. What is retrogressive metamorphosis?  Explain with reference to Ascidia.
  2. Give an account of snake venom and biting mechanism.
  3. Explain the arterial system of shark.
  4. Give an account of male and female urinogenital system of rat.
  5. Briefly explain the different types jaw suspensions.
  6. Describe the venous system of Calotes.

 

PART – C

III      Answer any TWO of the following                                (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

  1. Write an essay on migration of birds.
  2. Write an essay on parental care in fishes.
  3. Explain the organization and affinities of Amphioxus.
  4. Explain the different types of respiration in frog.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Zoology Nov 2003 Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI– 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION  –     ZOOLOGY

fifth SEMESTER  – NOVEMBER 2003

ZO 5502/ ZOO  514  biotechnology

07.11.2003                                                                                        Max: 100 Marks

1.00  – 4.00

 

                                                PART – A                

Answer ALL questions.                                                           (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

  1. Comment on Established cell line.
  2. What are primary metabolites?
  3. What are Restriction endonucleases?
  4. What is Hybridoma?
  5. Define plasmid.
  6. Comment on Biosensors.
  7. Define ‘Shot gun cloning’.
  8. Comment on ‘Vaccines’?
  9. What is micropropagation?
  10. Comment on ‘Bio Chips’.

 

PART – B

Answer any FOUR questions.                                                 (4 ´ 10 = 40 Marks)

  1. Describe the process of indirect cloning.
  2. Bring out basics of animal tissue culture and its uses.
  3. Describe intellectual property rights and patent law.
  4. Describe Indian scenario of Biotechnology.
  5. What is Monoclonal antibody? Bringout out its uses.
  6. Explain the role of biotechnology in aquaculture.

 

PART – C                           

Answer any TWO questions                                                    (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

  1. Bringout the applications of biotechnology on environment.
  2. Write on essay an biotechnology and Agriculture.
  3. Discuss ‘Health care biotechnology’.
  4. Give an account of secondary metabolites.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Statistics April 2003 Statistical Methemattics – I Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – STATISTICS

second SEMESTER – APRIL 2003

ST   2500/  STA  501 statistical methemattics – I

23.04.2003

9.00 – 12.00                                                                                          Max: 100 Marks

 

SECTION – A                      (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

Answer ALL questions.  Each carries TWO marks.

  1. What is ‘permutation of indistinguishable objects’? State its value in factorial notation.
  2. If A, B,C are events, give the set theoretic notation for the following
  • Exactly one of the three events occurs
  • None of the three events occur
  1. If P(AÈB) =7/8, P(AÇB) = 1/6, P(Ac) =3/8, find P(B).
  2. Define a bounded function and give an example.
  3. Define a monotonic sequence and give an example.
  4. “The following is not a cumulative distribution function (c.d.f)” -Justify this statement:

 

  1. “The series diverges” – Justify
  2. “The function     is not a probability generating function (p.g.f)” –
  3. State the Leibnitz test for alternating series.
  4. Find (0) if f(x) = x |x|, xÎÂ.

Section – B                       (5 ´ 8 = 40 Marks)

Answer any FIVE.  Each carries EIGHT marks

  1. (a) Consider the construction of four-letter words from the word “CHEMISTRY”,

How many of these words begin and end with consonants? How many begin

with T  end with  a vowel?

  • If there are 4 persons from Tamilnadu, 2 from Karnataka, 5 from Orissa and

3 from Kerala, find the number of ways they can be seated in a row such that

persons from the state sit together. Find the number of arrangements if they

have to be seated around a circular table.                                         (4+4)

  1. State the relevant theorem and solve the  following problem  using it:

A box contains 10 black and 6 white marbles.  Three balls are drawn at random

one by one without replacement.  Find the probability that

  • (i) First two draws give black and third draw gives            white

(ii)  First and third drawn give balls of the same colour while the second

draw gives the other colour.

  1. Consider the experiment of tossing a fair coin indefinitely until a Head

occurs.  Write down the sample space of the experiment.  If X is the number

of  tosses to get the first Head, find the probability mass function (p.m.f.)

and c.d.f. of X.

 

 

  1. Show that the function and log x are continuous functions on (0, ¥).
  2. (a)  Show  by using first  principles that

(b)    Show that                                                          (4 + 4)

  1. Test the convergence of the following series and state the test which you use in each:

(a)           (b)                                         (4+ 4)

  1. Find the values of ‘s’ for which f(s) =   is a p.g.f.   Find the probability

distribution  for which it is the   p.g.f.  Hence or otherwise find the mean of the distribution.

  1. Obtain the expansion of the exponential function and define the Poisson distribution.

SECTION – C                      (2 ´ 20 = 20 Marks)

Answer any TWO.  Each carries twenty marks.

  1. (a) State the  Binomial theorem for positive integer index.  Find term which

contains y10 in the expansion of (3x2y-xy2/2)8

(b)   State and prove Baye’s theorem.

(c)   Three machines produce respectively 40%, 40% and 20% of the total

production in a factory.  Of their output 3%, 5% and 4% respectively are

defective  items. If an item is selected at random from the entire lot, what is

the probability that it is a defective?  Given that a selected item is defective,

what is the probability that it was produced by the second machine.  (7+7+6)

  1. (a) Show that the product of two continuous functions is continuous.

(b) Consider the following c.d.f. of a r.v.X

 

 

Identify the type of the distribution.  Also, find P(X =3), P(2<X £ 4),

P(0 £ X <3/2) and P(X ³ 5/2)                                                            (8+12)

  1. (a) Discuss the convergence of the Geometric series for all possible

variations in x.  Find the value of ‘a’ for which the sequence  defines

a probability distribution on the set of positive integers.  Find the p.g.f and

hence the variance of the distribution.

(b)    Examine the applicability and validity of Rolle’s   theorem for the function

(13+7)

  1. (a) Investigate the extreme values of  f(x) = 2x5 – 104 +10x3 + 8
  • Define Binomial distribution. Find the moment generating function (m.g.f.)

and hence its mean and variance.                                                        (10 +10)

 

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Statistics April 2003 Basic Sampling Theory Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA  COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI-600 034.

B.Sc. DEGREE  EXAMINATION  – STATISTICS

FOURTH SEMESTER  – APRIL 2003

ST   4500/ sta  504   BASIC SAMPLING   THEORY

11.04.2003

9.00 – 12.00                                                                                           Max: 100 Marks

SECTION – A                                  (10 ´ 2 = 20 Marks)

Answer ALL the questions.  Each carries TWO marks.

  1. Define a population and mention the assumptions made regarding population size in sampling Theory.
  2. Explain ‘Sampling frame’ of a population.
  3. What are the constraints for carrying out a census?
  4. Distinguish between a statistic and a parameter.
  5. Derive the expression for the mean square error of an estimator T in estimating q in terms of the variance and bias of the estimator T.
  6. In SRSWOR, find the probability of selecting rth population unit in ith
  7. Explain the cumulative total method of selecting a PPS sample.
  8. Write all possible linear systematic samples of size n = 6 given N = 24.
  9. Explain stratified random sampling.
  10. Name any three allocation schemes used in stratified sampling.

 

 

SECTION –B                                                (5 ´ 8 = 40 Marks)

Answer any FIVE questions.  Each carries EIGHT marks.

 

  1. Consider a population containing 4 units with values 7,4,10,5. Two units are drawn one by one without replacement with equal probabilities.  Verify whether or not the statistic T =(3y1+ 4y2) /5 is unbiased for the population mean.
  2. Show that, under usual notations, in SRSWOR

 

  1. Show that Lahiri’s method of selection is a PPS selection.
  2. Examine whether the estimator is unbiased for the population total under PPSWR, where yi is the value of ith drawn unit (i = 1,2,….,n).
  3. Deduce is SRSWR using expressions for available in PPSWR.
  4. Letdenote the sample mean of only distinct units under SRSWR.

Find

  1. Show that in Balanced systematic sampling, the sample mean coincides with

population mean in the presence of linear trend.

  1. In stratified sampling, under proportional allocation, derive Vand find

an unbiased estimator of V.

 

 

 

 

 

 

SECTION – C                                (2 ´ 20 = 40 Marks)

Answer any TWO questions.  Each carries TWENTY marks.

 

  1. (a) Illustrate that an estimator T can become biased under a sampling scheme

even though T is unbiased under another sampling scheme..                         (8)

(b) A population contains 5 units and it is known that   (12)

Under the usual notations, (i) compare  with

(ii) Find the values of a for which  is less efficient than.(10)

  1. (a) consider the following data:

 

Plot number No. of plants No. of roses
1 20 56
2 32 65
3 14 30
4 19 47
5 22 37
6 7 28

 

Assume that a PPSWR sample of size 2 is drawn.  Compute Vfor the

data given.  Compare it with V.                                                       (10)

  • Derive an unbiased estimator of Vin PPSWR scheme.                  (10)

 

  1. (a) Describe centered systematic sampling.                                                 (5)
  • Explain in detail the principal steps involved in the planning and

execution of  a sample survey.                                                               (15)

 

  • (a) If  Co is the overhead cost and  Ch is the cost of collecting  information per

unit in stratum h, then the total  cost of the survey is given by Co+

In optimum allocation, determine the values of n1, n2,……,nL  for which

V  is minimum subject to a fixed total cost.                                          (12)

  • Show that if Yi = a + bi, i =1,2,..,N, then ,

where a stratified sample of size n is drawn as follows:

Divide the population into n groups of k units each.  And draw 1 unit from each group where the first stratum contains the first k units, the second

stratum contains the next k units and so on.                                             (8)

 

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Statistics Nov 2003 Testing Of Hypothesis Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI –600 034

B.Sc., DEGREE EXAMINATION – STATISTICS

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOVEMBER 2003

ST – 5501/STA506 – TESTING OF HYPOTHESIS

05.11.2003                                                                                                           Max:100 marks

1.00 – 4.00

SECTION-A

Answer ALL questions.                                                                                   (10×2=20 marks)

 

  1. Define the Best critical region for testing a simple hypothesis against an alternative simple hypothesis.
  2. When do you say that a family of probability density functions has a monotone likelihood ratio property?
  3. Explain likelihood ratio criterion.
  4. What is the test statistic used for testing the significance of correlation in a bivariate normal population? What is the distribution of the statistic?
  5. A coin is tossed 100 times. If, the number of heads obtained is 45, can you say the coin is unbiased? justify.
  6. What are non-parametric methods?
  7. 400 oranges are taken from a large consignment and 40 are found to be bad. Find the limits in which the percentage of bad oranges is likely to come at 95% confidence.
  8. Define Type I error and Type II error.
  9. Explain p-value.
  10. Arrange the following sets of x and y values. How many runs you get?

x          40        50        48        60

y          45        51        52        55

 

SECTION-B

Answer any FIVE questions.                                                                           (5×8=40 marks)

 

  1. Let X1, X2, .. Xn be a random sample from N(0,1). Verify whether uniformly most powerful test exists for testing Ho :  q = q1 vs H1 : q ¹ q1 .
  2. Let x have the probability mass function

P [X = x]  =  x = 0, 1,2, ..M.,

It is decided to test Ho : M £ M0 vs H1 : M > M0  based on a sample of size 1 from this distribution.  Derive the uniformly most powerful test.

  1. In a locality 100 persons are randomly selected and asked about their educational attainments. The results one as under

Education

Middle            High school     College

Male                   10                       15                   25

Female                25                        10                  15

Does education depend on sex?

  1. It is decided to study the model

Xi = a + b (ci  – ) + ei

with E(xi) = a + b (ci – ,    V(Xi) = s2.

a random sample of size n = 10 yielded  = 67

= 2.1    = 288 and .

Test H0: b = 0 vs H1 : b ¹ 0 .  Also find 95% confidence interval for b.

  1. Let X have the pdf f ( x ; q) = qx (1-q)1-x x = 0, 1 zero elsewhere. We test H0: q = against H1: q < .   Let X1, X2, X3, X4, X5 be a random simple from this distribution. Obtain the uniformly most powerful test with a =
  2. Explain Sign Test.
  3. Explain how will you construct the confidence interval for ratio of variances, when there are two random samples from 2 independent normal populations. suppose two independent samples of sizes m = 15 and n = 10 yielded

 

 

Find the 98% confidence interval for s |  s.

  1. It is known that the random variable X has a pdf

f (x ; q ) =

0        ,    elsewhere.

It is decided to test H0: q =    Vs H1: q = 4.

If a random sample of size 2 is observed, find probability of Type I error and probability of

type II error.

 

SECTION-C

Answer any TWO questions.                                                                           (2×20=40 marks)

 

  1. a) State and prove Neyman – pearson theorem. (12)
  2. b) Let X have the pdf f( x, q) = 0 < x < q

Let Y1 < Y2 < Y3  < Y4  denote the order statistics of a random sample of size 4 from

this distribution.

We reject H0: q = 1 and accept H1: q ¹ 1  if Y4 £  or Y4 ³ 1.  Find the Power function. (8)

  1. a) Derive likelihood ration test for testify

H0: m1 =m2  Vs       H1: m1 ¹ m2

When the two random samples are drawn from two independent normal populations with mean m1 and m2 and with common unknown variance.                                                 (10)

  1. b) Two independent samples of sizes 8 and 7 items respectively had the following values

Sample I          9          11        13        11        15        9          12        14

Sample II        10        12        10        14        9          8          10

Is the difference between means of samples significant. (Assume common variance)                                                                                                                                             (10)

  1. a) Explain Run test for equality of distributions.                   (12)
  2. b) Apply the Mann-Whitney – Wilcoxon test for the following data to test

H0: Fx =Fy  Vs  H1: Fx = Fy.

X         4.3       5.9       4.9       3.1       5.3       6.4       6.2       3.8       7.5       5.8

Y         5.5       7.9       6.8         9        5.6       6.3       8.5       4.6       7.1                   (8)

  1. a) Explain the procedure of testing equality of two proportions. Also obtain the 95%

confidence interval for the difference in proportions.                                               (10)

  1. b) Explain sequential probability ratio test           (10)

 

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