Loyola College Question Paper 2006

Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology April 2006 Immunology & Immunotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

IB 21

SIXTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                       PB 6600 – IMMUNOLOGY & IMMUNOTECHNOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PBB 600)

 

 

Date & Time : 26-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

Answer all the following questions                                                                         (20 marks)

  1. Choose the correct answer (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. Pick out the wrong pair.
  2. a) Yalow-ELISA b) Metchnikoff – phagocytosis
  3. c) Jenner- vaccination d) Kitasato – tetanus toxin.
  4. Which among the following can cross the placenta.
  5. a) IgD b) IgG     c) IgA          d) IgE
  6. Ouchterloy test is associated with .
  7. a) agglutination b) opsonization      c) nertralization       d) precipitation
  8. NK cells refers to _______ cells .
  9. a) neutral killer b) natural killer     c)  native killer         d) naive killer
  10. In hybridoma technology _______ cells are made to fuse with spleen cells.
  11. a) myogenic b) myeloma c) myopia        d) maternal
  12. State whether the following statements are True or False (5 x 1 = 5 )
  13. Pasteur coined the term vaccination .
  14. Haptens are otherwise known as partial antibodies.
  15. Schick test is associated with toxin – antitoxin reactions.
  16. B cells have their origin from bone marrow.
  17. Polyclonal antibodies have many antigenic determinants.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                              (5 x 1 = 5)

  1. ________ _________were first reported by Kohler and Milstein.
  2. _____ are the only antibodies which can cross the placenta
  3. IgM is also called _________.
  4. Wasserman test is used in the diagnosis of ________.
  5. Lymphokines come under ________.
  6. Answer the following in one or two sentences. (5 x 1 = 5)
  7. Mention the contribution of Tonegawa to the field of immunology.
  8. Distinguish between allotype and isotype.
  9. What are the features of Forsmann antigens ?

 

 

 

  1. What are interferons ?
  2. Expand HAT medium.

Part B

 

 Answer any five of the following each in about 350 words.                            (5 x 8 = 40)

  1. Write about the scope of immunology.
  2. Give an outline of immunity.
  3. Write down the characteristics of antigens.
  4. Draw diagrams only of a typical Ig molecule. Why it is said to be bifunctional ?
  5. Bring out the differences between T cells and B cells.
  6. Expand the following with a footnote :
  7. a) BCG b) ARS c)  CFT     d)  HGPRT
  8. Write about the central lymphoid organs.
  9. Discuss the applications of polyclonal antibodies.

Part C

 

Answer the following  questions in about 1500 words. Draw necessary diagrams     (2 x 20 = 40)

  1. a) What are cytokines ?. Mention their properties, types and role in immunity.

OR

  1. Discuss the production of monoclonal antibodies .

 

  1. a) Write about any 2 antigen- antibody reactions.

OR

  1. Write short notes on :
  2. IgE ii. Phagocytosis iii. inflammation

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology April 2006 Fermentation Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

IB 22

SIXTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                               PB 6606 – FERMENTATION TECHNOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PB 6601)

 

 

Date & Time : 24-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

Answer all questions                                                                         (20 Marks)

 

I  Choose the best answer                                                                               (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. ______ involves prevention of escape of viable cells from a fermenter.
  2. Containment b. Asepsis c. Contention  d. Sterilisation
  3. Growth of filamentous cultures of fermentation is achieved by
  4. deep-jet fermenters b. the packed tower
  5. air-lift fermenters d. the cyclone column
  6. ______ sensor is an integral part of the fermenter and the sensed values sent directly for process control.
  7. On-line b. Off-line c. Biosensor     d. In-line
  8. Which phase is equivalent to the log phase of microbial growth kinetics?
  9. Trophophase b. Idiophase c. Intermediary phase  d. Balanced phase
  10. ______ is exclusively used in continuous culture fermentation.
  11. Turbidostat b. Chemostat c. Biostat         d. Multistage fermenter.

 

  1. State whether the following are true or false (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. In the context of industrial microbiologists, fermentation is a process of product formation by the mass culture of a microorganism.
  2. Non-mutant isolates produce very high concentrations of commercially important products.
  3. In biosensors, the transducer is a biological component.
  4. EDTA acts as a chelator in the fermentation media.
  5. Variable area meter is used for sensing the rate of stirring.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                            (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. A fermenter made of a glass cylinder with stainless steel top and bottom plates could be sterilized ______.
  2. ______ are ancillary equipments used for controlling the liquid and gas flows in fermenters.
  3. In microbial growth kinetics, the balanced phase is equivalent to __________.
  4. Carbon and energy source + Nitrogen source + O2 + other requirements ® _______ + products + CO2 +  H2O + D.
  5. To measure and to control dissolved oxygen ______ electrodes are used in pilot and production fermenters.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in one or two sentences (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Define fermentation in biochemical sense.
  2. Identify the components of a control loop.
  3. Enlist the antifoam devices.
  4. Distinguish between trophophase and idiophase
  5. What are transformation processes?

 

Part B

 

Answer any five of the following, each not exceeding 350 words                      (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Enumerate the range of fermentation processes.
  2. Explain the methods measuring the following process variables during fermentation:
  3. flow measurement b. foam sensing
    c. microbial biomass   d. dissolved oxygen
  4. Give a brief account of media preparation for industrial fermentation.
  5. Describe the working mechanism of different types of biosensors.
  6. Work out the kinetics of microbial growth during continuous culture fermentation.
  7. Comment on the following fermentation vessels:
  8. Waldhof – type fermenter b. The tower fermenter
  9. Cylindro – conical vessels d. Air – lift fermenters
  10. Bring out the considerations towards design and construction of a fermenter.
  11. How the control systems operate on various process variables during fermentation?

 

Part C

 

Answer the following, each not exceeding 1500 words.                   (2 x 20 = 40)

 

29 a. Trace the chronological development of the fermentation industry.

(or)

  1. Explain the application of computers towards fermentation technology.

 

  • Discuss how chromatographic techniques are applied towards product recovery and purification in fermentation industries.

(or)

  1. How to isolate, preserve and to improve the industrially important microorganisms?

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology April 2006 Environmental Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

IB 25

SIXTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                          PB 6605 – ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY

 

 

Date & Time : 21-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

Answer all the questions                                                                     (20 marks)

 

Choose the best answer                                                                      (5×1=5)

 

  1. Bacteriorhodopsin is constituted by
  2. a) 50% protein, 50% lipids b) 25% protein, 75% lipids
  3. c) 75% protein, 225% lipids d) 90% protein, 10% lipids

 

  1. The normal size of the floc in the activated sludge process ranges from
  2. a) 0.2 to 1mm b) 50 to 200μm c) 10 to 50μm             d) 100μm

 

  1. The aqueous solubility of hexachlorobiphenyl is
  2. a) 1- 6mg/l b) 10- 20 mg/l c) 7.5 mg/l       d) 0.00095 mg/l

 

  1. The normal depth of an anaerobic pond is
  2. a) 0.5-1m b) 1 to 10m c) 1 to 25m      d) 1to 2 m

 

  1. Enhancement of microorganism through addition of nutrients is called
  2. a) biodegradation b) biostimulation c) bioaugmentation     d) biorestoration

 

 

II State whether the following statements are  true  or false.             (5×1=5)

 

  1. Constant mixing of the contents of atmosphere occurs due to air current and the vertical temperature gradient.
  2. Coagulants are the negatively charged chemicals which form insoluble precipitates with positively charged ones.
  3. The number and location of chlorines in PCB help to determine the rate and extent of bioremediation.
  4. Anaerobic condition promotes the growth of BTEX degrading bacteria.
  5. Copper ore is typically obtained by open – cut mining.

 

III  Complete the following                                                                (5×1 =5)

 

  1. —————- is regarded to be a very useful information for the management and disposal of waste water.
  2. —————- process system is used for the biological removal of phosphorus.
  3. —————-is a broad spectrum biocide.
  4. Rhizofiltration using sunflower has been used in the remediation of ————–

from surface water.

  1. The enzyme toluene monooxygenase of Pseudomonas mendocina can degrade—-.

 

 

  1. Answer the following , each in about 50 words. (5×1 =5)

 

  1. Define biocorrosion.
  2. What is flocculant settling?
  3. What are xenobiotics?
  4. What is co- metabolism?
  5. Write short notes on rad waste.

PART  B

 

Answer any five of the following questions, each in about 350 words.
Draw diagrams / flow charts wherever necessary                                           (5×8=40)

 

  1. Discuss the role of meteorological conditions in dilution of atmospheric pollutants.
  2. Write in brief about any two types of biogas plants used in biogas production.
  3. Compare and contrast different types of stabilisation ponds.
  4. Explain briefly about bioremediation of heavy metals.
  5. Write notes on biodegradation of PCP and PCBs.
  6. Give an account of any four types of phytoremediation techniques.
  7. Elaborate on microbial and multicellular biomineralisation.
  8. Give an account on management of high level rad waste through reprocessing and vitrification.

PART C

 

Answer  the following questions, each in about 1500 words. Draw diagrams / flowcharts wherever necessary.                                                     (2x 20= 40)

 

29 a).  Write an essay on biological ethanol production.

(OR)

 

  1. b) Describe the following : I) biological nitrogen removal (BNR)  (7)
  2. ii) biological phosphorus removal         (7)

iii) disinfection.                                       (6)

 

30 a)  What is bioremediation?  Describe the strategies and types of bioremediation.

 

(OR)

 

  1. b) Give an account of organisms, types and methods employed in bioleaching.

How are the copper and uranium recovered from their ores?

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Plant Biotechnology Question Paper PDF Download

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            LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 12

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         PB 5504 – PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PBB 514)

 

 

Date & Time : 30-10-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

 

Part A                                           (20 marks)

Answer All questions

I Choose the Correct Answer                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

01.The reversion of mature state of plant cells into meristamatic cells (callus) under

     in vitro condition is called …..

  1. Differentiation b. Dedifferentiation    c. Redifferentiation     d. Totipotency

 

  1. Which of the following disinfectant is used in explant sterilization?
  2. Mercuric chloride b. Sodium hydroxide
  3. Tween d. Ammonia
  4. pBR 322 is constructed from ………..
  5. Yeast             b. E.coli           c. Rhizobium               d. Bacteriophage
  6. The gene for nodulin protein is encoded in ………
  7. nod gene b. nif gene       c. plant genome           d. both a and c.
  8. ……….. is used as stabilizers in ice cream.
  9. Sodium alginate b. Carageneen                         c. Agar            d. Sodium nitrate

 

II State whether the following statements are True or False                (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. Autoclave is used to sterilize explants.
  2. Embryo culture technique is used to break the seed dormancy.
  3. Opines act as carbon and nitrogen source for the plants.
  4. CaMV has double stranded DNA.
  5. Cyanobacterium is commonly known as aquatic fern.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. ………… is used to convert haploid into diploid plant.
  2. …….. is used to identify the regeneration of cell wall under in vitro condition.
  3. The phenolic compound synthesized by Agrobacterium infected plant is ……
  4. E. CoR1 cut DNA at ………. end.
  5. Spirulina contains ……… % of protein.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer all, each in about 50 words ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)
  2. Define somaclones.
  3. What do you mean by encapsulation of embryo?
  4. Distinguish between Ti plasmid and Ri plasmid.
  5. Define Genomic library.
  6. Mention the alga, which is used in cosmetics.

PART B                       (5 x 8 = 40 marks)

Answer any five, each within 350 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

  1. Explain the basic steps in plant tissue culture.
  2. Discuss in brief the biotechnological applications of plant cell and tissue culture in

plant sciences.

  1. Expand the following with a footnote
  2. DMSO b. PEG                        c. SDS-PAGE             d. HEPA
  3. pUC f. IBA             g. TEMED                  h. BAP
  4. Discuss the potentials of Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in the genetic

engineering of plants.

  1. With the suitable diagram, describe electrophoresis.
  2. Describe the physical methods of gene transformation in plants.
  3. Define phycocolloids. Enumerate the significance of phycocolloids.
  4. What is phycoculture? Describe any two methods of phycoculture.

PART C                       ( 2 x 20 = 40 marks)

Answer the following, each within 1500 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

 

  1. a). i) What are somaclonal variations? (5 marks)
  2. ii) Write down the steps involved in cryopreservation.(7 marks)

iii) How do you produce artificial seeds under in vitro condition? (8 marks)

Or

b). i) Define totipotency. Explain the concept of totipotency and its exploitation in

Biotechnology.( 12 marks)

  1. ii) Discuss the role of plant growth regulators in plant tissue culture. (8 marks)
  2. “Chloroplast and Mitochondria are called as semiautonomous organelles” – Justify.

Or

Define Genetic Engineering. Elaborate on genetic engineering for insect resistance.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology April 2006 Cell Biology & Anatomy Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

IB 11

FOURTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                                  PB 4505 – CELL BIOLOGY & ANATOMY

 

 

Date & Time : 27-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

 

Answer all the questions                                                                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. __________ is the capacity of an optical system to show distinct images
  2. a) optical power b) photon power          c) resolution                d) resolving power
  3. Which are present in all living cells that can synthesise proteins?
  4. a) peroxisomes b) ribosomes                c) glyoxysomes           d) lysosomes.
  5. These are tiny bags filled with digestive enzymes for intracellular digestion.
  6. a) lysosomes b) dictyosomes            c) peroxisomes            d) ribosomes
  7. Sandal wood is
  8. a) heartwood b) sapwood                 c) spring wood                        d) both a and c
  9. Leaf gap and leaf trace are seen in
  10. a) internodes b) petiole                     c) nodes                       c) apical meristem

 

  1. State whether the following statements are True or False (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. Cytotaxonomy is based on the atypical sets of chromosomes in different species.
  2. Mitochondria may be filamentous or agranular in shape.
  3. Stone cells are also called as osteosclerides.
  4. Histogen theory was propounded in the year 1870.
  5. Bulliform cells are seen in all leaves.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                 (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. __________ is the viscous, translucent, colloidal substance of the cell.
  2. The non-protoplasmic substances present in the cell are called ____________ substances.
  3. ____________ are the suspended non-living structures of the cytoplasm.
  4. Nectar producing structures found in parts other than flowers are called _____________.
  5. In primitive angiosperms, the cambium is of _______ type.

 

  1. Answer the following in about 50 words (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Cell theory.
  2. Karyotype and Idiogram.
  4. Kappe-Korpe theory.
  5. Secondary vascular bundles.

 

Part B

 

Answer any five of the following, each in about 350 words. Draw necessary diagrams.                                                                            (5 x 8 = 40)

  1. Enumerate the scopes of cytology.
  2. Explain the working mechanisms and components of Electron microscope.
  3. Comment on Lampbrush Chromosomes and Polytene Chromosomes.
  4. Briefly describe the structure and function of Golgi apparatus.
  5. Describe the structure of a Plant cell.
  6. Write notes on simple tissues.
  7. Briefly describe the components of epidermal tissue system.
  8. Bring out the distinguishing features of the root in Dicots and Monocots.

 

 

Part C

 

Answer the following questions in about 1500 words. Draw necessary diagrams

(2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a. Describe the structure and function of plasma membrane.

(or)

 

  1. Identify and explain the different phases of mitotic division.

 

  1. a. Give a detailed account on the structure and chemistry of cell wall.

 

(or)

 

  1. Elucidate the various theories on the organization of shoot apices.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology April 2006 Cytogenetics And Plant Breeding Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

IB 8

FOURTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                      PB 4500 – CYTOGENETICS AND PLANT BREEDING

(Also equivalent to PBB 506)

 

 

Date & Time : 27-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part – A

Answer the following questions:                                                                    (20 marks)

I Choose the best answer                                                                                (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. The primary component of plant cell wall is
  2. Pectin b. Lignin          c. Cellulose      d. Hemicellulose

 

  1. Flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa is the best example for
  2. Incomplete dominance b. Co-dominance         c. Lethal genes    d. Epistasis

 

  1. The initial amino acid in prokaryotic protein biosynthesis is
  2. Methionine b. Formylmethionine   c. Glycine        d. Phenylalanine

 

  1. Raphano brassica is an example for
  2. Haploid b. Diploid        c. Amphidiploid          d. Tetraploid

 

  1. Which one of the following is not involved in emasculation
  2. Scissors b. Hot water    c. Ethanol        d. Acid

 

II State whether the following statements are true or false                            (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Mitochondria help in the respiration process.
  2. Lethal genes are not expressed in homozygous condition.
  3. The basic unit of a gene responsible for mutation is cistron.
  4. Acrydine dye induces frame shift mutation.
  5. ICRISAT is located at New Delhi.

 

III Complete the following                                                                             (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Crossing over occurs during the ————- stage of meiosis.
  2. Quantitative inheritance is influenced by —————– genes and ————–.
  3. Chromosomal proteins are ——– and —————.
  4. Thymine dimerization is caused due to ————-.
  5. Selection method in vegetatively propagated plants is known as ————–.

 

IV Answer the following within 50 words each.                                           (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Comment on cell theory
  2. Write notes on codominance.
  3. Define splicing.
  4. What is transversion?
  5. What are centres of origin?

 

 

Part – B

 

Answer any FIVE of the following not exceeding 350 words each. (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Explain the ultra structure of chloroplast.
  2. Describe chromosomal methods of sex determination.
  3. Write an account of cytoplasmic inheritance in Mirabilis.
  4. Enumerate the properties of genetic code.
  5. Explain the mechanism of transcription process.
  6. Give an account of the lac operon model.
  7. Write notes on DNA repair mechanism.
  8. Differentiate mass and pure line selection.

 

Part – C

 

 

Answer the following not exceeding 1500 words each.                    (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. (a). Draw neatly labelled diagrams of meiotic stages with footnotes.

Or

(b). Write an essay on multiple alleles.

 

  1. (a) Describe the variations caused due to chromosomal abnormalities.

Or

(b) Write detailed notes on hybridization techniques.

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Principles Of Horticulture Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

       B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 02

FIRST SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         PB 1504 – PRINCIPLES OF HORTICULTURE

 

 

Date & Time : 03-11-2006/1.00-4.00           Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

Part A

 

Answer All questions                                                                                (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the Correct Answer :               ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. The method of growing plants in nutrient solution is called
  2. a) aeroponics b) hydroponics                        c) geoponics                d) agriculture.
  3. Pick the odd one out.
  4. a) Rose b) Jasmine                   c) Chrysanthemum      d) Cauliflower
  5. Which of the following is suitable for water garden
  6. a) Nelumbo                        b) Nerium                    c) Nyctanthus               d) Cereus
  7. Which of the following requires transplantation
  8. a) Cucumber b) Brinjal                     c) Melon                      d) Pepper
  9. Defoliation is commonly practiced in
  10. a) Jasmine b) Chrysanthemum      c) Rose                        d) Petunia

 

II State whether the following statements are True or False :      ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Sesbania crop is used as green manure.
  2. 2,4 – D is used for root initiation.
  3. Ipomea is used for arches.
  4. Defoliation is practiced in Rose.
  5. The leading exporter of cut flowers is Holland.

 

III. Complete the following :                                                                   ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Botanical Survey of India in Tamil Nadu is located at ________
  2. Plants are hardened at _______.
  3. Cactus and Euphorbia are suitable for ____ garden.
  4. In India, pruning is done in the month of ________.
  5. _______ is the state flower of Tamil Nadu.

 

 

  1. Answer all, each within 50 words ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. What is Glasshouse?
  2. Mention any two phenolics.
  3. What are Pergolas?
  4. Define Wintering.
  5. What is Ikebana?

 

 

 

 

 

PART B         

              

Answer any five, each within 350 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.                                                                                      ( 5 x 8 = 40 marks)

 

  1. Define plant propagation. Give an account of seed propagation. Add a note on their

merits and demerits..

  1. Give a brief notes on hydroponics.
  2. Define: a. olericulture b. pomology    c. vermiculture d. floriculture
  3. Discuss the importance of carpet beds and flower beds.
  4. Give an account of Rock Gardens.
  5. Elaborate on the various methods for irrigation of garden plants.
  6. Elucidate the methods used in the cultivation of Rosa indica.
  7. Mention the various plants that are used in the preparation of garlands and Bouquets.

 

 

PART C

                         

Answer the following, each within 1500 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.                                                                            ( 2 x 20 = 40 marks)

 

  1. a. i. What are secondary metabolites? Why some angiospermic plants are called as

medicinal plants?

  1. Describe the general classification of vegetable crops.

 

(Or)

 

  1. i. Describe the procedure for the cultivation of plants by pot method. Add a note on

their Dos and Don’t during pot culture.

 

  1. Write notes on manure.

 

  1. a. Discuss in detail about various garden practices.

 

(Or)

 

  1. Bring out the methods and practices for cultivation of Jasmine. Add a note on the

varieties of Jasmine and their uses

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Plant Physiology Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034  B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 10

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         PB 5500 – PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PBB 510)

 

 

Date & Time : 25-10-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part – A

Answer the following                                                                                     (20 marks)

I Choose the best answer                                                                                (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Exchange of gases takes place by the mechanism of
  1. Imbibition b. Endosmosis         c. Diffusion     d. Exosmosis

 

  1. The rate of transpiration increases by the rate of salt uptake. This indicates:
  1. Passive-mass flow b. Passive-ion exchange
  2. Active-carrier concept d. Active-cytochrome pump

 

  1. Accumulation of organic acid in CAM plants is
  1. Oxalo acetic acid b. Phospho enol pyruvic acid
  2. Malic acid d. Fumaric acid

 

  1. The site of glycolysis is
  1. Cytoplasm b. Mitochondrial membrane
  2. Mitochondrial matrix d. Mitochondrial cristae

 

  1. Vernalization refers to the ——— treatment
  1. Cold b. Heat c. Acid                        d. Alkali

 

II State whether the following statements are true or false                            (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Aquaporins are proteins that transport water.
  2. Potassium is essential for auxin synthesis.
  3. Kranz anatomy is seen in C3 plants.
  4. Leg haemoglobin is synthesized only by legume roots.
  5. Biologically active form of phytochrome is Pfr.

 

III Complete the following                                                                             (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Movement of water within a cell is known as ———————.
  2. Standard nutrient solution used in hydroponics is ——————.
  3. Glycolate is produced in ————– pathway.
  4. Prosthetic group of nitrite reductase is —————-.
  5. GA3 was discovered in the fungus ————- ————-.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IV Answer the following not exceeding 50 words each.                               (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Distinguish between apoplast and symplast.
  2. What are trace elements?
  3. What is Law of limiting factors?
  4. Mention the importance of nitrate reductase.
  5. Expand LDP and SDP.

Part – B

 

Answer any FIVE of the following not exceeding 350 words each.      (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. How water potential is determined?
  2. Describe the mechanism of stomatal movement.
  3. Explain the transport phenomenon of organic solutes in plants.
  4. Illustrate only the reactions of C3 cycle.
  5. Describe the biochemistry of nitrogen fixation.
  6. Write notes on the synthesis of amino acids.
  7. Give the physiological roles of cytokinins.
  8. Enumerate the reasons for seed dormancy. List the methods to break it.

 

Part – C

Answer the following not exceeding 1500 words each.                    (2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. (a) Explain the theories on the active absorption of minerals.

 

Or

 

(b) Describe the various events in the light reactions.

 

  1. (a) Give a schematic representation only of Kreb’s cycle and oxidative electron

transport chain. Add note on its energy budget.

 

Or

 

(b) Write an essay on the effect of salinity on crop plants.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Plant DIVersity – I (Algol., Mycol. & Bryology) Question Paper PDF Download

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                      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 01

FIRST SEMESTER – NOV 2006

                          PB 1502 – PLANT DIVERSITY – I (ALGOL., MYCOL. & BRYOLOGY)

 

 

Date & Time : 01-11-2006/1.00-4.00      Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

Part A

 

Answer all the questions                                                                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. ­­Microscopic free-floating forms are called
  2. a) planktons b) benthos c) epilimnous   d) hypolimnous
  3. Match A) Coenobium B) Cell division C) Coenocyte  d) Cystocarp  with
  4. i) Cyclotella ii) Polysiphonia  iii) Volvox  iv) Vaucheria
  5. a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
  6. c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
  7. Statement A: In Puccinia, the life cycle involves Wheat and Barberry

Statement B: Uredinal stage is seen in Wheat plant

  1. Statement A is correct, but statement B is incorrect
  2. Statement A is incorrect, but statement B is correct
  3. Both statements A and B are correct
  4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
  1. Which of the following is used in the production of antibiotic
  2. a) Neurospora b) Peziza c) Colletotrichum         d) Penicillium 
  3. The female sex organ of bryophytes is known as
  4. a) antheridium b) carpogonium c) archegonium                        d) oogonium

 

  1. State whether the following are True or False (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. Laminarin and mannitol are the chief food reserve products of chrysophycophyta.
  2. Anabaena species exibits isogamous type of sexual reproduction.
  3. The cell wall of all fungi is made up of chitin and cellulose.
  4. Colletotrichum is an obligate parasite.
  5. The antheridium of Anthoceros is embedded in the gametophyte.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                   (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. In algal lifecycles, if both haplophase and diplophase are equally represented, the type of lifecycle is said to be ______ or ______ cycle.
  2. In ________ the types of spores within the cystocarp are said to be ________.
  3. Budding is a common method of reproduction in ______ _______
  4. Red rot of sugar cane of caused by _________ ________.
  5. The members of Anthoceratopsida are called ______ because of the presence of horn-like ______.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in about 50 words (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Write down any two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
  2. What is a coenobium?
  3. Define an obligate saprophyte with an example.
  4. What are crustose lichens?
  5. Describe the archegonium of

 

 

Part B

 

Answer any five of the following in about 350 words. Draw necessary diagrams.

(5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Write down the general characteristics of algae. Add a note on special habitats of algae.
  2. Describe asexual reproduction in
  3. Give a schematic representation only of the lifecycle of
  4. Discuss in brief about the economic importance of Fungi.
  5. Briefly explain about the life cycle of Albugo.
  6. Write notes on the structure and reproduction of Neurospora.
  7. Enumerate the salient features of Bryopsida.
  8. Give an account on the structure of gametophyte in Marchantia.

Part C

 

Answer the following questions in about 1500 words. Draw necessary diagrams

(2 x 20 = 40)

  1. a) What is isomorphic alternation of generations? Explain this term with reference to the lifecycle of Ectocarpus.

 

(or)

 

  1. Write short notes on :
  2. salient features of Pyrrophycophyta ii. Cell structure in Cyclotella

iii. Biofertilizers                                   iv. Antheridium of Bryophytes.

 

  1. a) Explain in detail about the lifecycle of Puccinia graminis.

 

(or)

 

  1. Describe the gametophyte and sporophyte of Funaria.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Plant Bio-Chemistry Question Paper PDF Download

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                        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 08

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PB 5403 – PLANT BIO-CHEMISTRY

 

 

Date & Time : 06-11-2006/9.00-12.00  Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

Part A                                           (20 marks)

Answer All questions

 

I Choose the Correct Answer                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Solution having pH 6 is …….
  2. acidic b. highly acidic            c. alkaline                    d. highly alkaline.
  3. Which of the following one belongs to ketone group.
  4. Dihydroxyacetone b. Glucose       c. Pentose        d. Fructose
  5. Mention the amino acid having symmetric α – carbon.
  6. Glycine b. Serine          c. Methionine              d. Cystine
  7. Pick the odd one out.
  8. Fats b. Waxes         c. Glycolipids              d. Terpenoids
  9. Nomenclature of an enzyme is assigned with …… numbers.
  10. 1                       b. 2                  c. 3                  d. 4

 

 

II State whether the following statements are  True or False    ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. The pH of the blood higher than the normal condition is called alkalosis.
  2. Polysaccharides are sweet in taste.
  3. Globular proteins are soluble in water.
  4. Saturated fatty acids do not contain double bond.
  5. Enzyme with organic molecule is called coenzyme.

III. Complete the following                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. The working principle of a colorimeter is based on …. and ……… law.
  2. Covalent linkage between monomers of a polysaccharide is called ……….
  3. The R group in Glycine is …..
  4. Competitive inhibitor for succinic acid is …..
  5. Fatty acids with one double bond are known as …………

 

  1. Answer all, each in about 50 words ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)
  2. Expand SDS – PAGE.
  3. What is inulin?
  4. Mention any two aromatic amino acids.
  5. What is lecithin?
    20. Define V- max.

 

 

PART B                       ( 5 x 8 = 40 marks)

 

Answer any five, each within 350 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

 

  1. Define biomolecule. Describe the structure of an atom.
  2. What is a bond? Explain ionic, covalent, coordinate and glycosidic bond.
  3. Describe the classification of amino acids.
  4. Write notes on sucrose and maltose in plants.
  5. Give an account of classification of proteins.
  6. Define holoenzymes. Explain the various factors affecting the enzyme activity.
  7. Explain the types of secondary metabolites. Add a note on their significances.
  8. What is Michalies – Menton constant? Explain the enzyme kinetics and Km value .

 

PART C                       ( 2 x 20 = 40 marks)

 

Answer the following, each within 1500 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

 

  1. a) Explain the working principle and design of any four-biochemical techniques.

 

Or

 

  1. b) Write an essay on general classification, structure and properties of carbohydrates.

 

  1. a) Describe the various structure of a protein. Enumerate the biological role of

peptides.

 

Or

 

  1. b) Give an account of:
  2.   classification of lipids and fatty acids. ( 12 marks)
  3. oxidation of fatty acids.. (8 marks)

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Microbial Technology Question Paper PDF Download

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                      LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 06

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         PB 5400 – MICROBIAL TECHNOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PBB 400)

 

 

Date & Time : 03-11-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

 

Answer all the questions                                                                     (20 marks)

 

  1. Choose the correct answer (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. ­­_____ is used both as a carbon source and nitrogen source
  2. a) Sucrose b) Molassus
  3. c) Whey d) Soybean meal
  4. Beer production does not involve
  5. a) carbonation b) distillation c) filtration                   d) clarification
  6. Auxotrophic mutants of yeast are used in the production of
  7. a) Hepatitis B vaccine b) Erythopoietin c) Interferon α             d) Insulin
  8. Which of the following is used in the production of acetic acid?
  9. a) Glucanobacter b) Aspergillus c) Bacillus                    d) Penicillium
  10. Azotobacter is used in the production of
  11. a) biopesticide b) biofertilizer c) biosorban                d) biopolymer

 

  1. State whether the following are True or False (5 x 1 = 5 )

 

  1. Biosensors are used for online monitoring.
  2. The protein content of Spirulina is 80%.
  3. Streptomycin is a peptide containing antibiotic.
  4. Xylanase can be used in bleaching of paper.
  5. Mycorrhizae help to increase the uptake of phosphorus.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                   (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Turbulance in a fermentor is controlled using ________.
  2. Hops is the female cone of _________ _________.
  3. CNBr is used to cleave the peptide at ________ residues.
  4. Glucanobacter is used for the production of __________________.
  5. Dextran is produced using ______.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in about 50 words (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Define cellular yield coefficient.
  2. What is yogurt?
  3. Mention any four microbes used in production of Riboflavin.
  4. What is aspartame?
  5. Define gasohols.

 

 

Part B

 

Answer any five of the following each in about 350 words. Draw necessary diagrams.

(5 x 8 = 40)

  1. Give an account of the range of products obtained from microbe-based industries.
  2. Write notes on the carbon sources used in formulating media.
  3. Elaborate the steps involved in beer production.
  4. Briefly discuss about the production of Spirulina and its importance.
  5. Give an account of bioconversion.
  6. List out the various industrially important enzymes, their sources and applications.
  7. Explain the steps involved in production of citric acid.
  8. What are biopolymers? Explain the source and uses of any four

 

Part C

 

Answer the following questions in about 1500 words. Draw necessary diagrams

(2 x 20 = 40)

 

  1. a) Elucidate the structure and functioning of a typical fermentor. List out the salient features of an

ideal fermentor.

 

(or)

 

  1. Give a detailed account of cheese production. Add a note on their types.

 

  1. a) Explain: a) Production of Penicillin      b) Production of Hepatitis B vaccine.

 

(or)

 

  1. What are biofertilizers? Give a detailed account of the types of biofertilizers and their applications.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Medical Microbiology Question Paper PDF Download

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                     LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 07

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PB 5401 – MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY

(Also equivalent to PBB 401)

 

 

Date & Time : 03-11-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Section-A     (20 marks)

Answer all questions

  1. Choose the correct answer:            (5×1=5 marks)

 

  1. Match A. Jenner B. Koch C. Widal D. Calmette with
  2. Typhoid ii. Variola   iii. TB   iv. Cholera
  3. A-i, B-iv,  C-iii,    D-I                        b. A-ii,   B-i,    C-iv,    D-iii
  4. A-ii, B-iv,  C-i,      D-iii                      d. A-ii,   B-iii,  C-iv,    D-i
  5. Statement A: Griseofulvin is obtained from penicillium.

Statement B:  It is an antibacterial antibiotic.

  1. Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect
  2. Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct
  3. Both A and B are correct
  4. Both A and B are incorrect
  5. The most prominent resident flora of eye is :
  6. Corynebacterium xerosis b. Vibrio cholera
  7. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. E.coli
  8. Histoplasmoses is caused by a :
  9. virus                  b. bacterium                c. actinomycete                       d. fungus
  10. Quinine is associated with
  11. rabies                b. syphilis                    c. malaria                                 d. tetanus

 

  1. State whether True or False. (5×1=5 marks)

 

  1. Sterilization involves the destruction of all forms of microbial life.
  2. The term ‘chemotherapy’ was coined by Lister.
  3. Intact skin is a good example of internal defense mechanism.
  4. Chicken pox is caused by varicella zoster virus.
  5. Tetanus is a communicable disease.

 

III. Complete the following :                                                                       (5×1=5 marks)

 

  1. Application of _________ radiation to sterilize biological materials is called ______

stenlization.

  1. ________ __________ tests are used to test the susceptibility of pathogens to drugs.
  2. ______ of ________ refers to the route taken by pathogenic microbes to gain

entrance to hosts.

  1. ________ _________ refers to fungal, infections which affect deeper systems of our

body.

  1. Typhus fever is an example of ________ _______ disease.

 

 

  1. Answer the following each within 50 words. (5×1=5 marks)

 

  1. Enumerate any four characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial chemical agent.
  2. Mention the source and mode of action of Nystatin.
  3. What is relative immunity?
  4. Write down any two symptoms of Hepatitis.
  5. Name any two genera which cause dermatophytic infection in man.

 

Section-B

 

Answer any five questions, each within 350 words.                                (5×8=40 marks)

 

  1. Compare the efficiency of moist heat and dry heat. Add a note on osmotic pressure

used  to control microbes.

  1. Write about the mode of action of sulphonamides.
  2. Discuss any one antigen-antibody reaction along with its applications.
  3. Explain the morphological, cultural, physiological and antigenic characters of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  4. Write about the disease cycle of malaria.
  5. Expand the following with a footnote each :
  6. Eto        ii. PABA         iii. TPCF          iv. DPT
  7. Distinguish between :
  8. Bactericidal and Bacteriostatic agent
  9. Penicillin and Streptomycin (source)

iii. Endemic and Pandemic disease

  1. Tetanus and Rabies (causal organism)
  2. Define the following :
  3. Fumigation       ii. Chemotherapy         iii. Transient Flora       iv. Amoebiasis

 

Section-C

 

Answer the following, each within 1500 words only.                           (2×20=40 marks)

 

  1. a. Give an account of control of microbes by dry heat, radiation, phenols and heavy

metals.

or

  1. Discus the causal organism, symptoms, treatment and control of cholera.
  2. a. Compare and contrast Syphilis and Gonorrhoea..

or

  1. Write short notes on
  2. Gaseous chemosterilizers                   ii. Properties of Antibiotics

iii. Endotoxin                                          iv. Dermatophytoses

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Herbal And Ethanobotany Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034  B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 11

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         PB 5503 – HERBAL AND ETHANOBOTANY

(Also equivalent to PBB 513)

 

 

Date & Time : 27-10-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

Part A

 

Answer all questions                                                                           (20 Marks)

 

  1. Choose the best answer (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. One of the following is not a pure chemical entity owing to its definite melting point and uniform constitution.
  2. Starch b. Cellulose c. Lignin          d. Alkaloids
  3. _____ means the addition of an inferior or a spurious material to any article to defraud .
  4. Deterioration b. Admixture c. Sophistication          d. Substitution
  5. Who systematised Unani medicine?
  6. Theophrastus b. Hippocrates c. S K Jain    d. E P Janaki Ammal
  7. Extract of _____ is used in the preparation of hair oils.
  8. Eclipta alba b. Coriandrum sativum
  9. Phyllanthus amarus d. Ocimum sanctum
  10. Sitz bath is also known as
  11. Oat bath b. Lavender bath    c. Hydrotherapy bath    d. Hip bath

 

  1. State whether the following are true or false (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Tribes always wish to live in harmony with nature.
  2. Crystallisation of herbal constituents preceeds microextraction and microfiltration.
  3. Siddha system of medicine is otherwise referred to as Hindu medicine.
  4. Comfrey goo is a herbal oil.
  5. Curative principles for Jaundice are extracted from Phyllanthus amarus.

 

III. Complete the following                                                                (5 x 1 = 5)

 

  1. Drug colour names are standardised and determined by ______ charts.
  2. _______ are some selected plants considered by tribes as sacred and are used in worship of God or Deity.
  3. ______ is the pioneering ethnobotanist of Botanical Survey of India.
  4. ______ is the alkaloid of Adathoda vasica widely used as an expectorant.
  5. ______ involve the exclusive use of glycerin in the place of honey to sweeten the drugs.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Answer the following in one or two sentences (5 x 1 = 5)

 

Write notes on the following:

  1. Materia Medica
  2. Stas – Otto process
  3. Baram or Charam
  4. Tincture
  5. Vincristin and Vinblastin

 

Part B

 

Answer any five of the following, each not exceeding 350 words.  (5 x 8 = 40)

 

  1. Bring out the important conditions towards drug adulteration.
  2. Comment on the strategies of conservation of medicinal plants by tribes.
  3. Discuss in general Intellectual Property Rights (IPR).
  4. Explain the methodology of ethnobotanical research.
  5. Write short note on the tribal attitude towards disease diagnosis and treatment.
  6. Comment on the importance of ethnobotany in India.
  7. How to collect, dry and to store herbs?
  8. With suitable diagrams, describe any one of the following in organoleptic terms.
  9. Andrographis paniculata b. Datura metel

 

 

Part C

 

Answer the following, each not exceeding 1500 words.                   (2 x 20 = 40)

 

29 a. Write an essay on organoleptic evaluation of drugs.

(OR)

  1. Describe the importance of ethnobotany in Indian systems of medicine.

30 a. Write down the methodologies of extraction of phytopharmaceuticals

(OR)

  1. Describe the preparatory procedures of the following herbal preparations.
  2. Compresses or Fomentations   ii. Elixirs   iii. Herbal Teas     iv. Salves

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Genetics And Plant Breeding Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AE 13

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PB 5506 – GENETICS AND PLANT BREEDING

 

 

Date & Time : 01-11-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

 

Part A                                           (20 marks)

Answer All questions

 

I Choose the Correct Answer                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

01.The nucleic acid was first isolated from the nuclei of pus cells by

  1. Freidrich Miesher b. W.T. Astbury
  2. Wilkins d. F.G. Banting

 

  1. The partial expression of both alleles in a heterozygote so that the phenotype is

intermediate between those of the two homozygotes is

  1. dominance b. incomplete dominance
  2. pleotropism d. independent assortment

 

  1. Genetic code determines
  2. constancy of morphological traits b. structural pattern of organism
  3. sequence of aminoacids in a protein sequence of nucleotides in a protein

 

  1. Which of the following represents Klinefelters syndrome ?
  2. XX b. XO              c. XYY           d.  XXY

 

  1. Mutation was proposed as a theory for the operative mechanism of evolution by
  2. Charles Darwin b.  Louis Pasteur
  3. Francisco Redi d.  Hugo de Vries

 

II State whether the following statements are  True or False    ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. Individuals with a dominant lethal gene die before they can reproduce.
  2. The sequence of nucleotide bases in the mRNA is complementary to the template

DNA strand.

  1. The regulatory gene of trp operon constitutively synthesizes a non- functional protein

called co- repressor.

  1. Down syndrome is the result of twenty first chromosome present in three doses.
  2. The cross between the parents belonging to two different species of the same genus

is called intraspecific hybridization.

 

 

 

 

III. Complete the following                                                                     ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

  1. The condition in which one member of an allelic pair is manifested to the exclusion

of  the other——————-.

12     ________ enzymes are capable of catalyzing phosphodiester bond formation.

13    The __________ gene  marks the site at which transcription of mRNA  starts.

14     The second correction system  for correcting the occasional error missed by the

editing function is called _______ repair.

15     The use and disuse principle of evolution was proposed by _______.

 

  1. Answer all, each in about 50 words ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

 

  1. Define codominance.
  2. Distinguish between A DNA and Z DNA.
  3. What is poly A tail ?.
  4. Write the mode of action of alkylating agents.
  5. What is pureline selection ?.

 

PART B                                     ( 5 x 8 = 40 marks)

Answer any five, each within 350 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

 

  1. What is quantitative inheritance? Briefly explain this with suitable example.
  2. Describe the structure and organization of a gene.
  3. Explain the structural organization of a chromosome.
  4. Write a brief note on the features of genetic code.
  5. Give a brief account on common defects in DNA and their origins.
  6. What is klinefelter’s syndrome ?. Add a note on its symptoms and related findings.
  7. Define mass selection. Briefly describe the procedure of mass selection and discuss

its merits and demerits.

  1. Give a brief account of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.

 

 

PART C                                    ( 2 x 20 = 40 marks)

 

Answer the following, each within 1500 words only. Draw diagrams and flowcharts wherever necessary.

 

  1. (a) Write an essay on sex determination in plants.

OR

(b)  i. Give an account of supercoiling of DNA.

  1. Discuss :    ‘DNA is the genetic material’.

 

  1. (a) Describe the following with suitable examples.
  2. Genetic recombination using tetrad analysis.
  3. Transposable elements in plants.

OR

(b)  Write an essay on different types of chromosomal aberrations.

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Plant Biology and Biotechnology Nov 2006 Biostatistics Question Paper PDF Download

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                        LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PLANT BIOLOGY & BIOTECHNOLOGY

AB 07

THIRD SEMESTER – NOV 2006

ST 3201 – BIOSTATISTICS

 

 

Date & Time : 31-10-2006/9.00-12.00   Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

SECTION A

Answer all questions.                                                                        (10×2=20)

  1. What is a histogram? Mention its use.
  2. Comment on the following statement: “Arithmetic mean is always the best measure of central tendency”.
  3. Give the various measures of dispersion.
  4. What is the probability of getting the sum as 5 when two dice are thrown?
  5. The distribution function of a random variable ‘X’ is as follows:

X:        -1         0          1

P[X=x]:       ¼         ½         ¼ .  Find E(X+2).

  1. Give any two properties of normal distribution.
  2. Define ‘Statistic’. Give an example for the same.
  3. From a random sample of 50 observations the mean and variance are found to be 10.1 and 2.3 respectively. Based on the above information can it be concluded that the population mean is 9 ? Test at 5% level.
  4. Mention any one use of F – distribution.
  5. Show that for a standardized random variable, the mean and variance are zero and one respectively.

 

SECTION B

Answer any five questions.                                                         (5×8=40)

 

  1. Calculate mean, median and mode from the following data:

Marks: 10-19   20-29   30-39   40-49   50-59   60-69   70-79

           No. of students:   8         19        29        36        25        13         4     

  1. The Serum – cholesterol levels (mg/dL) of 10 patients are given below:                                                                                 195,145,205,159,244,166,250,236,192,224. Draw a box – plot for the above data and interpret it.
  2. A problem in statistics is given to 3 students P, Q and R whose chances of solving it are 1/3,1/4 and 2/5 respectively. What is the probability that ) exactly one will solve the problem b.) no one will solve the problem?
  3. If the height of 300 students is normally distributed with mean 68 inches and standard deviation 2.5 inches, how many students have height: ) greater than 72 inches           b.) less than 60 inches                                      c.) between 65 and 71 inches.
  4. Consider a population with N=6 units, the values being 12,14,10,14,15,12. Select all possible samples of size 2 and verify whether the sample mean is an unbiased estimator for the population mean.
  5. What are ‘large sample tests’? Explain any one test procedure based on large samples.
  6. Suppose a study to examine the relative efficacy of pencillin and spectinomycin in the treatment of gonorrhea is conducted. Three treatments are looked at (1) pencillin, (2) spectinomycin, low dose and (3) spectinomycin, high dose. Three responses are recorded: (1) positive smear, (2) negative smear, positive culture and (3) negative smear, negative culture. The data obtained is given below:

                                                                         Response

Treatment            + smear      – smear, + culture      – smear, – culture

                     Pencillin                  40                     30                              130

                     Sceptinomycin        10                     20                               70

                     (low dose)

                     Sceptinomycin        15                     40                               45

                     (high dose)

                 Test whether there is any relationship between the type of treatment and

the response at 5% level.

 

  1. Explain the procedure for testing a specified value of Population median.

 

                                                           SECTION C

      Answer any two questions.                                                         (2×20=40)

  

  1. a.) Find mean deviation about mean and median and their coefficients

from the following data:

X: 10         17         20           24              14

f:  5           12        18           12               3

b.) Assume that a factory has two machines. Past records show that

machine 1 produces 30% of the items of the output and machine 2

produces 70% of the items. Further 5% of the items produced by

machine 1 were defective and only 1% produced by machine 2

were defective. If a defective item is drawn at random, what is the

probability that it was produced by a.) machine 1  b.) machine 2 ?

(12+8)

  1. a.) If 20% of the bolts produced by a machine are defective, determine

the probability that out of 4 bolts chosen at random i.) one  ii.) none

will be defective.

b.) A typist in a company commits the following number of mistakes per

page in typing 432 pages:

Mistakes per page:      0       1        2        3        4

No. of pages:     223    142     48     15       4

Fit a Poisson distribution to the above data and test the goodness of fit

at 5% level.

c.) Define the following terms:

i.) random experiment   ii.) sample space   iii.) event.         (4+12+4)

 

  1. a.) In a random sample of 800 people from city A, 220 were found

having typhoid while in a random sample of 600 people from

city B 145 were having typhoid. Test at 5% level whether the

proportion of people suffering from typhoid in the two cities are

equal.

b.) Below are given the gains in weights(lb.) of lions fed on two diets

X and Y respectively:

Diet X: 25       32        30        32        24        14        32

Diet Y:            24        34        22        30        42        31        40        30                                32        35

Test, at 5% level, whether the mean gain in weight between the two

diets is significant.                                                                    (8+12)

 

22 a.) Let M be the median lung capacity in liters for males. Use the

Wilcoxon statistic with the following 17 observations to test, at 5%

level, the null hypothesis H0: M = 4.7 against a two sided alternative

hypothesis:

4.3     5.0       5.7       6.2       4.8       4.7       5.6       5.2       3.7                     4.0     5.6       6.8       4.9            7.6       5.4       3.8       5.6

b.) Explain the following:

i.) Random Variable

ii.) Addition theorem of probability

iii.) Percentiles

iv.) Type 1 Error.                                                                     (10+10)

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Physics Nov 2006 Prop.Of Mat.& Thermal Physics Question Paper PDF Download

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                   LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PHYSICS

AC 01

FIRST SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PH 1500 – PROP.OF MAT.& THERMAL PHYSICS

(Also equivalent to PHY 500)

 

 

Date & Time : 01-11-2006/1.00-4.00          Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

PART-A

Answer ALL the questions                                                    (10×2=20 marks)

 

  1. Two spheres of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are 500 cm apart. Calculate the force of attraction between the masses.
  2. What is geometrical moment of inertia in bending of beams?
  3. Give the SI unit and dimensions of coefficient of viscosity.
  4. What is critical velocity of a liquid?
  5. Water wets glass surface, while mercury does not. Why?
  6. Calculate the mean free path of a gas molecule of diameter 3.2 Å. The number of molecules per unit volume is 21.5x 1023 m-3.
  7. What is an intensive variable? Give two examples.
  8. Give the Classius statement of the second law of thermodynamics.
  9. State the law of equipartition of energy.
  10. What is perpetual motion machine of the second kind?

 

PART-B

Answer any FOUR questions                                                 (4×7.5=30 marks )

 

  1. Derive an expression for the variation of acceleration due to gravity with latitude.
  2. a) Derive an expression for the bending moment of a bar.                             (4)
  1. b) Find the energy stored in a wire 5 metre long and 10-3 metre in diameter when it is stretched through 3×10-3 metre by a load. Young’s modulus of the   material is 2×1011  N/m2 .                                                                         (3.5)
  2. a) Obtain Mayer’s formula for the flow of a gas through a capillary tube. (5.5)
  3. b) State any two properties of a good lubricant. (2)
  4. a) Derive Classius- Clapeyron equation for liquid-vapour equilibrium. (5)
  5. b) One kilogram of water at 373K is mixed with 1 kilogram of water at 273K. Estimate the change in entropy. (2.5)
  6. Derive Maxwell’s thermodynamical relations.

 

 

PART-C

Answer any FOUR questions                                                 (4×12.5=50 marks)

  1. a) Derive the relationship between the three elastic moduli and deduce an expression for Poisson’s ratio.                                                                        (7.5)
  2. b) Calculate the Poisson’s ratio for the material whose

Young’s modulus = 12.25X1010 N/m2 and

Rigidity modulus = 4.55 X 1010 N/m2.                                                      (5)

  1. a) Describe with relevant theory the Quincke’s method for the determination of surface tension and angle of contact of mercury. (10)
  2. b) What would be the pressure inside a small air bubble of 10-4 m radius, situated just below the surface of water? Surface tension of water is 70×10-3 N/m and the atmospheric pressure = 1.012×105 N/m2.                                     (2.5)
  3. a) Explain the transport Phenomena. Derive an expression for the coefficient of viscosity of a gas on the basis of the kinetic theory of gases. (10)
  4. b) How does the coefficient of viscosity of gas depend upon temperature and pressure ?                                                                         (2.5)
  5. a) Obtain the Classius inequality relation of thermodynamics (7.5)
  6. b) Derive Ehrenfest’s equation for a second order phase transition. (5)
  7. Explain Joule-Kelvin experiment and inversions curve and obtain an expression for Joule-Kelvin co-efficient.

 

   

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Loyola College B.Sc. Physics Nov 2006 Materials Science Question Paper PDF Download

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                   LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PHYSICS

AC 08

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PH 5402 – MATERIALS SCIENCE

(Also equivalent to PHY 402)

 

 

Date & Time : 01-11-2006/9.00-12.00      Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

PART A

Answer ALL questions:                                                                 10 x 2 = 20 marks

  1. Give  two examples for organic polymers which are used as engineering materials
  2. Explain briefly how the structure influences the property of materials.
  3. State Bragg’s law of X-ray diffraction.
  4. Draw the diagrams corresponding to the Miller indices (100), (111) and (001).
  5. Give the classification of materials on the basis of Poisson’s ratio.
  6. What is meant by true stress and true strain?
  7. List the advantages of SEM.
  8. Outline any one magnetic method of NDT.
  9. Explain the intrinsic breakdown in a dielectric material.
  10. Write the relation connecting the dipole moment density P and the electric field strength E.

PART B

 

Answer any FOUR questions:                                                      4 x 7.5 = 30 marks

  1. Illustrate the concept of stability and metastability using a tilting rectangular block.
  2. What is meant by symmetry operation?  Explain the symmetry elements of a crystalline solid.
  3. What are the essential features of Rubber like elasticity? Obtain the equation of state of the rubbery material.
  4. With neat diagram explain the Ultrasonic method of NDT.
  5. What are ferroelectric materials?  Discuss their properties.

PART C

 

Answer any FOUR questions:                                                    4 x 12.5 = 50 marks

  1. Discuss the formation of ionic bond in Sodium Chloride crystal.  Hence obtain the expression for the potential energy of the system.
  2. With neat sketch describe the powder method of XRD to determine the crystal structure.
  3. Discuss the atomic model of elastic behavior with necessary figures and derive the relations connecting y, γ, μ and κ.
  4. Draw a schematic diagram of an Electron Microscope and explain its working.
  5. Explain different types of Polarization and derive the expression for the total polarization of a material.

 

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Physics Nov 2006 Atomic & Nuclear Physics Question Paper PDF Download

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LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034                                   B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PHYSICS

AC 09

FIFTH SEMESTER – NOV 2006

PH 5500 – ATOMIC & NUCLEAR PHYSICS

(Also equivalent to PHY 507)

 

 

Date & Time : 25-10-2006/9.00-12.00     Dept. No.                                                Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

 

PART – A

Answer ALL questions.                                                                     (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)

  1. Define excitation potential and ionization potential of an atom.
  2. What is Paschen-Back effect?
  3. State Mosley’s law.
  4. Describe how a photo-multiplier tube functions.
  5. Explain parity of nuclei.
  6. Define nuclear fission with example.
  7. What is chain reaction?
  8. What are pair production and annihilation?
  9. What are cosmic rays?
  10. Define range of alpha-particle.

PART – B

Answer any FOUR questions.                                                           (4 x 7.5 = 30 Marks)

  1. a. Discus the normal Zeeman effect. (4.5)
  2. Calculate the wavelength separation between the two component lines which

are observed in the normal Zeeman effect. The magnetic field used is 0.4    weber/m2;

the specific charge is 1.76×1011 C kg-1 and l = 6000 Å .        (3)

  1. State and explain the laws of photoelectric effect.
  2. Classify nuclei as isotopes, isobars, isotones, isomers, and mirror nuclei – Give examples.
  3. Explain Bohn and Wheeler theory of nuclear fission and estimate the energy released when a neutron breaks into proton and electron.
  4. Explain the latitude, East-West, and altitude effect of cosmic rays.

 

PART – C

Answer any FOUR questions.                                                           (4 x 12.5 = 50 Marks)

  1. a. Describe the construction of Aston’s Mass Spectrograph with necessary theory

and show how it can be used in the detection of isotopes.                (8+4.5)

  1. What are the advantages and limitations of Aston’s Mass Spectrograph? (p.54)
  2. a. Derive Einstein’s photo-electric equation and describe Millikan’s experiment, with theory, to verify the same.
  3. The photoelectric threshold for a metal is 3000 Å. Find the kinetic energy of an electron ejected from it by radiation of wavelength 1200 Å.

(Given: h = 6.62×10-34 Js and c=3×108 ms-1.)                          (9+3.5)

  1. What is nuclear magneton? Describe Rabi’s method to determine nuclear magnetic

moment.

  1. Explain proton-proton and carbon-nitrogen cycle of thermo nuclear fusion.
  2. a. Explain shell model of the nucleus.
  3. Calculate the atomic number of the most stable nucleus for a given mass number A.                                                                                                                              (8+4.5)

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Loyola College B.Sc. Physics Nov 2006 Allied Mathematics For Physics Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034  B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – PHYSICS

AA 03

THIRD SEMESTER – NOV 2006

         MT 3100 – ALLIED MATHEMATICS FOR PHYSICS

(Also equivalent to MAT 100)

 

 

Date & Time : 28-10-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Section A

Answer ALL the questions (10 x 2 =20)

  • Evaluate .
  • Expand and .
  • Prove that .
  • Find when .
  • Find
  • Find
  • Show that, in the curve , the polar subtangent varies as the square of the radius vector.

8)  Find the coefficient of  in the expansion of .

9)  Find the rank of the matrix

10) Mention a relation between binomial and Poisson distribution.

Section B

Answer any FIVE questions (5 x 8 = 40)

11) Find

12) Find

13) If , prove that.

14) If , prove that .

15) Find the slope of the tangent with the initial line for the cardioid

at   q = .

16) Find the inverse of the matrix using Cayley Hamilton

theorem.

17) Show that  .

18)  Suppose on an average one house in 1000 in Telebakkam city needs television

service  during  a  year. If  there  are  2000  houses  in  that  city,  what  is  the

probability  that exactly  5  houses will need  television service during the year.

Section  C

Answer any TWO questions only (2 x 20 = 40)

19) (a) Using Laplace transform solve  when x (0) = 7.5,

x’(0) = -18.5.

(b) Prove that cosh5x = 16cosh5x – 20cosh3x + 5coshx.                         (12+8)

20) (a) Expand cos4q sin3q in terms of sines of multiples of angle.

(b) If  prove that

(8+12)

21) (a) Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix

(b) Find the greatest term in the expansion of when .       (15+5)

 

22) (a) Find the angle of intersection of the cardioid and

.

(b) Eight coins are tossed at a time, for 256 times. Number of heads observed at

each throw is recorded and results are given below.

 

No of heads at a throw 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
frequency 2 6 30 52 67 56 32 10 1

 

What are the theoretical values of mean and standard deviation? Calculate also

the mean and standard deviation of the observed frequencies.                 (10+10)

 

 

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Loyola College B.Sc. Mathematics April 2006 Mathematical Statistics Question Paper PDF Download

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             LOYOLA COLLEGE (AUTONOMOUS), CHENNAI – 600 034

B.Sc. DEGREE EXAMINATION – MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

AC 10

FOURTH SEMESTER – APRIL 2006

                                                 ST 4201 – MATHEMATICAL STATISTICS

(Also equivalent to STA  201)

 

 

Date & Time : 22-04-2006/9.00-12.00         Dept. No.                                                       Max. : 100 Marks

 

 

Part A

Answer all the questions.

  1. Define conditional probability of the event A given that the event B has happened.
  2. If A1 and A2 are independent events with P(A1) = 0.6 and  P(A2) = 0.3, find     P(A1 U A2), and P(A1 U A2c)
  3. State any two properties of a distribution function.
  4. Define the covariance of any two random variables X and Y. What happens when they are independent?
  5. The M.G.F of a random variable is  [(2/3) + (1/3) et]5 . Write the mean and variance.
  6. Define a random sample.
  7. Explain the likelihood function.
  8. Let X have the p.d.f. f(x) =1/3, -1<x<2, zero elsewhere. Find the M.G.F.
  9. Define measures of skewness and kurtosis through moments.
  10. Define a sampling distribution.

 

Part B

Answer any five questions.

  1. Stat and prove Bayes theorem.
  2. Derive the mean and variance of Gamma distribution.
  3. Let the random variables X and Y have the joint pdf

x + y, 0<x<1, 0<y<1

f(x, y) =

0, otherwise.

Find the correlation coefficient.

  1. A bowl contains 16 chips of which 6 are red, 7 are white and 3 are blue. If 4 chips are taken at random and without replacement, find the probability that
  1. All the 4 are red.
  2. None of the 4 is red.
  • There is atleast one of each colour.
  1. State and prove the addition theorem for three events A, B and C. What happens when they are mutually exclusive?
  2. Derive the mgf of Poisson distribution. And hence prove the additive property of the Poisson distribution.
  3. Let X1 and X2 denote a random sample of size 2 from a distribution that is       N(m, s2). Let Y1 = X1 + X2 , Y2 = X1 – X2.  Find the joint pdf of Y1 and Y2 and show that Y1 and Y2 are independent.
  4. Define the cumulative distribution function F(x) of a random variable X and mention the properties of it.

Part C

Answer any two questions.

  1. a) Derive the recurrence relation for the central moments of Binomial distribution. Obtain the first four moments.
  2. b) Show that Binomial distribution tends to poisson distribution under certain conditions.           (10 +10 = 20)
  3. a) Discuss the properties of Normal distribution
  4. b) In a distribution exactly normal, 10.03% of the items are under 25 kilogram weight and 89.97 % of the items are under 70 kilogram weight. What are the mean and standard deviation of the distribution?                                                                                                      (10 +10 = 20)
  5. Let f(x, y) = 8xy, 0<x<y<1; f(x, y) = 0 elsewhere. Find
  6. a) E(Y/X = x),    b). Var( Y/X = x).
  7. b) If X and Y are independent Gamma variates with parameters m and v respectively, show that the variables U = X + Y, Z = X / (X + Y) are independent and that U  is a g( m + v) variate and Z is a b1(m, v) variate.                                                                                      (10 +10 = 20)
  8. a) Derive the pdf of t-distribution.
  9. b) Obtain the Maximum Likelihood Estimators of m and s2 for Normal distribution.         (10 + 10 = 20)

 

 

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