SNAP Examination 2017 Held on December 17, 2017
General Awareness
1. The Ex-German Chancellor who was credited with Germany unification died in 2017.
(a) Gerhard Schroeder
(b) Angela Merkel
(c) Helmut Schmidt
(d) Helmut Kohl
2. Which of the following was detected in the year 2016 by scientists?
(a) Magnetic wave
(b) Levitational wave
(c) Electric wave
(d) Gravitational wave
3. e-Nivaran is a new facility launched by government of India. What is its purpose?
(a) To help the farmers to avail easy loans
(b) To help the RTI petitions
(c) To submit and track Income Tax grievances
(d) To get help for health related issues
4. The technology that shares the limelight of Bitcoin by providing technological support to the said Bitcoin is called?
(a) Blockcurrency
(b) Blcokcash
(c) Block chain
(d) Blockcipher
5. Who won the Hridayanath Mangeshkar award in 2016?
(a) Vishwanathan Anand
(b) Amir Khan
(c) Javed Akhtar
(d) Salman Khan
6. The last person to ‘walk the Moon’ passed away this year. He was
(a) Buzz Aldrin
(b) Neil Armstrong
(c) Yuri Gagrin
(d) Eugene Cernan
7. In January, 2017 ………… banned FM Broadcasting.
(a) France
(b) Sweden
(c) Denmark
(d) Norway
8. Columbia’s Juan Manuel Santos won the 2016 Nobel Prize for peace. What was his contribution that was recognized?
(a) For his efforts to bring an end to the exploitation of agricultural labourers
(b) For his efforts to end the country’s civil war
(c) For his efforts to bring peace between latin American countries
(d) For his efforts to eradicate the use of land mines in war
9. Which is India’s longest tunnel?
(a) Chennai-Nashri tunnel
(b) Jawahar tunnel
(c) Zoji-La tunnel
(d) Banihal-Nashri tunnel
10. How many Men’s Single Wimbledon titles does Roger Federer have to his name including the 2017 title?
(a) 9
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 6
11. Sweden based furniture maker IKEA acquired this online (and mobile) market place for finding freelance labour to carry out local on demand day-to-day tasks.
(a) Handy Man
(b) Urban Clap
(c) Man Friday
(d) Task Rabbit
12. Which of the following personalities is a member of the committee of administrations of Indian Cricket during October, 2017?
(a) Anjum Chopra
(b) Sonika Kaliraman
(c) Diana Eduji
(d) Mithaly Raj
13. The Flipkart backed startup is into a social network platform exclusively for new parents.
(a) Newparents
(b) Post9Months
(c) Tiny Step
(d) Baby Step
14. Who are the last two (present and the immediate past) Attorney Generals?
(a) Goolam Vahanvati and Milon Banerji
(b) KK venugopal and Goolam Vahanvati
(c) Mukul Rohatgi and Milon Banerji
(d) KK Venugopal and Mukul Rohatgi
15. Walmart acquired Men’s fashion retailer ……. for $310 million in 2017.
(a) GAP
(b) BONOBOS
(c) ZARA
(d) BEBE
16. Which of the following is the cyclone that his India in December, 2016?
(a) Eona
(b) Nada
(c) Gloria
(d) Ockhi
17. The RP-Sanjiv Goenka Group has roped in …….. as the brand ambassador for its package snacking brand ……… on a bid to scale up its FMCG business.
(a) MS Dhoni, E-Vita
(b) Virender Singh, Yummee
(c) PV Sindhu, Hungree
(d) Virat Kohli, Too Yumm
18. Identify the leading business personality in the picture.
(a) Alice Vaidyan-CMD General Insurance Company
(b) Aarthi Subramanian-Exec. Director (Global Head-DEGC) TCS
(c) Kaku Nakhate President and Country Head Bank of America Merill Lynch
(d) Chitra Ramakrishna, MD & CEO National Stock Exchange
19. The Eurasia Tunnel that was opened for traffic in December, 2016 connecting Europe and Asia passes underneath the
(a) Bosphorus strait
(b) Dover strait
(c) Bering strait
(d) Hormuz strait
20. What was the name of the mascot in the recently concluded Asian Athletic Championship 2017 held at Bhubaneshwar?
(a) Shera
(b) Coby
(c) Olly
(d) Vinicious
21. One of Olympics longest official sponsors recently ended its 41 years long sponsorship. This organization was
(a) Pepsi
(b) General Motors
(c) Adidas
(d) McDonalds
22. On February 15, 2017, ISRO made history by launching 104 satellites through a single rocket. What was the rocket?
(a) PSLV 3104
(b) GSLV-IRS-P3
(c) PSLV-C37
(d) GSLV-C38
23. In the world of Information Technology, SMAC has become very popular. What does the A stand for in the abbreviation?
(a) Advanced
(b) Analytics
(c) Analysis
(d) Artificial intelligence
24. Who owns the recently launched New Channel called Republic TV?
(a) Anil Ambani
(b) Subramaniam Swami
(c) Rajeev Chandrashekhar
(d) Arnab Goswami
25. In a move that will reverberate from Hollywood and Silicon Valley to TVs and smartphones around the world, the ……. said Thursday (December 14, 2017) that it had reached a deal to buy most of the the empire controlled by ………., in an all-stock transaction valued at approximately
(a) Walt Disney Company, 20th Century Fox, Rupert Murdoch, $70 billion
(b) Paramount Pictures, 20th Century Fox, Rupert Murdoch, $50 billion
(c) Walt Disney Company, 21st Century Fox, Rupert Murdoch, $50 billion
(d) Paramount Pictures, 21st Century Fox, Rupert Murdoch, $70 billion
26. The language creator who constructed artificial language ‘Dothraki’ for the television series Game of Thrones is
(a) David Henchman
(b) David Peterson
(c) Robert Peterson
(d) Robert Henchman
27. The Human organ was discovered in 2017 in our digestive system.
(a) Mesentery
(b) Lacteal
(c) Enterocyte
(d) Ileocecal valve
28. This comic book company was acquired by Netflix in 2017.
(a) Millarworld
(b) DC comics
(c) Marvel
(d) Doton
29. The country was recently boycotted by a majority of its neighbours.
(a) Oman
(b) Qatar
(c) Bahrain
(d) Kuwait
30. In January, 2017, Japan launched its first ever military communications satellite. It was called
(a) Fuji-1
(b) Kirameki-2
(c) Suzuki-1
(d) Takahiro-2
Section B Analytical And Logical Reasoning
31. What is the missing number?
2691 3870 ? 9108
(a) 1629
(b) 9018
(c) 5823
(d) 7830
32. Four women P, Q, R, S and three men X, Y, Z play bridge, a cared game for four players.
The men and women consist of three married couples and a widow. The members of each married couple are never partners in a game.
No more than one married couple ever plays in the same bridge game. One night they played four bridge games in which partners were as follows :
Game 1 : P and X versus Q and Y
Game 2 : P and Z versus S and Y
Game 3 : Q and R versus Y and Z
Game 4 : R and X versus S and Z
Who is the widow?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) R
(d) Q
33. David pans a small tea eState in Assam, all of which is shared by him with Rahul and his friends. Rahul has a share of 3/5th of it and his friend Santosh has twice as much as John, who is also a close friend of Rahul. What fraction of the land belongs to John?
(a) 2/15
(b) 2/5
(c) 2/10
(d) Cannot be determined
34. What numbers should replace the questions marks?
(a) 31 and 4
(b) 49 and 21
(c) 29 and 2
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct.
35. Study the rules employed in the following example and answer the question.
Input : from 22 61 tea India East 55 74
Step I East from 22 61 tea India 55 74
Step II East 74 from 22 61 tea India 55
Step III East 74 tea from 22 61 India 55
Step IV East 74 tea 61 from 22 India 55
Step V East 74 tea 61 India from 22 55
Step VI East 74 tea 61 India 55 from 22
Identify the input if the result of Step II of an input is
Money 56 to 11 66 people notes 24
(a) Money 56 to 155 66 people notes 24
(b) To 15 Money 56 66 people notes 24
(c) To 15 66 Money people notes 24 56
(d) Cannot be determined
36. Golu, the farmer is desperate to make some money by selling his livestock. He has many animals and has a unique set of customer requirements. The customers do not want to buy animals with disabilities or strange features. Mr Golu has a Stock of animals which include Monkeys with two tails, Sheep with six legs, cows with two udders, horses with two right hooves and chicken with two toes on each foot. Which animals will he be able to sell?
(a) Horse
(b) Cow
(c) Monkey
(d) He will not be able to sell any animal.
37. Which of the following is the greatest?
(I) log (2 + 4) (II) (log 2 + log 4)
(III) log(6 – 3) (IV) log 6 – log 3
(a) Only III
(b) Only IV
(c) Only II
(d) Both I and II
38. In a village located in remote part of the world 5% of the population have a birth defect and hence have only one leg, and half of the others go barefoot as they never wear shoes. What is the least number of shoes needed in the village if the total population is 10000?
(a) 5000
(b) 4750
(c) 9500
(d) 10000
39. At 12 : 00 noon, my watch was correct. However, it then started to lose 18 minutes per hour. Four hours ago, it stopped completely and is now showing the time as 15 : 30. What is the correct time?
(a) 17 : 00
(b) 21 : 00
(c) 20 : 33
(d) 19 : 00
40. 3182596 is to 65283 and 6742835 is to 53476, therefore 7496258 is to ……….?
(a) 98765
(b) 76574
(c) 65987
(d) 85647
41. If 645 = 10 and 316 = 12, then 765 = ?
(a) 18
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 210
42. A villager places a map of his farm in a gram panchayat meeting for resolving his dispute. He places the map in a way that South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West The Sarpanch is confused. His assistant comes to help and turns the anti-clockwise by 90°. If the Sarpanch has to see the South side in the map, which side will he look?
(a) North
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) West
43. A, B and C played some card games. Each game had exactly one winner. No player won 2 game in succession. When a player was the dealer for a game he/she did not win the game.
The dealer position proceeded from A to B to C, then this order was repeated until they stopped.
The only player to win more than 2 games did not win the first game.
Who was the only player to win more than 2 games?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined
44. There are several aspirants who are made to sit in single row for an entrance examination. Rajesh is fifteenth from the left and Mohan is eight from the right end. If there are four aspirants between them and Mohan is to the right of Rajesh, then the total number of aspirants sitting in the row are ……… .
(a) 26
(b) 28
(c) 27
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
45. Study the following information and answer the question.
In a recent performance approval done by Company X, more than 70% of the employees were found to be underperforming.
‘I think that the restructuring done by the company in the previous year is responsible for the under-performance of the employees’-HR manager of company X.
Which of the following Statements weakens the Statement of HR Manager of Company X?
(a) The incentives linked to performance were abolished upon restructuring creating dissatisfaction among employees.
(b) After restructuring the decision making power was taken away from employees thus delaying the work by long hours.
(c) The number of projects in Company X increased by 60% this year thereby increasing the burden on the existing employees this year.
(d) After restructuring the employees were required to report to multiple bosses leading to ambiguity at the work place.
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-500 Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row I-J, K, L, M, N and O are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of facing South. In row 2-U, V, W, X, Y and are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of then are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
M sits fourth to the left of J. The one facing J sits third to the left of Y. Only one person sits between Y and U. U does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The one facing Z sits second to the right of K. Z does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between K and O. The one facing K sits second to the left of X. V is not an immediate neighbour of Z. L is not immediate neighbour of M.
46. Which of the following groups of people represents the people sitting at extreme ends of both the rows?
(a) M, O, X, W
(b) M, K, V, W
(c) N, K, V, Y
(d) J, N, U, V
47. Who amongst the following faces V?
(a) M
(b) L
(c) J
(d) N
48. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(a) K faces one of the immediate neighbours of X.
(b) V sits exactly between W and U.
(c) None of the given options is true
(d) J is an immediate neighbour of K
(e) J faces Z.
49. Which of the following is true regarding N?
(a) K sits second to right of N.
(b) V is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces N.
(c) Both L and O are immediate neighbours of N.
(d) Only one person sits between N and J.
50. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the person who faces L?
(a) V
(b) Z
(c) W
(d) U
(e) Y
51. If ‘4’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is added to each even digit in the number 9476582, which of the following numbers will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
(a) Only 2
(b) Both 1 and 7
(c) Both 3 and 5
(d) None
52. Read the given information and answer the question. The government of State D was recently criticised for accepting a proposal as per which schools in the State will not conduct exams up the standard nine. Rather, schools will promote all the students up to standard nine and from standard nine onwards the students would either be passed or failed depending upon their marks in the exams.
Which of the following may not be reason for the criticism of the government of State D for accepting the proposal?
(a) Several parents have raised concern that students would not be willing to pay attention in class and retain the information because they do not have to write exams.
(b) Students learn to write exam papers in a stipulated period of time with practice of solving exam papers over the y ears and many students may not be able to grasp this directly in the standard nine.
(c) Many teachers are of the opinion that students have become very competitive and are mainly focused on acquiring marks rather than gaining knowledge.
(d) Studies suggest that students become less prone to exam anxiety and exam fear when they get used to passing exams over the years as compared to when they do not appear for an exam at all.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Study the following information and answer the question.
Seven friends, namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V visit seven different countries namely Japan, Germany, China, India, Nepal, Australia and Malaysia, not necessarily in the same order, starting from Monday to Sunday (of the same week).
R visits on Thursday. Only two people visit between R and the one who visits Germany. Only four people visit between the one who visits Germany and V. The one who visits Malaysia visits immediately before V. Only two people visit between the one who visits Malaysia and P. S visits on one of the days after the one who visits Malaysia.
U visit immediately after the one who visit Japan. U does not visit Malaysia. Only three people visit between the one who visits Japan and the one who visits Nepal. The one who visits Australia visits immediately before the one who visits China. Q does not visit on Monday.
53. Which of the following countries does Q visit?
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Japan
(d) Nepal
54. On which of the following days does U visit a country?
(a) Friday
(b) Saturday
(c) Sunday
(d) Wednesday
55. Which of the following is true about T?
(a) T visits immediately before P
(b) T visits of Friday
(c) T visits China
(d) All the given options are true
56. Who amongst the following visits India?
(a) S
(b) T
(c) P
(d) G
57. As per the given arrangement, P is related to the one who visits Japan in a certain way and V is related to the one who visits Nepal in the same way. To which of the following is R related to in the same way?
(a) The one who visits Australia
(b) The one who visits China
(c) The one visits India
(d) the one who visits Malaysia
58. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) U-Friday
(b) Q-Thursday
(c) S-Saturday
(d) V-Sunday
(e) T-Tuesday
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-62) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 58 opium verdict 96 elderly 15
Step I opium 23 kinetic amount 64 nature 71 verdict 96 elderly 15 58
Step II elderly opium 23 kinetic amount nature 71 verdict 96 15 58 64
Step III amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71 verdict 15 58 64 96
Step IV 15 amount elderly opium 23 kinetic nature 71 58 64 96 verdict
Step V 23 15 amount elderly opium kinetic 71 58 64 96 verdict nature
Step VI 71 23 15 amount elderly opium 58 6 4 96 verdict nature kinetic
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement and as he intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input adverb 59 36 salient 81 idioms bakery 14 launch 47 umpire 62
59. Which elements come exactly between ’59’ and ‘bakery’ in Step II of the given input?
(a) Only launch
(b) Only 62
(c) Only idioms
(d) Both 81 and salient
60. Which of the following combination represents the first two and the last two element of the step VI of the given input?
(a) 81, 59, launch, bakery
(b) 81, 62, salient, launch
(c) 50, 47, bakery, salient
(d) 62, 14, idioms, umpire
61. If in the step III, ‘idioms’ interchanges its position with ‘81’ and ‘salient’ also interchanges its position with ‘14’, then which element will be third to the left of ‘47’?
(a) 14
(b) salient
(c) adverb
(d) idioms
62. Which step are the elements ‘bakery launch 47 14’ found in the same order?
(a) Sixth
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) The given order of elements is not found in any step
63. The question consist of information and two Statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide which of the given Statements weakens or strengthens the information and decide the appropriate answer.
Information Due to increased cases o kidnapping in its vicinity, school M has made it compulsory for parents or guardians of the students to give a duly signed authority letter to the person picking up the students from school.
(I) Most working parents rely on their domestic help, for picking up their children from school, who can easily coerced into forging or misusing the authority letter for monetary plans.
(II) There is no photograph on the authority letter making it difficult to identify the person who comes to pick up the child.
(a) both Statement I and Statement II strengthen the information.
(b) Statements I strengthens the information while Statement II weaken the information.
(c) Both Statements I and II weaken the information.
(d) Both Statements I and II are neutral are neutral Statements.
64. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PAINTED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word in both forward and backward directions, as there are between them in the English alphabetical series?
(a) More than three
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None
Directions (Q. Nos. 65-69) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language, ‘urban people prefer cars’ is written as ‘ve fm ab eg’ ‘profit for urban areas’ is written as ‘ab ep zi so’ ‘people demand for hike’ is written as ‘zi qr cd ve’ ‘hike in profit margin’ is written as ‘al jn ep cd’ (All codes are two letter codes only)
65. What will be the possible code for ‘urban food demand’ in the given code language?
(a) qr ab zi
(b) qr cr ab
(c) nj qr cd
(d) qr ab jn
66. What is the code for areas in the given code language?
(a) ab
(b) zi
(c) ep
(d) qr
67. What does the code ‘jn’ stand for in the given code language?
(a) either ‘hike’ or ‘people’
(b) either ‘in’ or ‘maring’
(c) profit
(d) hike
68. In the given code language, if ‘small’ is coded as ‘wy’, then who will ‘prefer small cars’ be coded as?
(a) wy eg ab
(b) fm ve wy
(c) eg wy fm
(d) a beg fm
69. What will be the code the ‘hike’ in the given code language?
(a) xl
(b) zi
(c) qr
(d) other than those given as options
70. Read the given information and answer the question. Long term usage of antibiotics causes the disease ‘Cretosis’ as it decreases the secretion of hormone X. While body can endure the level of hormone X dropping to half the required number of micrograms in levels dropping to 23-micrograms needs immediate medical attention.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given Statement?
(a) A patient can be said to have Cretosis only if his/her hormone ‘X’ levels are 23 micrograms or low.
(b) Usage of antibiotics on a short term cannot cause ‘Cretosis’ ever to a minor extent.
(c) All micrograms is exactly half of the amount of hormone X required daily by the body.
(d) In a patient with hormone X level of 21 microgram, if administrated another 23 micrograms would bring the level to absolute normal.
Section C General English
71. Give synonym for
Artless
(a) Pretentious
(b) Innocent
(c) Devious
(d) Hypocritical
72. Choose a word from the given alternative which is Opposite in meaning to the word
HIATUS
(a) Sardonic
(b) Pessimist
(c) Sentimental
(d) Continuation
73. Choose the right meaning of the idiom.
A pyrrhic victory
(a) A victory that is not worth winning
(b) Joyous victory
(c) Undeserving victory
(d) None of the mentioned options
74. Choose the correct based on the sentence.
Akhil fared poorly in the entrance test. He found it.
(a) Fathomable
(b) Esoteric
(c) Manifest
(d) Coherent
75. Choose the one word from the options given, that can fit in to all sentences.
(1) You should not …….. to his demands.
(2) Ravi needed a loan. However, he did not ………… to the loan agreement.
(3) The State will ……….. to the union.
(4) The Prince will ….. to the throne.
(a) Accede
(b) Precede
(c) Recede
(d) Secede
76. Choose the correct word(s) for the underlined word(s). You cannot trust a person who plays false and loose with others.
(a) fastloose
(b) false or loose
(c) fast or loose
(d) fast and loose
77. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase.
The team of doctors sent to the village to investigate the epidemic were exasperated. The conditions there were ‘a perfect storm’.
(a) Torrential rains
(b) A worst possible scenario
(c) A wonderful situation
(d) A risky proposition
78. Choose the correct meaning of the phrase.
When playing the Clarinet, Jerry is ‘all thumbs’.
(a) Perfunctory
(b) Dancing
(c) An expert
(d) Clumsy
79. Identify the Compound Relative Adverb in the sentence.
I do not know the venue where the match will be played.
(a) will be
(b) where
(c) know
(d) played
80. Choose one word from the options given, that can fit in to all sentences.
(1) I cannot ……… this principled man.
(2) These religious songs will ……… you.
(3) Better suppress than ………… you desires.
(4) Only delicious food can ………. my hunger.
(a) Gratify
(b) Edify
(c) Occupy
(d) Glorify
81. Select the pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that convivial : jocund
(a) lyrical : prosaic
(b) umbrage : happiness
(c) timid : brave
(d) folly : silliness
82. Rearrange the sentences to make it a readable paragraph.
(1) There is a difference between foreign equity stakes and that of domestic promoters.
(2) Apart from it, many other differences exist.
(3) The hike in the former was important as a signal.
(4) These have to be treated at different levels.
(5) A similar signal is not required in respect of domestic industry.
(a) 15234
(b) 14352
(c) 23145
(d) 43215
83. Find a correct match of grammatical function with the usage of the word REBEL.
(a) A – (i); B – (iii); C – (ii); D – (iv)
(b) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (iii); D – (i)
(c) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (ii); D – (iv)
(d) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (ii)
84. Choose a word from the given alternatives which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘Sable’.
(a) Ebony
(b) Chromatic
(c) Swarthy
(d) Raven
85. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive voice. Who ate the last piece?
(a) The last piece was eaten by who?
(b) Who was eating the last piece?
(c) The last piece who ate?
(d) The last piece was eaten by whom?
86. Give antonym for Prevaricate (Antirignous, Deceive)
(a) Gubble
(b) Unambiguous
(c) Equivocate
(d) Tergiversate
87. Give anytonym for ‘Dilatory’
(a) Tardy
(b) Remiss
(c) Indolent
(d) Diligent
88. Rearrange the sentences to make it a readable paragraph.
(1) Rather, it is the consequence of passive public policy.
(2) If follows that the output of economy must grow.
(3) High unemployment is not the inevitable result of the pace of technological change.
(4) This will prevent the unemployment rate from rising.
(5) We can anticipate a moderate increase in labour force, accompanied by a slow decline in the working hours.
(a) 35421
(b) 42351
(c) 24351
(d) 31524
89. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Active voice.
Sugarcane is raised by some people in the Hinterland.
(a) Some people in the Hinterland raised sugarcane.
(b) Sugarcane is raised in the Hinterland by some people.
(c) In the Hinterland is raised sugarcane by some people.
(d) Some people raise sugarcane in the Hinterland.
90. Find a correct match of grammatical function with the usage of the word: Shade
(a) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (i); D – (iii)
(b) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (iii); D – (i)
(c) A – (i); B – (iii); C – (iv); D – (ii)
(d) A – (i); B – (ii); C – (iii); D – (iv)
91. Choose the correct word based on the sentence.
Raj, normally an amicable person, gets towards the unjust.
(a) Affable
(b) Benign
(c) Belligerent
(d) Genial
92. In the following question, choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the word in capital.
She was very ‘Industrious’ by temperament.
(a) Assiduous
(b) Off-the-cuff
(c) Indolent
(d) Apathetic
93. Give anyonym for ‘Fleece’
(a) Satiate
(b) Bilk
(c) Mulct
(d) Rook
94. Give synonym for ‘Perfunctory’
(a) Precise
(b) Conscientious
(c) Deliberate
(d) Negligent
95. Identify the Compound Relative Pronoun in the sentence.
Whosoever diggeth a pit shall fall threin.
(a) therein
(b) fall
(c) diggeth
(d) whosoever
96. Choose the correct word based on the sentence.
Rupert drained all his trust funds. He was a ………. .
(a) Miser
(b) Churl
(c) Scrooge
(d) Wastrel
97. Select the pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in this pair. vacillate : be indecisive
(a) vacuous : empty
(b) vindictive : vague
(c) vigilant : sleepy
(d) vociferous : silent
98. Choose the correct word(s) for the underlined word(S).
If I was you, I would do it at once.
(a) am
(b) should be
(c) would be
(d) were
Directions (Q. Nos. 99-110) Read the following two passage and answer the questions that follow.
Passage I
The first thing to known when talking about privacy in India is that a majority of the population does not always understand what is means. It is at times confused with shame. It’s also confused with the emotion we fell when we do something that does not meet our standards our our sense of what is right. Modern Indian languages do not seem to have an exact word which captures the meaning of privacy; they are usually some variation of the words for isolation, intimacy or secret, once again hinting at a conceptual confusion. This explains the reactions of many who wonder what’s the big deal about privacy because they have nothing to hide from the government anyway. Privacy, however, is not only about hiding something or keeping it secret. It is, at its core, the right to be left alone. It does not mean that one is withdrawing from society. It is an expectation that society will not interfere in the choices made by the person so long as they do not cause harm to others. it means that one’ right to eat whatever one chooses, the right to drink what one chooses, the right to love and marry whom one chooses, to wear what one chooses, among others, are rights which the State cannot interfere with.
In a society, where adults do not necessarily exercise most of the choices of their own free will (either because of family, caste or societal pressures), it is natural that the very concept of privacy seems incomprehensible. If you have grown up in a society where everything is dictated by someone else and the cost of disobedience is high to have the freedom to choose what you, will in such important matters sounds like fantasy. But it is also a common misconception that the non-well-off in India do not know or care about privacy. Millions of men and women push back daily against the oppressive hold of their families and communities and fight for the freedom to make their own choices. They may not have the right word for it, but they are creating space for themselves to exercise the right to privacy.
It is in this context that one must understand the hearings in the Supreme Court on the right to privacy. Although, the nine-judge bench has been constituted to decide whether there is a Fundamental Right to privacy protected under the Constitution in the specific context of the Aadhar case, privacy has many more dimensions than just data protection or surveillance by the State. A Fundamental Right to privacy, enshrined and protected in the Constitution, would mean that all persons have the right to be left alone by the State, unless such intrusion is necessitated by a just, reasonable and fair law.
The nine-judge bench was necessitated in the first place because while multiple judgments have held that there is common law right to privacy (claimed against other individuals and entities); there was doubt as to whether such a right could be claimed against government. Obviously, the Constitution does not use the word ‘privacy’ or we wouldn’t be having these hearings. Where, then, does the right to privacy find a place in the Constitution?
To answer that it is necessary to go deep into what is meant by a Fundamental Right. At their core, such rights can be said to be the line drawn by the Constitution delineating boundaries for the government’s actions. Such boundaries necessarily imply, the petitioners’ counsels have argued, that the Constitution guarantees that individuals have a right to be left alone by the State on matters of individual choice. They have argued that the earlier decisions in MP Sharma Vs Satish Chandra (1954) and Kharak Singh v State of Uttar Pradesh (1962) were rendered relying in a narrow and pedantic interpretation of Fundamental Rights an approach that has been discarded by the Supreme Court since the 1970s.
The Union government has argued that it does not think that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right protected under the Constitution. Attorney General KK Venugopal has argued that while the right to privacy may be protected as common law right or some element of it part of a Fundamental Right, by itself, it could not per se be guaranteed as Fundamental Right. The arguments of the Union government and State government supporting it have been premised on an ‘originalistic’ interpretation of the Constitution – that the framers never intended privacy to b e a Fundamental Right available to citizens. Given the Supreme Court’s recent approach where it has not been hesitant to depart from the narrow interpretation of the Constitution when the situation demands it (such as appointment of judges), perhaps this approach may not find much judicial favour. Far more worrisome is the argument that privacy is only the preserve of the well-off and the elite and protecting it through law and legal institutions may stand in the way of ‘development’ and poverty alleviation. This not only misunderstands what the right to privacy means but underplays its role in allowing individuals to make free choices. It is an argument of a paternalistic and patriarchal State that knows what’s good for you and will not let you make your own choices. It also clashes with the ethos of a limited government enshrined in the Constitution.
A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court holding that the Constitution guarantees a right to privacy will, however, only settle one issue – that there is a right to privacy guaranteed against State intervention. To what extent this right can be claimed and in what circumstances the State may be allowed to intrude will have to be decided on a case by case basis. At most, the court’s judgement may outline the principles on the basis of which judicial review will be carried out, but it cannot be expected to prescribe an answer for every foreseeable situation.
Whatever the final judgement’, the implications will go far beyond just the Aadhar scheme and law. The law laid down by the Supreme Court on privacy could affected the course of development of the law governing reproductive rights, gay rights, beef bans, prohibition, among a host of other issues that the Indian State and society are grappling with.
99. According to the author, what is meant by a Fundamental Right?
(a) Fundamental Rights can be said to be the lines drawn by the Constitution delineating boundaries for the government’s actions
(b) Privacy is not a Fundamental Right
(c) All the mentioned options are correct
(d) Fundamental Right is the preserve of the well-off and the elite
100. The tone of this passage is
(a) social
(b) philosophical
(c) moral
(d) reflective
101. When the author says……… “to have the freedom to choose what you will, in such matters, sounds like fantasy”, he means.
(a) To be able to do what you desire in essential matters is like a dream come true.
(b) You can do what you like and not pay for it.
(c) To care two hoots for somebody.
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct.
102. The rights that the State cannot interfere with are
(a) The right to drink whatever one chooses
(b) The right to wear what one chooses
(c) The right to love and marry whom one chooses
(d) All the mentioned options are correct
103. The author says people usually confuse privacy with
(a) emotion
(b) shame
(c) hatred
(d) despondency
104. The most suitable title for this passage would be
(a) The right to be Left Alone
(b) Only the Elite can Enjoy Privacy
(c) The Constitution
(d) Aadhar Card
Passage II
Poor Elizabeth Beckford. She was 70 years old and her crime was stealing 12lb of Gloucester cheese. For that she could have been hanged. Hundreds did in those violent, vengeful days dancing ‘the Tyburn frisk’ in the words of those who crammed around the gallows to watch this favourite spectator sport of the 18th century. But the State, in its mercy, saved her life – and gave her a punishment that some would see as worse than death. She was an unwilling passenger on a fleet of 11 ships that set out from England in 1787, the first of the convoys of the criminal underclass –as the ruling elite of Georgian England saw them – sent in chains to colonise new and dangerous shores on the other side of the world.
Those 736 sad souls on that pioneering voyage would establish a new world. Though she didn’t know it – and the thought would have given her no consolation as she lay crammed with others in cell-like spaces below decks Elizabeth was a founder member of a new country, Australia.
On Thursday, more than 200 years later, those who made those dreadful voyages – 163000 in all over the years to come –are feted. 21st century Australians celebrate their convict past, taking their lead from premier John Howard, a descendant of transported folk on both sides of his family.
The shipping and court registers of the banished have long lain in the National Archive in London. Now, in the knowledge that two million of us in Britain probably have blood links with Australia’s criminal forebears, they have been put online for the hundreds of thousands of amateur genealogists in this country, eager to find out more about their roots.
The history they hide may not be pleasant. Elizabeth, incredibly, was not the oldest on that first ark of despair. Dorothy Handland, a dealer in rags and old clothes, was 82. How she was expected to contribute to empire-building in a virgin land whose hardships could only be guessed at is a mystery as great as the place she was being sent to.
But nonetheless she was among the wagon-loads of prisoners dragged down to the docks in Portsmouth from the sunless ship hulks at Woolwich where they had been held because the prisons were all full. They were dressed in rags, their faces pale from imprisonment, louse-ridden and thin as rakes from the slops they had been forced to live on.
Alongside the grannies were 120 other women, mostly young, like 22-years-old Elizabeth Powley. Penniless at home in Norfolk she had raided someone’s kitchen for a few shillings’ worth of bacon, flour and raisings and ’24 ounces weight of butter valued 12d’. The death sentence on this starving girl was commuted and, as Robert Hughes, historian of the transportations notes wryly in his book, The Fatal Shore, ‘she was sent to Australia, never to eat butter again’.
At least the youngest of the ‘passengers’, John Hudson, would never be pushed up another chimney. The nine-years old sweep was condemned to seven years’ exile for theft. All on board were small-time criminals whose punishment, by the standards of later generations, in no degree fitted the crime. James Grace, 11, had taken some ribbon and a pair of silk stockings. John Wisehammer, 15, snatched some snuff from a shop counter in Gloucester.
For what, they would never seen home again. The most extraordinary crime was that of William Francis, who stole a book about ‘the flourishing State of the island of Tobago’ from a gentleman in London. If he h ad time to read it before he was caught, perhaps he had an inkling of what now lay ahead of him in a British colony far rawer than the West Indies.
There were no political prisoners, however, no rabble rousing, hay stack burning activists or trade unionists sentenced for their subversive activities, as some of today’s anti-Pom Australians like to think. The women, however, were treated poorly. They arrived at the gangplank of their vessel, the Lady Penrhyn, “in a situation that stamps them with infamy”, according to the officer in command of the expedition, Captain Arthur Philip. He was appalled at their treatment by the magistrates who had sentenced them and the jailers who had held them. Whether he could guarantee them better lives at the end of their non-months voyage was yet to be seen. What they were about to embark on was the longest journey ever attempted by such a large group of people.
Where they were going might as well have been the Moon. Crewmen, let alone convicts, believed they would never seem home or their loved ones again. ‘Oh my God’, wrote one officer of Marines in this journal, “all my hopes are over of seeing my beloved wife and son.”
As for the country they were going to, almost nothing was known except for the promise of Captain James Cook, its discoverer, that this ‘New South Wales’ as he chose to call it, was now British. But, to some observers of the hang ‘em tendency, the thought that the felons might be better of than if they had languished in jail provoked bitter reproach.
105. Why was Dorothy Handland sent to the ‘New World’?
(a) She dealt in rags and old clothes
(b) She was a criminal
(c) She was old
(d) There is no clear reason
106. Who discovered Australia?
(a) John Howard
(b) Arthur Phillip
(c) James Cook
(d) Robert Hughes
107. What was the crime of William Francis?
(a) He stole some snuff
(b) He stole ribbon and silk stockings
(c) He stole a book
(d) He stole 12 lb of butter
108. Lady Penrhyn refers to
(a) a surgeon
(b) a judge
(c) a criminal
(d) a ship
109. On the basis of the passage, why was Australia developed in 1787?
(a) To send ill people to a warmer island
(b) To serve as a penal colony
(c) To employ people
(d) To serve as a military-colony
110. As per the passage, what does the word ‘Pom’ denote?
(a) Aboriginals
(b) Australian
(c) Englishmen
(d) Pomegranate
Section D Quantitative Aptitude
111. Find out next number in the series 2, 7, 17, 34, 60, …… .
(a) 97
(b) 108
(c) 95
(d) 121
112. Kiran, Kumar and Kedar were watching cricket and eating groundnuts. They pop a groundnut in their mouth every 40 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively and munch it. If all of them pop a groundnut simultaneously at 8 : 20 : 00 hours, then at what time will they again pop groundnuts again in their mouth simultaneously?
(a) 8:22:20 hours
(b) 8:27:12 hours
(c) 8:38:00 hours
(d) 8:25:15 hours
113. Find the odd one in the series : 10, 16, 24, 28, 30
(a) 16
(b) 28
(c) 30
(d) 24
114. The probabilities that a student passes in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are m, p and c, respectively. Of these subjects the student has 75% chance of passing in at least one, a 50% chance of passing in at least two and a 40% chance of passing in exactly, two, which of the following relations are true.
(a) p + m + c = 27/20
(b) p + m + c = 13/20
(c) pmc = 1/10
(d) both (a) and (c)
115. Murthy invested Rs 25000 in a mutual fund three years ago. The value of the amount increased by 15% in the first year, it decreased by 15% in the second year and again increased by 10% during the third year. What is the value of investment at the end of the three year period?
(a) 26880
(b) 28890
(c) 27500
(d) 26500
116. Two congruent triangles ∆ABC and ∆DEF each with area 198 placed over each other as shown in the figure. AB is parallel to DE and the centres of both the triangles coincide with each other. The area of region PQRSTU is
(a) 199 cm2
(b) 198 cm2
(c) 132 cm2
(d) Cannot be determined
117. An Olympic size swimming pool requires 6 hours to fill up to the brim when water is supplied simultaneously by three pipes A, B and C.
The pipes start filling at 12 o’clock in the night but if pipe C is shut off at 3 am, the swimming pool fill up to the brim at 7 AM. The swimming pool is drained in the evening. That night, if only pipe C is used to fill up the swimming pool and the filling starts at 12 o’clock in the night, what will be the time in the clock when the swimming pool will be filled up to the brim?
(a) 12 o’clock night
(b) 9 am morning
(c) 6 pm evening
(d) 12 o’clock noon
118. In an international school, 80% of the students known French, 85% know German and 75% known both French and German. If 40 students don’t know both, then find total number of students.
(a) 400
(b) 350
(c) 460
(d) 450
119. The price of an item was increased during festival season by 10%. Later the new price was decreased by 10%. If the latest price is 1000, what was the approximate original price?
(a) 1234.50
(b) 1020.50
(c) 1232.75
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
120. John was writing an entrance test. Every question is as a multiple choice question with four probable answers and one correct answer The probability that he knows the answer is 80%. If he correctly answered a question, then what is the probability that he was guessing?
(a) 1/5
(b) 1/17
(c) 1/27
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
121. In an India-Pakistan 20 over cricket match, Pakistan played first and India had to chase a high score. Rain created havoc and the average number of overs was reduced to 18, India needed 144 runs to win. In the initial 5 overs, the average scoring rate was 6, but in next 5 overs it increased to 8. It then declined to 5 in next 5 overs. Now, what is the average needed by India in the remaining overs to win the match?
(a) 16.33
(b) 13.33
(c) 12.33
(d) 14.33
122. Ravi has three sons and his age is equal to the sum of the ages of his sons. After 12 years his age will be equal to the sum of ages of his eldest two sons. 4 years later, his age will be equal to sum of the age of the oldest and youngest. Again, 4 years after that, his age will be equal to sum of the ages of the two youngest. Find the present age of Ravi and his sons.
(a) 44, 18, 16, 12
(b) 48, 18, 16, 10
(c) 48, 20, 16, 12
(d) 48, 20, 12, 8
123. If logx y = 100 and log3 x = 100, then the value of y is
(a) 3100000
(b) 3100
(c) 31000
(d) 310
124. The population of a state is consistently decreasing due to migration owing lack of opportunities in the State. It has been observed that the population has decreased at a rate of 10% each year in the last few years. If today, the population of the State is 100 million, what will be the population of the State after 3 years?
(a) 83 million
(b) 73 million
(c) 63 million
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
125. In the figure given below, the semi-circle with centre O has diameter AB = 2r. PQRS is a square of maximum possible area. P and Q are lie on the diameter AB. R and S are on the arc of the semi-circle. There are two more squares of maximum possible area EFGP and CDQH. Then RC + FS …….. .
(a) 
(b) 2√2 r/3
(c) √2/5
(d) None of the mentioned options are corerct
126. In the given figure CD = 10 cm. CT is the tangent at C, making an angle of π/4 with CD. O is the centre of the circle. The perimeter of the shaded region is AOC is
(a) 27 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 13 cm
127. In how many ways can we arrange the word CAPSTONE so that all the vowels come together?
(a) 1440
(b) 4320
(c) 2160
(d) 3480
128. The area of minor segment PQ is
(a) 60.14 sq cm
(b) 56.25 sq cm
(c) 59.43 sq cm
(d) 56.76 sq cm
129. A company employs 35 people whose average age is 45 years. The 10 most aged people have an average age that is 20% more than the average of all 35 people in the company. Three new employees of aged 32, 35 and 30 joined the company. Now what is the difference in the average age of the same 10 most aged people and the average age to all the people in the company?
(a) 10 yr
(b) 9 yr
(c) 12 yr
(d) 11 yr
130. On her birthday, Vrinda gets a gift box which contains 6 chocolates and 8 cup cakes. She eats 7 of them randomly. What is the probability that she ate 3 chocolates and 4 cupcakes?
(a) 0.16231 approximately
(b) 0.05655 approximately
(c) 0.40792 approximately
(d) 0.1165 approximately
131. To cross a man running at 9 km/hr in the direction of train, a train takes 40 second and to cross another man running at 6 km/h in same direction it takes 30 seconds. Find the speed of the train.
(a) 20 km/h
(b) 14 km/h
(c) 18 km/h
(d) Cannot be determined
132. A library has 10 copies of book A, 3 copies each of books B and C, 2 copies each of books D, E, F and a single copy of books G and H. The total number of ways in which these books can be arranged on a shell is
(a) (24!)/10! (3!)2 (2!)3
(b) (24!)/(10! (3!)2 (2!)2)
(c) (12!)/(10! (3!)2 (2!)2)
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct
133. What is the value of (p – 1)q+1, if pq = 169 and p and q are whole numbers?
(a) 1728
(b) 2187
(c) 169
(d) 144
134. The population of a city increased by 5%, but decreases by 0.25% each year due to emigration. Find the net increase in percent in 3 years?
(a) 11.24%
(b) 13.23%
(c) 14.93%
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct.
135. How many factors of 28H36H54H105 are multiples of 120?
(a) 660
(b) 540
(c) 594
(d) None of t he mentioned options are correct
136. The remainder obtained when 297 is divided by 97 is
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 97
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct.
137. Out of all the MBA aspirants interviewed, 50% of those who attended the first interview received the call for second interview. 90% of the people who got a call for second interview felt good about their first interview. 80% of people who did not receive a call for second interview also felt good about their first interview. If a person felt good after his/her first interview, what is the probability that he/she will receive a call for the second interview?
(a) Approximately 73%
(b) Approximately 89%
(c) Approximately 53%
(d) Approximately 63%
138. The sum of three numbers is 138. The ratio of first to the second number is 3 : 4 and that of second to the third is 8 : 9. The first number is
(a) 48
(b) 36
(c) 54
(d) 42
139. If A is the set of odd integers less than 50 and B is the set of the squares of integers in A, how many elements does the intersection of A and B contain?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined
140. A Bank lent a certain sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest for 2 years to David. He lent this sum at the same rate of interest but compounded annually for the same period to Pankaj, who has a bad credit history. At the end of two years, David received Rs 2400 as compound interest but paid Rs 2000 only as simple interest. Find the rate of interest.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 30%
(d) None of t he mentioned options are correct.
141. A fish observes a submarine from the bottom of ocean, when the submarine starts moving up vertically. The angle of elevation of the submarine changes from 25° to 60° in 2 minutes. The point of observation of the fish is situated 300 m (displacement) away from the takeoff point. If the submarine is going up in straight line at a constant speed, what is the speed of the submarine? (Here, tan 25° = 0.466)
(a) 4.16 m/sec
(b) 2.22 m/sec
(c) 5.22 m/sec
(d) 3.16 m/sec
142. Gopal is planning to sell two radios. The first radio is marked Rs 200 over and above the cost price and is sold at a discount of 20% on it. The other radio is marked 50% over and above the cost price and sold at discount of Rs 160.
If his profit is 15% on both radios combined and 5% on the first alone, what is the percentage of profit on the second radio?
(a) 25%
(b) 10%
(c) 7%
(d) Cannot be determined
143. A factory has 900 employees, 25% of whom are men. The factory has to hire 200 additional employees to increase production. What percentage of the additional employees hired must be men in order to raise the percentage of men employees in the factory to 35%?
(Assume transgender for his situation).
(a) 70%
(b) 90%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Directions (Q. Nos. 144-145) Following bar-graph shows the number of TV models, M1 and M2 produced by a company in different years and the line-graph shows the percentage of sale of these models in different years.
144. What is the total number of TV models M1 and M2 sold in the year 2005?
(a) 44800
(b) 48840
(c) 48480
(d) 48440
145. What is the ratio of the total number of TVs of model M2 unsold in the y ear 2006 to the total number of TVs of model M2 produced in 2007?
(a) 32 : 47
(b) 41 : 60
(c) 43 : 60
(d) 47 : 60
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) Data in the pie chart describes the population engaged in various occupations in a German city for a year Based on the information answer questions.
146. What percent of wage earners in the city re engaged in Marine Engineering?
(a) 13.6%
(b) 19.6%
(c) 23.6%
(d) 8.6%
147. If the number of persons engaged in painting is 2160, the number of persons engaged as technicians would be
(a) 1456
(b) 3456
(c) 2458
(d) 3458
148. If the total earnings from carpainters is twice that from technicians, the ratio of average wages in these occupations is
(a) 23 : 8
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 16 : 23
(d) 23 : 16
149. If the average earning of a wage earner from painters category was twice that from technicians, the ratio of the total earnings from these occupations is
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 3 : 4
150. If the total number of wage earners increases by 10% and the number of wage earners engaged in carpentry increases by 15% in the next year, the nearest central angle of carpenters the pie chart for that year will be
(a) 120°
(b) 125°
(c) 130°
(d) None of the mentioned options are correct.
then
