NIFT (Under Graduate)
National Institute of Fashion and Technology
Solver Paper 2020
1. A company employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in 150 days. If only 1/4th of the work has been done in 50 days, then in order to complete the whole work in time, the number of additional workers to be employed was
(a) 300
(b) 200
(c) 100
(d) 600
2. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in and upstream at the rate of 5 km in an hour. What is the speed of the boat in the still water?
(a)
(b) 8 km/h
(c)
(d) 4 km/h
3. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons is 95 kg. The weight of 12th person is 33 kg more than the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of the 12th person is
(a) 128 kg
(b) 97.45 kg
(c) 128.75 kg
(d) 131 kg
4. If a man earns Rs. 2000 for his first 50 h of work in a week and is then paid one and one half times his regular hourly rate for any additional hours, then the hours must he work to make Rs. 2300 in a week is
(a) 4 h
(b) 5 h
(c) 6 h
(d) 7 h
5. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 6 h and pipe B in 8 h. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 h pipe A is closed, then how much time pipe B will take to fill the remaining tank?
6. A builder purchases 25 windows at 25% off the total price of Rs. 120000. If the builder receives an additional discount of Rs. 7500 for the purchase, then the cost of each window is
(a) Rs. 3100
(b) Rs. 3200
(c) Rs. 3300
(d) Rs. 3400
7. x does 1/4 of a job in 6 days, y completes rest of the job in 12 days. Then, x and y could complete the job together in
8. If 90 men can do a certain job in 16 days, working 12 h per day, then that part of that work which can be complete by 70 men in 24 days, working 8 h per day is
(a) 2/3
(b) 5/8
(c) 7/9
(d) 1/3
9. A profit of 12% is made when a mobile phone is sold at Rs. P and there is 4% loss when the phone is sold at Rs. Q. Then Q : P is
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 6 : 7
10. A man purchases some oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 40 and the same quantity at 5 for Rs. 60. If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 50, then find his gain or loss per cent (to the nearest integer).
(a) 31% loss
(b) 32% profit
(c) 34% loss
(d) 31% profit
11. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs. 30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 225
(c) Rs. 240
(d) Rs. 250
12. The portion of a ditch 48 m long, 16.5 m wide and 4 m deep that can be filled with stones and earth available during excavation of a tunnel, cylindrical in shape, of diameter 4 m and length 56 m is (take π = 22/7)
(a) 1/9 part
(b) 1/4 part
(c) 2/9 part
(d) 1/2 part
13. A school group charters three identical buses and occupies 4/5 of the seats. After 1/4 of the passengers leave, the remaining passengers use only two of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the two buses that are now occupied is
(a) 7/10
(b) 9/10
(c) 8/9
(d) 7/9
14. Let x be the smallest number, which when added to 2000 makes the resulting number divisible by 12, 16, 18 and 21. The sum of the digits of x is
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
15. While solving a problem, by mistake, Anita squared a number and then subtracted 25 from it rather than first subtracting 25 from the number and then squaring it. But the got the right answer. What was the given number?
(a) 13
(b) 38
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined
16. P and Q together can do a job in 6 days Q and R can finish the same job in 60/7 days. P started the work and worked for 3 days. Q and R continued for 6 days. Then, the difference of days in which R and P can complete the job, is
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 12
17. Two places P and Q are 162 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and simultaneously another train leaves Q for P. They meet at the end of 6 h. If the former train travels 8 km/h faster than the other, then speed of train from Q is
18. In an examination average marks obtained by the girls of a class is 85 and the average marks obtained by the of the same class is 87. If the girls and boys are in the ratio 4 : 5, then average marks of the whole class (approx.) is closest to
(a) 86.5
(b) 86.1
(c) 85.9
(d) 86.4
19. The price of an antique is reduced by 20% and then this price again reduced by 10%. The total reduction of the price is
(a) 30%
(b) 28%
(c) 25%
(d) 23%
20. The marked price of a tape recorder is Rs. 12600. A festival discount of 5% is allowed on it. Futher for cash payment, a second discount of 2% is given. The cash payment, is to be made for buying it, is
(a) Rs. 11730.60
(b) Rs. 11703.60
(c) Rs. 11073.60
(d) Rs. 11370.60
21. A shopkeeper sold his goods at half the list price and thus lost 20%. If he had sold on the listed price, his gain percentage would be
(a) 20%
(b) 35%
(c) 60%
(d) 72%
22. In a school there were 1554 students and the ratio of the number of the boys and girls was 4 : 3. After few days, 30 girls joined the school but few boys left, as a result the ratio of the boys and girls became 7 : 6. The number of boys who left the school is
(a) 84
(b) 76
(c) 74
(d) 86
23. The number, which can be written in the form of n(n + 1) (n + 2), where n is a natural number, is
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 5
24. If x can finish a job in 4 h and y can finish the same job in 8 h independently, then they together will finish the job in
(a) 160 min
(b) 150 min
(c) 140 min
(d) 120 min
25. In a partnership business, B’s capital was half of A’s. If after 8 months, B withdrew half of his capital and after 2 months more A withdrew one-fourth of his capital, then the profit ratio of A and B will be
(a) 10 : 23
(b) 23 : 10
(c) 5 : 2
(d) 2 : 5
26. A car covers four successive 7 km distances at speeds of 10 km/h, 20 km/h, 30 km/h, 60 km/h, respectively. Its average speed over this distance is
(a) 40 km/h
(b) 20 km/h
(c) 30 km/h
(d) 60 km/h
27. If a hemisphere is melted and four spheres of equal volume are made, then the radius of each sphere will be equal to
(a) 1/4th of the radius of the hemisphere
(b) radius of the hemisphere
(c) 1/2 of the radius of the hemisphere
(d) 1/6th of the radius of the hemisphere
28. The average of six numbers is 3.95. The average of two of them is 3.4, while the average of the other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two numbers is
(a) 4.5
(b) 4.7
(c) 4.6
(d) 4.8
29. If (x3 – y3) : (x2 + xy + y2) = 5 : 1 and (x2 – y2) : (x – y) = 7 : 1, then the ratio 2x : 3y equals
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 4 : 3
30. A manufacturer fixes his selling price at 33% over the cost of production. If cost of production goes up by 12% and manufacturer raises his selling price by 10%, his percentage profit is
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given (underlined) followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.
31. There is no cut and dried formula for success in life.
(a) guaranteed
(b) readymade form
(c) compulsory
(d) undefined
32. Meena is not highly qualified but she has the gift of the gab.
(a) loves to gossip
(b) speaks irrationally
(c) art of speaking
(d) constantly talk out of context
33. Rahul proved to be a fair-weather friend to Abhishek as he refused to support him in hard times.
(a) a selfish friend
(b) a faithful friend
(c) a man of good heart
(d) a man of wisdom
Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.
34.
(a) Enterprenuer
(b) Enterepraneur
(c) Entrapreneur
(d) Entrepreneur
35.
(a) Itinarary
(b) Itenerary
(c) Itinerary
(d) Itinarery
Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.
36.
(a) Conceit
(b) Deceit
(c) Receive
(d) Percieve
37.
(a) Coupious
(b) Cautious
(c) Captious
(d) Capricious
Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form of the given word.
38. Phenomena
(a) Phenomen
(b) Phenomenal
(c) Phenomenon
(d) Phenomenas
39. Strata
(a) Stratum
(b) Stratas
(c) Stratal
(d) Strati
Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form of the given word.
40. Medium
(a) Mediums
(b) Media
(c) Medias
(d) Mediumies
41. Crisis
(a) Crisisess
(b) Crisises
(c) Crisies
(d) Crises
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) in each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.
42. His boss’ criticism left him feeling rather
(a) annoyed
(b) arrogant
(c) embarrassed
(d) awakened
43. He wrote a scathing review of the prize winning novel.
(a) biased
(b) scornful
(c) unbalanced
(d) subjective
44. Even the most careful researcher cannot predict the possible future ramifications of his findings.
(a) consequences
(b) developments
(c) uses
(d) conclusions
45. After he came back from his evening walk, he felt famished.
(a) exhausted
(b) peevish
(c) relaxed
(d) hungry
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.
46. I swam …….. the lake.
(a) in
(b) into
(c) at
(d) on
47. He lives ……. 48, MG Road.
(a) in
(b) at
(c) on
(d) for
48. Nobody …….. that he is innocent.
(a) is believing
(b) believes
(c) believe
(d) believed
49. Mother ……… busy cooking for the guests who are arriving in the evening.
(a) was
(b) has
(c) had been
(d) has been
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word.
50. He has a passion for indigenous
(a) native
(b) foreign
(c) silly
(d) cheap
51. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems faced by the country.
(a) indefinite
(b) vague
(c) idealistic
(d) optimistic
52. That was dauntless
(a) cowardly
(b) secret
(c) subtle
(d) devious
53. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.
(a) advisable
(b) unnecessary
(c) superfluous
(d) optional
Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.
54. Giving undue favours to one’s own kith and kin.
(a) Favouritism
(b) Nepotism
(c) Corruption
(d) Worldliness
55. That cannot be corrected
(a) Invulnerable
(b) Hardened
(c) Incurable
(d) Incorrigible
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE 1
“The history of science is the real history of mankind.” In this striking epigram, a nineteenth century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war.
Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at man’s convenience. Yet, we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by International conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie somewhere else?
56. The sentence “The history of science is the real history of mankind” means
(a) science has given man countless opportunities for improvement.
(b) science and mankind cannot always be divorced.
(c) mankind has progressed as science has developed.
(d) the good and bad uses of science reflect the character of man.
57. The epigram given in the passage highlights
(a) the evolution of science
(b) the real history of man
(c) the contrast between science and civilization
(d) an elusive truth about human nature
58. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science
(a) has made war horrible
(b) is beneficial to man
(c) is what man has made it
(d) has created international conflicts
59. The writer implies that international conflict is the result of
(a) faulty relations between nations
(b) human weaknesses
(c) invention of deadly weapons
(d) progress of science
60. The last sentence of the passage suggests that
(a) civilization could prosper well without scientific inventions.
(b) the trouble lies with human beings themselves.
(c) people have missed opportunities to improve themselves.
(d) the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.
PASSAGE 2
There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying, particularly, the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire for leadership.
Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win, and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recur consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.
61. The expression ‘more than a modicum of truth’ means
(a) nothing but truth
(b) some truth
(c) much truth
(d) more than a small amount of truth
62. In this context, ‘intelligent interpretation of current events’ means
(a) skillful interpretation of events
(b) intellectual outlook on events
(c) appropriate understanding of events
(d) rational explanation of events
63. According to the writer, a study of the famous battles of history would
(a) provide food to modern leaders for reflection.
(b) be beneficial to wise man.
(c) help us understand the art of human warfare.
(d) be more useful than a general knowledge of ancient history.
64. A person who aspires to lead could learn from the history of battles
(a) the qualities and deficiencies of commanders of these battles.
(b) what led the previous leaders win battle.
(c) what made them lose a battle.
(d) the strategies they evolved in course of these battles.
65. A knowledge of history is necessary to interpret current problems because
(a) they may be repetitions of past events.
(b) only then they can be put in a proper context.
(c) they have roots in the past.
(d) they can be contrasted with the past events.
PASSAGE 3
No one knows when or by whom rockets were invented. In all probability the rocket was not suddenly invented but evolved gradually over a long period of time. Perhaps in different parts of the world at the same time. Some historians of rocketry; notably Willy Ley, trace the development of rocket to the 13th century China, a land noted in ancient times for its firework display.
In the year AD 1232, when the Mongols laid siege to the city of Kai-Feng Fu, the capital of Homan province, the Chinese defenders used weapons that were described as ‘arrows of flying fire’.
There is no explicit statement that these arrows were rockets, but some students have concluded that they were because the record does not mention bows or other means of shooting the arrows.
In the same battle, we read the defenders dropped from the walls of the city a kind of bomb described as ‘heaven-shaking thunder’. From these meager references, some students have concluded that the Chinese, by the year 1232, had discovered gun powder and had learned to use it to make explosive bombs as well as propulsive charge for rockets.
66. The passage gives, primarily, a history of
(a) the bravery of the Chinese
(b) the invention of rockets
(c) the attack on China by the Mongols
(d) the battle against the Chinese wall
67. According to this passage, rockets were invented by
(a) Willy Ley
(b) unknown people
(c) the Mongols
(d) the ruler of Honan province
68. According to this passage, rockets were
(a) a gift of God to the Chinese
(b) invented in the twentieth century
(c) invented in AD 1232
(d) developed over many centuries
69. The phrase ‘arrows of flying fire’
(a) means some ancient phenomenon in the skies
(b) refers to lightning and thunder
(c) is another name for rockets
(d) is assumed to refer to rockets
70. The bombs have been referred to as ‘heaven shaking thunder’ because they
(a) contain gunpowder
(b) make thunderous noise
(c) are propelled by rockets
(d) seem to fall from heaven
PASSAGE 4
When we pick up a newspaper, a book or an article we come to our task with certain preconceptions and predispositions. We expect to find a specific piece of information or be presented with an argument or an analysis of something, say, the likelihood of recession in the next six months or the reasons why children can’t read. We probably know a little about the book or article we are reading even before we start. There was, after all, some reason why we chose to read one piece of writing rather than another.
Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us to what the article and its author is actually saying. If, for example, we are used to disagreeing with the author, we may see only what we expect to see and not what is actually there. Day after day in our routine pattern of life we expose ourselves to same newspaper, the same magazine, even books by authors with the same perspectives. In order to reflect on our reading habits and improve our skills we need to break out of this routine, step back and look at what we are doing when we read.
71. According to the author, which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Reader’s preconceptions influence their reading.
(b) Readers have expectations when they read an article or a book.
(c) Readers look for specific information in any of their readings.
(d) Readers assume that everything they read will have new information.
72. Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us because
(a) we may not get the actual ideas of the author.
(b) we will get the actual ideas of the author.
(c) we may disagree with the author.
(d) we will agree with all the ideas of the author.
73. One of the ways to improve our reading habits is to
(a) break the routine by changing the time of reading.
(b) change the types of topics we read.
(c) break the routine of reading the same newspaper.
(d) stop reading for some time and then restart reading.
74. Which quality does the author here advocate, to be a good reader?
(a) Being objective to the ideas of the author.
(b) Having preconceptions and predispositions.
(c) Having continuous routines.
(d) Disagreeing with the author.
75. Which word the passage means ‘viewpoints’?
(a) Preconceptions
(b) Predispositions
(c) Pattern
(d) Perspectives
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following.
Give Answer
(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) If (A) is false but (R) true
76. Assertion (A) India celebrates its Independence day on 15th
Reason (R) India became independent on 15th August, 1947.
77. Assertion (A) Silver is not used to make wires.
Reason (R) Silver is a bad conductor.
78. Assertion (A) In India, people elect their own representatives.
Reason (R) India is a democratic country .
79. Assertion (A) A body weighs less when immersed in water.
Reason (R) Newton’s law explains the above phenomenon.
80. Assertion (A) The steam engine was invented by James Watt.
Reason (R) There was a problem of taking out water from flooded mines.
81. In a certain code language ‘KAMLESH’ is written as ‘GUJLMCO’, then how will ‘NATURAL’ be written in the language?
(a) TCNUPCV
(b) TCOUPVC
(c) TCUOPVC
(d) TCOUVCP
82. The time on the watch is 9 : 15 and the hour hand points towards West. The direction of the minute hand is
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) In the following questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
83. ? : ALKLO :: WOULD : TLRIA
(a) BLOCK
(b) DONOR
(c) CONES
(d) BARGE
84. BEAK : ORNX :: FILM : ?
(a) RUXY
(b) MLIF
(c) SVYZ
(d) URON
85. AB : ZY :: CD : ?
(a) WX
(b) UV
(c) XW
(d) VU
86. Complete the following series by choosing the correct term.
ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?
(a) VWX
(b) GHI
(c) IJK
(d) GKL
87. If WOOD is coded as 23|225|4, then MEET is coded as
(a) 13|5|5|20
(b) 13|10|20
(c) 13|25|20
(d) None of these
88. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetical series.
W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?
(a) Z, V
(b) X, U
(c) Y, U
(d) Y, V
89. City C is to the South of city B and city A is to the North of city C. In which direction city A is located in respect of city B?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) Cannot be determined
90. Surbhi ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is her rank from the last?
(a) 31
(b) 28
(c) 35
(d) 32
91. There are 35 students in a class. Suman ranks third among the girls in the class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the class. No, two students hold the same rank in the class. What is Amit’s rank in the class?
(a) 7th
(b) 5th
(c) 8th
(d) Cannot be determined
92. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
4, 7, 12, 21, 38, ?
(a) 75
(b) 71
(c) 78
(d) 77
93. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
4, 6, 16, 62, 308, ?
(a) 990
(b) 1721
(c) 698
(d) 1846
94. If A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother, then how is A related to D?
(a) Granddaughter
(b) Daughter
(c) Aunt
(d) Father
95. Rajesh is the brother of Ankit. Shano is the sister of Shubham. Ankit is the son of Shano. How is Rajesh related to Shano?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Son
(d) Nephew
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give Answer
(a) if only Assumption I is implicit
(b) if only Assumption II is implicit
(c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit
(d) if both Assumption I and II are implicit
96. Statement The driver of the huge truck pulled the emergency brakes to avoid hitting the auto rickshaw which suddenly came in front of the truck.
Assumptions
(I) The auto rickshaw driver may be able to steer his vehicle away from the oncoming truck.
(II) The truck driver may be able to stop the truck before it hits the auto rickshaw.
97. Statement The doctor warned the patient against any further consumption of alcohol if he desired to get cured from the ailment and live a longer life.
Assumptions
(I) The patient may follow the doctor’s advice and stop consuming alcohol.
(II) The doctor may be able to cure the patient from the ailment if the patient stops consuming alcohol.
98. Statement The Chairman of the company urged all the employees to refrain from making long personal calls during working hours in order to boost productivity.
Assumptions
(I) Majority of the employees may respond positively to the Chairman’s appeal.
(II) Most of the employees may continue to make long personal calls during working hours.
Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) In these questions, identify the diagram that represents the best relationship among classes given below.
99. Women, Sisters and Wives
100. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal
101. Myntra, the popular fashion e-commerce platform is an entity of which company?
(a) Amazon
(b) Flipkart
(c) Snapdeal
(d) Google
102. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?
(a) Allen Solly
(b) Da Milano
(c) Monte Carlo
(d) Steve Madden
103. ‘Carat Lane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India is associated with which brand?
(a) Kalyan
(b) Malabar Gold
(c) Tanishq
(d) PC Jewellers
104. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?
(a) India
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Spain
105. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) New Delhi
(d) Lucknow
106. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of Men’s clothing brand “Wrogn’?
(a) Hritik Roshan
(b) Virat Kohli
(c) Ranveer Singh
(d) Rohit Sharma
107. ‘Your Style, Your Store’ is the tag line of which of the following retail chains?
(a) Lifestyle
(b) Pantaloons
(c) Landmark
(d) Shoppers shop
108. Peter England, one of India’s premium Men’s wear brands, belongs to which group?
(a) Reliance Industries
(b) Aditya Birla Group
(c) Tata Group
(d) Adani Group
109. Nike, a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Japan
(d) Spain
110. Mirabai Chanu is a famous Indian sportsperson of
(a) Hockey
(b) Boxing
(c) Weightlifting
(d) Badminton
111. What type of fabric is Calico?
(a) Silk
(b) Cotton
(c) Linen
(d) Wool
112. Who was won the Australian open Tennis Title 2020 in the men’s category?
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Dominic Thiem
113. Lakme Fashion week winter festive 2019 took place at
(a) Bangaluru
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Pune
114. Which of the following is a West flowing river?
(a) Godavari
(b) Kaveri
(c) Son
(d) Narmada
115. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu
116. Where is the headquarter of World Trade Organization located?
(a) Vienna
(b) Geneva
(c) New York
(d) Philippines
117. Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Great Britain in July 2019?
(a) Theresa May
(b) Tony Blair
(c) Boris Johnson
(d) Bonar Law
118. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
(a) III
(b) IV
(c) IV A
(d) II
119. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to commemorate the return of whom to India?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Rakesh Sharma
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
120. Which of the following Union Territories are recently merged with Daman and Diu?
(a) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
(b) Andaman and Nicobar island
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Chandigarh
121. Which is the first Design School in India?
(a) NID
(b) NIFT
(c) IDC
(d) SID
122. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Rising Sun’?
(a) Norway
(b) Australia
(c) Japan
(d) Mexico
123. The 2024, Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Paris
(c) Los Angles
(d) Shanghai
124. Van Heusen is a leading international brand of
(a) Cars
(b) Bikes
(c) Clothing
(d) Sports accessories
125. Who was awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay award for journalism?
(a) Ravish Kumar
(b) Bhavesh Kumar
(c) Abhisar Sharma
(d) Vinod Dua
CASE 1
Nike used factory scraps and recycled “space waste yarn” to create the Space Hippie sneakers in an experimental project to reduce the carbon impact of its products. Each of the four different designs in the collection – named Space Hippie 01, 02, 03 and 04 – are made from scrap material taken from Nike’s factory floors. Which the brand has named “space junk”, and other recycled materials. The result is the creation of Nike footwear with Nike’s lowest carbon footprint scores ever. Nike said the shoe is a first step towards employing the process of the circular economy, which aims to eliminate waste and pollution from manufacturing. The upper part of Space Hippie is knitted from what Nike calls “space waster yarn”. This is made from 100 per cent recycled material including plastic water bottles, T-shirts and textile scraps.
When combined with other design elements, Nike claims the shoe upper consists of a total of 90 per cent recycled content. It redesigned this lightweight foam in a manner that uses around half the carbon dioxide equivalent as compared to normal Nike foams. The outsole part of each shoe in the Space Hippie collection is built from “crater foam”, made from a mixture of standard Nike foams and 15 per cent recycled waste rubber that has been ground down into granules, which Nike has branded as Nike Grind.
126. Nike has used recycled materials to create the space hippie sneakers for which purpose?
(a) To change its product strategy
(b) To reduce carbon impact
(c) To support waste collectors
(d) To create new designs
127. According to Nike, the space hippie sneakers are the first step towards
(a) A clean environment
(b) A circular economy
(c) A sustainable ecosystem
(d) A new brand to be launched by Nike
128. The outsole part of the Nike sneakers is built from which foam?
(a) Space waste foam
(b) Crater foam
(c) Rubber foam
(d) Junk foam
129. The space waste yarn used by Nike is
(a) waste collected from outer space
(b) waste collected from waste collectors
(c) waste from Nike’s factories
(d) waste from other brands
130. The Recycled waste rubber used by Nike in their sneakers, has been named as
(a) Nike waste
(b) Nike granules
(c) Nike rubber
(d) Nike grind
CASE 2
Swedish fast-fashion major H and M has announced its first global collaboration with celebrated Indian couture and jewellery designer Sabyasachi Mukherjee. The new collection will be sold under the label Wanderlust. The collection will be out on 16th April, 2020. The high-end Indian designer wants to make the designs accessible to a larger set of people, both in India and worldwide.
The Sabyasachi plus H and M collection will be offering clothes for both ladies and men, including accessories and will give a modern twist to its inspiration-Indian textile, craft and history. Taking cues from India’s rich textile, craft and history, the collection mixes modern and traditional silhouettes with a tilt towards athleisure and glamping. A key highlight of this collection will be Indian textile and print traditions made by the Sabyasachi Art Foundation, meticulously crafted, embroidery and multicultural silhouettes. The collection will be available at all H and M stores in India as well as selected H and M flagship stores around the world, and online on HM.com and Myntra.
Sabyasachi has previously collaborated with various international luxury designers and brands such as KarI Lagerfeld, Christian Louboutin, Pottery Barn, Balmain and Versace.
131. Sabyasachi has collaborated with H and M, which is based in which of these countries
(a) Norway
(b) Australia
(c) Sweden
(d) India
132. Under the collaboration of Sabyasachi and H and M, their new product range will be known as
(a) Global star
(b) Cosmos
(c) Korona
(d) Wanderlust
133. The Sabyasachi and H and M collection will offer which of these products
(a) Ladies clothes
(b) Men clothes
(c) Accessories
(d) All of these
134. Apart from HM.com, which other online portal would sell the products of their collaboration?
(a) Flipkart
(b) e-bay
(c) Myntra
(d) Amazon
135. The aim of Sabyasachi and H and M collaboration is
(a) Mixing Indian and Western culture
(b) Showing traditional arts of India
(c) Giving an old glance to its products
(d) Making designs accessible to larger set of people
CASE 3
Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan tied to sustainability targets. Prada has signed a £42.9 million loan with banking group Credit Agricole, with repayment terms conditional to meeting key targets around the sustainability of its products and operations. Prada’s interest payments on the five-year loan will be determined annually based on whether the company has hit three specific objectives.
The first focuses on its physical shops, setting out that a certain number of them need to be certified gold or platinum according to the green-building rating system, Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED). This evaluates everything from the design and construction of a building to its management and the extent to which it uses resources and produces waste. The other targets are related to the amount of training hours given to employees, and reinforce a pledge made by Prada earlier this year which involves phasing out the use of virgin nylon by 2021.
According to Prada’s chief financial officer Alessandra Cozzani, linking more sustainable business practices to concrete financial rewards is an attempt to engrain these values into the very functioning of the company.
This transaction demonstrates that sustainability is a key element for the development of the Prada Group. Beyond substituting nylon, Prada has also gone fur-free, switching to faux fur, although these are often made of plastic.
136. Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan that is tied to its
(a) economic performance
(b) sustainability targets
(c) stocks in markets
(d) None of the above
137. Prada has to design its shops to meet the sustainability targets according to which rating system?
(a) BIS
(b) LEED
(c) ISO
(d) None of the above
138. Prada has promised to phase out virgin nylon by which year?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2025
(d) 2050
139. According to Prada, what is the purpose of linking the sustainable practices to financial rewards?
(a) To save the environment
(b) To achieve the sustainable development
(c) The engrain sustainable values in functioning of the company
(d) To develop Prada Group
140. Apart from substitution of the Nylon, Prada has also eliminated which of the following elements from its processes?
(a) Wool
(b) Cotton
(c) Plastic
(d) Fur
Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions, a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and secede upon its degree of truth or falsity.
(a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it directly follows from the facts given the passage.
(b) If the inference is probably true i.e. though not definitely true in the light of facts given
(c) If the inference is probably false i.e. though not definitely false in the light of facts given
(d) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it contradicts the facts given.
CASELET 1
In India, the proportion of women in paid work is among the lowest in the world, at just over 23% – a figure which contrasts sharply with the corresponding rate of over 78% for men. Opportunities for women to enter employment in the country are limited by a range of factors. These include a dominant tradition of female domestic responsibility, and a prevailing social patriarchy.
Deeply entrenched cultural expectations mean that women are more likely to stay at home. And when they do work, it is mainly on an informal basis, without the luxury of secured wages and contracts.
Against this backdrop, the idea of female entrepreneurship in India faces major challenges. Setting up a business can require significant efforts outside of normal work times, and can lead to women being perceived as irresponsible if they dedicate time to entrepreneurial activities.
But the scenario is still changing. Improved access to social media, education, and social enterprises are all contributing to change.
These are giving momentum to the aspirations of women entrepreneurs in India. Their stories will hopefully inspire women entrepreneurs from around the world, while encouraging policy makers to create avenues that support their aspirations.
141. In India, the proportion of women in paid work is just 23% as compared to 78% for men.
142. The women have low participation rate in paid work as they do not have necessary skill set.
143. A large number of women are employed in the informal sector of the economy that do not provide regular wages.
CASELET 2
In the wake of the recent brutal murder of a young woman in Hyderabad, much of the public discourse on the subject has been confined to outrage, policing, punishment and tougher laws. All this sound and fury suggest that few really want to address the basic flaws in our culture that breed male violence against women.
Holding up a mirror to ourselves can be a painful exercise as it is safer to vent against the government of the day, lack of law enforcement personnel and unutilized budget allocations for women’s safety programmes.
Deep-rooted social prejudice against women reflects in India’s adverse sex ratio, particularly in the age group 0-6. Families prefer boys: female foetus are selectively aborted, infant girls allowed to die. An official campaign of the government has been addressing this most violent form of discrimination against the female sex.
However, other egregious forms of discrimination that push women to a subordinate role in society and train men to see themselves as entitled to favourable treatment fail to get addressed. Only rigorous democratization of society can bring about sustainable improvement in the conditions of women. The sooner we realize this, the better.
144. There has been a critical discussion on the issues that affect women in the country.
145. Families prefer a boy child over a girl child and discriminate against the women.
146. The problems of women can be addressed when they get truly represented in the society.
147. There are basic flaws in the culture and society of India that are only responsible for perpetuating male violence.
CASELET 3
In the decade between 2005 and 2016, India lifted 27 crore people out of extreme poverty-more than the combined population of Congo, Uganda, Iraq, Venezuela, Australia and Italy. India more than doubled its per capita GDP moving up from being a poor country to a middle-income one. An average Indian now earns slightly more than Rs. 10,500 a month, up from around Rs. 4,000 in 2005. The numbers are flattering but deceiving. More than 36 crore Indians still cannot afford three square meals a day, which is why the World Bank continues to bracket India with Nicaragua, Honduras, Kenya and Kiribati. On an average, even people in war-torn Libya and sanctions-plagued Cuba continue to earn more than Indians.
There is another worry line for India. The Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative, which annually publishes the most authoritative index of poverty across the world, has found that the poorest among India’s poor did not increase their income as much as the other sections did. It means that the gap between the poor and the rich is widening fast. The last time the government appointed an expert committee to estimate poverty in India was seven years ago. The committee, headed by former Reserve Bank of India Governor C. Rangarajan submitted its report but the report has neither been rejected nor been released, which means that economists in India still baser their research largely on data that date back to 2012.
148. India has been able to lift almost 27 crore people out of extreme poverty.
149. India’s average per capita income has increased in the decade 2005-2016 because of reduction in its population.
150. The gap between poor and rich is widening fast because of reducing income of the poor.